CHEMISTRY Examination Booklet Time Allowed: 2 hours and 30 minutes.

Name: ____________________________ _Id.No._________________Section:

Make sure that this booklet contains 50 questions/items. Follow instructions in each section of
the exam. Use the periodic table of the elements, if it is necessary, that are printed at the end of
the examination questions.

1. Which one of the following postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory was INCORRECT according to the modern
atomic theory?
A. All atoms of a given element are identical in mass and in all other properties.
B. Compounds are formed when atoms of more than one element combine.
C. Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions
D. All elements are made up of small particles called atoms.
2. Which of the following statement is FALSE about the discoveries of the fundamental subatomic particles
and the nucleus?
A. J.J. Thomson discovered an electron, a negatively charged particle that is found in all matter.
B. Ernest Rutherford discovered the nucleus, a small, dense and positive bundle of matter.
C. Robert Millikan determined the charge-to-mass ratio of an electron, using the oil drop experiment.
D. James Chadwick discovered the neutrons, an electrically neutral particle of a mass approximately
equal to that of the proton.
3. If two atoms have the same mass number, but different atomic number, which of the following is necessary
TRUE?
A. They must be of atoms of the same element.
B. They must have the same number of protons and neutrons.
C. The number of protons on each atom is the same.
D. The number of neutrons for both atoms is the same.
4. Which of the following is FALSE about the periodic properties of two elements and their accurate
explanations?
A. The atomic size of Ca is greater than Mg because Ca has one more shell than Mg.
B. The atomic size of Si is smaller than Al because the effective nuclear charge of Al is larger than Si.
C. The electronegativity of S is greater than P because the effective nuclear charge of S is larger than
P and S atomic size is smaller than P.
D. The first ionization energy of S is smaller than Al because removing electron from S is easier than
Al as this removes electron repulsions build up in S.

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5. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal is 1.03 × 10 –19 J when light that has
a 656 nm wavelength shines on the surface. Determine the wavelength corresponding to the threshold
frequency for this metal. (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, and c = 3.00 ×1010 cm/s)
A. 993 nm C. 658 nm
B. 844 nm D. 350 nm
6. Which one of the following is TRUE about quantum numbers?
A. The principal quantum number (n) describes the energy of the orbitals in which the lower its value,
the greater is the energy.
B. The subsidiary quantum number (l) describes the orientation of the orbitals and its values range from
0 to (n – 1).
C. The magnetic quantum number (ml) describes the shape of orbitals and its values range from –l
through 0 to +l.
D. The spin quantum number (ms) describes the electron spin and it gives an electron a magnetic
property.
7. Which one of the following is the correct sequence that represents the development of atomic models from
the earliest view up to the modern view?
A. Dalton’s Model, Thomson’s Model, Rutherford’s Model, Bohr’s Model, and the Quantum
Mechanical Model.
B. Thomson’s Model, Dalton’s Model, Rutherford’s Model, Bohr’s Model, and the Quantum
Mechanical Model.
C. Rutherford’s Model, Bohr’s Model, Thomson’s Model, Dalton’s Model, and the Quantum
Mechanical Model.
D. Quantum Mechanical Model, Bohr’s Model, Rutherford’s Model, Thomson’s Model, and Dalton’s
Model.
8. What is the name of the metal if the electron configuration of its cation, M 3+, is [Ar] 3d2?
A. Calcium C. Vanadium
B. Chromium D. Manganese

9. Which one of the following statement is FALSE regarding the formation of chemical bond?
A. A chemical bond is an intramolecular force of attraction that holds atoms together and can affect the
chemical properties of the species.
B. When atoms interact to form a chemical bond, they attain lower potential energy states as compared
to their respective individual atoms.
C. A chemical bond could be ionic, covalent, and metallic bonds.
D. A chemical bond is formed by losing, gaining or sharing of protons.
10. The Lewis symbol for an element X is represented as : 𝑋̈ :, which one of the following statement is FALSE?

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A. It belongs to group IIA elements

B. It can form an ion with a 2- charge
C. The element is a family of group six
D. It has at least three full filled orbitals
11. How many lone pairs of electrons are present in the central atom of Xenon tetra fluoride, XeF 4, molecule?
A. 6 C. 4
B. 5 D. 2
12. Which of the following compound contains a central atom short of electrons to full fill the octet rule?
A. H2O C. CO2
B. BF3 D. NH3
13. Which one of the following molecule contains a triple bond?
A. CO2 C. N2
B. O2 D. F2

14. Which one of the following explains the successive decrease in bond angles for the molecules CH4, NH3, and
H2O? It is due to the:
A. strong electronegativity value of oxygen as compared to nitrogen and carbon atoms.
B. strong repulsive forces between bonding pair and bonding pair electrons.
C. increase in the total number of sets of electrons around the central atom.
D. increase in number of lone pair of electrons in the central atom.
15. Which of the following is TRUE about the physical states of matter?
A. Liquid particles are easy to compress and have high density as compared to gases.
B. A solid has a definite volume, but does not have a definite shape.
C. A gas has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
D. A liquid has a definite shape and a definite volume.
16. According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) model, the electron pair arrangement of
SF2 is ____________?
A. Linear
B. Tetrahedron
C. Bent or V-shape
D. Trigonal bipyramidal
17. Which one of the following molecule has a square-planar shape?
A. XeF4 C. XeOF4
B. PCl5 D. COCl2
18. Which of the following molecule DOES NOT exist according to the molecular orbital theory?
A. B2 B. C2
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C. N2 D. He2

19. Which one of the following is the correct order of increasing F–A–F bond angles in the following AFn
species?
A. CF4 < BeF2< OF2 < NF3 < BF3
B. OF2 < NF3 < CF4 < BF3 < BeF2
C. CF4 < BF3 < OF2 < NF3 < BeF2
D. OF2 < NF3 < BeF2 < BF3 < CF4
20. Which one of the following assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory of gases is suitable to explain the
pressure created by gases in a sealed container?
A. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature
of the gas.
B. The volume of the particles is negligible compared to the total volume of the gas.
C. The particles are in a state of constant, continuous, rapid, and random motion.
D. The attractive forces between gas particles are negligible.
21. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
A. Octane, chloroform C. Ethanol, water
B. Benzene, methanol D. Water, nitric acid

22. The density of a gas at a pressure of 1.34 atm and a temperature of 303 K is found to be 1.77 g/L. What is
the molar mass of this gas? (R = 0.0821 L atm K −1 mol −1)
A. 2.12 g/mol C. 18.72 g/mol
B. 14.67 g/mol D. 32.86 g/mol
23. Which one of the following is NOT a mixture?
A. Milk of magnesia C. Solutions
B. Suspensions D. Colloids

24. The rate of dissolution, the speed with which a solute goes into solution, is largely dependent upon
A. Agitation or mixing
B. The inter-particle forces
C. The surface area of the solid solute
D. The temperature and the pressure of the system
25. At constant pressure, by what fraction of its volume will a quantity of gas change if the temperature changes
from -173 °C to 27 °C?
A. Halved C. Tripled
B. Doubled D. No change in volume

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26. A solution is made by dissolving 13.5 g of glucose, C6H12O6, in 0.100 kg of water. What is the mass
percentage of solute in this solution?
A. 35.1% C. 10.0%
B. 13.5% D. 11.9%
27. A sample of commercial concentrated hydrochloric acid is 11.8 M HCl and has a density of 1.190 g/mL.
What is the molal concentration of HCl?
A. 9.92 m C. 0.362 m
B. 15.5 m D. 0.567 m

Questions 28- 34 refer to the following unbalanced chemical reaction

KMnO4(aq) + KI(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → K2SO4(aq) + MnSO4(aq) + I2(s) + H2O(l)

28. In this reaction which species contains an oxidized element, and which species contains a reduced element?
A. K2SO4 is reduced, and I2 is oxidized
B. H2SO4 is oxidized, and I2 is reduced
C. KMnO4 is reduced, and KI is oxidized
D. KMnO4 is oxidized, and KI is reduced
29. When this reaction equation is balanced to the smallest whole number coefficients, the sum of all the
coefficients is
A. 41 C. 21
B. 31 D. 11
30. How many grams of KMnO4 are needed to make 500 mL of 0.250 N solutions?
A. 5.92 g C. 1.98 g
B. 3.95 g D. 1.49 g

31. How many moles of KI (molar mass KI = 166 g/mol) is required to react with 1.0 mole of KMnO4 (molar
mass KMnO4 = 158 g/mol)?
A. 10 C. 1
B. 15 D. 5
32. How many grams of iodine (molar mass I2 = 253.8 g/mol) are produced if 0.79 g of KMnO4 (molar mass
KMnO4 = 158 g/mol) reacts with 1.7 g of KI (molar mass KI = 166 g/mol)?
A. 5.27 g C. 1.27 g
B. 7.17 g D. 3.17 g
33. Which substance is the limiting reactant?
A. KMnO4 C. I2
B. KI D. MnSO4

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34. How many grams of the reactant remain unreacted?

A. 0.47 g C. 0.32 g
B. 1.15 g D. 0.62 g
35. Which of the following is TRUE about the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. A catalyst always speeds up the rate of a reaction.
B. As temperature increases, the rate of reaction decreases.
C. As surface area of reactants decreases, the rate of a reaction increases.
D. As concentration of a reactant increases, the rate of the reaction increases except for zero-order
reactions.

36. Which of the following is FALSE about a reaction at equilibrium?

A. The system is dynamic in nature.
B. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are necessarily equal.
C. The concentrations of reactants and products are necessarily equal.
D. The state of equilibrium remains the same if there is no change in the external conditions.

37. Which one of the following factor affects the value of equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction?
A. Catalysts
B. Temperature
C. Concentration of reactant or product
D. Pressure of gaseous reactants and products
38. Calculate the pH of a 0.50 M HF solution at 25 °C if the acid dissociation constant, Ka, for HF equals 6.8×104.
A. 0.48 C. 4.74
B. 1.74 D. 5.48
39. What is the effect of the addition of sodium acetate to an aqueous solution of acetic acid?
A. Has no effect on the pH of the solution
B. It may increase or decrease its pH
C. It increases its pH
D. It decreases its pH
40. Which of the following is FALSE about weak acid-strong base titration?
A. At the equivalence point, the pH is less than 7.00.
B. The pH is high at the beginning of the titration.
C. At the equivalence point, the pH is greater than 7.00.
D. At the half-neutralization, the concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base are equal.
41. Which of the following salts will always yield a basic solution on dissolution in water?
A. A salt of strong acid and strong base
B. A salt of weak acid and strong base
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C. A salt of strong acid and weak acid

D. A salt of weak acid and weak base
42. What volume of 2.0 M NaOH is required to completely neutralize 25.0 mL of 2.70 M H2SO4?
A. 67.5 mL C. 22.5 mL
B. 33.8 mL D. 16.9 mL
43. Which of the following statement describes the similarity between voltaic cells and electrolytic cells?
A. Reduction half-reaction occurs at the anode in both types of cells.
B. Both types of cells contain two electrodes in contact with electrolytes.
C. The anode is positive and cathode is negative in both types of cells.
D. Oxidation half-reaction occurs at the cathode in both types of cells.
44. Which of the following occurs during electrolysis of the molten binary salt of a metal?
A. Reduction will take place at the anode
B. Oxidation will take place at the cathode
C. No current will flow through the molten salt
D. The metal in the salt will deposit on the cathode
45. Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the electrolysis of dilute sulfuric acid solution?
A. Oxygen gas is produced at the anode.
B. Hydrogen gas is formed at the cathode.
C. At the anode, SO42– ions are discharged
D. At the cathode, H+ ions are discharged
46. Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding electrolysis?
A. Inert electrode is an electrode that does not affect the product of electrolysis.
B. Active or reactive electrode is an electrode that affects the product of electrolysis.
C. Preferential discharge is the ease in which ions are discharged in preference of other ions during
electrolysis.
D. The electrical conduction of electrolytes is due to the movement of delocalized electrons .
47. Calculate the mass of copper deposited by the electrolysis of copper (II) sulfate solution placed in series with
a silver nitrate solution, when 0.108 g of silver is being deposited. (Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol and molar
mass of Cu = 63.5 g/mol)
A. 0.066 g C. 0.317 g
B. 0.032 g D. 0.635 g
48. What mass of chlorine gas can be produced when a current of 0.452 A is passed through molten CaCl 2 for
1.5 hours? (1F = 96,500 C.mol–1)
A. 1.01 g C. 0.898 g
B. 0.507 g D. 1.79 g

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49. The general formula that represents the olefin homologous series is:
A. CnH2n C. CnH2n–2
B. CnH2n+2 D. CnH2n+1
50. What type of compounds will be formed if CH3OH and CH3COOH compounds react in the presence of an
acid catalyst?
A. A ketone C. An aldehyde
B. An ester D. A carboxylic acid

THE END

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ANSWER SHEET

Student Name: _________________________________

Identification No._________________

Section: ________

1. _____ 18. _____ 35. _____

2. _____ 19. _____ 36. _____
3. _____ 20. _____ 37. _____
4. _____ 21. _____ 38. _____
5. _____ 22. _____ 39. _____
6. _____ 23. _____ 40. _____
7. _____ 24. _____ 41. _____
8. _____ 25. _____ 42. _____
9. _____ 26. _____ 43. _____
10. _____ 27. _____ 44. _____
11. _____ 28. _____ 45. _____
12. _____ 29. _____ 46. _____
13. _____ 30. _____ 47. _____
14. _____ 31. _____ 48. _____
15. _____ 32. _____ 49. _____
16. _____ 33. _____ 50. _____
17. _____ 34. _____

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