94

95

CHAPTER - 1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
Question Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Choose the correct statements about the given reactions.
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised
(ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
2. Find out the exothermic processes from the following reactions:
(i) Reaction of water with quicklime
(ii) Dilution of an acid
(iii) Evaporation of water
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(A) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
3. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?
(A) Souring of milk
(B) Dissolution of sugar in water
(C) Rusting of iron
(D) Digestion of food
4. Pb + CuCl2→ PbCl2 + Cu
The above reaction is an example of:
(A) Combination
(B) Decomposition
(C) Double displacement
(D) Displacement
5. Out of the following metals, find out the one which is protected by a layer of its
oxide?
(A) Copper
(B) Silver
(C) Iron
(D) Aluminium
6. A student poured 100 mL of water in a bottle and added 40mL vinegar to it. A
balloon was filled with 20 g baking soda and was fixed at the mouth of the
bottle. Slowly the shape of the balloon changed, as shown.
 96

The student claims that a chemical change happened when the two
substances were mixed. Is the claim made by the student, correct?
(A) Yes, as a new substance was formed in the form of a gas.
(B) Yes, as the mass remains the same throughout the experiment.
(C) No, as the formation of bubbles in the mixture shows a physical change.
(D) No, as the change in the shape and size of the balloon shows a physical
change.
7. Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen are present in water by volume.
(A) 1:2 (B) 1:1 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:8

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

DIRECTION: Each of these questions contains an assertion (A) followed by reason
(R). Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options.
You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
A.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Energy gets released in the process of photosynthesis.
2. Assertion (A): Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of
exothermic reactions.
Reason (R): Exothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat is evolved.
3. Assertion (A): When HCl is added to zinc granules, a chemical reaction occurs.
Reason (R): Evolution of a gas indicates that the chemical reaction is taking place.
4. Assertion (A): Calcium carbonate when heated gives calcium oxide and water.
Reason (R): On heating calcium carbonate, decomposition reaction takes place.
5. Assertion (A): Brown fumes are produced when lead nitrate is heated.
Reason (R): Nitrogen dioxide gas is produced as a by-product due to the
decomposition of lead nitrate.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance
them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
2. A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour.
Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
3. Give reasons:
(a) Aluminium is a reactive metal but it is still used for packing food articles.
(b) Red litmus paper turns blue when touched with aqueous solution of white powder
obtained by burning magnesium ribbon.
(c) We store silver chloride in dark coloured bottles.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A compound 'X' used for drinking, has pH =7. Its acidified solution undergoes
decomposition in presence of electricity to produce gases 'Y' and 'Z' The
volume of Y is double than Z. Y is highly combustible whereas Z is supporter
 97

of combustion. identify X, Y & Z. Write the chemical reactions involved. List

the use of X, Y and Z. Name the type of reaction involved in the process.
2. What happens when zinc granules are treated with dilute solution of H 2SO4,
HCl, HNO3, NaCl and NaOH, also write the chemical equations if reaction
occurs.
3. (i) Crystals of copper sulphate are heated in a test tube for some time.
a. What is the colour of copper sulphate crystals before heating and after
heating?
b. What is the source of liquid droplets seen on the inner upper side of the
test tube during the heating process?
(ii) A metal ‘X’ when dipped in aqueous solution of aluminium sulphate, no
reaction is observed whereas when it is dipped in an aqueous solution of
ferrous sulphate, the pale green solution turns colourless. Identify metal ‘X’
with reason.
4. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained
in a test tube. The evolved gas was then passed through lime water. What
change would be observed in lime water? Identify the gas evolved. What
happens when the evolved gas is passed in excess through lime water? Write
balanced chemical equation for each change observed?
5. Complete the missing components/variables given as x and y in the following
reactions:

(e) Cu + x HNO3 ----------> Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

I.Read the following and answer the questions:
A student was asked to investigate what happens when a piece of shiny
magnesium ribbon is added to copper sulphate solution. The apparatus was
set up as shown below. The mass was recorded at the start and again after
one hour.

1. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place. (1)
2. Name the above reaction. (1)
3. The mass of the beaker and content after 1 hour is __________ (1)
4. The experiment was repeated using sodium sulphate solution instead of
copper sulphate solution. What will be observed in this case? Write the
chemical reaction taking place if any. Put the metals copper, magnesium and
sodium in order of their increasing reactivity. (2)
 98

II. Read the following and answer the questions:

In the above image, a small amount of quick lime is taken in a beaker and water is
added to it slowly. When we touch the beaker, we feel that the temperature of the
beaker changes.
1. Name and define the type of reaction that has taken place? (1)
2. Chemical name of the quick lime……….. . (1)
3. Write balanced chemical equation for the above reaction and the chemical
name of the product formed. (1)
4. List two main observations of this reaction. (2)

III. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Redox reactions are an important class of reactions. The oxidation and reduction
reactions occur simultaneously in a redox reaction. The activity in which copper
powder is taken in a china dish and heated helps in understanding redox
reactions.

1. Observe the given figure and write what happens when copper powder is
heated in a China dish. Write the chemical reaction taking place. (2)
2. Mention your observation if hydrogen gas is passed over the heated material
obtained in the above reaction? (1)
3. Identify the substance oxidised and the substance reduced in the reaction in
2nd case given above. (1)
4. What is an oxidizing agent? (1)
 99

CHAPTER - 1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
A sw s

ti ch c Q sti s
1. B
. A
3. B
. D
. D
6. A
7. A
A-R TYPE
1.
. A
3. A
. D
. A

SHORT ANSWER TYPE:

1. (a) 3H (g) + N (g) → 2NH (g)
2 2 3

(b) H S (g) + 3O (g) → SO (g) + 2H O(l)

2 2 2 2

2. Element ‘X’ is copper (Cu). The black coloured compound is copper oxide (CuO).
The reaction involved is

3. (a) Al forms a protective layer of Al2O3 which prevent further oxidation.

(b) Magnesium hydroxide is basic in nature.
(c) On exposure to sunlight, silver chloride decomposes to form silver and chlorine.
4. (i) Those reactions in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously
are called redox reactions.
(a) Fe O is getting reduced to Fe and Al is getting oxidised to Al O .
2 3 2 3

(b) PbO is reduced to Pb and C is oxidised to CO . 2

5. When marble (CaCO ) reacts with dil.HCl, CO gas is evolved.

3 2

CaCO (s) +2HCl (aq) 3 CaCl (aq) + H O (l) + CO (g) 2 2 2

When the gas evolved is passed through lime water, it becomes milky due to the
formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH) + CO (g) 2 CaCO (s) +H O (l)
2 3 2

When CO gas is passed in excess through lime water, the milkiness disappears
2

CaCO (s) + CO (g) +H O (l)

3 Ca (HCO ) (aq)
2 2 3 2

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. In the given situation, X = H O, Y = H and Z = O 2 2 2 (1 ½ + 1+ 1 1/2)
Chemical reaction:

Uses – H O – For drinking, cooking, washing, etc.

2

H – For manufacture of ammonia

2

O – For breathing, burning

2

It is Electrolytic decomposition reaction

 100

2. (a) Zn(s) + H SO (aq) → ZnSO (aq) + H (g)

2 4 4 (1*5=5) 2

(b) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl (aq) + H (g) 2 2

(c) Reaction with dilute HNO is different as compared to other acids because
3

nitric acid is an oxidising agent and it oxidises H gas evolved to H O. 2 2

4 Zn(s) + 10 HNO (aq) → 4 Zn(NO ) (aq) + 5 H O(l) + N O(g)

3 3 2 2 2

(d) Zn(s) + NaCl (aq) → No reaction

(e) Zn(s) + 2 NaOH (aq) → Na ZnO (aq) + H (g) 2 2 2

Sodium zincate
3. (i) (a) Before heating – blue, after heating – white (2+1+2)
(b) Water of crystallization
(ii) X = zinc as more reactive so displaces iron from its solution.
Zn + FeSO -----------🡪 ZnSO + Fe
4 4

4. When marble (CaCO ) reacts with dil.HCl, CO gas is evolved. (2+1+2)

3 2

CaCO (s) +2HCl (aq) ---------🡪 CaCl (aq) + H O (l) + CO (g)

3 2 2 2

When the gas evolved is passed through lime water, it becomes milky due to
the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH) + CO (g) ---------🡪 CaCO (s) +H O (l)
2 2 3 2

When CO gas is passed in excess through lime water, the milkiness

2

disappears
CaCO (s) + CO (g) +H O (l) -----------🡪 Ca (HCO ) (aq)
3 2 2 3 2

5.
(1*5 = 5)

(e) X = 4 and y = 2

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

(I)
1. Mg(s) + CuSO4(aq) --> MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
2. Displacement reaction
3. Same as before 80.6 g
4. No reaction would have taken place as sodium is more reactive than magnesium.
Na> Mg> Cu --- order of reactivity

(II)
1. Combination and exothermic reaction.
2. Calcium oxide
3. CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + heat
 101

4. Quick lime reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and releases heat. - The
reaction is exothermic and causes the solution to become hot. - The hissing sound
is due to the evolution of steam.

(III)
1. When copper powder is heated in the presence of oxygen, it reacts with oxygen to
form copper oxide. The copper oxide is black in colour. It is formed due to due to
oxidation of copper.
Chemical equation – 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
2. Reverse reaction occurs and black colour changes to brown again.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
3. Substance oxidised – H2
Substance reduced – CuO
4. Oxidizing agent is the substance that oxidises the other substance and itself gets
reduced.

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 102

h pter-
ACID , BA E AND ALT
Q sti B k
ti Ch c Q sti s

1.Identify the correct statement about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid (ii) Higher the pH weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base (iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) i & iii (b) ii & iii (c) I & iv (d) ii & iv
2. Tooth enamel is made up of
(a) Calcium phosphate
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium oxide
(d) Potassium sulphate

3. Rain is called acid rain when its:

(a) pH falls below 7 (b) pH falls below 6
(c) pH falls below 5.6 (d) pH is above 7

4. Sodium hydroxide turns phenolphthalein solution

(a) pink (b) yellow (c) colourless (d) orange

5. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of
the following solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder
(b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution
(d) Hydrochloric acid

6. If a substance has a pH value of 7, Which one of the given is true?

(a) The substance is a base
(b) The substance is an acid
(c) The substance is a neutral substance
(d) Either (A) or (B)

7. Two aqueous solutions P and Q have pH of 5 and 13 respectively. The correct

inference is that:
(a) solution P is of HCl and Q is of NH OH 4

(b) solution P is of CH COOH and Q is of Ca(OH)

3 2

(c) solution P is of HNO and Q is of NH OH

3 4

(d) solution P is of CH COOH and Q is of NaOH

3

8. The difference of molecules of water in gypsum and PoP is

(a) 5/2
(b) 2
(c) 3/2
(d) ½
 103

9. Which of the following does not form an acidic salt?

(a) Nitric acid
(b) Carbonic acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Sulphuric acid

10. Farmers neutralize the effect of Acidity on soil by adding

(a) Slaked Lime (b) Gypsum
(c) Caustic Soda (d) Baking Soda

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true

1. Assertion: Most of the metals do not give hydrogen while reacting with nitric acid.
Reason: Nitric acid is a weak oxidising agent.
2. Assertion (A): HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper.
Reason (R): HCl gas dissolves in the water present in wet litmus paper to form
H+ ions.
3. Assertion (A): Acid must always be added to water with constant stirring.
Reason (R): Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions
per unit volume.
4. Assertion (A): Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using only baking
soda.
Reason (R): Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium
removes bitter taste.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Give the name and formula of two
a. strong monobasic acids
b. two weak dibasic acids
2. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd?
3. To a solution of sodium hydroxide in a test tube, two drops of phenolphthalein
are added.
a. State the colour change observed.
b. If dil. HCl is added dropwise to the solution, what will be the colour change?
c. On adding few drops of NaOH solution to the above mixture the colour of the
solution reappears. Why?
4. A gas X reacts with lime water and forms a compound Y which is used as bleaching
agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y. Give the chemical equation of the
reaction involved.
5. When electricity is passed through a common salt solution, sodium hydroxide is
produced along with the liberation of two gases ‘X’ and T. The gas ‘X’ burns with
a pop sound whereas T is used for disinfecting drinking water.
a. Identify X and Y.
 104

b. Give the chemical equation for the reaction stated above.

c. State the reaction of Y with dry slaked lime.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION:

1. Explain why:
(i) Common salt becomes sticky during the rainy season
(ii) Blue vitriol changes to white upon heating
(iii) If bottle full of concentrated sulphuric acid is left open in the atmosphere
by
accident, the acid out of the bottle.
2. (a) A metal compound ‘X’ reacts with dilute H2SO4 to produce effervescence.
The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. If one of the compounds
formed is calcium sulphate, then what is ‘X’ and the gas evolved? Also write a
balanced chemical equation for the reaction which has occurred.
(b) (i) Name one antacid. How does it help to relieve indigestion in stomach?
(ii) A farmer treats the soil with quicklime or calcium carbonate. What is the
nature of the soil? Why does the farmer treat the soil with quicklime?
3. (a) What is the action of red litmus on dry ammonia gas solution of ammonia
gas in water?
(b) State the observations you would make on adding ammonium hydroxide to
aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate and aluminium chloride.
4. (a) Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
(b) How does the concentration of hydrogen ions [H O]+ change when the
3

solution of an acid is diluted with water ?

(c) Which has a higher pH value; a concentrated or dilute solution of
hydrochloric acid?
(d) What would you observe on adding dilute hydrochloric acid to sodium
bicarbonate placed in a test tube?

CASE BASED QUESTIONS:

“POTENZ DE HYDROGEN” (Image source- Science buddies)

1. The image show pH of different substances, Observe and answer the questions
 105

a) Circle Yes for those items which when consumed by human may affect protein digestion
in stomach?
a. Milk of Magnesia Yes/No
b. Cold Drinks Yes/No
c. Rain water Yes/No
d. Baking soda Yes/No
b) Arrange the following in the increasing Hydroxide ion concentration.
Household lye, Ammonia solution, orange juice, fresh distilled water, rain water, battery acid.
c) Rain water is formed by evaporation of water from earth’s surface but its pH is not 7 as
distilled water. Give your reason for the less pH of rain water.
d) Drinking coffee after meal may affect the process of digestion? Do you agree with this
statement. Support your answer with reason.

2. Sodium hydroxide When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of

sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. The
process is called the chlor-alkali process because of the products formed– chlor for
chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.
i) Write the chemical equation involved in this process?
ii) What is the substance that are formed at anode and cathode on chlor- alkali
process?
iii) What are the uses of chlorine?
iv) Where does the sodium hydroxide solution is formed? What are the uses of
Sodium hydroxide?

Chapter -2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
Answers

Multiple choice questions

1. d
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. c
7. d
8. c
9. b
10. a
A-R TYPE QUESTIONS
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. (i) hydrochloric acid HCl, (ii) carbonic acid H2CO3
2. When milk changes into a curd, its pH value decreases i.e. lactose gets
converted into lactic acid. As more of acid is formed, its pH value decreases.
3. i) On adding phenolphthalein to NaOH solution, the colour becomes pink.
 106

ii)On adding dilute HCl solution dropwise to the same test tube, the pink
colour disappears and the solution again becomes colourless.
iii)On again adding NaOH to the above mixture, the pink colour
reappears because the medium becomes basic again.
4. A gas X reacts with lime water and forms a compound Y which is used
as bleaching agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y. Give the
chemical equation of the reaction involved.
5. a. The gas X’ is H2 and gas ‘Y’ is Cl2.
b. The chemical equation for the reaction is:

c. Cl2 reacts with slaked lime to form bleaching powder.

Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION:
1. . (i) Common salt contains the impurity of magnesium chloride (MgCl2) which
is of deliquescent nature. When exposed to atmosphere, it becomes moist.
Therefore, common salt becomes sticky during the rainy reason.
(ii) Blue vitriol (CuSO4.5H2O) upon heating changes to anhydrous copper
sulphate (CuSO4) which is white in colour.
(iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is highly hygroscopic. It absorbs moisture
from air and gets
diluted. Since the volume increases, the acid starts flowing out of the bottle.
2. a. This is calcium carbonate
CaCO3(s) + H2SO4 (dil) → CaSO4 (aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
The gas evolved is carbon dioxide (CO2).
b. (i) NaHCO3(baking soda) is an antacid. If neutralises excess of HCl in
stomach and gives relief.
(ii) The nature of soil is acidic. The farmer treats the soil with quicklime
(basic in nature) to neutralise the acidity of soil and make it fit for crops.
3. (a)Red litmus has no action on dry ammonia gas because it does not release
any hydroxyl ions (OH)–
When passed through water, ammonia (NH3) is converted to ammonium
hydroxide (NH4OH). It dissociates to give hydroxyl ions (OH)– and the
solution is basic in nature. Red litmus acquires a blue colour.
(b)A green precipitate of ferrous hydroxide would be formed by double
displacement reaction.
A white precipitate of aluminium hydroxide will be formed by double
displacement reaction.
4. a) An aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity because in water, an
acid (e.g. HCl) dissociates.
b) The concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) decreases when a solution of
an acid is diluted.
c) Dilute HCl has higher pH value than concentrated HCl because it has a smaller
number of H+ ions. If an acid in one of its solutions has higher pH value, then it
means that the acid is in diluted form.
d) Carbon dioxide gas will evolve accompanied by brisk effervescence.
NaHCO3(s)+HCl(aq)→NaCl(aq)+CO2(g)+H2O(aq)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS:
1. a) a – Yes, b – No, c – No, d - Yes
 107

b) Correct order-
Household Lye, Solution of ammonia, Distilled water, Rain water, Orange juice,
Battery Acid.
c) Due to dissolution of acidic gases like carbon di oxide, sulphur di oxide and
Oxides of nitrogen Ph of rain water decreases.
d) Yes, I agree with this statement. Process of digestion in stomach needs Acidic pH
But drinking coffee may alter the pH to 5 temporarily that may slows down the
process of protein digestion.
2. i) 2NaCl (aq)+ 2H2O(l) → 2 NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2(g)
ii) At anode Chlorine gas & at cathode hydrogen gas are formed.
iii) Used for water treatment: Disinfectants, PVC, pesticides.
iv) It is formed near the cathode. Uses in making soaps and detergents artificial
fibres paper making.

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 108

Chapter-3
METAL AND NON-METALS
Question Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following property is generally not shown by metals?
(a) Electrical conduction (b) Sonorous in nature (c) Dullness (d) Ductility
2. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as
(a) ductility (b) malleability (c) sonorousity (d) conductivity
3. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties
of aluminium are responsible for the same?
(i) Good thermal conductivity (ii) Good electrical conductivity (iii) Ductility (iv) High
melting point
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
4. Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water?
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Fe
5. Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of
iron with steam?
(a) FeO (b) Fe2O3 (c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
6. What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(i) It does not react with water
(ii) It reacts violently with water
(iii) It reacts less violently with water
(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
7. Generally, metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the
following acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and
Mg)?
(a) H2SO4 (b) HCl (c) HNO3 (d) All of these
8. Which one of the following properties is not generally exhibited by ionic
compounds?
(a) Solubility in water
(b) Electrical conductivity in solid state
(c) High melting and boiling points
(d) Electrical conductivity in molten state
9. Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature?
(i) Cu (ii) Au (iii) Zn (iv) Ag
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
10. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are
refined by electrolytic refining?
(i) Au (ii) Cu (iii) Na (iv) K
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
 109

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (iii) and (iv)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Iqbal treated a lustrous, divalent element M with sodium hydroxide. He
observed the formation of bubbles in reaction mixture. He made the same
observations when this element was treated with hydrochloric acid. Suggest
how can he identify the produced gas. Write chemical equations for both the
reactions.
2. Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides
in the process of extraction of metal from them?
3. Compound X and aluminium are used to join railway tracks.
(a) Identify the compound X
(b) Name the reaction
(c) Write down its reaction.
4. A metal M does not liberate hydrogen from acids but reacts with oxygen to
give a black colour product. Identify M and black coloured product and also
explain the reaction of M with oxygen.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. A. non-metal A which is the largest constituent of air, when heated with H2 in
1:3 ratio in the presence of catalyst (Fe) gives a gas
B. On heating with O2 it gives an oxide
C. If this oxide is passed into water in the presence of air it gives an acid
D which acts as a strong oxidising agent.
(a) Identify A, B, C and D
(b) To which group of periodic table does this non-metal belong?
2. Explain the following
(a) Reactivity of Al decreases if it is dipped in HNO3
(b) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Mg
(c) NaCl is not a conductor of electricity in solid state whereas it does conduct
electricity in aqueous solution as well as in molten state
(d) Iron articles are galvanised.
(e) Metals like Na, K, Ca and Mg are never found in their free state in nature.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
A. Metals are the elements which are often found in nature in combined form (as
ores) but few metals occur in free state too. Metals possess such specific properties
which make them very useful in practical life. The properties shown by them are
lustrous surface, they can also be polished for obtaining a highly reflective surface,
hard and strong in nature, good conductor of heat and electricity and also malleable
and ductile. But few metals are exceptionally different too in some properties like
Sodium and Potassium are exceptional cases in this case as they can be cut with
knife. Metallic elements possess high melting and boiling points too.
1.Which of the following metals is the most abundant in earth crust?
(a) Al (b) Fe ( c) Na (d) Ca
2.Which of the following is the poor conductor of heat among given metals:
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Pb (d) Hg
3.Metal with highest melting point:
 110

(a) Tungsten (b) Mercury (c) Molybdenum (d) Osmium

4. Bauxite is an ore of:
(a) Na (b) Al (c) Pb (d) Hg

B. Non-metals are the elements which forms negatively charged ions by accepting
electrons. They usually have 4,5,6 or 7 valence electrons in their outermost shell.
They lack lustre and are poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are good
insulators and are mostly gases, few solid and one liquid at room temperature.
1.Chlorides of non-metals are covalent because:
a) sharing electrons
b) as they donate electrons to chlorine
c) they can’t share electrons with chlorine
d) they donate electrons to chlorine to form chloride ion.
2.Which is lustrous non-metal:
a) Oxygen
b) Sulphur
c) Iodine
d) Nitrogen
3.Which of the non-metals is liquid at room temperature:
a) Helium
b) Carbon
c) Mercury
d) Bromine
4. Which among the following contain non-metal as its constituent:
a) Brass
b) Amalgam
c) Gunmetal
d) None
Chapter-3
METAL AND NON-METALS
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (d)
5. (c)
6. (d)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (c)
10. (a)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1. The produced gas can be identified by bringing a burning match stick near the
reaction vessel, a pop sound is produced
M + 2NaOH → Na2MO2 + H2
 111

M + 2HCl → MCl2 + H2
The element is a metal.
2. It is easier to obtain metal from its oxide, as compared from its sulphides and
carbonates.
3. (a) X — Fe2O3 (b) Thermite reaction (c) Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3
(s) + Heat
4. M = Cu; Black product— CuO
2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
LONG ANSWER TYPE
3. (a) A — N2; B — NH3; C — NO; D — HNO3
(b) Element A belongs to Group –15 of the Periodic Table
2. (a) Due to the formation of a layer of oxide i.e., Al2O3
(b) Na or Mg are more reactive metals as compared to carbon
(c) In solid NaCl, the movement of ions is not possible due to its rigid structure
but in aqueous solution or molten state, the ions can move freely.
(d) To protect from corrosion
(e) They are highly reactive
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
A. 1. A 2.C 3. A 4.B
B 1. A 2.C 3. D 4.B

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 112

Chapter-4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Question Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of
(a) carbon monoxide only
(b) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(c) carbon dioxide only
(d) coal
2. Which of the following statements are usually correct for carbon compounds?
These
(i) are good conductors of electricity
(ii) are poor conductors of electricity
(iii) have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(iv) do not have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
3. A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has
(a) only single bonds
(b) only double bonds
(c) only triple bonds
(d) two double bonds and one single bond
4. Which of the following are correct structural isomers of butane?

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

5.
In the above given reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as
(a) reducing agent
(b) oxidising agent
(c) catalyst
(d) dehydrating agent
 113

6. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst

form fats. This is an example of
(a) Addition reaction
(b) Substitution reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Oxidation reaction
7. In which of the following compounds, — OH is the functional group?
(a) Butanone
(b) Butanol
(c) Butanoic acid
(d) Butanal
8. Which of the following is the correct representation of electron dot structure of
nitrogen?

9. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has

(a) 5 covalent bonds
(b) 12 covalent bonds
(c) 16 covalent bonds
(d) 17 covalent bonds
10. The name of the compound CH3 — CH2 — CHO is
(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethanal
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Draw the electron dot structure of ethyne and also draw its structural formula.
2. Write the names of the following compounds

3. Why detergents are better cleansing agents than soaps? Explain.

4. Name the functional groups present in the following compounds
(a) CH3COCH2CH2CH2CH3
 114

(b) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
(d) CH3CH2OH
5. A gas is evolved when ethanol reacts with sodium. Name the gas evolved and
also write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.
6. In electron dot structure, the valence shell electrons are represented by
crosses or dots.
a) The atomic number of chlorines are 17.
b) Write its electronic configuration
b) Draw the electron dot structure of chlorine molecule.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. A salt X is formed and a gas is evolved when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium
hydrogen carbonate. Name the salt X and the gas evolved. Describe an
activity and draw the diagram of the apparatus to prove that the evolved gas
is the one which you have named. Also, write chemical equation of the
reaction involved.
2. (a) What are hydrocarbons? Give examples.
(b) Give the structural differences between saturated and unsaturated
hydrocarbons with two examples each.
(c) What is a functional group? Give examples of four different functional
groups.
3. (a) Write the formula and draw electron dot structure of carbon tetrachloride.
(b) What is saponification? Write the reaction involved in this process.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

CASE 1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Carbon has the unique property to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.

Q.1. Name the characteristic property of carbon as depicted in the fig.

(A) Catenation
(B) Polymerization
(C) Isomerisation
(D) None of the above
 115

Q. 2. Carbon forms large number of compounds due to:

(A) Catenation only
(B) Tetravalency only
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency
(D) None of the above
Q.3. Carbon is:
(A) Divalent
(B) Monovalent
(C) Tetravalent
(D) Trivalent
Q.4. Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which 6 carbon atoms
are arranged in a ring.
(A) Hexane
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Pentane
(D) Cyclopentane
CASE 2. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Homologous series is a series of compounds with similar chemical properties and
same functional group differing from the successive member by CH2. Carbon chains
of varying length have been observed in organic compounds having the same
general formula. Such organic compounds that vary from one another by a repeating
unit and have the same general formula form a series of compounds. Alkanes with
general formula C, H2n+2 alkenes with general formula C, H2 and alkynes with
general formula C, H2-2 form the most basic homologous series in organic
chemistry.
All the members belonging to this series have the same functional groups. They
have similar physical properties and follow a fixed gradation with increasing mass.
This series has enabled scientists to study different organic compounds
systematically. They can predict the properties of organic compounds belonging to a
particular homologous series based on the data available from the other members of
the same series. The study of organic compounds has been simplified.
Q. 1. Name the fourth member of the alkane series.
Q. 2. The difference in the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a
homologous series of organic compounds is _______
Q. 3. Name the functional group present in the following compound:
(i) CH3 COOH (ii) CH3 C(O)CH3
 116

Q. 4. Define homologous series? Which two of the following organic compounds

belong to the same homologous?
CASE 3. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Soaps and detergents are widely used as cleaning agents. Chemically soaps and
detergents are quite different from each other. The common feature of soaps and
detergents is that when dissolved in water the molecules of soap and detergent tend
to concentrate at the surface of the solution or at interface. Therefore, the surface
tension of the solution is reduced, it causes foaming of the solution. A sample of
water which gives lather with soap with difficulty is known as hard water, while a
sample of water which gives lather with soap easily is known as soft water. Hardness
of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates, sulphates and chlorides of calcium
and magnesium. When hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of
magnesium and calcium, it is called temporary hardness. When hardness of water is
due to the presence of sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium, it is
called permanent hardness.
Q. 1 How soap and detergent molecules differ chemically?
Q. 2. Micelle formation takes place when soap is added to water? State reason.
Q. 3. Give a reason why soaps do not form lather in hard water?
Q.4 List two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
 117

Chapter-4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Answers
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. D
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1. Electron dot structure of ethyne (C2H2)

Structural formula of ethyne

2. (a) Pentatonic acid
(b) Butyne
(c) Heptanal
(d) Pentanol
3. Detergents work as cleansing agent both in hard and soft water. The charged
ends of detergents do not form insoluble precipitates with calcium and
magnesium ions in hard water.
4. (a) Ketone (b) Carboxylic acid (c) Aldehyde (d) Alcohol
5. Gas evolved is hydrogen. 2CH3 CH2 OH + 2Na → 2CH3 CH2 O– Na+ + H
6. a) K, L, M 2, 8, 7

b)
LONG ANSWER TYPE
1. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
X is sodium ethanoate Gas evolved is carbon dioxide
Hint— Activity Lime water will turn milky, a characteristic property of CO2 gas
2. (a) Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. Example,
methane, ethane etc.
(b) Saturated hydrocarbons contain carbon- carbon single bonds. Unsaturated
hydrocarbons contain at least one carbon - carbon double or triple bond.
 118

Methane Ethane
Unsaturated hydrocarbons

Ethene Ethyne
Saturated hydrocarbons
(c) Functional group – An atom/group of atoms joined in a specific manner
which is responsible for the characteristic chemical properties of the organic
compounds. Examples are hydroxyl group (–OH), aldehyde group (–CHO),
carboxylic group (–COOH) etc.

3. a) CCl4
(b) Saponification is the process of converting esters into salts of carboxylic
acids and ethanol by treating them with a base. CH3COOC2H5 CH3COONa +
C2H5OH
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
CASE 1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. (A) Catenation
2. (C) Both catenation and tetravalency
3. (C) Tetravalent
4. (B) Cyclohexane
CASE 2. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. The fourth member of the alkane series is butane (C4H10)
2. -CH2-
3: (i) CH3COOH=Carboxylic Acid Group (ii) CH3C(O)CH3=Ketone group
4. A homologous series is a series of compounds with the same functional
group and similar chemical properties in which each successive member differs
by CH2.Compounds within a homologous series typically have a fixed set of
functional groups that gives them similar chemical and physical properties.
Here, CH4O and C2H6O are of same homologous series. Both are differed by CH2.
CASE 3. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
 119

A 1.

SOAP DETERGENT

1. They are sodium or potassium They are sodium or potassium salts of

salts of fatty acids. sulphonic acids.

2. Micelle formation takes place; this is because the hydrocarbon chains of soap
molecules are hydrophobic while the ionic ends are hydrophilic and hence soluble in
water.
3. Hard water is formed due to the dissolution of the salts of calcium and magnesium
ions. It does not lather with soap because the salts of calcium and magnesium react
with soap to form insoluble salts.
4. Two problems that arise because of the use of detergents instead of soap is given
below:
1. Soaps are biodegradable, while detergents are non-biodegradable; hence,
detergents are toxic to the environment.
2. Certain phosphate additives are added to detergents. These phosphate
additives act as nutrients for algae which form a thick green scum over the
river water and upset the animal life in the river.

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 120

CHAPTER 5
LIFE PROCESSES
QUESTION BANK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. Haemoglobin and chlorophyll have similar structures.
- A molecule of haemoglobin is composed of atoms of 4 elements (carbon,
hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen, all four organised around iron.
- A chlorophyll is composed the same elements (carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
and nitrogen, all four organised around magnesium)
Considering the above information, which element of haemoglobin is most likely
to be responsible for red colour of our blood?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon (d) Iron
Q2. The image shows the process of making food by a plant.

Which statement can be concluded from the image?

(a) plants absorb CO2 from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and convert
them into glucose.
(b) plants absorb CO2 from the soil and H2O from air as raw materials and convert
them into glucose.
(c) plants absorb O2 from air and glucose from the soil as raw materials and convert
them into light energy.
(d) plants absorb O2 from air and minerals from the soil as raw materials and convert
them into heat energy.

Q3. A student sets up an experiment to study the importance of nutrition in plants.

The student takes 2 pots, pot 1 and pot 2 each with the same healthy plant. Both the
pots were placed in the garden and watered properly. Pot 1 was kept as such, while
pot 2 was kept in an air tight glass box with caustic soda. Caustic soda absorbs
carbon dioxide present in the surrounding. After 2 days, the student observes that
the plant kept in the garden is healthy while the plant placed in container shed leaves
and droops. What is the likely reason for this observation?
(a) lack of nutrients in the soil
(b) absence of oxygen for survival
(c) inability to perform photosynthesis
(d) absorption of light by caustic soda restricting growth
 121

Q4. Which of the equation show correct conversion of CO2 and H2O into
carbohydrates in
plants?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q5. A student sets up an experiment to study the photosynthesis in plants. The

student destarched a potted plant by keeping it in a dark room for 3 days. Half of the
portion of destarched leaf was placed in a bottle containing caustic potash (absorbs
CO2) as shown.

The student then places the plant in light and tests the leaf after 5 hours for the
presence of starch. The portions inside the bottle shows negative starch test by
reflecting no change in colour when react with iodine, however, other upper portions
of the leaf gave positive starch test showing blue-black colour with iodine. What can
be evaluated from this experiment?
(a) carbon dioxide is directly linked with the colour of leaf
(b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate
(c) lack of carbon dioxide increases amount of starch in plant
(d) lack of carbon dioxide slows the process of photosynthesis
Q6. What will be the likely happen if the number of villi increases in the intestine?
(a) increase in the absorption of food
(b) fast elimination of waste from the body
(c) increase in flow of blood in the small intestine
(d) fast breakdown of larger food particles into smaller ones

Q7. Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?
(a) Lungs→pulmonary vein→left atrium→left ventricle→aorta→body cells
(b) Lungs→pulmonary vein→right atrium→right ventricle→aorta→body cells
(c) Lungs→pulmonary artery→left atrium→left ventricle→venacava→body cells
(d) Lungs→pulmonary artery→right atrium→right ventricle→venacava→body cells
 122

Q8. Nephron is a unit of filtration in kidneys that filters waste material. It selectively
reabsorbs or excretes water with the help of capillaries that surround it. What is the
likely benefit of this?
(a) It makes the process of filtration at Bowman’s capsule easier.
(b) It helps keep the output of urine constant throughout the day.
(c) It helps to uptake and store excess amount of water in the body for later use.
(d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the amount of water present in
the body.
Q9. Choose the incorrect pair
(a) Ultrafiltration - glomerulus
(b) Storage of urine – urinary Bladder
(c) Reabsorption – tubule
(d) Concentration of Urine – urethra
Q10. We often hear a complaint of overproduction of acid in the stomach. The acid
referred here is:
(a) HNO3 (b) H2SO4 (c) HCl (d) H3PO4

ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q1. Assertion (A): Desert plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis during the
night.
Reason (R): In desert plants, the stomata are closed during the day to conserve
water by reducing transpiration.
Q2. Assertion (A): Warm- blooded animals have their left and right side of the heart
separated for more efficient supply of oxygen to the body.
Reason (R): Energy needs of warm- blooded animals are very low for
maintaining their body temperature.

Q3. Assertion (A): Depending on the complexity of the carbon sources, different
organism uses different kinds of nutritional processes
Reason (R) : Life on earth depend on carbon based molecules, most of these
food sources are also carbon based.
Q4. Assertion (A): In the absence of oxygen the muscle cells undergo aerobic
respiration.
Reason (R): In anaerobic respiration, pyruvate is converted into lactic acid
which is also three carbon molecules.
 123

Q5. Assertion (A): All the arteries carry oxygenated blood from the heart to various
organs.

Reason (R): Pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood to the Heart.

Q6. Assertion (A): Artificial kidney is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste
products from the blood through dialysis.
Reason (R): Reabsorption occur in artificial kidney.

Q7. Assertion (A): Rings of cartilage are present in the throat.

Reason (R): These ensure that the air-passage does not collapse.

VERY SHORT ANSWER

Q1.In respiration, glucose is broken down into a 3-C molecule called
pyruvate, in the cytoplasm of the cell. Is this particular process aerobic or
anaerobic in nature? Justify your answer.
Q2. In most adults, the left atrium is separated from the right atrium by a
septum (wall) to prevent the oxygen-rich blood in the left atrium from
mixing with the blood containing a higher amount of carbon dioxide in the
right atrium. The patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a hole in the septum
separating the left and right atria (upper chambers) of the heart. This hole
exists in everyone before birth, but most often closes shortly after a baby
is born. Explain why the hole in the septum separating the atria does not
cause problems in a baby before it is born.
Q3.In diabetic patients, with high blood glucose levels, the urine sample
also consists of high levels of glucose. This is mainly because, in the
nephron, glucose is not reabsorbed back into the blood.Explain why does
reabsorption not take place in two points.

Q4. Which respiratory pigment is present in the blood aiding in exchange

of gases in man?

Q5. What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?

Q6. A student observed green dot like structures in some cells when a leaf peel
was viewed under a microscope. Identify these dots and mention what is the green
colour due to?

Q7. Lungs always contain residual volume. Why?

Q8. Name the material transported by the following in plants? (i) Xylem (ii) Phloem

Q9. Name any two major substances which are selectively reabsorbed from the
tubules of a nephron.

Q10. In each of the following situations the rate of the photosynthesis will decrease?
(a) Cloudy days (b) Good manuring in the area (c) Stomata get blocked due to dust
 124

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 Given below is an image of an experiment conducted by a student to understand
the process of respiration. He blows into a clear solution present in the test tube and
sees that it turns cloudy.

(a) What is the most likely substance present in the test tube?
(b) What could be the aim of his experiment?
(c) What kind of respiration is shown in the experiment? Justify your answer.
Q2. There are different nutrients required by the human body. These are in 3 major
categories of carbohydrates, fats and proteins (apart from vitamins, minerals and
roughage).
(a) Digestion of nutrient R happens in the stomach. Identify R.
(b) Consider fats and oils from your diet as large globules in your digestive tract.
Name the reaction that can help in making these easier to absorb.
(c)what is the difference in the kind of medium required for digestive enzymes in the
stomach and the small intestine to work?
Q3.In the digestive tract, food is moved forward by the rhythmic
contraction of muscles lining the tract. This process is called peristalsis.
list all the parts of the digestive tract in which peristalsis occurs.
Q4.Human systems work in coordination with each other. Pratik spent an
hour in the swimming pool and found himself breathing heavily.
(a) Name the:

(i) system/s that help his body regain normalcy

(ii) system/s that help the systems mentioned in (a-i) to function

(b) What can happen to the composition of Pratik's blood if the
system/s mentioned in (a-i) does/do not respond properly?

Q5. Illustrate with diagram the mechanism taking place when

(a) The guard cells swell when water flows in them
(b) The guard cells shrink when water leaves the cells.
 125

Q6. Human beings exhibit ‘double circulation’.

(a) state the route of the first and the second circulation through the chambers of the
heart .
(b) Name the (i) blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the
heart.
(ii) blood vessels that carry de oxygenated blood from the heat to the
lungs.
Q7. There are various muscles present in the human digestive system known as
sphincters. Two such examples are:
1. Pyloric sphincter – at the junction of stomach and small intestine.
2. Anal sphincter- at the anus. Write their functions.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1 Aerobic respiration requires intake of oxygen to breakdown food to release
energy.
(a) Name the structures through which gaseous exchange takes place in plants and
human beings.
(b) Name the structures that controls the size of the chest cavity in humans to
facilitate exchange of gases.
(c) What is the process by which gas exchange occurs in plants?
(d) Why is the process named in (c) not sufficient to carry oxygen throughout human
body? How is this complemented in humans to ensure that oxygen is carried to all
parts of the body?
(e) Reactions in living systems can absorb heat or release heat. State whether the
heat energy is absorbed/ released during digestion. Also write the scientific term to
denote the same.
Q2. (a) Draw a diagram depicting human alimentary canal and label the
components- gall bladder, liver, and pancreas in it.
(b) State the role of pancreas in digestion of food.

Q3. (a) Draw a flow chart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways.
(b) Where does glycolysis and Krebs cycle occur in aerobic respiration?

CASE BASED / SOURCE BASED TYPE

Q1) Answer the questions based on the following information.
William Harvey (1578–1657) was one of the early biologists who studied the bodies
of humans and animals. He even dissected the bodies and did experiments with the
heart and blood vessels. He concluded from his experiments that the blood leaves
the heart through the arteries and returns via the veins. However, he could not
 126

explain how blood left the arteries to enter the veins. He said there must be some
structure between arteries and veins but he could not find them. Marcello Malpighi
(1628–1694) later discovered these structures while studying a dead frog's lungs
under a microscope.
Q.1.1 Which vessels connecting arteries and vein did Malpighi might have
discovered later while studying frogs under microscope?
Q.1.2 What is the most likely reason why Harvey could NOT find these structures?
Q1.3 Arteries have thicker walls than veins, but no valves. Why?
Q1.4 Which two chambers of the human heart have arteries connected to them?
Q2. Read the given passage and related study concepts answer the following
questions.
Lung cancer is the most widely known and most harmful effect of smoking :98% of
cases are associated with cigarette smoking. The damaging components of cigarette
smoke include tar, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and nitric oxide. Many of
these harmful chemicals occur in greater concentrations in side-stream smoke
(passive smoking) than in mainstream smoke (inhaled) due to the presence of a filter
in the cigarette.
2.1 Why is passive smoking more dangerous than active smoking?
2.2 (i) What are the consequences if the membranes of alveoli tear off due to chain
smoking?

(ii) lungs become weak making the person more susceptible to infections like
pneumonia.

Q3. Read the given passage and related study concepts answer the following
questions

This transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation and it

occurs in the part of the vascular tissue known as phloem. Besides the products of
photo-synthesis, the phloem transports amino acids and other substances. These
substances are especially delivered to the storage organs of roots, fruits and seeds
and to growing organs. The translocation of food and other substances takes place
in the sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion cells both in upward and
downward directions. Unlike transport in xylem which can be largely explained by
simple physical forces, the translocation in phloem is achieved by utilising energy,
Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP. This
increases the osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it. This
pressure moves the material in the phloem to tissues which have less pressure. This
allows the phloem to move material according to the plant’s needs. For example, in
the spring, sugar stored in root or stem tissue would be transported to the buds
which need energy to grow.
3.1. The translocation of food in plants takes place in which direction?
3.2. What is the term given for the transportation of food in plants by phloem
elements?
3.3. Which main components of phloem help in the translocation process in plants?
 127

Q4.Read the text below and answer the given questions

The heart is a muscular organ which is as big as our fist. Because both oxygen and
carbon dioxide have to be transported by the blood, the heart has different chambers
to prevent the oxygen-rich blood from mixing with the blood containing carbon
dioxide. The carbon dioxide-rich blood has to reach the lungs for the carbon dioxide
to be removed, and the oxygenated blood from the lungs has to be brought back to
the heart. This oxygen-rich blood is then pumped to the rest of the body.
4.1. How many chambers are present in the heart of mammals and reptiles?
4.2. Name the device that measures blood pressure?
4.3 What is hypertension? Give two reasons which can cause it.

REFRENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=5-13
6) https://docs.google.com/document/d/1x4PG4fqTinTBhaxdLsgk2D-9utxTUns6/edit
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1baPNN_gVSZT257LAA4PaAc55K8ZotWSs/ed
it#heading=h.tyjcwt

CHAPTER 5
LIFE PROCESSES
ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. (d) Iron
Q2. (a) plants absorbCO2from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and
convert them into glucose.
Q3. (c) inability to perform photosynthesis

Q4.(c)

Q5. (b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate

 128

Q6. (a) increase in the absorption of food

Q7. (a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells

Q8.(d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the amount of water present
in the body.

Q9. (d) Concentration of Urine – urethra

Q10.(c) HCl

ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

Q1. (a)
Q2. (c)
Q3. (a)
Q4. (d)
Q5. (d)
Q6. (c)
Q7. (a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER

Q.1- anaerobic
-This step occurs in all organisms, even those that respire anaerobically
and so this process is likely to be anaerobic.
Q2. The hole in the septum does not cause problems in an unborn
infant as the developing embryo gets nutrition and oxygen from the
mother's blood through the placenta and umbilical cord.
Q3. When some of the glucose from the blood is filtered in the urine, it
does not get reabsorbed as the concentration of glucose is already high
in the blood and so there is little/no concentration gradient causing
glucose to be retained in the urine.

Q4. haemoglobin.

Q5.Flow of water will be disrupted and the process of photosynthesis will be

affected leading to Wilting and death.

Q6.Chloroplast; chlorophyll

Q7. The residual volume acts as a reservoir, ensuring a constant supply of oxygen
for diffusion into the bloodstream and removal of carbon dioxide.

Q8. (i) Xylem- Water and dissolved minerals (ii) Phloem- Organic nutrients (food)

Q9. Glucose and aminoacids

Q10. (a) Cloudy days and (c) Stomata get blocked due to dust
 129

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 (a) lime water / dilute aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide/ Ca(OH)2
(b) To prove that carbon dioxide is released during respiration
(c) aerobic respiration; CO2 is a product of either aerobic respiration or
fermentation, fermentation does not take place in human cells.
Q2. (a)Protein
(b) emulsification
(c)Digestive enzymes in the stomach need an acidic medium while those
in the small intestine need an alkaline medium
Q3.-pharynx

- oesophagus

- stomach

- small intestine

- large intestine
anus
Q4.(a)(i) circulatory and respiratory systems
(ii) nervous system
(b) increased carbon dioxide quantity in blood
Q5. (a)The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells. The
guard cells swell when water flows into them, causing the stomatal pore to open.
(b) Similarly, if the guard cells shrink the pore closes.

Q6. (a) – during first circulation: oxygenated blood from lungs come to the left atrium
to left ventricle to pass to the body.
- during second circulation: deoxygenated blood from the body comes to the
right atrium and then right ventricle to pass for oxygenation to the lungs
again.
(b) (i) Pulmonary vein (ii) Pulmonary artery
Q7.1. controls the flow of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the
small intestine.
 130

2.The anal sphincter controls the bowel movements (stool continence) and the
passage of faeces.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1. (a)Plants: stomata/guard cells Human beings: alveoli/ lungs
(b) Diaphragm & ribs
(c) diffusion
(d) because diffusion is a slow process and human beings have complex tissues
that might not allow diffusion to happen effectively and easily - carried by the
blood/haemoglobin in the blood.
(e) use up heat – endothermic
Q2. (a) Figure 5.6 page 85- NCERT text book
(b) The enzymes in the pancreatic juice further help in digestion as follows:

1) Trypsin Protein digestion

2) Amylase Carbohydrates digestion
3) Lipase Fat digestion

Q3. (a) Figure 5.8 page 88 NCERT text book

(b) glycolysis – cytoplasm Krebs cycle- mitochondria
CASE BASED / SOURCE BASED TYPE
Q.1.1 capillaries
Q.1.2 These structures were too small to be seen by the naked eye.
Q1.3 Walls are thicker to withstand the high pressure of blood pumped by the heart.
- Arteries don't need valves because blood generally flows in one direction
away from the heart. The elasticity of the arteries themselves help maintains this
unidirectional flow.
Q1.4. left ventricle and right ventricle.
Q2.1 smoke if inhaled contains a significant amount of harmful chemicals that can
cause serious health problems like allergies, asthma, bronchitis etc.
Q2.2 (i) When an alveolar sac tears, it becomes less efficient in gas exchange
leading to shortness of breath.
(ii) lungs become weak making the person more susceptible to infections like
pneumonia.

Q3.1. In both in upward and downward directions

Q3.2. translocation.
Q3.3. Sieve Tubes and Companion Cells.

Q4.1. Three
Q4.2. Sphygmomanometer
 131

Q4.3. A condition arising due to high blood pressure. Reason that can cause
hypertension are- Diabetes, Kidney problems, Hyperthyroidism, Pregnancy, Obesity
(any of these)

REFERENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=5-13
6) https://docs.google.com/document/d/1x4PG4fqTinTBhaxdLsgk2D-
9utxTUns6/edit
 131

CHAPTER 6
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
QUESTION BANK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. In a neurons conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/ in

(a) cell body (b) axonal end (c) dendritic end (d) axon.
Q2. Sapna suffers from a condition due to which her blood sugar level is 174mg/dL.
The average blood sugar level in a healthy adult is < 140mg/dL. Which of the
following could be the cause of Sapna’s condition?
(a) insufficient production of thyroxin in her body
(b) insufficient production of insulin in her body
(c) excess production of thyroxin in her body
(d) excess production of insulin in her body
Q3. Walking in a straight line and riding a bicycle are that activities which are
possible due to a part of brain, Choose the correct location and name of this part
from the given table.

PART OF BRAIN NAME

a) Fore brain Cerebellum
b) Mid brain Medulla
oblongata
c) Hind brain Hypothalamus
d) Hind brain Cerebellum

Q4. A gardener wants the plants in the hedge that he is growing to become bushier
with more branches. Which of the following step he should do?
(a) spray water on the tips of stems to increase growth
(b) dig around the plant roots and apply more manure
(c) trim the hedge by cutting off the tips of the stems
(d) remove all weeds that grow around the hedge.
Q5. How will information travel within a neuron?
(a) Dendrite→cell body→axon→ nerve ending
(b) Dendrite→axon→ cell body→nerve ending
(c) Axon→dendrite→cell body→ nerve ending
(d) Axon→cell body→dendrite→nerve ending
 132

Q6. Which option correctly shows the order of events when a bright light is focused
on our eyes?
(a) Bright light→ receptors in eyes → sensory neuron→spinal cord→motor
neurons→eyelid closes.
(b) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→spinal cord→sensory neuron→ motor
neurons→eyelid closes.
(c) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→sensory neuron→motor neurons→spinal
cord→ eyelid closes.
(d) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→spinal cord→motor neurons→sensory
neuron→eyelid closes.
Q7. Which parts of the brain controls the blood pressure?
(a) fore brain -cerebrum (b) fore brain - hypothalamus
(c) mid brain- pons (d) hind brain- medulla
Q8. When we touch the leaves of “touch-me-not” plant, they began to fold up and
droop. How does the plant communicate the information of touch?
(a) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from external
environment to cells.
(b) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from cell
to cell.
(c) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from
tissue to specialized cells.
(d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from cell to
specialized tissues.
Q9. The gap between nerve ending of one nerve cell and dendrite of the other nerve
cell is -----
(a) Synapse (b) Axon
(c) Cell body (d) Nucleus

Q10.The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to

(a) effect of light
(b) effect of gravity
(c) rapid cell division in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
(d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
ASSERTION REASON TYPE
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
 133

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q1. Assertion (A): All reflex actions are involuntary actions but only some involuntary
actions are reflex actions.
Reason (R): Reflex actions take the shortest route from the receptor (detector of
stimulus) to the effector (producer of response).

Q2. Assertion (A): Blood cells do not receive or pass information to the rest of the
human body.
Reason (R): Blood cells are not directly connected with neurons.

Q3. Assertion: Cytokinins are present in highest concentration in seeds.

Reason: Cytokinins are a responsible for promoting cell division.

Q4. Assertion: It is advised to have iodised salt in our diet.

Reason: It prevents us from goitre.

Q5. Assertion(A): A receptor is a specialized group of cells in a sense organ that

perceive a particular type of stimulus.
Reason (R): Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.

Q6. Assertion(A): The spinal nerves are 31 in number.

Reason (R): The spinal nerves assist the spinal cord to function.

Q7. Assertion(A): Walking, riding a bicycle are involuntary actions controlled by hind
brain.
Reason (R): Walking, riding a bicycle are controlled by cerebellum.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?

Q2. As first line of defense, stress hormones are released in humans.As an

equivalent, which hormone is likely to be released as first line of defense in plants

Q3. Sheila saw a snake and instantly jumped back. She slowly moved away from the
snake. What is the difference between the actions of instantly jumping and walking
away?

Q4. While on a roller coaster ride, Aditya noticed an increase in his heart beat and
his breathing. Which hormone is responsible for the changes in Aditya’s body?

Q5. Rita, say she suffers from hypothyroidism. Which is function is disrupted in this
deficiency disease?
 134

Q6. Name the structure that protects the spinal cord.

Q7. Which stimulus is related to thigmotropism?

Q8. Pick out the dual glands from the followingand give reason.

(i) Salivary glands (ii) Liver (iii)Pancreas

Q9. Name the gland which is associated with the following problems:
(i) A girl has grown extremely tall
(ii) A woman has swollen neck

Q10.Which of the following actions are involuntary.

(i) Shivering when it is too cold.

(ii) Cutting fruits for making fruit salad.

(iii) Changing channels on TV to watch your favourite programme.

(iv) Peristaltic movement in oesophagus when swallowing food.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Write the name and function of parts in the diagram given below:

Q2. Draw a neat diagram of neuron and label the following.

(i) Part where information is first received.

(ii) Part through which impulse travels.

(iii) Part through which it is released into synapse.

Q3. Raj is blindfolded. He is made to taste the food without seeing it. He
concludes that the food is burnt.
(a) What specific component of the tongue helped him conclude the
taste of the food?
(b) If the food was crunchy, which part of the brain would help him
recognize this texture of the food?
Q4. Raghav was watching Nia and made the following observation:
Nia was practicing boxing. As her opponent swung an arm, Nia ducked
down and retaliated with a punch.
 135

(a) Raghav said that ducking down is a reflex action. Is he correct?

Justify.
(b) Explain the nervous process involved in Nia's retaliation with a
punch.

Q5. Here is a picture of a germinating seed.

(a) What is the environmental stimulus required for the seed to develop roots
downwards and shoots upwards? Name the respective phenomenon.

(b) What environmental factor in the experimental setup shown below can be
altered in Figure X to observe the direction of root growth as observed in Figure
Y?

(c) Name the tropic movement that occurs when pollen tubes grow towards ovules.

Q6. Ovary is a dual gland. Justify.

Q7. How does feedback mechanism regulate hormone secretion?

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Answer the following questions:

(i) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? Name the disease caused due to
deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(ii) How do nerve impulses travel in the body? Explain.

Q2.(a) Give the difference between a reflex action and reflex arc?
(b) Write the differences between the manner in which movement takes place in a
sensitive plant and movement in our legs?

Q3. What are reflex actions? Give examples? Explain reflex arc with an example
with labelled diagram?
 136

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1. Read the following passage and answer the questions followed
Some plants like the pea plant climb up other plants or fences by means of tendrils.
These tendrils are sensitive to touch. When they come in contact with any support,
the part of the tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part
of the tendril away from the object. This causes the tendril to circle around the object
and thus cling to it. More commonly, plants respond to stimuli slowly by growing in a
particular direction. Because this growth is directional, it appears as if the plant is
moving.
1.1 Name different types of tropism are shown by plants?
1.2 The movement of ‘touch me not’ plant is different from growth of shoot in the
response to light What is the difference?
1.3 Give one example of chemotropism?
1.4 Name the plants hormones which promote and inhibit cell division in plants.

Q2. Read the following passage and answer the questions followed:-
The term neurodegeneration is a combination of two words - "neuro," referring to
nerve cells and "degeneration," referring to progressive damage. The term
"neurodegeneration" can be applied to several conditions that result in the loss of
nerve structure and function. This deterioration gradually causes a loss of cognitive
abilities such as memory and decision making. Neurodegeneration is a key aspect of
a large number of diseases that come under the umbrella of “neurodegenerative
diseases.” Of these hundreds of different disorders, so far attention has been mainly
focused on only a handful, with the most notable being Parkinson’s disease,
Huntington's disease and Alzheimer’s disease. A large proportion of the less
publicized diseases have essentially been ignored.
2.1 Name any two diseases that are caused due to neurodegeneration.
2.2 Neurodegenerative diseases are cause of concern. Give reason.

Q3. Study the table given below and answer the questions.
S. No Name of the plant Uses
hormone
1 Abscisic acid Seed dormancy
2 Cytokinins Cell elongation and
termination
3 Auxins Promotes cell division
4 Ethylene Ripening of fruits
3.1 Name the plant hormone that regulates phototropism.
3.2 State the plant hormone that stimulates ripening of fruits.
3.3 Name the plant hormone that helps stimulate the opening and closing of
stomata.
3.4 Name the plant hormone that participates in the process of thigmotropism.

Q4 Read the information and answer the questions

Body consists of dense networks of intricately arranged neurons. It sits in the forward
end of the skull, and receives signals from all over the body which it thinks about
before responding to them. Obviously, in order to receive these signals, this thinking
 137

part of the brain in the skull must be connected to nerves coming from various parts
of the body.

4.1 Define reflex action?

4.2 Name the main organs of CNS.
4.3 Draw a flow chart of a reflex arc?

REFERENCES
1) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=6-13
2)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf

5) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf

6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1CuAzYjVWQyBSYFDlzBJZFdyziCyz1CV3/edit
#heading=h.gjdgxs

CHAPTER 6
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. (c) dendritic end
Q2. (b) insufficient production of insulin in her body
Q3.
d) Hind brain Cerebellum

Q4. (c) trim the hedge by cutting off the tips of the stems
Q5. (a) Dendrite→cell body→axon→nerve ending
Q6. (a)Bright light→ receptors in eyes → sensory neuron→spinal cord→motor
neurons→eyelid closes.
Q7. (d)hind brain- medulla
Q8. (b)The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from cell to
cell.
 138

Q9. (a) Synapse

Q10. (d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Q1. (b)
Q2. (d)
Q3. (a)
Q4. (a)
Q5. (a)
Q6. (d)
Q7. (c)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1. Reflex actions
Q2. Abscisic Acid/ABA
Q3. Instant jumping- involuntary & reflex action; walking away- voluntary & slow
action
Q4. Adrenaline
Q5. Thyroid hormones play a key role in regulating metabolism, Hypothyroidism
slows down carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism, leading to fatigue and weight
gain.
Q6. Vertebral column
Q7. Thigmotropism is a directional growth movement exhibited by some plants and
fungi in response to touch or physical contact with a solid object.
Q8. Pancreas: The pancreas is a dual gland because it has:

• Exocrine function: It releases digestive enzymes to break down

carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
• Endocrine function: It also secretes hormones like insulin and glucagon
regulating blood sugar levels.

Q9. (i) A girl has grown extremely tall – Pituitary gland

(ii) A woman has swollen neck- Thyroid gland.
Q10. (i) Shivering when it is too cold.
(iv) Peristaltic movement in oesophagus when swallowing food.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. a- receptor – to receive stimulus and triggers a signal.
b-sensory neuron- carries the signal generated by the receptor towards the
spinal cord (CNS) as an electrical impulse.
 139

c- motor neuron- The motor neuron carries the outgoing signal after
interpretation by spinal cord (CNS) to the effector organ.
d- spinal cord- This is the processing centre of the reflex arc, where the signal is
interpreted an appropriate response is decided.
Q2. (i)dendrites. (ii) axon (iii) nerve ending.
Figure 6.1 page 101 NCERT
Q3. (a)The gustatory receptors on the tongue help us to identify the taste
of the food.
(b) Fore brain has a specialized function of hearing. Crunch in the food
can be heard, and this is processed by the forebrain
Q4. Yes, (a) Nia ducked down because of reflex action.
(b)-Nia's brain received the signal from the eyes through sensory nerves,
and the brain processed this signal.

- The brain sent the signal to the hand, through motor nerves to punch
back.

Q. 5(a) –roots growing downwards -stimulus:gravity, phenomenon:positive

geotropism

-shoot growing upwards -stimulus: sunlight, phenomenon:positive

phototropism

(b)The environmental factor that can be altered is adding a

source of water/nutrients towards one side of the root.

(c)The tropic movement that occurs when pollen tubes grow

towards ovules is called chemotropism.

Q 6 Ovary performs two main functions:

(i) Reproductive Function: The ovary produces female sex cells or ova (eggs).

(ii) Endocrine Function: The ovary secrets hormones like oestrogen and
progesterone for the female reproductive system and overall health.

Q. 7 The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback

mechanisms. For example, if the sugar levels in blood rise, they are detected by the
cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the
blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1. (i) Iodised salt is advisable because iodine is necessary for the formation of
thyroxin hormone by thyroid gland. Goitre is the disease caused due to its deficiency.
Symptom: The neck of the person appears to be swollen due to the enlargement of
thyroid gland. (ii) Two neurons are not joined to one another completely. There is a
small gap between a pair of neurons. This gap is called synapse. The nerve
impulses are carried out to this gap by the help of neuro transmitter (chemical
 140

substance). The conduction of nerve impulse through the synapse takes place in the
form of electrical nerve impulse. When a stimulus acts on the receptor, an electrical
impulse is produced with the help of chemicals through the synapse and then to the
other neuron. Thus, in this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
Q2.(a) Reflex Action: A reflex action is an involuntary, automatic, rapid response to a
stimulus at the level of spinal cord for our protection and well-being.

Reflex Arc: is the pathway through which a reflex action occurs.

(b)
Movement in a sensitive Movement in our legs
plant
No specialized tissue Specialized nervous tissue
Change shape depending Contract or relax by the
upon the amount of water movement.
in them.
Do not have specialized Have specialized proteins.
proteins.

Q3. Reflex action is a quick, automatic, involuntary, unconscious response in the

body brought about by a stimulus.

Examples of reflex action:

1. Withdrawal of hand suddenly on touching a hot plate.
2. Withdrawal of finger suddenly when pricked by a thorn.
3. Shivering of the body on feeling cold.
4. Sudden closure of the eyelids when bright light falls on the eye.
Reflex arc: It is the shortest route taken by impulse from receptor to effector.
Example: When we touch a hot plate by our finger, we instantly withdraw our hand.
Here stimulus is touching a hot plate, receptors are our fingers. The specialised
epithelial cells of our fingers respond to stimulus and convert into impulse. This
impulse is carried by sensory neuron to spinal cord which generates a motor
impulse. This impulse is carried by motor neuron to effector organ i.e., muscles of
hand. Response is withdrawal of our hand
CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED
Q1.1 phototropism, geotropism, chemotropism, thigmotropism and hydrotropism.
(any two)
Q1.2 The movement of ‘touch me not’ plant is a nastic movement.
Q1.3 growth of pollen tubes to ovules is one example of chemotropism.
Q1.4 Cytokinins promotes cell division in plants. Abscisic acid inhibits plant growth.
Q2.1 Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease (any two)
 141

Q2.2 Neurodegenerative diseases are cause of concern because they gradually

cause loss of cognitive abilities such as loss of memory and decision making
Q3.1 auxin
Q3.2 ethlyene
Q3.3 Cytokinin.
Q3.4 Auxin
Q4.1 Path through which a reflex action travel.
Q4.2 Brain and Spinal Cord

Q4.3

REFERENCES
1) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=6-13
2)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf

5) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf

6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1CuAzYjVWQyBSYFDlzBJZFdyziCyz1CV3/edit
#heading=h.gjdgxs

***************************************
 142

CHAPTER 7
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?

QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. Contraceptives help in preventing pregnancies. What function would a

contraceptive loop inserted at T serve?

(a) Stopping sperms from reaching and fertilizing eggs

(b) Stopping release of sperms

(c) Blocking the release of eggs

(d) Stopping egg creation

Q2. Identify the example that best describes a response to a stimulus.

(a)Absorption of sunlight by chloroplast

(b) Germination of pollen grains on the stigma
(c) Absorption of nutrients from the soil through root hairs
(d)Transportation of water and nutrients through the xylem

Q3. The thread like structure that develop on a moist slice of bread in Rhizopus are:
(a) Sporangia
(b) Filaments
(c) Rhizoids
(d) Hyphae

Q4. In the male reproductive system along the path of the vas-deferens the
secretions of which gland provide nutrition and mobility to the sperms? (a) Prostate
glands (b) Seminal vesicles (c) both a and b (d) Scrotum

Q5. In the below figure the parts A, B and C are sequentially

(a) Cotyledon, plumule and radicle
(b) Plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle
(d) Radicle, cotyledon and plumule

Q6. Choose the correct order of the stages of binary fission in Leishmania.

(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI

(b) I, III, II, V, IV, VI
 143

(c) I, III, V, II, VI, IV

(d) I, II, III, V, VI, V

Q7. Among the following diseases, which is not sexually transmitted?

(a) Syphilis (b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS (d) Gonorrhoea

Q8. Select the correct sequence of acts that leads to pregnancy in a female
1) Fertilisation of egg 2) ovulation 3) Formation of zygote 4) implantation
(a) 4,3,2,1 (b) 2,1,3,4

(c) 1,2,3,4 (d) 4,3,1,2

Q9. The image shows the structure of a flower. Out of the following processes,
which one is likely be disturbed or not will not take place, if the labelled part is
removed from the flower?

(a) formation of fruit

(b) transport of pollen
(c) formation of pollen
(d) development of pollen tube.

Q10. The diagram below represents the male human reproductive system.
Identify the part that is resposible for the secretion of testosterone.

(a) P (b) Q (c ) R (d) S

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Answer the question selecting appropriate options given below:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
 144

Q1. Assertion (A): Plants that can reproduce asexually cannot reproduce sexually.

Reason (R): Asexual reproduction does not involve the production of gametes.

Q2. Assertion (A): An organism with 24 chromosomes undergoes binary fission to

give rise to daughter cells with 12 chromosomes each.
Reason (R): Binary fission gives rise to two identical daughter cells.

Q3. Assertion (A): Testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity
in scrotum.
Reason (R): scrotum provides a lower temperature than the normal body
temperature for sperm formation.
Q4. Assertion (A): Amoeba takes in food using finger like extensions of the cell
surface.
Reason (R): In all unicellular organism the food is taken in by the entire cell
surface.

Q5. Assertion: Zygote is formed by fusion of sperm with Egg.

Reason: Both the sperm and the egg are haploid.

Q6. Assertion: Urethra forms the common passage for both the sperms and urine.
Reason: It carries both of them outside the male body.

Q7. Assertion: HIV-AIDS is a viral disease.

Reason: It does not spread through sharing of food and shaking hands.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 Kirti wants to produce a hybrid variety of tomatoes. She has tomato plants X and
Y belonging to two different varieties, one with smooth, long fruits and the other one
with wrinkled, round fruits. Tomatoes have bisexual flowers. Kirti carries out the
following steps carefully to cross pollinate the flowers of plants X and Y:
i. She removes a part of the flowers of tomato plant X just before the flowers
bloom.
ii. She manually pollinates the flowers of tomato plant X using pollen from the
flowers of tomato plant Y.
iii. She ties small plastic bags around the pollinated flowers of tomato plant X.
The plastic bags are removed after a couple of days.
What could be reason for covering the pollinated flowers of plant X?
Q2. A new sugarcane plant is genetically the same as the parent plant, but
a child of human parents is genetically not the same as its parents. Explain
why.
Q3. Sita is very fond of gardening. She has different flowering plants in her garden.
One day few naughty children entered her garden and plucked many leaves of
Bryophyllum plant and threw them here in the garden. After few days, Sita observed
that new Bryophyllum plants were coming out from the leaves which fell on the
ground. What does the incident sited in the paragraph indicate?
Q4. Name two bacterial STDs.
 145

Q5. What is the site of fertilization in human being?

Q6. Give the full form of IUCD.
Q7. How is binary fission different from multiple fission?
Q8. Which of the following is a unisexual flower bearing plant?
Q9. Which of the two self-pollination or cross pollination has greater chances
of bringing variations in the progeny? If yes, then why?
Q10. Which tissue provides nutrition to the growing fetus in the womb?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q.1 Compare the reproductive parts of flowers and humans and answer the
questions below:

(a) Which part of the human female reproductive system has a similar function as
the stigma in a flower? Give a reason to support your answer.

(b) Testes in the male reproductive system would correspond to which part of the
male reproductive system in a flower? Justify.

(c) The style of a flower and the fallopian tube in humans correspond functionally
with each other. Is this statement true? Justify your answer.

Q2. Walnut plants belong to a category of plants where the male and female flowers
grow separately on the same plant. A scientist took three plants - P, Q and R. He
removed the male flowers from plant P and the female flowers from plant Q. Plant R,
he left as it is - with both flowers on the same plant. He kept all three plants in an
open space. Will any of these plant/s bear fruits? Justify your answer.

Q3. Bindu wants to try producing a hybrid variety of pumpkins from two varieties P
and Q. Pumpkin plants have unisexual flowers, with both male and female flowers on
all plants. There is a slight variation in the procedure as described below:
- She does NOT remove any part from the pumpkin flowers she wants to
pollinate.
- However, she still ties small plastic bags around the manually pollinated flowers.
Explain why Bindu does not remove any part from the flowers to be pollinated, but
still ties small plastic bags after pollination.

Q4. Justify the following statement:

“The use of contraceptive methods has a direct effect on the health and prosperity of
a family.”
Q5. List differences between pollination and fertilization.

Q6. (a) Name the parts 1 to 4 of human female reproductive system.

(b) Name the part where implantation takes place in the system.
 146

Q7. Read the table and fill the where “? “present

Plant/ animal Reproduction type

Amoeba ?
? Multiple fission
Strawberry ?
? Regeneration
? Budding
Mango, Apples, Pea ?
? Spore formation
Rose, chrysanthemum, grapes ?

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Water hyacinths reproduce both sexually and asexually. They reproduce
sexually by producing seeds through flowers, and asexually by bud formation or
fragmentation. It undergoes reproduction through either of the methods depending
on environmental conditions. Water hyacinths bloom freely in water-rich conditions
whereas, reproduction for survival is more effort- intensive in water-scarce
conditions.

(a) Explain why this variation in reproduction is required in water hyacinths.

(b) Which mode of reproduction is likely to occur in the following conditions?

(i) abundance of water (ii) scarcity of water

Q2. Vasectomy is a method of contraception in males where the vasa

differentia is tied or sealed so as to prevent sperm from entering the
urethra. The diagram below represents the human female reproductive
system with some of its parts marked P, Q, R, S, T.

(a) Identify the labelled part that will be operated on for 'tubectomy' in

females. State its function.

(b) Kavya says that if part R is removed the female would not be able to

produce eggs. Is she correct? Justify.

 147

Q3. Flower if the reproductive organ in the plants. Answer the following questions

A) Name the essential and non- essential parts of

the flower.

B) Where the pollen grains developed?

C) Which parts produced fruit and seed after the process of fertilization in

flowering plants?

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1. Menstrual cycle is the cycle of events taking place in female reproductive
organs, under the control of sex hormones, in every 28 days. At an interval of 28
days, a single egg is released from either of two ovaries. Regular menstrual cycle
stopped abruptly in a married woman. She got herself tested and was happy to
discover that she is pregnant with her first baby.
1.1 Write the function of placenta.
1.2 What is the average duration of menstrual flow per month for normal adult
female?
1.3 Give reason why menstruation stops in a pregnant female?

Q2. A newly married couple does not want have children for few years. They
consulted a doctor who advised them barrier method and chemical method of birth
control. Yet another couple who already have two children and are middle aged also
consulted doctor for some permanent solution to avoid unwanted pregnancy. Doctor
advised them surgical method of birth control.
2.1 Give two barrier methods of birth control.
2.2 How oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy?
2.3 What are the side effects of using Copper T by females? Irritation of uterus and
can cause infection.
2.4 Which parts of reproductive systems are blocked surgically to control
pregnancies?

Q3. X, Y and Z are three sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). X and Z are caused
by bacteria whereas Y is caused by virus P. Virus P lowers the immunity of a person
and leads to an incurable disease. X starts as painless sores on genitals rectum or
mouth. Z causes painful urination and abnormal discharge from genitals.
3.1 If X: Gonorrhoea, Z: _______?
3.2 Identify virus P from the given paragraph.
3.3 How can disease Y be prevented?
 148

REFERENCES

✓ https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%2
0Book.pdf
✓ https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
✓ https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
✓ https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_mate rial/term/10science.pdf
✓ https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=7-13
✓ https://docs.google.com/document/d/1FfOsSYgkRKVb34iFt244PCQXY6V1N1
Zx/edit#heading=h.gjdgxs
✓ https://docs.google.com/document/d/1T3olOmki7xMG77odyitXIld4hL8RFjip/e
dit#heading=h.gjdgxs

CHAPTER 7
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
ANSWER KEY
Multiple choice questions

Q1.(a) Stopping sperms from reaching and fertilizing eggs

Q2.(b) Germination of pollen grains on the stigma
Q3. (d) Hyphae
Q4. (c) both a and b
Q5. (c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle
Q6. (a) I, II, III, VI, V, VI
Q7. (b) Hepatitis
Q8. (b) 2,1,3,4
Q9. (a) formation of fruit
Q10.(d) S

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Q1.(d)
Q2.(d)
Q3.(a)
Q4.(c )
Q5.(b)
Q6.(a)
Q7.(a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. to prevent pollen from other plants from reaching the stigma.
 149

Q2. New sugarcane plants are produced by vegetative propagation which

is an asexual method of reproduction. Only one parent is involved and
there is no mixing of gametes.

Humans reproduce through sexual reproduction involving two parents and

the mixing of male and female gametes, which results in the offspring
having the genes of both parents.

Q3. Bryophyllum leaves have notches along their margins. These notches are where
tiny plantlets, with roots and shoots, develop. Bryophyllum exhibited vegetative
propagation, a type of asexual reproduction.

Q4. Syphilis and Gonorrhoea

Q5. Oviduct / Fallopian tube

Q6. Intrauterine Contraceptive Device.

Q7. Binary fission: Results in the formation of two daughter cells from the parent cell.

Multiple fission: Results in the formation of multiple (more than two) daughter cells
from the parent cell.

Q8. Papaya, Watermelon

Q9. In cross-pollination, pollen from the stamen of one plant fertilizes the ovule of a
different plant. This mixing of genetic material from two different parents creates
offspring with a greater chance of genetic variation.

Q10. The tissue that provides nutrition to the growing foetus in the womb of the
mother is the placenta.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q.1 (a) Vagina - Reason - The stigma of the flower serves as the point of entry of the
male gametes/pollen grains, similarly, the cervix serves as the point of entry of the
male gametes/sperm in humans/ vagina receives the male gametes in humans.

(b) Part - anther - Function - produces male gametes in form of pollen, just like testes
which produce sperms

(c) False - Reason - the main function of the fallopian tube is to serve as the point of
fertilisation, which is not the function of the style in flowers.

Q2. Plants P and R will bear fruits. Plant P has the female reproductive
organs which can receive pollen and fertilisation can take place.

Plant R has both sexes on the same plant facilitating pollination and
fertilisation.
 150

Q3. She does not remove any part from the flowers to be pollinated
because the female pumpkin flowers don't have any male parts.

She still ties the pollinated flowers because the pollen from other male
flowers can still reach the stigma.
Q4. (i) Contraception allows couples to plan their family size and space births. With
control over family size, families can better manage their finances.
(ii) Unplanned pregnancies, especially for young women or those with health
concerns, can pose significant health risks. Contraception helps women avoid
unwanted pregnancies and potential complications during pregnancy and childbirth.
(iii) Some contraceptive methods, like condoms, offer protection against sexually
transmitted infections (STIs), which can benefit the overall sexual health of both
partners.
Q5.
Pollination Fertilization
1)Transfer of pollen grains on stigma. 1) fusion of gametes
2) physical process with the help of 2) chemical process followed by
external agents needed pollination.
3) self or cross pollination take place 3) Double fertilization occurs in flowering
in plants plants
Q6. (a) 1- fallopian tube/ oviduct 2- ovary 3- uterus 4- vagina (b) Uterus
Q7.
Plant/ animal Reproduction type
Amoeba Binary fission/ Asexual reproduction
Plasmodium Multiple fission
Strawberry Vegetative reproduction/ Asexual
reproduction
Hydra/ Planaria Regeneration
Hydra/ Yeast Budding
Mango, Apples, Pea Sexual reproduction
Rhizopus Spore formation
Rose, chrysanthemum, grapes Vegetative propagation / asexual
reproduction

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. (a)The population of each species thrives in its specific habitat/niche, having
particular environmental conditions which can change due to reasons beyond the
organisms' control - Having variation ensures greater chances of survival through
such changes.
(i) abundance of water- asexual reproduction - In its natural environment, the
organism is likely to undergo an energy- efficient method of reproduction such as
asexual reproduction.
(ii) scarcity of water - sexual reproduction - In a stressed environment, the organism
is likely to opt for the effort-intensive method for survival.
 151

Q2. (a) Part Q - Fallopian tube Function - Acts as the fertilization place for egg
& sperm.
(b) No, she is not correct.
Q3. A. (i)essential- stamen and pistil
(ii)Non-essential – sepals and petals
B. anther
C. (i)Ovary develops into fruit
(ii)ovule develops into seed.

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED TYPE

Q1.1 Provide nutrition to the growing foetus and removes wastes from the growing
foetus through mother’s body.
Q1.2 four to five days
Q1.3 Menstruation is triggered by the unfertilized egg leaving the ovary. During
pregnancy, ovulation (release of an egg) stops. The uterine lining to thicken and
prepare for implantation, and consequently, no menstruation occurs.

Q2.1 Condom, Diaphragm

Q2.2 Bring about hormonal imbalance affecting release eggs
Q2.3 Irritation of uterus and can cause infection.
Q2.4 Fallopian tube in female and vas deferens in male

Q3.1 Syphilis
Q3.2 P is Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q3.3 Use of sterilised needles and blades, protected sexual contact, blood
transfusion only after blood tests etc.

REFERENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_mate rial/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=7-13
6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1FfOsSYgkRKVb34iFt244PCQXY6V1N1Zx/edit
#heading=h.gjdgxs
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1T3olOmki7xMG77odyitXIld4hL8RFjip/edit#hea
ding=h.gjdgxs

*******************************************************
 152

CHAPTER 8
HEREDITY

QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Q1) If a tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRr) is crossed with another pea plant
that is short and has white flowers (ttrr), what percentage of GAMETES will have
both alleles for short and white flowers?
(a) 0% (b) 25% (c ) 50% (d) 75%
Q.2 Manisha is an Indian actress. She was born in Delhi to a homemaker mother
and an engineer father. She is around 5 feet tall. She has naturally curly hair. She
has trained in contemporary and ballet dancing. Which of these is MOST LIKELY to
be true about her children?
(a) They may dance well.
(b) They may grow up to have curly hair.
(c) They may be born to an engineer father.
(d) They may become famous actors one day.
Q3. Which statement explains the Mendel’s law of segregation?
(a) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of an allele each from both the
parent.
(b) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of two alleles each from both the
parent.
(c) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of two alleles each from either of
the parent.
(d) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of one allele each from either of
the parent. Q4.
Q4. The inheritance of color trait in flower is as shown. R and r denote two different
genes for color.

Which law of Mendel can be explained using the image?

(a) Only Law of segregation
(b) Only Law of independent assortment
(c) Only Law of segregation and Law of dominance
(d) none of the above
Q5. Two individuals are as shown using geometric shapes. Their sex chromosomes
are respectively denoted by Xf Xm, and Y. What are the possible combinations of
sex chromosomes for their male and female offspring respectively?
 153

(a) Xf Xm and Xm Xm
(b) Xm Y and Xm Xm
(c) Xf Y and Xm Y
(d) Xm Y and Xm Xf
Q6. Attached earlobes in humans is an inherited condition. The allele for attached
earlobes is recessive. What are the chances of parents, both having attached
earlobes, to have a child with attached earlobes.
(a) 0% (b)25% (c ) 75% (d) 100%
Q7. Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on the following
organism.
(a) Drosophila (b) Escherichia Coli (c) Pisum sativum (d) All of these
Q8. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
(a) One person has a scar, but his friend doesn’t.
(b) One person is older than the other.
(c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian.
(d) Two children have different eye colour.
Q9. A monohybrid cross is conducted between one variety of pea plants having pods
that are full (FF) and another having pods that are constrcted(ff). What is the
percentage of heterozygous offsprings in F1 generation.
(a) 100% (b) 75% (c )50% (d) 25%
Q10. The section of DNA that provide information for one protein?
(a) Nucleus (b) Chromosome (c) Trait (d) Gene

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Q1. Assertion: Accumulation of variation in a species increases the chances of its

survival in changing environment.
Reason: Accumulation of heat resistance in some bacteria ensures their survival
even when temperature in environment rises too much.
Q2. Assertion (A): Mendel selected the pea plant for his experiments.
Reason (R): Pea plant is cross-pollinating and has unisexual flowers.
Q3. Assertion: Genes present in every cell of an organism control the traits of the
organisms.
Reason: Gene is specific segment of DNA occupying specific position on a
chromosome.
Q4. Assertion (A): The sex of a child is determined by the mother.
Reason (R): Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.
 154

Q5. Assertion: Monohybrid cross deals with inheritance of one pair of contrasting
characters.
Reason: Dihybrid cross deals with inheritance of two pairs of contrasting
characters.
Q6. Assertion: Genetics is described as a science which deals with heredity.
Reason: Heredity is the transmission of characters from parents to off springs.
Q7. Assertion: When pea plants having round yellow seeds are crossed with plants
having wrinkled green seeds, then all pea plants obtained in F1, generation bear
wrinkled green seeds.
Reason: Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled and green seeds.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 The farmer concludes that the allele for green seeds shows dominance over that
of yellow seeds. Is he right? Justify your answer.
Q2. The farmer crosses two heterozygous green seeded plants and obtains 100
plants in the F1 generation.What would be the number of green and yellow seeds
respectively in F1 generations.
Q3. What should be the genotype of the parent plants to give green and yellow
seeds in equal proportions?
Q4. Haploid (n) means a cell has one set of chromosomes and Diploid (2n) means a
cell has two sets of chromosomes. Based on this information write the ploidy of (i)
human gamete and (ii) human body cell.
Q5. What is the ratio of monohybrid and dihybrid cross?
Q6. Give the term for generation obtained on a cross between first set of parents.
Q7. Who is called the father of genetics?
Q8. Which type of variation is shown by two siblings having different eye colors?
Q9. An allele/trait, whose phenotype (physical appearance) will be expressed even
in the presence of another allele of that gene. It is represented by a capital letter. It is
called _________.
Q10. Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants to study
heredity. What is the scientific name of the pea plant?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. The picture below is of the chromosome pairs present in a cell of a person.
(a) Identify the sex of the person. Give reasons for your answer.
(b) State the number of chromosomes pairs present in a male or female gamete.
Q2. Sex determination in humans happens through sex chromosomes. Along with
other parameters, such processes often help in forensic studies in crime
investigations and/or identification of accidents and natural calamities. In order to
 155

determine whether an accident victim is male or female, which cells can be used and
why?
Q3. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
Q4. “Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive
in a population.” Justify this statement.
Q5. Name the organism Mendel used for his experiments. Explain about F1 and F2
progeny obtained by
Mendel when he bred tall and short varieties of the organism he experimented with.

Q6. Genotype of a plant bearing purple flowers is PP and one with white flowers is
pp. When these are crossed:
(a) Identify the colour of the flowers would you find in F1 progeny?
(b) Give the percentage of white flowers if F1 plants are self-pollinated.

Q7. In a monohybrid cross of tall Pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants
denoted by tt, Preethi obtained only tall plants (denoted by Tt) in F1 generation.
However, in F2 generation she obtained both tall and short plants. Using the above
information, explain the law of dominance.

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Consider a pea plant that is recessive for plant height. It’s genotype is ‘stand
‘phenotype’ is dwarf.
(a) Assuming that the gene for plant height obeys the Mendel’s laws of inheritance,
indicate the genotypes and phenotypes of all possible parents that could have dwarf
offspring.
(b) Perform a cross between Tt x Tt to show the genotypes of the offspring that might
arise in the next generation.
Q2. (i) Differentiate between Homozygous and Heterozygous allele.
(ii) Why dwarf character not expressed in F1 generation of Monohybrid cross?
Q3. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the (a) Traits may be dominant or
recessive, (b) Traits are inherited independently?

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1 Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven
years and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. He investigated
characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits, e.g.,
tall or dwarf plants, yellow and green seeds, etc
Q1.1 Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by Mendel,
how many traits were related to flower, pod and seed respectively.
Q1.2 In a dihybrid cross what are the possible genotypes of (i) Round and yellow
seeds (ii) wrinkled and green seeds

Q2. The most obvious outcome of the reproduction process is the generation of
individuals of several designs, but in sexual reproduction they may not be exactly
alike. The resemblances as well as differences are marked. The rules of heredity
 156

determine the process traits and characteristics are reliably inherited. Many
experiments have been done to study the rules of inheritance.
Q2.1 Which generation will the recessive trait for seed colour and shape of a pea
plant will be expressed in a dihybrid cross.
Q2.2 Write the phenotype and genotype of all progeny in F2 generation in a
dihybrid cross when a round and yellow seeds are crossed with wrinkled and green
seeds.
Q2.3 While performing experiments, what is the difference between F1 and F2
generation?

Q3. Sex determination is the method by which distinction between males and
females is established in a species. The sex of an individual is determined by
specific chromosomes. These chromosomes are called sex chromosomes or
allosomes. X and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes. The normal
chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes of an individual are known as
autosomes.
Q3.1 A couple has six daughters. Give the percentage of possibility of their having a
girl next time?
Q3.2 What is the number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is?
Q3.3 In XX-XY type of sex determination, which gametes are produced by a human
male?

REFERENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=8-13

CHAPTER 8
HEREDITY
ANSWER KEY
MCQ
Q1.(b) 25%
Q2.(b) They may grow up to have curly hair.
Q3. (a) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of an allele each from both
the parent.
Q4. (c) Only Law of segregation and Law of dominance
Q5. (d) Xm Y and Xm Xf
Q6.(d) 100%
Q7. (c) Pisum sativum
 157

Q8. (d) Two children have different eye colour.

Q9. (a) 100%
Q10. (d) Gene

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Q1. (a)
Q2. (c)
Q3. (b)
Q4. (d)
Q5. (b)
Q6. (b)
Q7.(d)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Yes, he is right, Since the offspring pod has all green seeds, the allele for green
seeds is dominant even if present in heterozygous state.
Q2. Green seeds- 75 and yellow seeds- 25
Q3. First parent- Gg Second parent - gg
Q4. (i)Human gametes (egg and sperm cells) have a haploid (n) ploidy, (ii) human
body cells have a diploid (2n) ploidy.
Q5. Monohybrid- 3:1 dihybrid – 9:3:3:1
Q6. First Filial 1 generation / F1 generation
Q7. Gregor Mendel.
Q8. Genetic variation
Q9. dominant allele.
Q10. Pisum sativum.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. (a) male. 23rd pair has X and Y chromosomes. (b) 23
Q2. (i) Any cell of the body (ii) every cell has a 23 rd chromosome as sex
chromosome
– if the sex chromosome is XX- then the victim is female and if the cell has sex
chromosome is XY – then the victim is male.
Q3. (i)Pea plants have a relatively short growing season, allowing Mendel to observe
multiple generations in a short period.
(ii)Pea plants possess several distinct, contrasting traits like seed colour (green or
yellow), seed shape (round or wrinkled), flower colour (purple or white), and plant
height (tall or short). These clear-cut differences made it easy for Mendel to track
inheritance patterns.
(iii) Mendel could also easily control pollination by manually transferring pollen
between different plants (cross-pollination). This control allowed him to study the
effects of specific crosses.
(iv)Pea plants produce many seeds in each pod, providing Mendel with a large
number of individuals to analyse in each generation.
(v)Pea plants are common and relatively easy to grow and maintain in a garden.
 158

Q4. Variation can increase the chance of survival, by favoring the propagation of
genes that increase survival chances and reproduction in a particular environment.
Over time, this process leads to populations better adapted to their surroundings.
Q5. Organism: Garden or Edible Pea (Pisurn sativum).

Q6. (a) Purple. (b) 25%

Q7. Appearance of trait of shortness in F2 generation shows that the trait was
present in F1 generation but was not expressed while the trait of tallness expressed
itself. The trait which expresses itself in the presence of its contrasting form is called
dominant. The other trait which is unable to express its effect in the presence of its
contrasting trait is known as recessive.

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1.(a) (i) Tt (tall) x Tt (tall) (ii) Tt (tall) x tt (dwarf) (iii) tt (dwarf ) x tt ( dwarf)
(b)

Q2(i)
Homozygous allele Heterozygous allele
1) Refers to a pair of genes where 1) Refers to a pair of genes where
both alleles are identical for a the alleles are different for a
 159

particular trait. particular trait.

2) Represented with two 2) Represented with one uppercase

lowercase letters (e.g., tt for letter and one lowercase letter (e.g.,
recessive trait) or two uppercase Tg)
letters (e.g., GG for dominant
trait).
3) An organism with homozygous 3) The dominant trait will only be
alleles will always express the expressed and the recessive trait
corresponding trait, whether remain masked.
dominant or recessive.

(ii) because the dominant allele masks the presence of the recessive allele.

Q3. (a) Dominant and Recessive Traits: Monohybrid Crosses: Mendel conducted
crosses between purebred plants with contrasting traits (e.g., tall vs. short). In the F1
generation, all offspring displayed only one parental trait. This suggested the
existence of alleles, different versions of a gene. The expressed trait in the F1
generation represents the dominant allele, while the masked trait represents the
recessive allele.
(b) Traits are Inherited Independently: Dihybrid Crosses: Mendel also performed
crosses involving two contrasting traits (e.g., round yellow seeds vs. wrinkled green
seeds). F1 Generation: Interestingly, the F1 generation did not show any
combinations of the non-dominant traits (wrinkled yellow or round green). All F1
plants exhibited the dominant combination (round yellow). This observation
supported independent inheritance. The inheritance of one trait (seed shape) wasn't
influenced by the inheritance of the other trait (seed colour).

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1.1 - 2 traits related to flower: Flower colour (purple or white) and Flower position
(axial or terminal).
2 traits related to pod: Pod shape (inflated or constricted) and Pod colour
(green or yellow).
2 traits related to seed: Seed shape (round or wrinkled) and Seed colour
(yellow or green).
Q1.2 (i) Round and yellow seeds – RRYY, RRYy, RrYY, RrYy (ii) wrinkled and
green seeds.- rryy
Q2.1 F2 generation.
Q2.2
Phenotype Genotype
Round, Yellow RRYY, RRYy, RrYY, RrYy (9 plants)
Round, Green RRyy, Rryy (3 plants)
Wrinkled, Yellow rrYY, rrYy (3 plants)
Wrinkled, Green rryy (1 plant)
 160

Q2.3
F1 generation
1) Usually heterozygous progeny 2) Dominant trait often expressed
F2
generation
1) Progeny show more genetic variations- homozygous and heterozygous.
2) Ration of dominant and recessive phenotypes based on inheritance pattern.

Q3.1 50%
Q3.2 22 pairs that is 44 number of autosomes.
Q3.3 males produce two different types of gametes. Males have one X chromosome
and one Y chromosome (XY). That are their gametes can be either sperm with an X
chromosome or sperm with a Y chromosome.

References
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=8-13

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 161

CHAPTER - 9
LIGHT- REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
Question Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the
holes on the other side B as shown in the figure below:

Which of the following could be inside the box?

A. Concave lens
B. Rectangular glass slab
C. Prism
D. Convex lens

2. Rays from sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where

should an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to that of the
object?
A. 30 cm in front of a mirror
B. 15 cm in front of a mirror
C. Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of a mirror
D. More than 30 cm in front of a mirror

3. The distance between the optical centre and point of convergence is called
focal length in which of the following cases?

A. B.

C. D.

4. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a

convex lens. He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens as
under:
• Position of candle- 26 cm
 162

• Position of convex lens- 50 cm

• Position of screen- 90 cm
Select the row containing the correct values as per sign convention:

Object distance(u) cm Image Distance (v) cm Focal length(f)

A. - 26 cm - 50 cm + 30 cm

B. - 26 cm - 40 cm - 15 cm

C. - 24 cm - 40 cm + 15 cm

D. - 24 cm + 40 cm + 15 cm

5. While looking at the diagram a student named Drishti concluded the following:

(i) The image of the object will be a virtual one.

(ii) The reflected ray will travel along the same path as the incident ray but in
opposite direction.
(iii) The image of the object will be inverted.
(iv) This is a concave mirror and hence the focal length will be negative.
Which one of the above statements is correct?
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

6. The refractive index of flint glass is 1.65 and that for alcohol is 1.36 with respect to
air. What is the refractive index of the flint glass with respect to alcohol?
A. 0.82
B. 1.21
C. 1.11
D. 1.01
 163

7. The refractive index of medium A is 1.5 and that of medium B is 1.33. If the
speed of light in air is 3 X 108 m/s, what is speed of light in medium A and B
respectively?
A. 2 X 108 m/s and 1.33 X 108 m/s
B. 1.33 X 108 m/s and 2 X 108 m/s
C. 2.25 X 108 m/s and 2 X 108 m/s
D. 2 X 108 m/s and 2.25 X 108 m/s

8. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass
slab traced by four students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. Which one of
them is correct?

A. B.

C. D.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason(R). Mark the correct choice as:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the
form of its mirror image in inverted form.
Reason(R): The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the object.
2. Assertion (A): A ray of light passing through the center of curvature of a
concave mirror is reflected back along the same path.
Reason (R): The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal at the point of
incidence lie on the same plane.
3. Assertion (A): The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real, if the
object is virtual.
Reason(R): The image formed by a concave mirror may be real or virtual
depending on the position of the object.
 164

4. Assertion (A): when a concave mirror is held under water, its focal length will
increase.
Reason(R): The focal length of a concave mirror is independent of the medium
in which it is placed.
SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS
1. Name two mirrors used in the beauty shop.
2. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
3. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
4. List two precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal
length of a given convex lens by obtaining image of a distant object on a screen.
5. An object of 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 64 cm from a white screen on
placing a convex lens at a distance of 32 cm from the object it is found that a
distant image of the object is formed on the screen. What is the focal length of the
convex lens and size of the image formed on the screen?
6. The refractive index of water is 1.33 and kerosene is 1.44. Calculate the refractive
index of kerosene with respect to water.
7. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term “Absolute refractive index of a
medium”. Write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
8. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length?

LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS

1. A converging lens has focal length of 12𝑐𝑚, calculate at what distance should
the object be placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 48𝑐𝑚 on the
other side of the lens.

2. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (v)
with object distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that
follow without doing any calculations:

S. No Object distance(u) Image distance(v)

1 -100 +25

2 -60 +30

3 -40 +40

4 -30 +60

5 -25 +100

6 -15 +120
 165

a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify you answer.
b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis
have you arrived at this conclusion.
c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S.
No. 2. Also find the approximate value of magnification.

3. (a) Two lens have power of +2D and - 4D. What is the nature and focal length of
each lens?
(b) An object is kept at a distance of 100 cm for a lens of power – 4D. Calculate
image distance.

CASE BASED / DATA BASED QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Following figure illustrates the ray diagram for the formation of image by a concave
mirror. The position of the object is beyond the centre of curvature of the concave
mirror.

A. If the focal length of the concave mirror is 10 cm, the image formed will be
_____.
B. An image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, when the object is at _____.
C. A negative sign in the magnification value indicates that the image is_____.
D. If the size of the object in the given figure is 5 cm and the magnification
produced is -0.5, the size of the image is ____cm.
2. A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by directing it from
different directions on a convex lens held vertically. She was surprised to see that
in a particular direction, the beam of light continues to move along the same
direction after passing through the lens.
A. State the reason for her observation.
B. Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.
C. What is concave and convex mirror?
 166

3. One of the most common uses of convex mirror is the passenger side mirror on
your car. Convex mirrors are also often found in the hallway of various buildings,

hospitals etc.
A. As the object is moved away from the focus of the convex mirror, what will be the
effect on the size of the image?
a. Size of the image increases
b. Size of the image decreases
c. Size of the image remains same
d. Size of the image decreases if the image shifts from focus towards the pole
B. Explain, why convex mirrors are used in shopping malls for security purposes?
C. What happened with image area cover range if we replace the convex mirror with
plane mirror?

LIGHT- REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

Answer Question Bank

Answer Key

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. B

Assertion-Reason Question Answers

1. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
 167

Short Answer Questions

1. In beauty shops two mirrors.
Concave Mirror: Concave mirror has reflecting surface inside. It is also called as
converging mirror as the light converges at a point.
Plane Mirror: It produce real time, same size image and prepare infinite image in
two plane mirror combination.

2. Convex mirror always gives smaller, virtual image and wider view of the road while
we are driving.
3. Size of image is equal to the size of the object
4. Any two of the following-
i. While placing the distant object, the object should be clearly visible.
ii. The image on the screen should be sharp and well defined.
iii. While measuring all the distances the scale should be kept parallel to the
ground.
iv. The meter should be properly placed between screen and centre of convex
lens.
5. According to the question object-screen distance is equal to the lens-image
distance. That means the object is at a distance of 2f from the lens and the image
should be of the same size of the object. Here the Object lens distance is equal to
2f = 32cm
So 2f = 32cm
f=16cm

Height of image = Height of object = 2cm.

6. Refractive index of water =nw=1.33
Refractive index of kerosene =nk=1.44
∴ Refractive index of kerosene with respect to water is nw/nk
So Refractive index of kerosene with respect of water = 1.33/1.44 = 1.082

7. Laws of Refraction: Snell's Law

• The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two
media at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
• For the light of a given color and for given pair of media, the ratio of the sine
of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant.
n1sinƟ1 = n2sinƟ2
n1 = incident index
n2 = refracted index
Ɵ1 = incident angle
Ɵ2 = refracted angle
8. Focal length = 1/2 x Radius of curvature = 1/2 x 20 cm = 10 cm

Long Answer Questions

1. Data given in question

The focal length of a converging lens is
𝑓=+12𝑐𝑚 (Focal length of a converging lens is positive)
Image distance
𝑣=+48𝑐𝑚 (Distance measured on the right side of the optical centre is positive)
 168

Lens formula,
1/𝑓=1/𝑣-1/𝑢 Where 𝑢 is the object distance

Substitute the values into the formula.

• 1/12𝑐𝑚=1/48𝑐𝑚-1/𝑢
• 1/𝑢 =1/48-1/12
• 1/𝑢=1-4/48
• 𝑢=48/-3𝑢
• 𝑢=-16𝑐𝑚
To form an image at 48𝑐𝑚 on the right side of the converging lens of focal
length 12𝑐𝑚, the object should be placed at 16𝑐𝑚 on the left side of the lens.

2. Data given in question

a) The focal length is calculated by f=R/2
Here in the table 3rd observation suggest the 2F (radius of curvature) value is 40 as
distance of object and the distance of the image is same. We know, focal length is
half of the radius of curvature.
f=R/2
f=40/2
f=20cm
(b) S. No. 6 is not correct, because for this observation the object distance is
between focus and pole and for such cases, the image formed is always virtual. But
in this case real image is formed as the image distance is positive.

(c)

From the figure, object distance u = - 60 cm and image distance v = 30 cm.

Magnification = v/u
Magnification = +30/−60
Magnification = −0.5

3. Data given in question

(a) Power of a lens is given by reciprocal of its focal length. i.e. 𝑃=1/(in meter)
A negative power means a negative focal length and positive power means positive
focal length. As we know, a converging or convex lens has a positive focal length
and a diverging or concave lens has a negative focal length. Therefore,
(i) The lens with positive power '+2D' is a converging lens
(ii) The lens with negative power '−4D' is a diverging lens in nature.

(b)Power of the lens = +2D, 𝑃=1/(in meter)

Focal length =1/𝑃
 169

1/𝑃=1/2m = 50cm
Object distance = -100 cm

Using the lens formula,

1/𝑣-1/(-100)=1/50
1𝑣=1/100
𝑣=100cm
So, the image distance for the first lens is 100 cm.
Magnification of the lens = 𝑣/𝑢
𝑣/𝑢=100cm/-100cm=-1

(ii) Power of the lens = -4D, 𝑃=1/(in meter)

Focal length =1/𝑃=-1/4m=-25cm
Object distance = -100 cm
Using the lens formula,
1/𝑣-1/(-100)=-1/25
1/𝑣=-1/20
𝑣=-20cm

So, the image distance for the second lens is -25 cm.
Magnification of the lens = v/u
v/u = -25cm/-100cm = ¼
v/u = 0.25

Case Based Questions Answers

1. A. More than 10 cm
B. Between pole and focus
C. Real and inverted
D. 2.5
2. A. A ray of light passes non-deviated through the optical centre of the lens. It
means that the ray of light passes along the same direction after passing through the
optical centre of the lens.
B.

C. If the inner side of the spherical mirror is reflecting, it is called a concave mirror. If
the outer side of the spherical mirror is reflecting, it is called a convex mirror.

3. A. B. Size of the image decreases

 170

B. Convex mirror is used for security purposes in shopping malls because of its
wider field of view. For the same purpose, neither a concave mirror nor a plane
mirror is suitable because of narrower field of view.
C. The plane mirror produces same size of image and the coverage area is
perpendicular parallel to the mirror so the purpose to place it on turns will be not
solved.
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 171

CHAPTER - 10
THE Human Eye and the Colorful World
Question Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. When we enter a dark room coming from outside, immediately the things inside
the room do not appear clear to our eyes. This is because
A. Pupils do not open at all in the dark
B. Pupils take time to adjust.
C. Light travels slower in a dark room.
D. Pupils open very quickly in the dark.
2. Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
A. 0 and infinity
B. 0 and 25 cm
C. 25 cm and infinity
D. 25 cm and 150 cm
3. Myopia and Hypermetropia can be corrected by
A. Concave and Plano-convex lens
B. Concave and convex lens
C. Convex and concave lens
D. Plano-concave lens for both defects.
4. Safar cannot see through the fog while driving, because
A. Refractive index of the fog is very high
B. Light suffers total reflection at droplets
C. Fog absorbs light
D. Light is scattered by the droplets
5. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
A. Dispersion of starlight by water droplets of the atmosphere
B. Refraction of starlight by different layers of varying refractive indices
C. Scattering of light by dust particles of the atmosphere
D. Reflection of starlight by different layers of varying refractive indices
6. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 4 m. This defect can be
corrected by using a lens of power
A. +0.4D
B. –0.4D
C. +0.25D
D. –0.25D
 172

7. With both eyes open, a person’s field of view is about:

A. 90o
B. 150o
C. 180o
D. 360o
8. Read statement A and B and choose the correct options from the following
a) Astigmatism usually is caused by an irregularly shaped cornea.
b) Rainbow is the natural phenomenon in which dispersion takes place.
A. Both 'a' and 'b' are true statements
B. Both 'a' and 'b' are false statements.
C. ‘a' is true while 'b' is false.
D. ‘a' is false while 'b' is true

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason(R). Mark the correct choice as:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is more than 25 cm away.

Reason(R): Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles containing concave
lenses.
2. Assertion (A): The light emerges from a parallel-sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with that in which enters the glass slab.
Reason (R): The perpendicular distance between the original path of incident ray
and emergent ray coming out of glass slab is called lateral displacement of the
emergent ray of light.
3. Assertion (A): A rainbow is sometimes seen in the sky in rainy season only
when observer’s back is towards the Sun.
Reason (R): Internal reflection in the water droplets causes dispersion and the
final rays are in backward direction.
4. Assertion (A): The Sun appears flattened at sunrise and sunset.
Reason (R): The Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset.

SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS

 173

1. Write the name of A, B, C, D, E in the given parts of human eye picture with

function.
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles
2. What is the power of accommodation of human eye? Explain why the image
distance in the eye does not change when we change the distance of an object
from the eye?
3. Draw a labeled diagram to explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky.
4. A narrow PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the
diagram. Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam
as observed on the screen DE.

5. List two causes of hypermetropia.

6. List the factors responsible for color of scattered light depends on.
7. Give reason -
a) No rainbow could be observed from the surface of moon by the astronauts.
b) If the Earth has no atmosphere, what change would be observed in the length of
day?
8. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What
could be the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?

LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS

1. Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labeled ray
diagram. Hence define the angle of deviation.

2. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident
on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.
3. Give reason for the following
 174

a) Danger signals are red in colour

b) Sun is visible two minutes before actual sunrise
c) Sky appears to be blue
d) Stars appears to twinkle
e) Sky appears to be dark from the surface of the moon

CASE BASED / DATA BASED QUESTIONS

1. Read the following and answer the following questions
Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through
earth’s atmosphere. As we move above the surface of earth, density of air goes
on decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also affect the optical
density of earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric refraction, stars seen
appear higher than they actual are; advanced sunrise; delayed sunset, oval
appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset; stars twinkle, planets do not.
a) Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) All of these
b) Apparent position of the star appears raised due to
(A) atmospheric refraction
(B) scattering of light
(C) both (a) and (b)
(D) none of these
c) The illusion of the flat and oval appearance of the sun during the sunset
is known as the-
(A) Mirage
(B) Looming
(C) Dispersion
(D) Atmospheric refraction
d) Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by
(A) Scattering of light
(B) Dispersion of light
(C) Atmospheric refraction
(D) Done of these
2. Whether the color of the ocean and the color of the sky are related? Is this the
same reason? But they occur independently of each other. In both the cases, the
preferential absorption of long wave length light gives rise to blue. The Ocean looks
blue, the blue wave length returned predominantly than longer wave length. Note
that this effect only works if the water is very pure.
A. Which phenomenon of light is the reason for blue color of sky?
B. The intensity of scattered light will be more in ______ (shorter / longer)
wavelength
C. Say Yes or No for the following:
(i) Red color of sun during sunset is due to scattering
 175

(ii) Twinkling of stars is due to scattering of light

3. Shalu observes that a 14-year-old student is not able to see clearly the questions
written on the blackboard placed at a distance of 5 m from him. Few questions came
to her mind. Give answers to the below questions:
(i) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(ii) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.
(iii) What is the other name of myopia?

CLASS X
Chapter – 10
The Human Eye and the Colorful World

Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1. B. Pupils take time to adjust.
2. C. 25 cm and infinity
3. B. Concave and convex lens
4. D. Light is scattered by the droplets
5. B. Refraction of starlight by different layers of varying refractive indices
6. C. +0.25 D
7. C. 180o
8. A. Both 'a' and 'b' are true statements

Assertion-Reason Question Answers

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B

Short Answer Questions

1.
A. Eye lens – The eye’s crystalline lens is located directly behind the pupil and
further focuses light.
B. Iris – The Iris of the eye controls the amount of light reaching the back of the
eye, by automatically adjusting the size of the aperture.
C. Cornea – Light is focused primarily by the Cornea, which is the clear front of the
eye. Cornea acts like a camera lens for the human eye.
D. Retina – Light focused by the cornea and crystalline lens then reaches the
retina, the light sensitive inner lining of the back of the eye.
E. Blind Spot - Blind spot is the region where the optic nerve passes through the
optic disk and out of the eyes.

2. The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of
accommodation. The ciliary muscles modify the curvature to some extent. The
change in the curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal length. Thus, the
 176

focal length of the human lens increases or decreases depending on the distance
of the object value to this distance of the image does not change. For example,
when the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin and its focal length
increases, thus enables us to see distant object clearly.
3. A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is
caused by dispersion of sunlight by rain water droplets. A rainbow is always
formed opposite to the Sun. The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract

and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally, refract it
again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and
internal reflection, different colors reach the observer’s eye.

4. If PQ were a ray of white light, then on screen AB, after the dispersion the
emergent light will be observed as a spectrum, consisting of seven colors
arranged from bottom to top as follows - Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow,

Orange, and Red (VIBGYOR) on screen DE.

5. Hypermetropia is caused due to following reasons:
(i) Shortening of the eyeball
(ii) Focal length of crystalline lens is too long.

6. The color of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
Very fine particles scatter mainly blue light while particle of larger size scatters
light of longer wavelengths
7.
a) Moon does not have atmosphere and consequently no water droplets present.
Hence no dispersion of sun rays is possible.
 177

b) In the absence of Earth’s atmosphere, the atmospheric refraction would not take
place and we would see the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun at the time of
sun rise and sun set. The day time would have been decreased by four minutes.

8. A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. It
shows that he is unable to see distant objects clearly. He is suffering from myopia.
This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens.

Long Answer Questions

1. Refraction of light through prism

PE – Incident ray
EF – Refracted ray
FS – Emergent ray
∠A – Angle of the prism
∠i – Angle of incidence
∠r – Angle of refraction
∠e – Angle of emergence
∠D – Angle of deviation
Refraction of light through a triangular glass prism
The refraction of light takes place at two surfaces firstly when light enters from air to
prism and secondly when light emerges from prism.
Angle of prism: The angle between the two lateral faces of the prism is called angle
of prism.
Angle of deviation: The angle between incident ray (produced forward) and
emergent ray.

2. When an inverted prism is kept a little distance away from the prism causing
dispersion or basically in the path of splitted beam, the spectrum recombines to form
white light. Recombination of the spectrum of white light

3.
(a) Due to its longer wavelength red is least scattered and can be seen from far
places.
(b) Because of atmospheric refraction.
(c) Due to the selective scattering of the blue component present in the sunlight by
the molecules present in the atmosphere.
(d) Stars appear to twinkle due to atmospheric refraction of starlight and physical
conditions of the earth’s atmosphere is not being stationary.
 178

(e) Sky appears to be dark from the surface of the moon because there are no
atmosphere particles to scatter sunlight.

Case Based Questions Answers

1. a) (A) Increase
Note: The sun is visible 2 minutes before the actual sunrise and 2 minutes after the
actual sunset due to atmospheric refraction. So, the total time lengthened is 2 + 2 =
4 minutes.
b) (A) Atmospheric refraction Real and inverted
c) (A) Mirage
d) (C) Atmospheric refraction
2. A. Scattering
B. Shorter
C. Yes, No in that order

3. A. The defect of vision he is suffering from is called short -sightedness (Myopia).

B. Concave lens (minus lens) is like two prisms placed apex to apex. Light passing
through a concave lens is diverged. Concave lenses are used to treat myopia.
C. Myopia, also known as near-sightedness and short-sightedness.

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 179

CHAPTER - 11
Electricity
Question Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The temperature of a conductor is increased. The graph best showing the
variation of its resistance is
A. B.

C. D.

2. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The
physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. None of these

3. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to
use a fuse wire of
A. More length
B. Less radius
C. Less length
D. More radius

4. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of
1/5 W?
A. 1/5 Ω
B. 10 Ω
C. 5 Ω
D. 1 Ω
5. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

A. a only
B. b only
 180

C. b and c both
D. All a, b and c
6. Electric potential is a
A. Scalar quantity
B. Vector quantity
C. Neither scalar nor vector
D. Sometimes scalar and sometimes vector
7. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The
work done in 10 seconds is
A. 2×103 J
B. 2×105 J
C. 2×104 J
D. 2×102 J
8. Two bulbs are rated 40W, 220V and 60W, 220V. The ratio of their resistances will
be
A. 4:3
B. 3:4.
C. 2:3
D. 3:2

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason(R). Mark the correct choice as:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The resistivity of a substance does not depend on the nature of
the substance and temperature.
Reason (R): The resistivity of a substance is a characteristic property of the
material.
2. Assertion (A): The coil of a heater is cut into two equal halves and only one of
them is used into heater. The heater will now require half the time to produce the
same amount of heat.
Reason (R): The heat produced is directly proportional to square of current.
3. Assertion (A): In a chain of bulbs, 50 bulbs are joined in series. One bulb is
removed now and circuit is completed again. If the remaining 49 bulbs are again
 181

connected in series across the same supply, then light gets decreased in the
room.
Reason (R): Net resistance of 49 bulbs will be less than 50 bulbs.
4. Assertion (A): The connecting wires are made of copper.
Reason (R): The electrical conductivity of copper is high.

SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS

1. Define one ampere?
2. Find the energy in joules Is An electric bulb is connected to a 220 V generator.
The current is 2.5 A. Calculate the power of the bulb?
3. How two resistors, with resistances R1 Ω and R1 Ω respectively are to be
connected to a battery of emf V volts so that the electrical power consumed is
minimum?
4. Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find the
ratio of equivalent resistance in two cases.
5. Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.

6. In the given figure what is ratio of ammeter reading when J is connected to A and
then to B.

7. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same
material, when connected to the same source? Why?
8. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a
pure metal?
LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS
1. How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows
through every part of a circuit containing three resistors in series connected to a
battery?

2. Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and potential
difference across the 15 Ω resistor when the circuit is closed.
 182

3. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity 1.6 × 10-8 Ω m. Calculate the
length of this wire to make it resistance 100 Ω. How much does the resistance
change if the diameter is doubled without changing its length?
CASE BASED / DATA BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer the following questions
In a circuit, several resistors may be combined to form a network. The
combination must have two endpoints to connect it with a battery or other
elements of the circuit. When the resistors are connected in series then the
current flowing in each remains the same but potential differences across each
resistor will vary. When the resistances are connected in parallel, the potential
difference across each resistor will be the same though a different amount of
current will flow in each resistor.
a) Two resistances 10 Ω and 3 Ω are connected in parallel across a battery.
If there is a current of 0.2 A in 10 resistors, the voltage supplied by the
battery is:
(A) 2V
(B) 1V
(C) 4V
(D) 8V
b) Two wires each having a resistance value equal to R are first connected
in series and then connected in parallel. The plot shows the graphical
representation of resistances in both cases.

(A) A denotes parallel combination

(B) B denotes series combination
(C) A denotes series combination and B denotes parallel combination
(D) None of the above
c) The household circuits are connected in:
(A) Series
(B) Parallel
(C) Both series and parallel
(D) Neither series nor parallel
d) The equivalent resistance of two resistors x and y is z when connected in
series and M when connected in parallel. Z:M is:
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(A) xy
(B) x + y × y
(C) (x + y)2/xy
(D) xy (2x + 2y)
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from the
heating effect of current is obtained by transformation of electrical energy in heat
energy. Just as mechanical energy used to overcome friction is converted into heat,
in the same way, electrical energy is converted into heat energy when an electric
current flow through a resistance wire. The heat produced in a conductor, when a
current flow through it is found to depend directly on (a) strength of current (b)
resistance of the conductor (c) time for which the current flows. The mathematical
expression is given by H = I2Rt.
The electrical fuse, electrical heater, electric iron, electric geyser etc. all are based
on the heating effect of current.
a) A fuse wire melts at 5 A. It is is desired that the fuse wire of same material melts
at 10 A. The new radius of the wire is
(A) 4 times (B) 2 times (C) 1/2 times (D) 1/4 times
b) What are the properties of heating element?
(A) High resistance, high melting point
(B) Low resistance, high melting point
(C) High resistance, low melting point
(D) Low resistance, low melting point.
c) What are the properties of electric fuse?
(A) Low resistance, low melting point
(B) High resistance, high melting point.
(C) High resistance, low melting point
(D) Low resistance, high melting point
d) When the current is doubled in a heating device and time is halved, the heat
energy produced is
(A) Doubled
(B) Halved
(C) Four times
(D) One fourth times

CLASS X
Chapter – 11
Electricity

Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1. A. Resistance is directly proportional to temperature of the conductor.
 184

2. B In parallel combination, voltage remains same across two points.

3. D. In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must
be used.
4. D. 1 Ω

Series combination provides the maximum resistance.

5. D.
6. A. Scalar quantity
7. B. 2×105 J
8. D. 3:2

Assertion-Reason Question Answers

1. D
2. B
3. B
4. A

Short Answer Questions

1. One ampere is constituted by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.
1A = 1C/1S
2. Data in given question
V= 220 V and I = 2.5 A
Power of the bulb P = VI = 220 × 2.5 W = 550W
3. Power consumed is minimum when current through the circuit is minimum, so the
two resistors are connected in series.

4. Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find the
ratio of equivalent resistance in two cases.

5. Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices due to the following
reasons
a) Alloys have higher resistivity than metals
b) Alloys do not get oxidized or burn readily.

6. When J is connected to A
I=V/R=3/5A=O.6A
When J is connected to B
 185

V=1+2+3+4=1OV
I=1O/5=2A

7. The current flows more easily through a thick wire as compared to thin wire of the
same material, when connected to the same source. It is due to the reason that
resistance increases with decrease in thickness.

8. Coils of electric toasters and electric irons are made of an alloy due to the
following reasons:
A. Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of pure metal.
B. At high temperature, an alloy does not oxidize readily. Hence, coil of an alloy
has longer life.

Long Answer Questions

1. Let three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series which are also
connected with a battery, an ammeter and a key as shown in figure.

When key is closed, the current starts flowing through the circuit. Take the reading
of ammeter. Now change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the
resistors and take its reading. We will observe that in both the cases reading of
ammeter will be same showing same current flows through every part of the circuit
above.

2. Given in the question

R1 = 5 Ω, R2 = 10 Ω, R3 = 15 Ω, V = 30 V
Total resistance, R = R1 + R2 + R3 [∵ 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in series]
= 5 + 10 + 15
= 30 Ω
Potential difference, V = 30 V
Current in the circuit, I = ?
From Ohm’s law.
I = V/R = 30/30 = 1 A
Current flowing in the circuit = 1 A
 186

Potential difference across 15 Ω resistors = IR3 = 1 × 15 = 15 V

3. Given in the question
Resistivity of copper = 1.6 × 10-8 Ω/m,
Diameter of wire, d = 0.5 mm
Resistance of wire, R = 100 Ω
Radius of wire, r = d/2 = 0.52mm/2
= 0.25mm = 2.5×10-4 m
Area of cross-section of wire, A = nr²
∴ A = 3.14 × (2.5 × 10-4)²
= 1.9625 × 10-7 m²
= 1.9 × 10-7 m²
As, R = ρl/A
∴ 100 Ω = 1.6×10-8Ωm×l1.9×10−7 m2
l = 1200 m
If diameter is doubled (d’ = 2d), then the area of cross-section of wire will become
A’ = πr² = π(d′2)² = π(2d2)² = 4A
Now R ∝ 1A, so the resistance will decrease by four times or new resistance will be
R’= R4 = 1004 = 25Ω.

Case Based Questions Answers

1. a) A
b) C
c) B
d) C
2. a) B
b) A
c) C
d) A
********************************************
 187

CHAPTER - 12
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
Question Bank

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid
connected to a galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds
with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The
maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was:
A. Moving towards the solenoid
B. Moving into solenoid
C. At rest inside the solenoid
D. Moving out of the solenoid

2. The magnetic field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid, are:

A. Along the axis and parallel to each other
B. Circular, but they do not intersect each other
C. Circular at the ends inside the solenoid
D. None of these

3. A TV set consumes an electric power of 230 watts and runs on 230 volts mains
supply. The correct fuse for this TV set is:
A. Five A
B. Three A
C. One A
D. Two A

4. The back face of a circular loop of wire is found to be south magnetic pole. The
direction of current in this face of the circular loop of wire will be:
A. Clockwise
B. Towards south
C. Anticlockwise
D. Towards north
5. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of
the plotting compass will:

A. Point away from the south pole

B. Point parallel to the south pole
 188

C. Point towards the south pole

D. Point at right angles to the south pole
6. A student learns that magnetic field strength around a bar magnet is different at
every point. Which diagram shows the correct magnetic field lines around a bar

B.

A.

D.
C.

7. A student inserts a bar magnet in the coil. The student observes deflection in the
galvanometer connected to the coil. What will happen if the magnet is
continuously getting in and out of the coil?
A. The current induced in the coil will increase
B. The current will change its direction continuously
C. The magnetic field will create a motion in the coil
D. The magnetic field of the bar magnet would keep decreasing
8. A student places some iron filings around a magnet. The
iron fillings arrange themselves as shown in the image.
The student labelled four different regions around the
magnet. Where would the magnetic field be the strongest?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason(R). Mark the correct choice as:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
 189

1. Assertion (A): When the direction of velocity of moving charge is perpendicular

to the magnetic field, it experiences a maximum force.
Reason (R): Force on the moving charge does not depends on the direction
magnetic field in which it moves.
2. Assertion (A): Steel core is used as an electromagnet.
Reason (R): Steel gets permanently magnetized when the current flows through
the coil wound around.
3. Assertion (A): It is fatal to touch a live electric wire as the person gets a severe
electric shock. In some cases, electric shock can even kill a person.
Reason (R): The electric current passes through the body to the earth forming a
circuit and burns the blood.
4. Assertion (A): On changing the direction of flow of current through a straight
conductor, the direction of a magnetic field around the conductor is reversed.
Reason (R): The direction of a magnetic field around the conductor can be given
in accordance with left hand thumb rule.
SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS
1. State the color of wire conventionally used for 1) Live 2) Earth 3) Neutral?
2. What is full form of MCB? What kind of risk may increase if we not use MCB in
domestic circuit?
3. How does the strength of the magnetic field produced by a current carrying
solenoid increased?
4. What we need to do If we need to reduce risk of overloading in our home?
5. State one main difference between AC and DC. Why AC is preferred over DC foe
long range transmission of electric power? Name one source each of DC and AC.
6. Give examples of sources produce alternating current?
7. Identify the poles of a magnet in the figure.

8. How does the strength of the magnetic field at the center of a circular coil of wire
depends on –
a. The radius of the coil
b. The number of turns of wire in the coil
c. The strength of the current flowing in the coil
LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS
1. (a) State three factors on which the strength of magnetic field produced by a
current carrying solenoid depends.
(b) Draw circuit diagram of a solenoid to prepare an electromagnet.

2. State the various advantages and disadvantages of AC over DC.

 190

3. Define magnetic field lines. Give any 4 properties of these. Draw the magnetic
lines of force through and around -
a. single loop of wire carrying electric current
b. a solenoid carrying electric current
CASE BASED / DATA BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer the following questions
Michael Faraday was a physicist. He introduces the concept of magnetic lines of
force to represent magnetic field. According to his experiments, when bar magnet is
surrounded by little bits of iron fillings, each a little magnet of its own. By tapping iron
fillings arranged themselves in a pattern.
a) A piece of material that has both attractive and directive properties is called
A. Magnet
B. Iron fillings
C. Resistor
D. Coil
b) A bar magnet is cut into two pieces along its length. Which of the following
statement is true?
A. Two new bar magnets are created with half of pole strength.
B. Two new bar magnets are created with double pole strength
C. Bar magnet is demagnetized.
D. One part creates magnetic field and other creates electric field.
c) In uniform magnetic field, the lines are
A. Perpendicular
B. Parallel
C. Slanting
D. Zig zag
d) The direction of magnetic field lines outside bar magnet is
A. Mouth to north
B. North to south
C. Towards east from both pole
D. Towards west from both poles
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
In India AC is used for domestic supply. Two separate wires are used for this
purpose. Live wire is maintained at 220 volts while neutral is at 0 volt. As a
result, potential difference is maintained across these two wires. A third wire
called Earth wire is also used in domestic circuits.
a) Mention the colour of live wire
A. Black
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Green
b) wires of fuse have -------melting points.
A. High
 191

B. Low
C. Average
D. None of them
c) -----wire transfers the extra current from circuit to below the earth.
A. Live wire
B. Earth wire
C. Neutral wire
D. All of these
d) Choose the safety device from the following
A. MCB
B. Fuse
C. Earth wire
D. All of these

CLASS X
Chapter – 12
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Answer Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1. D. Moving out of the solenoid
2. A. Along the axis and parallel to each other
3. D. Two A
4. A. Clockwise
5. C. Point towards the south pole

6. C.
7. B. The current will change its direction continuously
8. D. d

Assertion-Reason Question Answers

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. C

Short Answer Questions

1. Live wire—Red
Neutral wire—Black
Earth wire—Green
2. Miniature Circuit Breaker. MCB is responsible in our circuit breaker is to protect an
installation or appliance against sustained overloading and short-circuit faults, but
it will also give protection against earth faults provided that the earth fault loop
impedance is low enough.
 192

3. The magnetic field strength of a current carrying solenoid can be increased by-
(i) increasing the number of turns in the solenoid.
(ii) increasing the current flowing through the solenoid.
(iii) Using soft iron as core in the solenoid.
4. The precautions that should be taken to avoid overloading of household electric
circuits are as follows:
a. An excess number of devices should not be connected to the same socket.
b. The appliances that are malfunctioning should not be connected to the socket.
c. Multiple high-power consumption devices should not be connected at the
same time.
5. The needle of the compass deflects when the magnetic field of the bar magnet
intercepts the magnetic field of the needle in the compass as it experiences a
different magnetic field which results in the movement of the needle that is either
attraction or repulsion.
6. The sources are hydroelectric power plants, thermal power generators, nuclear
power generators, AC generators produce alternating current.
7. A- north pole, B- south pole
8. Answers as follows-
a. More the radius weaker the field.
b. Field strength is directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil.
c. More the strength of current, more will be the strength magnetic field.
Long Answer Questions

1. a) Strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid depends

upon the following factors:

• Number of turns in the coil

• Amount of current flowing through it
• Radius of coil
• Material of core of the solenoid.

(b) A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid

can be used to magnetize a piece of magnetic material,
like soft iron, when placed inside the coil. The magnet so
formed is called an electromagnet.

2.

ADVANTAGES OF AC DISADVANTAGES OF AC
• It cannot be used for
• AC is less expensive and easy to
electroplating.
generate than DC.
• The average value of alternative
• AC can be transmitted across long
current over a half cycle is less
distances without much energy loss,
 193

unlike DC. than its rms value.

• The power loss during transmission in • Hence for a given value of
AC is less when compared to DC. current, wires carrying AC
require better insulation. (iii) AC
meters have a non-linear scale

3. a) A long tightly wound helical coil of metallic wire containing soft iron in its core is
called an electromagnet.
Uses—1) for electrical devices such as electric trains
2)for moving big objects of iron from one place to another
3)for removing small iron splinter from an eye of a patient.
b)

c) The soft iron is used to make the electromagnets because the soft iron has good
or high magnetic properties. It can provide a strong magnet.

Case Based Questions Answers

1. a) A
b) A
c) B
d) B
2. a) B
b) B
c) B
d) D
***************************************************
 194

CHAPTER 13
OUR ENVIRONMENT
QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q1. Given below are some biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem. rock,
rainfall, sunlight, mango tree, rabbit Which of these components can continue to
exist in the absence of the other component/s?
(a) Only sunlight (b) Only rock and sunlight
(c ) Only mango tree and rabbit (d) Only rock, sunlight and rainfall
Q2) At which of the level of a food chain can an omnivore be present?
(a) Only secondary consumers
(b) Only secondary and tertiary consumers
(c ) Only primary and secondary consumers
(d) Only primary, secondary and tertiary consumers
Q3. The table lists some components of an ecosystem. A student wants to classify
these into abiotic components from biotic components separately. Which option
correctly shows the classification done by the student?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q4. Which statement shows interaction of an abiotic component with a biotic

component in an ecosystem?
(a) A grasshopper feeding on a leaf.
(b) Rainwater running down into the lake.
(c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.
(d) A mouse fighting with another mouse for food.
Q5. The image shows a food web. Observe and select the
correct option.
(a) Fox feeds on hawk to obtain energy.
(b) Hawk feeds on oak to obtain energy
(c) Squirrel feeds on pine borer to obtain energy
(d) Salamander feeds on pine borer to obtain energy
 195

Q6. The manufacturing of Chlorofluorocarbons free refrigerators is mandatory

throughout the world. How this help prevents ozone depletion?
(a) This will help convert oxygen molecules into ozone.
(b) This will help convert the CFCs into ozone molecules.
(c) This will reduce the production of CFC from oxygen molecules.
(d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts with ozone molecules
Q7. Ozone forms by combination of free oxygen atoms and oxygen molecules. How
do free oxygen atoms form at higher levels of atmosphere?
(a) by splitting of molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of low
energy UV radiations
(b) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high
energy UV radiations
(c) by the combination of two molecular oxygen in the presence of high energy UV
radiations
(d) by the combination of two free oxygen atoms in the presence of lower energy UV
radiations
Q8. The table lists some waste products. Which group of waste materials can be
classified as non- biodegradable?
Grass cutting, polythene bags, plastic toys, used tea bags, paper straw, old
clothes, broken foot wears
(a) grass cuttings, used tea bags (b) polythene bags, plastic toys
(c) used tea bags, paper straw (d) old clothes and broken foot wears
Q9. The table shows some waste materials that changed and remained unchanged
when buried in the soil. Classify them as biodegradable and non- biodegradable.
Plastic box, bubble wrap, vegetable peels, rubber
tyre, empty carton, tree leaves

Q10.What is the ratio of average amount of energy absorbed by producers to the

average amount of energy absorbed by the primary consumers?
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1: 10 (d)10:1

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Answer the question selecting appropriate options given below:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
 196

explanation of (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Q1. ASSERTION: Herbivores are known as producer in an ecosystem.
REASON: Producers prepare food by the process of photosynthesis.
Q2. ASSERTION: Ecosystem consists of components continuously interacting with
each other.
REASON: An ecosystem is made up of only biotic components.
Q3. ASSERTION: All habitats in aquatic medium constitute aquatic ecosystems.
REASON: Ocean and rivers are the examples for aquatic terrestrial
ecosystem.
Q4. ASSERTION: Microorganisms are known as the decomposers of an ecosystem.
REASON: Bacteria and fungi degrade non- biodegradable waste in the
environment.
Q5. ASSERTION: The energy is transfers from one trophic level to another trophic
level in one direction in an ecosystem.
REASON: Producers occupy the first trophic level in a food chain.
Q6. ASSERTION: CFC was emitted from appliances like refrigerators.
REASON: H2S is a greenhouse gas.
Q7. ASSERTION: Energy available at each level of an ecosystem goes on
decreasing.
REASON: Energy flow from one trophic level to next follows 10% law.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1 Fishes like swordfish and king mackerel are tertiary consumers. Fishes like
tilapia and salmon are secondary consumers. The habitat of these fishes is usually
contaminated with heavy metals like mercury. Scientists suggest consuming these
fishes according to the table given below: What phenomenon is likely to have led the
scientists to give such an advisory to the people who consume fish?

Q2. If there is no water, can anything grow or survive? If not why?

Q3. Where is the Ozone layer present in the atmosphere?
Q4. As per the recent survey microplastics have been found in the human blood.
How do you think these have entered the human body?
Q5. Which industries emitted CFC?
Q6. Write the appropriate names of trophic levels A and B in the following figure:
 197

Q7. Arrange the following given wastes in the increasing order of their degradation
in the environment. (Hint: fast to slow degradation)
Bone wastes, paper sheet, plastic bottle
Q8. Lions have no known natural oredators. Based on energy transfer in a food
chain, what could be the most likely reason for the given statement.
Q9. In a pond ecosystem where should the frog be placed in a food chain?
Q10. What is the term given to the accumulation of non-biodegradable substances
increasing in a food chain?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1. Observe the food chain shown below.

Is such a food chain likely to exist in nature? Justify your answer.

Q2. Look at the image and identify biotic and abiotic components of this
ecosystem.

Q3. Complete the following

(i) Air: Abiotic. — Plants: —--------?
(ii) Plant: Producer – Deer: —---------?
Q4. Why is aquarium called as a manmade ecosystem?
Q5. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.” Give reasons to justify
the statement.
Q6. Now a days farmers are making indiscriminate use of fungicides to protect their
crops from microbes. This act kills many useful microbes.
Suggest two eco-friendly methods to save useful microbes.
Q7. Match the following.
A B
i. producer a) Ozone
ii. Soil b) herbivore
iii. Goat c) abiotic
iv. UV radiations d) chlorophyll
v. vegetable peel e) pesticide
vi. DDT f) biodegradable
LONG ANSWER TYPE
1. Explain producers, consumers and decomposers of the biotic environment with
examples of each.
Q2. Define food chain. Write Significance of Food Chain.
Q3. Explain 10 percent law with the help of an example.
 198

CASE STUDY BASED

Q1. Read the passage and answer the given questions.

Q1.1 How is Ozone formed in the outer atmosphere?

Q1.2 Give any one damage caused to plants due to UV leakage.
Q1.3 Suggests some ways of protection from UV radiation when we are in outside
our house in open.

Q2. Read the following information and answer the questions

In Kunjpura village, located in Karnal district, Haryana, Aditya Aggarwal and his older
brother Amit Aggarwal run Tee Cee Industries, a steel plant set up by their ancestors
in 1984. Along with this, they also run a gaushala that houses 1,200 cows that can
no longer produce milk. The cow shelter was manageable but running the steel plant
was turning out to be expensive because they spent a whopping Rs 5 lakh every
month on electricity. The brothers struck upon an idea. Why not run the factory with
the biogas produced from cow dung from the shelter and other gaushalas, along with
bio and agri led Aditya and Amit to start Amrit Fertilizers, a biogas project, in 2014,
without any government support.
Q2.1 Name any two raw materials used in bio gas plant.
Q2.2 Which Type of microbes are involved in conversion of cow dung to bio gas?
Q2.3 Biogas is a better fuel than cow dung cake in terms of waste
management. Justify

Q3. Read the passage given below and answer the questions
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one
element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in
some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary
producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create
complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so
must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the
sun’s light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun
disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some forms of
life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from
chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not
require solar energy to thrive.
 199

3.1 If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what
percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?
3.2 If Ria is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake, which level in the food chain she
should be considered to be occupying?
3.3 What is actually limiting the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

REFERENCES

1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=13-13
6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1dxM5Hg5taXARjDbPKE6rtfXctFo1uFbk/edit#h
eading=h.gjdgxs
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1HjNasNYpKHpHaB8d1zrt2gZKAiVwrq18/edit

CHAPTER 13
OUR ENVIRONMENT
ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. (b) Only rock and sunlight
Q2) (d) Only primary, secondary and tertiary consumers
Q3.(c)

Q4. (c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.

Q5. (d) Salamander feeds on pine borer to obtain energy
Q6.(d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts with ozone molecules
Q7. (b) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high
energy UV radiations
Q8.(b) polythene bags, plastic toys
Q9. (b)
Q10.(d)10:1
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ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Q1. (d)
Q2. (c)
Q3. (a)
Q4. (c)
Q5. (b)
Q6. (b)
Q7. (a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 biomagnification of toxic substances in higher trophic levels
Q2. No, living things cannot grow or survive without water. Water is essential for life
as it is needed for:(i) chemical reactions to take place in the body of living organisms.
(ii) Transport of materials in and out of a living body.
(iii) Water is a major component of cells and tissues and helps in
maintaining their shape and function.
Q3. Ozone is present in the stratosphere which extends from about 10 kilometers to
50 kilometers above Earth's surface.
Q4.(i)Through seafood that has ingested microplastics in the water.
(ii)We can inhale these tiny particles, which may then enter the bloodstream
through the lungs as some microplastics are air borne.
(iii)The microplastics present in certain personal care products or cosmetics can
get absorbed through the skin. (any valid response)
Q5. Refrigeration, fire extinguishers, aerosol products industries.
Q6. A- Primary consumer B- tertiary consumer
Q7. Paper sheet < Bone wastes< Plastic bottle
Q8. Lions sit at the top of the food chain in their ecosystem. They primarily prey on
herbivores and are not typically hunted by other predators for food. They die off old
age, starvation, diseases human hunting etc.
Q9. Being a secondary consumer, the frog should be placed at third trophic level in a
food chain.
Q10. Biomagnification/ biological magnification
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1. Such a food chain is not likely to exist in nature. The food chain shown
has too many trophic levels. Due to the loss of energy at each level, there
will not be enough energy available at the higher trophic levels.
Q2.
Biotic Abiotic
plankton, Protozoans, Sunlight, air, land, water(on
Algae,Termites surface & under ground)
mounds,bacteria, rotten log
Q3. (i) Biotic (ii) Primary consumer
Q4. Aquariums are designed and built by humans. We select the plants, fish, and
other organisms that live in the tank, as well as control factors like water quality,
temperature, and lighting. So aquariums are artificially created and controlled by
man.
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Q5. Based on 10% law energy transfer reduces at each level and the amount of
usable energy for existence of an organism at higher level there by act as natural
limitations on the number of trophic levels in a food chain. So, most ecosystems can
typically support 4-5 trophic levels.
Q6. (i) Use bio pesticides. (ii) Encourage growth of more friendly microbes by
techniques of farming like composting, vermicomposting, organic farming, crop
rotation etc. (any valid answer)
Q7. Correct Matches
A B
i. producer d) chlorophyll
ii. Soil c) abiotic
iii.Goat b) herbivore
iv.UV radiations a) Ozone
v. vegetable f)
peel biodegradable
vi. DDT e) pesticide
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1. (i) Producers: Those organisms which produce food by
photosynthesis(autotrophs). Producers are considered as a source of energy for
those above it in a food chain and take up the first trophic level of the food chain.
Examples: All green plants also called autotrophs and certain blue-green algae.
(ii)Consumers: Those organisms which depend upon the producers for food, either
directly or indirectly by feeding on other consumers those below it in a food
chain(heterotrophs). These can further be classified into primary
consumers(herbivores) secondary consumers(carnivores), omnivores. e.g. cows,
humans. Examples of consumers: Herbivores are the animals that consume or eat
vegetation or plants, e.g. cows, horses. Carnivores are the animals that eat flesh of
other animals, e.g. tigers, wolves
(iii)Decomposers- Decomposers are the cleaning agents of the ecosystem. They
break down dead organic matter, recycle nutrients and keep the system functioning.
They are not a direct part of the food chain themselves, but form a vital link in the
food web, ensuring the continued flow of energy and nutrients.
Omnivores are the animals that eat both plants and animals, e.g. humans,
cockroaches.
Q2. The sequence of one organism consuming another organism to transfer food
energy, is called a food chain.
Significance of Food Chains
(i) Helps in understanding food relationships among the organisms in an ecosystem.
(ii) Helps in understanding type of interactions among the organisms in an
ecosystem.
(iii) Helps in understanding the direction and amount of transfer energy between
various components in an ecosystem.

(iv) Helps in analysing the movement of toxic substances like pesticides, weedicides,
etc. through food chains.

Q3. (i) The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of the energy of
sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.
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(ii) An average of 10% of the food eaten is turned into its own body and made
available for the next level of consumers. Therefore, 10% can be taken as the
average value for the amount of organic matter that is present at each step and
reaches the next level of consumers.
(iii) Around 90% of energy in the form of heat is lost to the surroundings at each
trophic level.
For example, suppose 1000 J of solar energy is received by green plants, then only
1% of solar energy available on earth is utilized by plants. So only 10 J (1% of 1000
J) is trapped by plants and the rest 990 J of energy is lost to the environment. So,
plants utilize only 10 J of energy. Next, only 10% of the 10 J energy of plant, that is,
1 J, is available to the herbivore animal while 9 J is lost to the environment. Again,
just 10% of the 1 J of energy of herbivore animals is utilized by carnivore animals.
Thus, carnivore animals have only 0.1 J of energy while 0.9 J is lost to the
environment.

Solar energy→ Plants→ Primary consumer→ Secondary consumer

1000J 10J 1J 0.1J

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

Q1.1 Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV

radiation acting on oxygen (O2) molecule. The higher energy UV
radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen (O)
atoms. These atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen to form
ozone as shown—
UV
O2 → O + O

O + O2 → O 3
(Ozone)
Q1.2 DNA Damage, reduced Photosynthesis, impaired growth and development,
suppress plant immune systems, changes in plant pigmentation (any valid response)
Q1.3 (i) Seek shade during peak sun hours (ii) Wear protective clothing, including
hats and long sleeves. (iii) Apply sunscreen with an SPF (iv) Wear UV-protective
sunglasses and clothing’s. (any two valid responses)

Q2.1 Animal dung, crop residue, Food waste (any two)

Q2.2 Anaerobic bacteria
Q2.3 (i) Burning of cow dung cakes releases harmful pollutants like smoke and
particulate matter into the air, contributing to respiratory problems and air pollution.
On the other hand, biogas plants convert a larger portion of the organic matter in
cow dung into usable biogas. This results in a more efficient use of the waste
material and generation of a cleaner burning fuel.
(ii) Cow Dung burning results in formation of ash as residue which is difficult to
manage, whereas on biogas production a smaller amount of residual solid waste
generated can be used as fertilizer.

Q3.1 1% of 10000J = 100 J

Q3.2 Third trophic level as she is consuming the animal product of second trophic
level animal.
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Q3.3 Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels because based on per 10% law
only 10 % of usable energy will be available to the next level and in longer food chain
as energy reduces, it may not be sufficient for the existence of an organism in
nature.

REFERENCES

1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=13-13
6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1dxM5Hg5taXARjDbPKE6rtfXctFo1uFbk/edit#h
eading=h.gjdgxs
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1HjNasNYpKHpHaB8d1zrt2gZKAiVwrq18/edit
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Question
Papers
For
Practice