CDS

Combined Defence Services Examination

Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Mathematics
1. The election result in which six parties contested was 3. The age distribution of 40 children is as follows
depicted by a pie chart. Party A had an angle 135° on this Age (in years) 5-6 6-7 7-8 8-9 9-10 10-11
pie chart. If it secured 21960 votes, then how many valid Number of children 4 7 9 12 6 2
votes in total were cast?
(a) 51240 (b) 58560 (c) 78320 (d) 87840 Consider the following statements in respect of the
above frequency distribution
Ê (b) Let the total votes be x.
360 ° 1. The median of the age distribution is 7 yr.
Then, sector angle of party A = × 21960
x 2. 70% of the children are in the age group 6-9 yr.
360 °
⇒ 135° = × 21960 3. The modal age of the children is 8 yr.
x
360 ° × 21960 Which of the above statements are correct?
∴ x= = 58560
135° (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
2. The mean and median of 5 observations are 9 and 8,
respectively. If 1 is subtracted from each observation, Ê (b) Age
Number of children Cumulative frequency
then the new mean and the new median will respectively (in years)
be 5-6 4 4
(a) 8 and 7 (b) 9 and 7 (c) 8 and 9 6-7 7 11
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data 7-8 9 20
Sum of 5 observations 8-9 12 32
Ê (a) Q =9
Number of observations 9-10 6 38
⇒ Sum of 5 observations = 9 × 5 = 45 10-11 2 40
If 1 is subtracted from each observation, then N = 40
New mean of 5 observations N
Sum of 5 observations − 5 45 − 5 1. Here, N = 40 ⇒ = 20
= = =8 2
5 5 Thus, 7 - 8 is the median class.
5 + 1
Median of 5 observations =   th term ∴ l = 7, f = 9 , cf = 11,
N
= 20 and h = 1
 2  2
= 3rd term = 8 N
− cf
20 − 11
If 1 is subtracted from each observation, then Median = l + 2 ×h= 7+ ×1
f 9
New median = 8 − 1 = 7
= 7 + 1 = 8 yr
Hence, the new mean and median are 8 and 7,
respectively. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
4 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

4 π
2. Total number of children (N) = 40 7. If tan θ + cot θ = ,where 0 < θ < , then sin θ + cos θ is
Number of children in the age group 6-9 equal to 3 2
= 7 + 9 + 12 = 28 3 −1
(a) 1 (b)
28 2
∴ Required percentage = × 100% = 70%
40 3 +1
(c) (d) 2
Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 2
3. Q Modal group = 8 -9 We have, tan θ + cot θ =
4
Ê (c)
∴ Modal age = 8 yr 3
sin θ cos θ 4
Since, 9 is not included in this group. ⇒ + =
cos θ sin θ 3
Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
sin 2 θ + cos 2 θ 4
⇒ =
4. Suppose x i = λ i for 0 ≤ i ≤ 10, where λ > 1. Which one of cos θ ⋅ sin θ 3
the following is correct? ⇒
1
=
4
(a) AM < Median (b) GM < Median sin 2θ 3
(c) GM = Median (d) AM = Median 2
3 π π
Ê (c) We have, 11 observations are of follow ⇒ sin2θ = ⇒ 2θ = ⇒ θ=
2 3 6
1,λ , λ2 , λ3 , λ4 , λ5 , λ6 , λ7 , λ8 , λ9 , λ10 3 +1
π π 1 3
Here, number of observations = 11 [odd] ∴ sin θ + cos θ = sin + cos = + =
6 6 2 2 2
 11 + 1 
Median =   th term = 6 th term = λ
5
…(i) (243 + 647 ) 2 + (243 − 647 ) 2
 2  8. The value of the expression
 λ11 − 1  243 × 243 + 647 × 647
1 + λ + λ2 + …+ λ10
∴ AM = =  is equal to
 11 (λ − 1 ) 
11  
1
(a) 0 (b) 1
10 11 1 + 2 + 3 + … + 10 1 / 11
(c) 2 (d) 3
and GM = (1 ⋅ λ ⋅ λ ⋅ λ … λ )
2 3
= (λ )
(243 + 647 )2 + (243 − 647 )2
= (λ ) 55 / 11
=λ 5
…(ii) Ê (c) 243 × 243 + 647 × 647
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get GM = Median
2[(243 )2 + (647 )2 ] + 2 × 243 × 647 − 2 × 243 × 647
1 =
5. Suppose x i = for i = 1, 2, 3, ... , 11. Which one of the (243 )2 + (647 )2
i
following is not correct? 2[(243 )2 + (647 )2 ]
= =2
(a) AM > 1 / 6 (b) GM >1 / 6 (243 )2 + (647 ) 2
(c) HM>1 / 6 (d) Median = HM
9. If a and b are negative real numbers and c is a positive
Ê (d) We have, 11 observations are as follow real number, then which of the following is/are correct?
1 1 1 1 1
1, , , , , …, 1. a − b < a − c
2 3 4 5 11
a b
Here, number of observations = 11 [odd] 2. If a < b, then < .
 11 + 1  1 c c
Median =   th term = 6th term = …(i)
 2  6 1 1
3. <
1 1 1 1 1 1 1  b c
and =  + + + +…+ 

HM 11  1 1 / 2 1 / 3 1 / 4 1 / 11  Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 1 1 66 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
⇒ = (1 + 2 + 3 + …+ 11 ) ⇒ = ⇒HM =
HM 11 HM 11 6 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
∴ HM = Median [from Eq. (i)] 1. a − b < a − c
Ê (d)
1 ⇒ b − c> 0
6. The value of log10 3125 − 4 log10 2 + log10 32 is …(i)
5 As, b is negative real number and c is positive real
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 number, then Eq. (i) is not true.
1
log10 3125 − 4 log10 2 + log10 32 2. If a < b, when a and b are negative real numbers and
Ê (b) 5 a b
c is a positive real number, then < is always true
= log10 [(5)5 ]1 / 5 − log10 (2)4 + log10 32 c c
for b > a .
= log105 − log10 16 + log10 32 1 1
3. < is always true, as c is a positive real number
5 × 32 
= log10   = log10 10 = 1
b c
 16  and b is a negative real number.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 5

10. Ê (b) We have, N = 90 × 42 × 324 × 55

= 3 2 × 10 × 3 × 14 × 3 4 × 4 × 55
C = 3 7 × 10 × 14 × 4 × 55
A D
B Hence, N is divisible by 3 7 .
So, the maximum value of m is 7 when N is divisible
by 3 m .

13. A bike consumes 20 mL of petrol per kilometre, if it is

AD is the diameter of a circle with area 707 m 2 and driven at a speed in the range of 25-50 km/h and
AB = BC = CD as shown in the figure above. All curves consumes 40 mL of petrol per kilometre at any other
inside the circle are semi-circles with their diameters on speed. How much petrol is consumed by the bike in
AD. What is the cost of levelling the shaded region at the travelling a distance of 50 km, if the bike is driven at a
rate of ` 63 per square metre? speed of 40 km/h for the first 10 km, at a speed of 60 km/h
(a) ` 29700 (b) ` 22400 for the next 30 km and at a speed of 30 km/h for the last
(c) ` 14847 (d) None of these 10 km?
π ( AD) 2 (a) 1 L (b) 1.2 L (c) 1.4 L (d) 1.6 L
Ê (c) Area of circle with diameter (AD) =
4
Ê (d) Petrol consumed by the bike
π ( AD) 2
So, = 707 = (10 × 20 ) + (30 × 40 ) + (10 × 20 ) mL
4
= (200 + 1200 + 200 ) mL
707 707
⇒ AD = ×4=2 m = 1600 mL = 1 .6 L
π π
AD 2 707 14. Consider the following statements
As, AB = BC = CD = = m
3 3 π 1. Every natural number is a real number.
4 707 2. Every real number is a rational number.
and AC = 2 AB = BD = 2CD = m
3 π 3. Every integer is a real number.
∴ Area of shaded portion 4. Every rational number is a real number.
= 2 [Area of semi-circle with AC as diameter
Which of the above statements are correct?
− Area of semi-circle with AB as diameter]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
2 π ( AC ) 2 2 π ( AB) 2
= −
8 8 Ê (b) 1. Every natural number is a real number, which is
2 π  16 707 4 707  1 correct.
= ⋅ − ⋅ = × 707 m2
8  9 π 9 π  3 2. Every real number is a irrational number, which is
∴ Cost of levelling the shaded portion incorrect.
707 3. Every integer is a real number, which is correct.
= × 63 = `14847
3 4. Every rational number is a real number, which is
correct.
11. Under what condition on p and q, one of the roots of the
equation x 2 + px + q = 0 is the square of the other? 15. For what value of k is( x + 1) a factor of x 3 + kx 2 − x + 2 ?
(a) 1 + q + q 2 = 3 pq (b) 1 + p + p 2 = 3 pq (a) 4 (b) 3
(c) p 3 + q + q 2 = 3 pq (d) q 3 + p + p 2 = 3 pq (c) 1 (d) −2

Ê (c) Let α and α 2 be the roots of equation x2 + px + q = 0. Ê (d) Let f (x) = x3 + kx2 − x + 2
Then, α ⋅α = q
2
If (x + 1 ) is a factor of f (x).
∴ α = (q) 1 / 3 …(i) Then, f (−1 ) = 0 ⇒ (−1 )3 + k(−1 )2 − (−1 ) + 2 = 0
and α + α2 = − p ⇒ −1 + k + 1 + 2 = 0 ⇒ k = − 2
∴ (q) 1/ 3
+ (q)2 / 3 = − p …(ii) 16. Consider the following statements
On cubing both sides, we get
1. There exists a positive real number m such that
q + q2 + 3 q (q1 / 3 + q2 / 3 ) = − p 3
cos x = 2m + 1 .
⇒ q + q2 + 3 q (− p ) = − p 3 [from Eq. (ii)]
2. mn ≥ m + n, for all m, n belonging to set of natural
⇒ q + q2 + p 3 = 3 pq
numbers.
12. What is the maximum value of m, if the number Which of the above statements is/are correct?
N = 90 × 42 × 324 × 55 is divisible by 3m ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (d) 1. As, cos x lies between −1 and 1, then cos x = 2m + 1 Ê (d) Let the usual speed of train be x km/h.
does not exist for positive value of m. 120 120
Then, −1 =
2. Q AM ≥ GM x x + 10
m+ n
∴ ≥ mn and mn ≥ (m + n) does not hold true 1 1 
2 ⇒ 120  −  =1
for m, n belonging to natural numbers.  x x + 10 
Let’s take an example,  10 
⇒ 120   = 1 ⇒ x + 10 x − 1200 = 0
2

If m = 1, then n ≥ 1 + n this cannot be true.  x ( x + 10 ) 

Hence, neither 1 nor 2 is correct. ⇒ (x + 40 ) (x − 30 ) = 0 ⇒ x = 30 km/h
1 1
17. The solution of the inequation 1 + − 2 ≥ 0 is Hence, the usual speed of train is 30 km/h.
(given that, x ≠ 0) x x
20. The value of k, for which the system of equations
(a) x > 0 3x − ky − 20 = 0 and 6x − 10y + 40 = 0 has no solution, is
(b) x < 0 (a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3
−1 − 5 −1 + 5
(c) ≤ x≤
5 2 Ê (c) In matrix form, we can write
−1 − 5 −1 + 5 3 − k   x   20 
(d) x ≤ or x ≥ 6 − 10   y =  − 40 
2 2     
1 1 For no solution,
Ê (d) We have, 1 + − ≥0
x x2 3 −k
=0
x2 + x − 1 6 − 10
⇒ ≥0
x2 ⇒ − 30 + 6 k = 0
As, x2 ≥ 0, then x2 + x − 1 ≥ 0 ⇒ k=5
−1 ± 5
If x2 + x − 1 = 0, then x = 21. Consider the following in respect of natural numbers a, b
2
and c
  −1 + 5     −1 − 5  
∴  x −    x − 
 
 ≥ 0
 1. LCM (ab, ac ) = a LCM(b, c )
  2     2  
2. HCF (ab, ac ) = a HCF (b, c )
−1 − 5 −1 + 5
⇒ x≤ or x ≥ 3. HCF (a , b ) < LCM (a, b )
2 2
4. HCF (a, b) divides LCM (a, b).
18. Which of the points P (5, − 1), Q (3, − 2) and R (1, 1) lie in
Which of the above are correct?
the solution of the system of inequations x + y ≤ 4 and
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
x −y ≥2?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Q and R (b) P and R
(c) P and Q (d) P, Q and R Ê (d) a, b and c are natural numbers.

Ê (c) Given points are P(5, − 1 ), Q(3, − 2) and R(1, 1 ). 1. LCM of (ab, ac) = abc
If points P, Q and R lie in the solution of inequations a × LCM of (b, c) = abc
x + y ≤ 4 and x − y ≥ 2 then points P, Q and R satisfy Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
these inequations.
2. HCF (ab, ac) = a HCF (b, c)
For point P(5, − 1 ), 5 − 1 ≤ 4 [true]
HCF of (ab, ac) = Common factor of (ab, ac)
5+ 1≥2 [true]
and a × HCF (b, c) = a × common factor of (b, c)
For point Q(3, − 2), 3 − 2 ≤ 4 [true]
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
3 + 2≥ 2 [true]
3. We know that HCF is always less than LCM.
and for point R (1, 1 ), 1 + 1 ≤ 4 [true]
Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
1 −1≥2 [false]
4. HCF (a, b) divides LCM (a, b) because a common
So, the point R (1, 1 ) does not satisfy the inequations.
factor between a, b always divides (a × b).
Hence, points P and Q lie in the solution of inequations.
Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
19. A passenger train takes 1 h less for a journey of 120 km, if 22. There are three brothers. The sums of ages of two of
its speed is increased by 10 km/h from its usual speed.
them at a time are 4 yr, 6 yr and 8 yr. The age difference
What is its usual speed?
between the eldest and the youngest is
(a) 50 km/h (b) 40 km/h
(a) 3 yr (b) 4 yr (c) 5 yr (d) 6 yr
(c) 35 km/h (d) 30 km/h
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 7

Ê (b) Let the ages of three brothers be a, b and c. 25. A cloth merchant buys cloth from a weaver and cheats
Then, a + b = 4 him by using a scale which is 10 cm longer than a normal
b+ c=6 metre scale. He claims to sell cloth at the cost price to his
customers, but while selling uses a scale which is 10 cm
and c+ a=8
shorter than a normal metre scale. What is his gain?
On solving these three equations, we get 2 1
(a) 20% (b) 21% (c) 22 % (d) 23 %
a = 3, b = 1 and c = 5 9 3
∴ Age difference between eldest and youngest
Ê (a) Let the amount of cloth = 100 cm
= 5 − 1 = 4 yr
Then, amount of cloth purchased = 110 cm
23. A person goes to a market between 4 pm and 5 pm when and amount of cloth sold = 90 cm
he comes back, he finds that the hour hand and the 110 − 90 20
∴ Gain% = × 100% = × 100% = 20%
minute hand of the clock have interchanged their 100 100
positions. For how much time (approximately) was he 61 1
26. If =3+ , where x, y and z are natural
out of his house? 19 1
(a) 55.38 min (b) 55.48 min (c) 55.57 min (d) 55.67 min
x+
1
y+
Ê (a) Since, both of the hands are interchanging there z
positions, minute hand is taking the place of the hour numbers, then what z is equal to?
hand and the hour hand is taking the place of minute (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
hand.
61 1 61 1
∴ Sum of the angles formed by hour and minute hand Ê (c) =3+ ⇒ −3 =
19 1 19 1
x+ x+
= 360 ° 1 yz + 1
y+
Let us assume that he was out of house for t min. z z
So, the angle formed by minute hand = 6t 4 1 4 yz + 1
⇒ = ⇒ =
19 x + z 19 xyz + x + z
and the angled formed by hour hand = 0.5 t
yz + 1
So, 0.5t + 6 t = 360
19 − 4x
⇒ 6.5t = 360 ⇒ t =
360
= 55.38 min ⇒ (4xy + 4 − 19 y) z = 19 − 4x ⇒ z =
6.5 4xy + 4 − 19 y
Hence, the person was out of the house for 55.38 min. as x, y and z are natural numbers.
Again, let x = 4 and y = 1
24. In a gathering of 100 people, 70 of them can speak Hindi, 19 − 4 × 4 19 − 16
60 can speak English and 30 can speak French. Further, Then, z = = = 3,
4 × 4 × 1 + 4 − 19 × 1 20 − 19
30 of them can speak both Hindi and English, 20 can
which is a natural number.
speak both Hindi and French. If x is the number of people
who can speak both English and French, then which one 27. A circular path is made from two concentric circular
of the following is correct? (Assume that everyone can rings in such a way that the smaller ring when allowed to
speak atleast one of the three languages) roll over the circumference of the bigger ring, it takes
(a) 9 < x ≤ 30 (b) 0 ≤ x < 8 (c) x = 9 (d) x = 8 three full revolutions. If the area of the pathway is equal
to n times the area of the smaller ring, then n is equal to
Ê (b) Let A, B and C be the number of people who can speak
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
Hindi, English and French.
Then, n ( A) = 70, n (B) = 60, n(C ) = 30, Ê (c) Let the radius of smaller ring be r1 and the radius of
n ( A ∩ B) = 30, n ( A ∩ C ) = 20 and n (B ∩ C ) = x bigger ring be r.
Venn diagram of the above data is as follows
A B

20 30 30–x

20 x
10–x Since, the smaller ring takes three full revolutions to
C roll over the circumference of bigger ring.
∴ 2 πr = 3 (2 πr1 ) ⇒ r = 3r1
It is clear from the above Venn diagram that (10 − x)
can speak French only and (30 − x) can speak English Area of pathway = πr 2 − πr12 = n ( πr12 )
only. We know that the value of x is always positive. ⇒ πr 2 = (n + 1 ) πr12
Hence, from the options, the possible value of x is r2
0 ≤ x < 8. ⇒ r 2 = (n + 1 ) ⇒ n = 9 − 1 = 8
9
8 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

28. Consider the following statements 30. In a ∆PQR, point X is on PQ and pointY is on PR such that
1. If n ≥ 3 and m ≥ 3 are distinct positive integers, then XP = 1 . 5 units, XQ = 6 units, PY = 2 units and
the sum of the exterior angles of a regular polygon of YR = 8 units. Which of the following are correct?
m sides is different from the sum of the exterior 1. QR = 5XY
angles of a regular polygon of n sides. 2. QR is parallel to XY .
2. Let m, n be integers such that m > n ≥ 3. Then, the sum 3. ∆PYX is similar to ∆PRQ.
of the interior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is Select the correct answer using the code given below.
greater than the sum of the interior angles of a regular (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
π
polygon of n sides and their sum is (m + n ) . In ∆PQR,
2 Ê (d)
PX 1 .5 1 PY 2 1
Which of the above statements is/are correct? = = and = =
XQ 6 4 YR 8 4
(a) Only 1
P
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 1.5 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
X Y
Ê (d) 1. In regular ploygon, 6 8
Sum of exterior angles = 360 ° Q R
[which is always constant] PX PY
So, =
So, Statement 1 is incorrect. XQ YR
2. Sum of interior angles of m sides PX PQ 1 .5 7.5
1. = ⇒ = ⇒ QR = 5 X Y
= (m − 2) × 180° of regular polygon XY QR XY QR
Total sum of interior angles of m sides and n sides of PX PY 1
2. Also, = = ⇒ QR is parallel of XY.
regular polygon PQ PR 5
= (m − 2) × 180 ° + (n − 2) × 180 ° 3. ∆PYX is similar to ∆PRQ.
= (m + n − 4) × 180° Hence, all statements are correct.
So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
31. If a transversal intersects four parallel straight lines, then
Hence, neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
the number of distinct values of the angles formed will be
29. Consider the following statements (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
1. There exists a regular polygon whose exterior angle is If line P intersect four parallel lines l, P
70°. Ê (a) 1 2
m, n and o, then 16 angles will be l
2. Let n ≥ 5, then the exterior angle of any regular formed. m
n
polygon of n sides is acute. As these lines are parallel, hence o
distinct angles will be ∠1 and ∠2 .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 32. A person travels 7 km Eastwards and then turns right
(b) Only 2 and travels 3 km and further turns right and travels
(c) Both 1 and 2 13 km. What is the shortest distance of the present
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 position of the person from his starting point?
360 °
Ê (b) Exterior angle of regular polygon = (a) 6 km (b) 3 5 km (c) 7 km (d) 4 5 km
Number of sides
1. If exterior angle is 70°. Ê (b) The direction diagram of the person is as follows
(Starting point)
Then, number of sides
P 7 km
360 ° 36 ) N
= = = A rational number ion
70 ° 7 o sit
tp 3 km 3 km W E
So, Statement 1 is incorrect. en
res 6 km
(P S
2. If number of sides ≥ 5, then Q R
360 ° 13 km
Exterior angle = = 72°
5 PQ = Shortest distance between starting point and
For number of sides ≥ 5, there is always an acute present position
exterior angle. In ∆PQR,
So, Statement 2 is correct. PQ = PR 2 + QR 2 = 3 2 + 6 2 = 45 = 3 5 km
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 9

33. ABC is a triangle in which D is the mid-point of BC and E Area of shaded portion A
is the mid-point of AD. Which of the following = Area of semi-circle of radii 3 m − Area of semi- circle of
statements is/are correct? radii 2 m + Area of semi- circle of radii 1 m
1 1 1
1. The area of ∆ABC is equal to four times the area of = π(3 )2 − π (2)2 + π (1 )2
2 2 2
∆BED. 1
= π (9 − 4 + 1 ) = 3 π
2. The area of ∆ADC is twice the area of ∆BED. 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Area of portion B = 2 [Area of semi-circle of radii 2 m
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 − Area of semi-circle of radii 1 m]
= 2  π (2) 2 − π (1 ) 2  = 3 π
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1 1
 2 2 
Ê (c) In ∆ABC, AD is the median and median AD bisects the
Similarly, area of shaded portion C = Area of portion A
area of ∆ABC.
1 Hence, the ratio of areas A, B and C is 1 : 1 : 1.
Area of ∆ABD = × Area of ∆ABC
2 x 10 y
A 35. If = − and x − y = 8, then the value of xy is
y 3 x
equal to
E
(a) 36 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 9

Ê (d) We have, x − y = 8 …(i)

B C
D x 10 y x y 10
and = − ⇒ + =
y 3 x y x 3
Since, E is the mid-point of AD. Then, BE is the
median of ∆ABD. So, BE bisects the area of ∆ABD. ( x )2 + ( y )2 10 10
⇒ = ⇒ x+ y = xy
1 xy 3 3
1. Area of ∆BED = × Area of ∆ABD
2 On squaring both sides, we have
1 1
× Area of ∆ABC  = × Area of ∆ABC
1
= (x + y ) 2 =
100
2  2  4 xy
9
Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 100
⇒ (x − y)2 + 4xy = xy
2. Area of ∆ADC = Area of ∆ABD = 2 × Area of ∆BED 9
So, Statement 2 is also correct. [Q(x + y)2 = (x − y)2 + 4xy]
(8 )2 =  − 4 xy [from Eq. (i)]
100
34. ⇒
 9 
C
64
⇒ 64 = xy ⇒ xy = 9
9
B
36. A
A

K P
A circle of 3 m radius is divided into three areas by
semi-circles of radii 1 m and 2 m as shown in the figure
above. The ratio of the three areas A, B and C will be B Q C
(a) 2 : 3 : 2 (b) 1 :1 : 1
(c) 4 : 3 : 4 (d) 1 : 2 : 1 ABC is a triangle right angled at C as shown in the figure
above. Which one of the following is correct?
Ê (b) In the given question, A radii of 3 m is divided in such a
way that the radii of smaller semi-circle is 1 m and (a) AQ 2 + AB 2 = BP 2 + PQ 2 (b) AQ 2 + PQ 2 = AB 2 + BP 2
radii of bigger semi-circle is 2 m. (c) AQ 2 + BP 2 = AB 2 + PQ 2 (d) AQ 2 + AP 2 = BK 2 + KQ 2

Ê (c) In the given triangle,

C
AQ2 + BP 2 = ( AC 2 + QC 2 ) + (PC 2 + BC 2 )
y B [Qin ∆PQC, QC 2 = PQ2 − PC 2 ]
x w
z = AC + PQ − PC 2 + PC 2 + BC 2
2 2

A = PQ 2 + AC 2 + BC 2 = PQ 2 + AB 2
[Qin ∆ABC, AC 2 + BC 2 = AB2 ]
10 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

37. and ∠B = ∠C = ∠A …(iii)

C
96° From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get ∆XYC, ∆ZYA and
∆XZB are congruent triangle.
∴ XY = YZ = XZ
So, ∆XYZ is an equilateral triangle and ∆XYZ is similar
to ∆ABC.
A B
D So, both statements are correct.
In the figure given above, AD = CD = BC . What is the 39. p
80° z 40 x 3
value of ∠CDB ? °
(a) 32°
(b) 64°
(c) 78° 100° x y
q
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Ê (b) Let ∠CDB = y and ∠CAD = x In the figure given above, p and q are parallel lines. What
C
As, AD = CD 96° are the values of the angles x, y and z?
x
⇒ ∠ACD = ∠CAD = x (a) x = 80°, y = 40°, z = 100°
(b) x = 80° , y = 50°, z = 105 °
and CD = CB (c) x = 70°, y = 40° , z = 110°
⇒ ∠CBD = ∠CDB = y A
x y y
B (d) x = 60°, y = 20°, z = 120°
D
From exterior angle
property, Ê (d) In the given figure p lines p and q are parallel.

∠CDB = ∠CAD + ∠ACD A

p
y = x + x ⇒ y = 2x 80° z x/3
Now, ∠ ACD + ∠ DCB + 96 ° = 180°

40
°
⇒ x + 180 ° − 2 y + 96 ° = 180 °
y 3
⇒ − 2 y + 96 ° = 0 ⇒ y = 96 ° 100° x y
2 2 q
C B
∴ y = 64°
x
38. ABC is an equilateral triangle and X , Y and Z are the ∴ x = 40 ° + [alternate angles]
3
points on BC, CA and AB respectively, such that 2x
⇒ = 40 °
BX = CY = AZ . Which of the following is/are correct? 3
1. XYZ is an equilateral triangle. ⇒ x = 60 °
2. ∆XYZ is similar to ∆ABC. and y + 40 ° = x [Q x is exterior angle of ∆ABC]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ⇒ y = x − 40 ° = 60 ° − 40 ° = 20 °
x
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 ⇒ z + 40 ° + = 180 °
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3
⇒ z + 20 ° = 180 ° − 40 °
Ê (c) In an equilateral ∆ABC,
⇒ z = 120 °
AB = BC = CA and ∠B = ∠C = ∠A
A 40. 5x – 2y =10
4
Z 3

2 2x + 6 y =21

1
Y

0 1 2 3 4
B X C
The linear inequations, for which the shaded area in the
Given that, BX = CY = AZ figure given above is the solution set, are
Now, in ∆XYC, ∆ZYA and ∆XZB (a) 2 x + 6y ≤ 21, 5 x − 2 y ≤ 10
BX = CY = AZ …(i) (b) 2 x + 6y ≤ 21, 5 x − 2 y ≥ 10
⇒ (BC − XC ) = ( AC − AY ) = AB − BZ (c) 2 x + 6y ≥ 21, 5 x − 2 y ≤ 10
(d) 2 x + 6y ≥ 21, 5 x − 2 y ≥ 10
⇒ XC = AY = BZ …(ii)
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 11

Ê (a) Consider the line, 2x + 6 y = 21 …(i) 43. Consider the following

The point (0,0) does not satisfy Eq. (i) but the point (0,0) 1 − cos θ
satisfy the equation 2x + 6 y ≤ 21. 1. = cosec θ − cot θ
1 + cos θ
So, the shaded portion will be the area contain (0,0).
Now, consider the line, 5x − 2 y = 10 1 + cos θ
2. = cosec θ + cot θ
The point (0, 0) does not satisfy the Eq. (ii) but the 1 − cos θ
point (0,0) satisfy the equation 5x − 2 y ≤ 10.
So, the shaded portion will be the area contain (0,0). Which of the above is/are identity/ identities?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
41. A square is inscribed in a right angled triangle with legs (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
p and q and has a common right angle with the triangle.
The diagonal of the square is given by 1 − cos θ 1 − cos θ 1 − cos θ (1 − cos θ)2
Ê (c) 1. = × =
(a)
pq
(b)
pq 1 + cos θ 1 + cos θ 1 − cos θ 1 − cos 2 θ
p + 2q 2p + q
2pq 2pq (1 − cos θ)2 1 − cos θ
(c) (d) = = = cosec θ − cot θ
p+q p+q sin 2 θ sin θ

Hence, Statement 1 is true.

Ê (c) In ∆ABC and ∆ADE,
A 1 + cos θ 1 + cos θ 1 + cos θ (1 + cos θ)2
2. = × =
1 − cos θ 1 − cos θ 1 + cos θ sin 2 θ
D E 1 + cos θ
x = = co sec θ + cot θ
p sin θ
x
Hence, Statement 2 is true.
B
q
C 44. If p = cot θ + tan θ and q = sec θ − cos θ, then
AD DE ( p 2 q ) 2 / 3 − (q 2 p ) 2 / 3 is equal to
= [Q∆ADE is similar to ∆ABC]
AB BC (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
p−x x
⇒ = We have, p = cot θ + tan θ = co sec θ ⋅ sec θ
p q Ê (b)
⇒ ( p + q) x = pq q = sec θ − cos θ = sin 2 θ ⋅ sec θ
pq ∴ ( p 2 q)2 / 3 − (q2 p )2 / 3
x=
p+ q = (co sec2 θ ⋅ sec2 θ ⋅ sin 2 θ ⋅ sec θ)2 / 3
2pq − (sin 4 θ ⋅ sec2 θ ⋅ co sec θ ⋅ sec θ)2 / 3
∴Diagonal of square = 2x =
p+ q = (sec θ)
3 2/ 3
− (sin θ ⋅ sec3 θ)2 / 3
3

x y x y = sec2 θ − sin 2 θ ⋅ sec2 θ = sec2 θ (1 − sin 2 θ) = 1

42. If − tan θ = 1 and tan θ + = 1, then the value of
a b a b 45. Two observers are stationed due North of a tower (of
x2 y2 height x m) at a distance y m from each other. The angles
+ is of elevation of the tower observed by them are 30° and
a2 b2
45°, respectively. Then, x / y is equal to
(a) 2 sec2 θ (b) sec2 θ
(c) cos2 θ (d) 2 cos2 θ 2 −1 3 −1
(a) (b)
2 2
x y
Ê (d) Given, − tan θ = 1 ...(i) 3 +1
a b (c) (d) 1
x y 2
and tan θ + = 1 ...(ii)
AC
a b Ê (c) In right angled ∆ADC, tan 45° =
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get CD
AC
x 1 + tan θ y 1 − tan θ ⇒ CD = =x …(i)
= and = tan 45°
a sec2 θ b sec2 θ
A
x2 y2 (1 + tan θ)2 + (1 − tan θ)2
∴ + =
a2 b2 sec4 θ
x
2 sec θ2
= = 2 cos 2 θ
sec θ 4
45°
30°
B y D C
12 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

x
Now, in right angled ∆ABC, tan 30° = 49. There are five lines in a plane, no two of which are
y + CD
parallel. The maximum number of points in which they
1 x
⇒ = [from Eq. (i)] can intersect is
3 x+ y
(a) 4 (b) 6
x+ y 3 x 1 3 +1 3+1 (c) 10 (d) None of these
⇒ = ⇒ = × =
x 1 y 3 −1 3 +1 2
Ê (c) We know that, intersection point is formed by the
cos θ − 3cos θ + 2
2
π intersection of two lines.
46. If = 1, where 0 < θ < , then which of ∴ Number of intersection points = Number of ways of
sin 2 θ 2
selecting 2 lines out of the given 5 non-parallel lines
the following statements is/are correct? Required number of points = 5C2 = 10
1. There are two values of θ satisfying the above
equation.
50. Consider a circle with centre at O and radius 7 cm. Let QR
be a chord of length 2 cm and let P be the mid-point of QR.
2. θ = 60° is satisfied by the above equation. Let CD be another chord of this circle passing through P
Select the correct answer using the code given below. such that ∠CPQ is acute. If M is the mid-point of CD and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 MP = 24 cm, then which of the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct?
cos 2 θ − 3 cos θ + 2 1. ∠QPD = 135°
Ê (c) Q =1
sin 2 θ 2. If CP = m cm and PD = n cm, then m and n are the
⇒ cos 2 θ − 3 cos θ + 1 + 1 − sin 2 θ = 0 roots of the quadratic equation x 2 − 10x + 1 = 0.
⇒ cos 2 θ − 3 cos θ + 1 + cos 2 θ = 0 3. The ratio of the area of ∆OPR to the area of
⇒ 2 cos θ − 3 cos θ + 1 = 0
2 ∆OMP is 1 : 2 2.
⇒ (2cos θ − 1 ) (cos θ − 1 ) = 0 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1
⇒ cos θ = or cos θ = 1 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
2
∴ θ = 60 ° or θ = 0 ° Ê (a) We have, MP = 24 cm, OQ = OR = 7 cm
Hence, both statements are correct. QR 2
and QP = PR = = =1
π 2 2
47. In a ∆ABC, if A − B = , then C + 2B is equal to
2
2π 3π π
(a) (b) (c) π (d)
3 4 2 O

We have, A + B + C = π D
Ê (d)
π π π M
⇒ + B + B + C = π ⇒ 2B + C = π − = Q P R
2 2 2 C
48. Which of the following is correct in respect of the 1. In ∆OPQ,
equation 3 − tan 2 θ = α(1 − 3tan 2 θ)? (given that α is a OP = OQ 2 − QP 2
real number.)
= 49 − 1 = 48 = 4 3 cm
(a) α∈  , 3  (b) α∈  −∞,  ∪ [3, ∞)
1 1
 3   3  In ∆OMP,

(c) α∈  −∞,  ∪ [3, ∞)

1
(d) None of these OP 2 = PM 2 + OM 2
 3 ⇒ OM = 48 − 24 = 24 cm
So, OM = PM = 24 cm
Ê (b) Q 3 − tan 2 θ = α (1 − 3 tan 2 θ)
∴ ∠OPM = ∠POM = 45°
⇒ (3α − 1 ) tan 2 θ = α − 3
α −3 Now, ∠QPD = 90 ° + ∠OPM
⇒ tan 2 θ = = 90 ° + 45° = 135°
3α − 1
α −3 1 Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
As, tan 2 θ ≥ 0, then ≥ 0 ⇒α ≥ 3 or α ≤ 2. Now, if CP = m and PD = n, than
3α − 1 3
QP × PR = CP × PD
α∈  −∞,  ∪ [3, ∞ )
1
∴
 3  ⇒ 1 × 1 = m × n ⇒ mn = 1 ...(i)
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 13
O
52. Consider a circle with centre at C. Let OP, OQ denote
respectively the tangents to the circle drawn from a
cm √24 cm point O outside the circle. Let R be a point on OP and S be
7
a point on OQ such that OR × SQ = OS × RP. Which of the
following statements is/are correct?
C M 1. If X is the circle with centre at O and radius OR andY
In ∆OMC, CM = 49 − 24 = 5 cm is the circle with centre at O and radius OS, then
and CM = CP + PM = m + 24 X =Y.
⇒ m+ 24 = 5 ⇒ m = 5 − 24 2. ∠POC + ∠QCO = 90°
Now, PD = PM + MD = PM + CM = 24 + 5 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
n=5+ 24 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
∴ m + n = 10 ...(ii) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
From Eqs.(i) and (ii), m and n are roots of equation In the given figures, OP and OQ are tangents to the
Ê (c)
x2 − 10 x + 1 = 0. circle with centre C.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct. P
1 R
× OP × PR
Area of ∆OPR
3. Now, = 2 C
x
O
Area of ∆OMP 1 × OM × PM
x
2
4 3 ×1 S
4 3 3 1
= = = = Q
24 × 24 24 6 2 3
Then, OP = OQ and ∠CPO = ∠CQO = 90 °
Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
1. We have, OR × SQ = OS × RP
51. Let ABC be a triangle in which AB = AC . Let L be the ⇒ (OP − RP) × SQ = (OQ − SQ) × PR
locus of points X inside or on the triangle such that ⇒ (OP − RP) × SQ = (OP − SQ) × PR
BX = CX . Which of the following statements are ⇒ SQ = PR ⇒OR = OS
correct?
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
1. L is a straight line passing through A and incentre of 2. Q ∆OPC ≅ ∆OCQ
∆ABC is on L.
In ∆OPC, 90 ° + x + 1 = 180 ° ⇒ x + 1 = 90 °
2. L is a straight line passing through A and orthocentre ⇒ ∠POC + ∠QCO = x + 1 = 90 °
of ∆ABC is a point on L.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
3. L is a straight line passing through A and centroid of
∆ABC is a point on L. 53. If m and n are distinct natural numbers, then which of
the following is/are integer/integers?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
m n m n 
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. + 2. mn  +  (m 2 + n 2 ) −1
n m  n m
Ê (d) In ∆ABC, AB = AC i.e. ∆ABC is isosceles triangle. mn
A 3. 2
m +n2
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3

Ê (b) 1. If m and n are distinct natural numbers, then

m n
B C + is integer if and only if m = n.
X n m
Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
If L is the locus of points X inside or on the triangle,
2. mn  +  (m2 + n2 )− 1
m n
such that BX = CX. Then, L is a straight line passing
n m
through A.
 m2 + n2  1
As, AX is bisecting the line BC, then it passes through = mn   =1
 mn  m2 + n2
the centroid.  
As, AB = AC in ∆ABC, then AX is perpendicular to BC,
Hence, Statement 2 is correct for all values of mand n.
hence it passes through the orthocentre. mn
3. Now, is fraction, if m = n.
In ∆ABC, AB = AC and AX ⊥ BC. So, AX is angle m2 + n2
bisector of ∠A, hence it passes through the incentre.
Hence, all statements are correct. So, Statement 3 is incorrect.
14 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

54. Outside a meeting room, Madhukar was told by a person 57. In a race of 1000 m, A beats B by 100 m or 10 s. If they
that each meeting takes place after 13/4 h. The last start a race of 1000 m simultaneously from the same
meeting has been over just 45 min ago and the next point and if B gets injured after running 50 m less than
meeting will take place at 2 pm. At what time did half the race length and due to which his speed gets
Madhukar receive this information? halved, then by how much time will A beat B ?
(a) 10 : 20 am (b) 11 : 30 am (c) 11 : 40 am (d) 11 : 50 am (a) 65 s (b) 60 s
(c) 50 s (d) 45 s
Ê (b) Time between one meeting and another
h =  3 +  h
13 1 Ê (a) Since, either A beats B by 100 m or 10 s. It means that
=
4  4 B runs 100 m in 10 s.
100
and next meeting scheduled at = 14 h ∴ Speed of B = = 10 m / s
10
So, last meeting held at = 14 −  3 +  = 10 h 45 min
1
 B A
4
900 m 100 m
Madhukar receive information about meeting after 1000 m
45 min last meeting held.
So, Madhukar receive information at 11 : 30 am. QB gets injured at a distance of 450 m and his speed
gets halved.
55. The expenditure of a household for a certain month is So, time taken by B to cover 1000 m=
450 550
+ = 155
` 20000, out of which ` 8000 is spent on education, ` 5900 10 5
on food, ` 2800 on shopping and the rest on personal QRatio of speed of A and B is equal to ratio of distance
care. What percentage of expenditure is spent on covered by A and B.
personal care? A : B = 1000 : 900 = 10 : 9
(a) 12% (b) 16.5% (c) 18% (d) 21.8% 10 100
Now, speed of A = × 10 = m /s
9 9
Ê (b) Given, total expenditure = ` 20000 1000
Time taken by A to cover 1000 m = × 9 = 90 s
Now, expenditure spent on personal care 100
= 20000 − [5900 + 8000 + 2800] = ` 3300 Hence, A beat B by length of time = (155 − 90 ) = 65 s
3300
Total percentage of on expenditure = × 100%
20000 58. The salary of a person is increased by 10% of his original
= 16 .5 % salary. But he received the same amount even after
increment. What is the percentage of his salary he did
56. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 60 min and 75 min, not receive?
respectively. There is also an outlet C. If A, B and C are
(a) 11% (b) 10%
opened together the tank is full in 50 min. How much 100 90
(c) % (d) %
time will be taken by C to empty the full tank? 11 11
(a) 100 min (b) 110 min (c) 120 min (d) 125 min
Ê (c) Let the original salary be x.
Then, increased salary = 
Ê (a) Since, two pipes A and B fill a tank in 60 min and 75 110  11 x
x= `
min, respectively.  100  10
1
∴Part of tank filled by pipe A in 1 min = Q He received the same salary ever after increment.
60
11 x x
1 Amount of salary he did not receive = − x =`
and part of tank filled by pipe B in 1 min = 10 10
75
 x
Now, part of tank filled by A and B together in 1 min  
 
1 1 5+ 4 9 3 Amount of salary in percentage = 10 × 100%
= + = = =  11 x 
60 75 300 300 100  
 10 
1
and part of tank emptied by pipe C in 1 min = =
x
× 100%
C 11 x
So, net part of tank filled by pipes A, B and C together 100
= %
in 1 min 11
3 1 1
= − =
100 C 50 59. A truck moves along a circular path and describes 100 m
1 3 1 3 2 1 when it has traced out 36° at the centre. The radius of the
⇒ = − = − =
C 100 50 100 100 100 circle is equal to
1 1 100 250
⇒ = ⇒ C = 100 (a) m (b) m
C 100 π π
Hence, the time taken by pipe C to empty the tank is 500 600
(c) m (d) m
100 min. π π
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 15

Ê (c) Let r be the radius of the circle. 1. A ′ P ′ B ′ and C ′Q ′ D ′ are similar triangles but need not
θ 
∴ Length of arc = 2 πr 
be congruent.
 36°
 360 °  2. A ′ P ′ B ′ and C ′Q ′ D ′ are congruent triangles.
36 ° 
⇒ 100 = 2 πr   3. A ′ P ′ B ′ and C ′Q ′ D ′ are triangles of same area.
 360 ° 
1 4. A ′ P ′ B ′ and C ′Q ′ D ′ are triangles of same perimeter.
⇒ 100 = 2 πr ×
10 100 m Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1000 500
∴ r= = m (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
2π π (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
60. Two poles are placed at P and Q on either side of a road Ê (b) From the given circle,
such that the line joining P and Q is perpendicular to the AP × BP = CP × PD …(i)
length of the road. A person moves x m away from P
parallel to the road and places another pole at R. Then,
the person moves further x m in the same direction and D
turns and moves a distance y m away from the road
P
perpendicularly, where he finds himself, Q and R on the A B
same line. The distance between P and Q (i.e. the width of
C
the road) in metre is
x Let ∆A′ P′ B′ and ∆C ′ Q′ D′ are congruent.
(a) x (b)
2 Then, A′ P′ = C ′ Q′ and P′ B′ = Q′ D′ [by CPCT]
(c) y (d) 2y ⇒ AP = CP and PB = DP …(ii)
Ê (c) We can draw the figure on the basic of given [Q A′ P′ = AP, C ′ Q′ = CP, P′ B′ = PB, Q′ D′ = DP, given]
statements, which is as follows From Eq. (i),
T AP × BP = CP × PD
y ⇒ CP × PD = CP × PD [from Eq. (ii)]
P x x So, ∆A′ P′ B′ and ∆C ′ Q′ D′ are congruent.
R S
Let areas of ∆A′ P′ B′ and ∆C ′ Q′ D′ are same.
1 1
∴ × A′ P′ × P′ B′ = × C ′ Q′ × Q′ D′
2 2
Q
⇒ AP × PB = CP × PD
In ∆PQR and ∆RST, PR = RS = x which is same as Eq. (i).
∠P = ∠S = 90 ° So, areas of ∆A′ P′ B′ and ∆C ′ Q′ D′ are same.
[as PQ is perpendicular to PS] Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
and ∠PRQ = ∠TRS [opposite angles]
62. Suppose ABC is a triangle with AB of unit length. D and E
∴∆PRQ and ∆RST are congruent.
are the points lying on AB and AC respectively, such that
⇒ PQ = TS = y BC and DE are parallel. If the area of ∆ABC is twice the
Hence, the width of the road is y m. area of ∆ADE, then the length of AD is
1 1
61. Suppose chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at a (a) unit (b) unit
2 3
point P inside the circle. Two right angled triangles 1 1
(c) unit (d) unit
A ′ P ′ B ′ and C ′Q ′ D ′ are formed as shown in the figures 2 3
below such that A ′ P ′ = AP, B ′ P ′ = BP, C ′Q ′ = CP,
D ′Q ′ = DP and ∠A ′ P ′ B ′ = 90° = ∠C ′Q ′ D ′. Ê (c) In ∆ABC, DE is parallel to BC.
Area of ∆ADE AD 2 A
A′ ∴ =
Area of ∆ABC AB 2

Area of ∆ADE AD 2 D E
C′ =
2[Area of ∆ADE] AB 2
AD 1
⇒ = B C
AB 2
1
P′ B′ Q′ D′ ⇒ AD = AB
2
1
Which of the following statements are not correct? ⇒ AD = unit [Q AB = 1 unit]
2
16 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

AB BC AC
63. A rhombus is formed by joining mid-points of the sides of a ∴ = =
DE EF DF
rectangle in the suitable order. If the area of the rhombus is 2 sq 1
units, then the area of the rectangle is Now, L is mid- point of BC, then BL = BC
2
(a) 2 2 sq units (b) 4 sq units Also, M is the mid- point of EF, then
(c) 4 2 sq units (d) 8 sq units 1
EM = EF
Ê (b) We know that, 2
1 1 AB 2BL BL
Area of rhombus = × Product of diagonals = × d1 × d2 ⇒ = = and ∠ABC = ∠DEM
2 2 DE 2EM EM
∴∆ABC is similar to ∆DEM.
d2 Hence, Statement I is true but Statement II is
d2 false.
d1
66. The number of rounds that a wheel of diameter
7/11 m will make in traversing 4 km will be
d1
(a) 500 (b) 1000
(c) 1700 (d) 2000
From the above figure,
Area of rectangle = d1 × d2 = 2(Area of rhombus) Ê (d) Number of rounds that a wheel of diameter D
= 2 × 2 = 4 sq units will make in traversing a distance = n(πD)
Given that, distance = 4 km
64. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°, then the
⇒ n ( πD) = 4000 m
number of vertices of the polygon is equal to

n  π ×  = 4000
7
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 7 ⇒
 11 
Ê (b) Given, each interior angle = 140 ° ⇒ n  ×  = 4000
22 7
Then, each exterior angle = (180 ° − 140 ° ) = 40 °  7 11 
360 ° 360 ° ⇒ n = 2000
∴ Number of sides = = =9
Each exterior angle 40 ° Hence, the number of rounds is 2000.
Hence, the number of vertices of polygon is 9. 67. The base of an isosceles triangle is 300 units and
65. Let ∆ABC and ∆DBF be such that ∠ABC = ∠DEF, each of its equal sides is 170 units. Then, the area
∠ACB = ∠DFE and ∠BAC = ∠EDF. Let L be the mid-point of of the triangle is
BC and M be the mid-point of EF. (a) 9600 sq units (b) 10000 sq units
(c) 12000 sq units (d) None of these
Consider the following statements
I. ∆ABL and ∆DEM are similar. Ê (c) Here, base = 300 units and side = 170 units
We know that,
II. ∆ALC is congruent to ∆DMF even, if AC ≠ DF .
Area of an isosceles triangle
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Base
statements? = 4 (Side) 2 − (Base) 2
4
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and 300
= 4 (170 )2 − (300 )2
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I 4
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but
= 75 4 × 28900 − 90000
Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false = 75 115600 − 90000
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true = 75 25600
= 75 × 160
Ê (c) Given that, ∠ABC = ∠DEF,
= 12000 sq units
∠ACB = ∠DFE and ∠BAC = ∠EDF
A D 68. Four equal discs are placed such that each one
touches two others. If the area of empty space
enclosed by them is 150/847 sq cm, then the radius
of each disc is equal to
B L C E M F (a) 7 / 6 cm (b) 5 / 6 cm
(c) 1 / 2 cm (d) 5 /11 cm
So, ∆ABC and ∆DEF are similar.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 17

Ê (d) Let the radius of the circle be r. 72. Consider the following statements in respect of the
Then, side of square ABCD = 2r A r r B n(n + 1)
expression S n =
∴ Area of empty space 2
= Area of square where n is an integer.
− 4 [Area of quadrant] 1. There are exactly two values of n for whichS n = 861.
C D
⇒
150
= (2r )2 − 4  × πr 2 
1 2. S n = S − (n + 1) and hence for any integer m, we have two
847  4  values of n for which S n = m.
⇒
150 6 2
= r ⇒ r2 =
25 Q π = 22  Which of the above statements is/are correct?
847 7 121  7  (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
5 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
⇒ r= cm
11 n (n + 1 )
Ê (a) 1. Sn = = 861
2
69. ABC and DEF are similar triangles. If the ratio of side AB
⇒ n2 + n − 861 × 2 = 0
to side DE is ( 2 + 1) : 3, then the ratio of area of ∆ABC
⇒ (n + 42) (n − 41 ) = 0
to that of ∆DEF is
⇒ n = − 42, 41
(a) (3 − 2 2 ) : 3 (b) (9 − 6 2 ) : 2
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
(c) 1 : (9 − 6 2 ) (d) (3 + 2 2 ) : 2
2. Given, Sn = S− ( n + 1 )
AB2 ( 2 + 1 )
2
Area of ∆ABC 3+ 2 2
Ê (c) = = = If Sn = m, then we have two values of n if and only if
Area of ∆DEF DE 2 ( 3) 2
3 m is positive integer.
(3 + 2 2 ) (3 − 2 2 ) 1 Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
= =
3 (3 − 2 2 ) 9 −6 2 73. Consider the following statements in respect of two
Hence, the required ratio is 1 : (9 − 6 2 ). different non-zero integers p and q.
70. A tangent is drawn from an external point O to a circle of 1. For ( p + q ) to be less than ( p − q ), q must be negative.
radius 3 units at P such that OP = 4 units. If C is the 2. For ( p + q ) to be greater than ( p − q ), both p and q
centre of the circle, then the sine of the angle COP is must be positive.
(a) 4/5 (b) 3/4 (c) 3/5 (d) 1/2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Since, OP is tangent to the circle OP ⊥ PC. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Ê (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4 P
O
3 Ê (a) Given, p and q are non-zero integers.

C 1. Q p + q < p − q
⇒ q + q < 0 ⇒2 q < 0
Here, ∆OPC is right angled triangle with ∠P = 90 ° ⇒ q< 0
∴ q must be negative.
OC = (3 ) + (4) = 5 units
2 2
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
3
∴ sin (∠COP) = 2. Q p + q> p − q
5
⇒ q + q> 0
71. If the sum of the roots of ax 2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the ∴ 2q > 0
sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then which one of
∴ q must be positive irrespective of p.
the following relations is correct?
Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
(a) ab 2 + bc 2 = 2a 2c (b) ac 2 + bc 2 = 2b 2a
(c) ab 2 + bc 2 = a 2c (d) a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = 1 a b c
74. If = = , then which of the following is/are correct?
b c d
Ê (a) Let α and β are the roots of equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 b3 + c 3 + d 3 d
1. 3 =
−b c a + b3 + c 3 a
Then, α + β = and αβ =
a a
a2 + b2 + c 2 a
=
2
2
1 β2 + α2
Now, α + β =   +   ⇒ α + β =
1 2.
α β (αβ ) 2 b +c +d
2 2 2 d
(α + β ) − 2αβ
2
−b b / a − 2c/ a
2 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
⇒ (α + β ) = ⇒ =
(αβ ) 2 a c2 / a 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
⇒ ab − 2a c = − bc ⇒ ab + bc = 2a c
2 2 2 2 2 2
18 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

a b c According to the question

Ê (a) = = = k (say)
b c d 0.225 9
=
⇒ a = bk, b = ck, c = dk x + 5 3600
∴ a = dk3 , b = dk2 , c = dk ⇒ x + 5 = 90 ⇒ x = 85 km/h
b + c3 + d3
3
(dk2 )3 + (dk)3 + d3 Hence, the speed of the train is 85 km/h.
1. 3 =
a + b + c
3 3
(dk3 )3 + (dk2 )3 + (dk)3 sin 35° 
2 2
 cos 55° 
d (k + k + 1 )
3 6 3
k + k +1
6 3 78.   −  + 2 sin 30° is equal to
= =  cos 55°   sin 35° 
d3 (k9 + k6 + k3 ) k3 (k6 + k3 + 1 )
(a) − 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
1 d
= 3 = sin 35° 
2 2
 cos 55°  + 2 sin 30 °
k a Ê (c)   − 
 cos 55°   sin 35° 
Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 2 2
a 2 + b2 + c2 (dk3 )2 + (dk2 )2 + (dk)2  sin (90 ° − 55° )   cos (90 ° − 35° )  1
2. 2 = =  −  + 2×
 cos 55°   sin 35°  2
b + c2 + d2 (dk2 )2 + (dk)2 + d2
2
d (k + k + k ) k2 (k4 + k2 + 1 )
2 6 4 2  cos 55°  sin 35° 
2
= 2 4 = =   −   +1
  sin 35° 
d (k + k2 + 1 ) k4 + k2 + 1  cos 55° 
b = 12 − 12 + 1 = 1
⇒ k2 =
d
Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
79. A cyclist moves non-stop from A to B, a distance of
14 km, at a certain average speed. If his average speed
75. 7 10 − 510 is divisible by reduces by 1 km/h, he takes 20 min more to cover the
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 11 same distance. The original average speed of the cyclist
is
Ê (d) 7 10
− 5 = (7 ) = (5 )
10 5 2 5 2
(a) 5 km/ h (b) 6 km/ h
= (7 5 + 55 ) (7 5 − 55 ) (c) 7 km/h (d) None of these
= (16807 + 3125) (7 5 − 55 )
Ê (c) Let the original average speed of cyclist = x km/h
= 19932 × (7 5 − 55 )
Then, time taken to cover the distance by original
Hence, 19932 is divisible by 11. 14
average speed = h
76. Let a two-digit number be k times the sum of its digits. If x
the number formed by interchanging the digits is m A B
times the sum of the digits, then the value of m is 14 km
(a) 9 − k (b) 10 − k (c) 11 − k (d) k − 1 When original average speed is decreased by 1 km/h,
14
Ê (c) Let the unit’s place number be y and ten’s place then time taken to cover the distance = h
(x − 1 )
number be x.
Then, number = 10x + y According to the question
14 20 14
Now, after interchanging the digits, + =
x 60 (x − 1 )
New number = 10 y + x and sum of digits = x + y
According to the question, Hence, the original average speed of the cyclist is 7
km/h.
10x + y = k(x + y) …(i) 14 1 14 42 + x 14
and 10 y + x = m(x + y) …(ii) ⇒ + = ⇒ =
x 3 (x − 1 ) 3x (x − 1 )
on adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
⇒ (42 + x) (x − 1 ) = 42x
11(x + y) = (k + m) (x + y)
⇒ 42 x − 42 + x2 − x = 42 x
⇒ k + m = 11 ⇒ m = 11 − k
⇒ x2 − x − 42 = 0
77. A man walking at 5 km/h noticed that a 225 m long train ⇒ (x − 7 ) (x + 6 ) = 0
coming in the opposite direction crossed him in 9 s. The ∴ n = 7 km/h [Q x ≠ − 6]
speed of the train is
(a) 75 km/h (b) 80 km/h (c) 85 km/h (d) 90 km/h 80. If a sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest per
year doubles in 5 yr and at a different rate of simple
Ê (c) Let the speed of the train = x km/h interest per year becomes three times in 12 yr, then the
Then, relative speed of train = (x + 5) km/h difference in the two rates of simple interest per year is
and length of the train = 225m =0 .225 km [given] (a) 2% (b) 3%
0 .225 1 1
Time taken by train to cross the man = h (c) 3 % (d) 4 %
x+5 3 3
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 19

Let principal = ` P, then amount of money = `2P Now, A′ D′ = 4 − 1 = 3

Ê (c)
A′ B′2 + B′C ′2 + C ′ A′2 3 × (2)2
∴ SI = 2P − P = `P ∴ =
P×r ×5 A′ D′ + B′ E ′ + C ′ F ′
2 2 2
3 × ( 3 )2
Now, P= ⇒ r = 20% 12 4
100 = = …(ii)
Amount of money after 12 yr = `3P 9 3
A′
∴ SI = 3 P − P = 2P
P × R × 12 50
Now, 2P = ⇒R = %
100 3
∴ Difference between two interest rates 2 2
=  20 −
50  10 1
% = %=3 %
 3  3 3

81. Let ABC and A ′ B ′ C ′ be two triangles in which B′

1 D′ 1
C′
AB > A ′ B ′, BC > B ′C ′ and CA > C ′ A ′. Let D, E and F be
the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB, respectively. From Eq. (i) and (ii),
Let D′, E′ and F ′ be the mid-points of the sides B ′ C ′, C ′ A ′ AB2 + BC 2 + CA2 A′ B′2 + B′C ′2 + C ′ A′2 4
= =
and A ′ B ′, respectively. AD + BE + CF
2 2 2
A′ D′2 + B′ F ′2 + C ′ F ′2 3
Consider the following statements Thus, if Statement I is correct, then Statement II is
I. AD > A ′ D ′, BE > B ′ E ′ andCF > C ′ F ′ are always true. also correct.
AB 2 + BC 2 + CA 2 A ′ B ′ 2 + B ′C ′ 2 + C ′ A ′ 2 Hence, option (a) is correct.
II. =
AD 2 + BE 2 + CF 2 A ′ D ′ 2 + B ′ E ′ 2 + C ′ F ′ 2 82. The annual incomes of two persons are in the ratio 9 : 7
and their expenses are in the ratio 4 : 3. If each of them
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above
saves ` 2000 per year, what is the difference in their
statements?
annual incomes?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and
(a) ` 4000 (b) ` 4500
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (c) ` 5000 (d) ` 5500
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Ê (a) Let annual incomes of two persons be 9x and 7x and
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false expenses be 4y and 3 y, respectively.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Then, according to the question,
Given, in ∆ABC and ∆A′ B′C ′ 9 x − 4 y = 2000 …(i)
Ê (a)
AB > A′ B′, BC > B′C ′ and CA > C ′ A′ and 7 x − 3 y = 2000
and Statement I, which is always true, is as follows From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 9 x − 4 y = 7 x − 3 y
AD > A′ D′, BE > B′ E ′ and CF > C ′ F ′ ⇒ y = 2x
where, D, E and F are mid-points of sides BC, CA and On putting the value of y in Eq. (i), we get
AB, respectively and D′, E ′ and F ′ are mid-points of 9 x − 8 x = 2000
sides B′C ′, C ′ A′ and A′ B′, respectively. ⇒ x = ` 2000
Verification
∴ Difference between their annual incomes
Let in ∆ABC, each side = 4 and in ∆A′ B′C ′, each side = 2
= 9x − 7x
∴ AD = 16 − 4 = 12 = 2 3
= 2x = ` 4000
AB2 + BC 2 + CA2 3 × (4)2 83. Let S be a set of first fourteen natural numbers. The
Now, =
AD2 + BE 2 + CF 2 3 × (2 3 )2 possible number of pairs (a, b ), where a, b ∈ S and a ≠ b
=
16 4
= …(i) such that ab leaves remainder 1 when divided by 15, is
12 3 (a) 3
A (b) 5
(c) 6
(d) None of the above

4 4 Ê (d) The possible set of pairs (a, b) such that ab leaves

remainder 1 when divided by 15 are (2, 8 ), (8, 2) (7, 13 )
and (13, 7 ).
∴ Number of possible set of pairs = 4
B 2 D 2 C
20 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

84. A clock strikes once at 1 O’clock, twice at 2 O’clock and 87. If 3x 2 − 7 x − 30 − 2x 2 − 7 x − 5 = x − 5 has α and β
thrice at 3 O’clock and so on. If it takes 8 s to strike at as its roots, then the value of αβ is
5 O’clock, the time taken by it to strike at 10 O'clock is
(a) − 15 (b) − 5
(a) 14 s (b) 16 s (c) 0 (d) 5
(c) 18 s (d) None of these
Ê (a) Gien, 3 x2 −7 x − 30 = (x − 5) + 2x2 − 7 x − 5
Ê (b) Q A clock takes time to strike at 5 O’clock = 8 s
8 On squaring both sides, we get
Then, time taken to strike at 1 O’clock = s
5 3 x2 − 7 x − 30 = (x − 5)2 + (2x2 − 7 x − 5)
8
∴ Time taken to strike at 10 O’clock = × 10 = 16 s + 2 (x − 5) 2x2 − 7 x − 5
5
⇒ 3 x2 − 7 x − 30 = x2 + 25 − 10 x + 2x2 − 7 x − 5
85. In a circle of radius 2 units, a diameter AB intersects a + (2x − 10 ) 2x2 − 7 x − 5
chord of length 2 units perpendicularly at P. If AP > BP,
then AP is equal to ⇒ 3 x2 − 7 x − 30 − x2 + 10 x + 7 x − 2x2 − 20
(a) (2 + 5 ) units (b) (2 + 3 ) units = (2x − 10 ) 2x2 − 7 x − 5
(c) (2 + 2 ) units (d) 3 units ⇒ (10 x − 50 ) = (2x − 10 ) 2x2 − 7 x − 5
Ê (b) Given, radius of a circle = 2 unit ⇒ 10 (x − 5) = 2 (x − 5) 2x2 − 7 x − 5
CD 2
∴ CP = PD = = = 1 unit ⇒ 2x2 − 7 x − 5 = 5 …(i)
2 2
C On squaring both sides of Eq. (i), we get
2x2 − 7 x − 5 = 25 (ii)
⇒ 2x2 − 7 x − 30 = 0 …(iii)
A B
O P If α and β are roots of Eq. (ii), then
−30
αβ = = − 15
D 2
p q q p x
Now, OP = OD − PD =
2 2
4 − 1 = 3 units 88. If + = m and + = n, then what is equal to?
∴ AP = AO + OP = (2 + 3 ) units x y x y y
np + mq np + mq np − mq np − mq
86. If the roots of the equation lx + mx + m = 0 are in the
2 (a)
mp + nq
(b)
mp − nq
(c)
mp − nq
(d)
mp + nq
p q m
ratio p : q , then + + is equal to p q
Given,
q p
+ = m and + =x
q p l Ê (c) x y x y
1 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Let = u and = v
x y
Ê (a) Since, the roots of equation lx2 + mx + m = 0 are in the
Then, pu + qv = m …(i)
ratio p : q.
and qu + pv = n …(ii)
Then, we can take roots as pk and qk.
m On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii) ,we get
∴Sum of roots = pk + qk = − mp − nq mq − np
l u= 2 and v = 2
m p − q2 q − p2
⇒ ( p + q)k = − …(i)
l x 1 / u v − (mq − np ) np − mq
m ∴ = = = =
and product of roots = ( pq)k2 = …(ii) y 1/v u mp − nq mp − nq
l
On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get 89. If a 2 − by − cz = 0, ax − b 2 + cz = 0 and ax + by − c 2 = 0,
( p + q) k x y z
= −1 then the value of + + will be
( pq) k2 a + x b +y c +z
 p + q m/ l (a) a + b + c
⇒   = − k= (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0
 pq  ( p + q)
Ê (c) Given, a 2 − by − cz = 0 …(i)
( p + q)2 m
⇒ = ax − b + cz = 0
2
…(ii)
pq l
p+ q m p+ q m and ax + by − c2 = 0 …(iii)
⇒ =± ⇒ =−
pq l pq l On adding Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
b2 − a 2 + c2
⇒
p
+
q
+
m
=0 x=
q p l 2a
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 21

x b2 − a 2 + c2 Given, (s − a ) + (s − b) + (s − c) = s ⇒ 2s = (a + b + c)
⇒ = 2 Ê (b)
a + x a + b2 + c2 (s − a )2 + (s − b)2 + (s − c)2 + s 2
∴
y a 2 − b2 + c2 z a 2 + b2 − c2 a 2 + b2 + c2
Similarly, = 2 and = 2
b+ y a + b + c
2 2
c + z a + b2 + c2 3 s 2 + a 2 + b2 + c2 − 2s (a + b + c) + s 2
x y z =
∴ + + a 2 + b2 + c2
a+ x y+ b c+ z
4s 2 + a 2 + b2 + c2 − 2s (2s ) a 2 + b2 + c2
(b2 − a 2 + c2 ) + (a 2 − b2 + c2 ) + (a 2 + b2 − c2 ) = = =1
= a + b + c
2 2 2
a 2 + b2 + c2
a + b + c
2 2 2

a + b + c
2 2 2 94. If the polynomial x 6 + px 5 + qx 4 − x 2 − x − 3 is
= =1
a 2 + b2 + c2 divisible by ( x 4 − 1), then the value of p 2 + q 2 is
(a) 1 (b) 9
90. If the equations x 2 − px + q = 0 and x 2 + qx − p = 0 (c) 10 (d) 13
have a common root, then which one of the following is
correct? Ê (c) Let f (x) = x6 + px5 + qx4 − x2 − x − 3
(a) p − q = 0 (b) p + q − 2 = 0 Q f (x) is divisible by (x4 − 1 ).
(c) p + q − 1 = 0 (d) p − q − 1 = 0 Then, f (1 ) = f (− 1 ) = 0

Ê (d) Here a = 1, b = − p, c = q and a ′ = 1, b′ = q, c′ = − p Now, f (1 ) = 1 + p + q − 1 − 1 − 3 = 0

⇒ p+ q= 4 …(i)
Applying common root condition,
and f (− 1 ) = 1 − p + q − 1 + 1 − 3
(a ′ c − ac′ )2 = (bc′ − b′ c)(ab′ − a ′ b)
⇒ q− p=2 …(ii)
⇒ (q + p )2 = ( p 2 − q2 ) (q + p )
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
⇒ ( p + q) = ( p − q) ( p + q)
q = 3 and p = 1
⇒ p− q=1
∴ p 2 + q2 = 3 2 + 1 2 = 10
⇒ p− q−1 =0

91. If x = 2 1/ 3
+ 2 −1/ 3 , then the value of 2x 3 − 6x − 5 is equal
95. Let p and q be non-zero integers. Consider the
polynomial A ( x ) = x 2 + px + q . It is given that ( x − m )
to
and ( x − km ) are simple factors of A ( x ), where m is a
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
non-zero integer and k is a positive integer, k ≥ 2. Which
−1 / 3
Ê (a) Given, x = 2 1/ 3
+2 one of the following is correct?
∴ 2x − 6 x − 5 = 2 (21 / 3 + 2−1 / 3 )3 − 6 (21 / 3 + 2− 1 / 3 ) − 5
3 (a) (k + 1)2 p 2 = kq
(b) (k + 1)2 q = kp 2
= 2[2 + 2− 1 + 3 (21 / 3 + 2− 1 / 3 )] − 6 (21 / 3 + 3 −1 / 3 ) − 5 (c) k 2q = (k + 1)p 2
1
= 4 + 2 × + 6 (21 / 3 + 2− 1 / 3 ) − 6 (21 / 3 + 2− 1 / 3 ) − 5 (d) k 2 p 2 = (k + 1)2 q
2
= 4+ 1 −5=0 Ê (b) We have, A(x) = x2 + px + q

92. The sum and difference of two expressions are Q (x − m) and (x − km) are factors of A(x), then m and km
are roots of A(x).
5x − x − 4 and x + 9 x − 10, respectively. The HCF of
2 2
∴ m + km = − p ⇒ m(k + 1 ) = − p
the two expressions will be −p
⇒ m= …(i)
(a) (x + 1) (b) (x − 1) (k + 1)
(c) (3 x + 7) (d) (2 x − 3)
and m ⋅ km = q
Ê (b) Let f (x) + g (x) = 5x2 − x − 4 …(i) ⇒ m2 k = q
and f (x) − g (x) = x2 + 9 x − 10 …(ii) p 2
⇒ ⋅k= q [from Eq. (i)]
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get (k + 1 ) 2
f (x) = 3 x2 + 4x − 7 = (x − 1 ) (3 x + 7 ) ⇒ (k + 1 )2 q = kp 2
and g (x) = 2x2 − 5x + 3 = (x − 1 ) (2x − 3 )
Hence, the required HCF is (x − 1 ).
96. Let m be a non-zero integer and n be a positive integer.
Let R be the remainder obtained on dividing the
93. If (s − a ) + (s − b ) + (s − c ) = s, then the value of polynomial x n + m n by ( x − m ). Then,
(s − a ) 2 + (s − b ) 2 + (s − c ) 2 + s 2 (a) R is a non-zero even integer
will be (b) R is odd, if m is odd
a +b +c
2 2 2
(c) R = s 2 for some integer s, if n is even
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) − 1 (d) R = t 3 for some integer t, if 3 divides n
22 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (a) If R is the remainder obtained by dividing the a + 2b + a − 2b

polynomial xn + mn by (x − m), then (xn + mn − R) is 99. If x = , then bx 2 − ax + b is equal to
divisible by (x − m). a + 2b − a − 2b
Let f (x) = xn + mn − R (given that, b ≠ 0)
Q f (x) is divisible by (x − m). (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ab (d) 2ab
∴ f (m) = 0 a + 2b + a − 2b
Ê (a) Given, x =
⇒ (m)n + (m)n − R = 0 ⇒ R = 2(m)n a + 2b − a − 2b
As, m is a non-zero integer and n is a positive integer, By rationalising, we get
then R is a non-zero even integer.
( a + 2b )2 + ( a − 2b )2 + 2 (a + 2b)(a − 2b)
97. If 4 x 2 y = 128 and 3 3 x 3 2 y − 9 xy = 0, then the value of x=
( a + 2b )2 − ( a − 2b )2
x + y can be equal to
a + 2b + a − 2b + 2 a 2 − 4b2
(a) 7 (b) 5 ⇒ x=
(c) 3 (d) 1 a + 2b − a + 2b

Given, 4x2 y = 128 2a + 2 a 2 − 4b2 a+ a 2 − 4b2

Ê (b) ⇒ x= ⇒x =
4b 2b
⇒ 22 x + y
= 27 ⇒ 2x + y = 7 …(i)
⇒ bx2 − ax + b = 0
and 3x 2 y
3 3 −9 xy
=0
⇒ 3 3x + 2 y
= 3 2 xy 100. If a 3 = 117 + b 3 and a = 3 + b, then the value of a + b is
⇒ 3 x + 2 y = 2xy …(ii) (given that a > 0 and b > 0)
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 13
x = 2 and y = 3 We have, a − b = 117
3 3
…(i)
Ê (a)
∴x+ y=2+ 3 =5
and (a − b) = 3 …(ii)
98. If the linear factors of ax 2 − (a 2 + 1) x + a are p and q, On cubing both sides of Eq. (ii), we get
then p + q is equal to (a − b)3 = (3 )3
(a) (x − 1) (a + 1) a − b − 3 ab (a − b) = 27
3 3

(b) (x + 1) (a + 1)
⇒ 117 − 3 ab(3 ) = 27
(c) (x − 1) (a − 1)
(d) (x + 1) (a − 1) ⇒ 117 − 9 ab = 27
⇒ 9 ab = 90
Ê (a) Let f (x) = ax2 − (a 2 + 1 ) x + a
⇒ ab = 10
= ax2 − x − a 2 x + a = x(ax − 1 ) − a (ax − 1 ) Now, (a + b)2 = (a − b)2 + 4 ab
= (x − a )(ax − 1 ) ⇒ (a + b)2 = (3 )2 + 4(10 )
If p and q are linear factors of f (x), then ⇒ (a + b)2 = 9 + 40 = 49
p = (x − a ) and q = (ax − 1 ) ⇒ (a + b) = 7 [Qa > 0 and b > 0]
∴ p + q = (x − a ) + (ax − 1 ) = (x − 1 )(a + 1 )
 English
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-21) In this section you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions based on the
passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage 1
To avoid the various foolish opinions to which mankind is prone, no superhuman brain is required. A few simple rules
will keep you, not from all errors, but from silly errors.
If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could have avoided the
mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men, by the simple device of asking Mrs Aristotle to keep her
mouth open while he counted. Thinking that you know, when in fact you do not, is a bad mistake to which we are all
prone. I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that they do; but if I were writing a
book on the habits of hedgehogs, I should not commit myself until I had seen one enjoying this diet. Aristotle,
however, was less cautious. Ancient and medieval writers knew all about unicorns and salamanders; not one of them
thought it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had never seen one of them.

1. The writer believes that Ê (b) The writer says that if he was writing a book on
(a) most people could avoid making foolish mistakes if they hedgehogs, he would first observe their eating
were clever habits, which is clearly mentioned in the line where
(b) through observation we could avoid making many mistakes he states ‘‘I should not commit myself until I had
(c) Aristotle made many mistakes because he was not seen one enjoying this diet.’’
observant 4. The writer is of the opinion that
(d) all errors are caused by our own error in thinking (a) unicorns and salamanders were observed by ancient
The writer believes that through observation we could and medieval writers but were unknown to modern
Ê (b) writers
avoid making many mistakes because a few simple rules
will keep us not from all errors, but from silly errors. (b) ancient and medieval writers wrote authoritatively
about unicorns and salamanders though they had
2. With reference to the passage, which one of the following is never seen them
the correct statement? (c) unicorns and salamanders do not exist
(a) Aristotle was able to avoid the mistake of thinking that (d) only those who had observed the habits of unicorns
women have fewer teeth than men and salamanders wrote about them
(b) Aristotle thought women have fewer teeth than men
(c) Aristotle proved that women have fewer teeth by counting Ê (b) The writer is of the opinion that ancient and
his wife’s teeth medieval writers wrote authoritatively about
unicorns and salamanders though they had never
(d) Aristotle may have thought that women have fewer teeth
seen them, which is clearly mentioned in the last
because he never had a wife
lines of the passage.
Ê (b) Aristotle thought women have fewer teeth than men 5. A ‘dogmatic statement’ in the context means a
which can be inferred from the fourth line of the passage.
statement which is
3. The writer says that if he was writing a book on hedgehogs, (a) convincing
(a) he would maintain that they eat black beetles because he (b) proved
had been told so (c) unquestionable
(b) he would first observe their eating habits (d) doubtful
(c) he would think it unnecessary to verify that they ate black ‘Dogmatic statement’ means a statement which is
beetles
Ê (c)
‘unquestionable’. A dogmatic belief connects with
(d) he would make the statement that they ate black beetles and the faith of a society and people are reluctant to hear
later verify it anything against that.
24 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Passage 2
Since I had nothing better to do, I decided to go to the market to buy a few handkerchiefs, the old ones had done
vanishing trick. On the way I met an old friend of mine and I took him to a nearby restaurant for tea and snacks.
Afterwards, I went to the shop and selected a dozen handkerchiefs. I pulled out my purse to make the payment, and
discovered that it was empty; I then realised that it was not my purse. It was a different purse altogether. How that
happened is still a source of wonder to me and I refuse to believe that it was the work of my good old friend, for it was
his purse that I held in my hand.

6. The man could not buy the handkerchiefs because 7. When he tried to take out the purse, he discovered that
(a) he did not like the handkerchiefs (a) it was not there
(b) his friend did not allow him to buy them (b) it was lost
(c) the shop did not have any handkerchiefs (c) it was a new purse
(d) he had no money in the purse (d) it was his friend’s purse

Ê (d) The man could not buy the handkerchiefs because he Ê (d) In the last two lines, it is clearly written that ‘‘when he
had no money in the purse. It is clearly stated in the tried to take out the purse, he discovered that it was his
fourth line of the passage. friend’s purse.’’

Passage 3
A profound terror, increased still by the darkness, the silence and his waking images, froze his heart within him. He
almost felt his hair stand on end, when by straining his eyes to their utmost, he perceived through the shadows two
faint yellow lights. At first, he attributed these lights to the reflection of his own pupils, but soon the vivid brilliance of
the night aided him gradually to distinguish the objects around him in the cave, and he beheld a huge animal lying but
two steps from him.

8. The opening of the passage suggests 9. When he perceived through the shadows two faint lights,
that (a) he experienced a great strain
(a) darkness, silence and waking images (b) he felt his hair stand upright
added to his already being in (c) his eyes felt strained to their utmost
profound terror (d) his pupils dilated
(b) a profound terror increased the
Ê (c) When the writer’s eyes felt strained to their utmost, he perceived through
waking images in his frozen heart
the shadows two faint lights.
(c) the person was frightened by
darkness and silence 10. The person in the story
(d) a profound terror was caused in him (a) imagined that he saw an animal
by the silence and darkness of the (b) could not recognise the animal
night (c) saw the animal by chance
(d) expected to see the animal
Ê (a) It is clearly stated in the first line
of the passage that the profound The last line of the story shows that the person imagined that he saw an
terror is increased due to darkness,
Ê (a)
animal.
silence and waking images.

Passage 4
We are tempted to assume that technological progress is real progress and that material success is the criterion of
civilisation. If the Eastern people become fascinated by machines and techniques and use them, as Western nations
do, to build huge industrial organisations and large military establishments, they will get involved in power politics
and drift into the danger of death. Scientific and technological civilisation brings great opportunities and great
rewards, but also great risks and temptations. Science and technology are neither good nor bad. They are not to be
tabooed but tamed and assigned their proper place. They become dangerous only if they become idols.

11. According to the author, people think that real progress lies in
(a) material success and technological growth According to the author, people think that real
(b) imitating Western nations
Ê (a)
progress lies in material success and
(c) having large industries and political power technological growth because people become
(d) taking risks and facing temptations fascinated by machines and techniques they use.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 25

12. According to the author, science and technology should be Ê (c) Eastern people are fascinated by machines and
(a) tabooed and eliminated from life techniques and they have build huge industrial
organisation, but it is suggested with this
(b) used in a controlled and careful manner
passage that they must avoid being controlled by
(c) encouraged and liberally used machines and techniques of industrial
(d) made compulsory in education production.
Ê (b) Science and technology should be used in a controlled and 14. According to the author, science and technology
careful manner as they are not to be tabooed and eliminated. are
13. From the passage, one gathers that the Eastern people must (a) totally harmless
(a) appreciate scientific achievements (b) extremely dangerous
(b) build huge industrial organisations (c) to be treated as idols
(c) avoid being controlled by machines and techniques of (d) useful, if they are not worshipped blindly
industrial production
Ê (d) According to the author, science and technology
(d) be fascinated by machines are useful, if they are not worshipped blindly,
which is clearly mentioned in the last line “ They
become dangerous only if they become idols.”

Passage 5
It is not luck but labour that makes men. Luck, says an American writer, is ever waiting for something to turn up;
labour with keen eyes and strong will always turns up something. Luck lies in bed and wishes the postman would
bring him news of a legacy; labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of
competence. Luck whines, labour watches. Luck relies on chance; labour on character. Luck slips downwards to
self-indulgence; labour strides upwards and aspires to independence. The conviction, therefore, is extending that
diligence is the mother of good luck; in other words, that a man’s success in life will be proportionate to his efforts, to
his industry, to his attention to small things.

15. Which one of the following statements sums up the meaning Ê (b) Success always depends on hard work and
of the passage? attention to details of small things.
(a) Luck waits without exertion but labour exerts without waiting 17. ‘‘_____ labour turns out at six and with busy pen
(b) Luck waits and complains without working while labour
and ringing hammer lays the foundation of
achieves success although it complains
competence.’’ This statement means
(c) Luck often ends in defeat but labour produces luck
(d) Luck is self-indulgent but labour is selfless (a) hard work of all kinds makes people efficient and
skilled
Ê (d) It can be inferred from the passage that luck is (b) the labour lays the foundation of the building
self-indulgent but labour is selfless, as labour strides (c) the writer and the labourer are the true eyes of the
upwards and aspires to independence. society
16. Which one of the following statements is true about the (d) there is no worker who works so hard as the
passage? labourer who begins his day at six in the morning
(a) Luck is necessary for success Ê (a) The statement means hard work of all kinds
(b) Success depends on hard work and attention to details makes people efficient and skilled. Other options
(c) Expectation of good luck always meets with disappointment are meaningless in their term.
(d) Success is exactly proportionate to hard work only

Passage 6
The avowed purpose of the exact sciences is to establish complete intellectual control over experience in terms of
precise rules which can be formally set out and empirically tested. Could that ideal be fully achieved, all truth and all
error could henceforth be ascribed to an exact theory of the universe, while we who accept this theory would be
relieved of any occasion for exercising our personal judgement. We should only have to follow the rules faithfully.
Classical mechanics approaches this ideal so closely that it is often thought to have achieved it. But this leaves out of
account the element of personal judgement involved in applying the formulae of mechanics to the facts of experience.
26 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

18. The purpose of the exact sciences is to Ê (a) Clarify

(a) form opinions about our experience ‘Elucidate’ and ‘Clarify’ have the same meaning which
(b) formulate principles which will help us to exercise our means ‘make clear’ or ‘throw light upon’.
personal judgement
(c) assert our intellectual superiority
24. MONOTONOUS
(d) make formal and testable rules which can help verify (a) Dreary (b) Dreadful
(c) Single-minded (d) Monologue
experience

Ê (b) As mentioned in the first line of the passage, it is Ê (a) Dreary

understood that the purpose of exact sciences is to ‘Monotonous’ and ‘Dreary’ have the same meaning
formulate principles which will help us to exercise our which means ‘uninteresting or dull’.
personal judgement.
25. KINDLE
19. An exact theory of the universe is (a) Make fun of (b) Excite
(a) not desirable (b) improbable (c) Very kind (d) Kind-hearted
(c) possible (d) yet to be made
Ê (b) Excite
Ê (b) An exact theory of the universe is ‘improbable’, means
‘Kindle’ and ‘Excite’ have the same meaning which
all truth and error are not likely to be true.
means ‘become impassioned’.
20. In exact sciences,
26. PALATIAL
(a) personal judgements are set aside in favour of a
(a) Very clean (b) Very special
mechanical theory (c) Sense of taste (d) Magnificent
(b) one does not find answers to all questions and problems
(c) one reposes faith in actual experience Ê (d) Magnificent
(d) one interprets the universe according to one’s wish ‘Palatial’ and ‘Magnificent’ have the same meaning
which means ‘befitting’ or ‘suitable for a palace’.
Ê (a) In exact sciences, we would be relieved of any occasion
for exercising our personal judgement. So, option (a) is 27. TACTFUL
correct. (a) Diplomatic (b) Indifferent
(c) Intelligent (d) Deceitful
21. Classical mechanics
(a) has formulated precise rules based on experience Ê (a) Diplomatic
(b) has gained intellectual control over the world ‘ Tactful’ and ‘Diplomatic’ have the same meaning
(c) has formulated an exact theory of the universe which means ‘having’ or ‘manifesting perception’ or
(d) just falls short of achieving intellectual control over ‘tact’.
experience
28. VORACIOUS
Ê (a) Classical mechanics has formulated precise rules (a) Very bad (b) Insatiable (c) Stingy (d) Malicious
based on experience as it is said in the passage that
“We should only have to follow the rules faithfully and Ê (b) Insatiable
classical mechanics approaches this ideal so closely”. ‘Voracious’ and ‘Insatiable’ have the same meaning
which means ‘exceedingly cager’ or ‘avid’.
Directions (Q. Nos. 22-30) Each item in this section consists 29. STRICTURE
of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups of (a) Strictness (b) Stinging
words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in (c) Discipline (d) Censure
meaning to the word in capital letters.
Ê (d) Censure
22. AMBIGUOUS ‘Stricture’ and ‘Censure’ have the same meaning which
(a) Contrasting (b) Connivance means ‘a remark’ or ‘comment’, especially an adverse
(c) Vague (d) Wilful criticism.

Ê (c) Vague 30. OBEISANCE

‘Ambiguous’ and ‘Vague’ have the same meaning which (a) Homage (b) Pilgrimage
means ‘not clear’. (c) Subjugation (d) Obligation

23. ELUCIDATE Ê (a) Homage

(a) Clarify (b) Calculate ‘Obeisance’ and ‘Homage’ are synonyms as they have
(c) Summarise (d) Update same meaning i.e. ‘a movement of body to express deep
respect’.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 27

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-50) In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c),
one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this
word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you.

K L
The (a) boy was in the school in Simla. (a) She was home sick.
(b) horse (b) It
(c) dog (c) He

Explanation Out of the list given in item K, only, ‘boy’ is the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a dog, attends school.
So ‘(a)’ is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as ‘he’, so for item L, ‘(c)’ is the correct answer. Notice that
to solve the first item K you have to read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best.

Passage
I was engaged in many activities and I wanted a proper reconciliation between my activity and thought. Thought without

31. 32. 33.

(a) wish is undeveloped thought. Action without (a) thought is folly. Of course we (a) never act on some
(b) action (b) wish (b) belatedly
(c) idea (c) idea (c) sometimes

34. 35. 36.

impulse or (a) peaceful urge. If suddenly you throw (a) no brick at me and my (a) hand goes up in front to
(b) uncontrollable (b) an (b) wrist
(c) indisputable (c) a (c) finger

37. 38. 39.

(a) stimulate myself, it is an automatic, (a) uncontrollable action and not a result (a) to deliberate thought. Our
(b) rescue (b) instinctive (b) in
(c) protect (c) impulsive (c) of

40. 41. 42.

living is (a) made by a series of automatic (a) thoughts from morning till night. Anything (a) we do outside
(b) conditioned (b) actions (b) I
(c) developed (c) wishes (c) they

43. 44. 45.

that common range of (a) thoughts however, has to be (a) proceeded by some measure of thinking. (a) Some more
(b) ideas (b) preceded (b) If
(c) actions (c) followed (c) The

46. 47.
action and thought are (a) developed and integrated, the more effective (a) they become and the happier you
(b) allied (b) thoughts
(c) hostile (c) we

48. 49. 50.

(a) appear. There will then be no (a) reconciliation between a wish to do something and (a) inability to act.
(b) develop. (b) conflict (b) probability
(c) grow. (c) inflict (c) plausibility
28 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Answers (Q. Nos. 31-50)

31. (b) action 38. (c) impulsive 45. (c) The
32. (c) idea 39. (c) of 46. (b) allied
33. (c) sometimes 40. (c) developed 47. (c) we
34. (b) uncontrollable 41. (b) actions
48. (c) grow
35. (c) a 42. (a) we
49. (b) conflict
36. (a) hand 43. (c) actions
50. (a) inability
37. (c) protect 44. (b) preceded

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-65) Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each
sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the
corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
51. This hardly won freedom should not be lost so soon. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) ‘Hardly’ should be replaced by ‘hard’ as hardly shows negativity.
e.g. This hard earned money should not be spent foolishly.
52. I tried to meet the person whom you said was looking for me. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (b) ‘Who’ should replace ‘whom’ in the sentence as ‘who’ represents nominative case and ‘whom’ is used for objective case.
e.g. He defeated the wrestler who you believed the strongest.
53. We looked after the thief but he was nowhere to be found. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) ‘Looked after’ is not to be used for ‘thief ’, here ‘looked’ should be followed by ‘for’. e.g. They looked for you at the function.
54. I hoped that the train will arrive on time, but it did not. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (b) ‘Will’ should be replaced by ‘would’ as the sentence is in past tense and future tense is being indicated by ‘will’. ‘Would’ is the
past form of ‘will’. e.g. My father believed that I would join the function but I did not.
55. Their all belongings were lost in the fire. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) ‘All’ will come before ‘their’. e.g. All their actions are copied from Hollywood drama.
56. He was in the temper and refused to discuss the matter again. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) ‘The’ should be removed before ‘temper’ as ‘temper’ is abstract noun and abstract noun is not used with articles.
e.g. He was in love with that painting so he paid one million for that.
57. The decorations in your house are similar to his house. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (c) ‘To that of his house’ (Case of Attribute) should be used in the sentence.
e.g. Her writing is similar to that of mine.
58. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) ‘Of ’ should be removed as ‘despite’ is not followed by a preposition.
e.g. Despite the hard work, she failed in the test.
59. He told the boys that if they worked hard, they will surely pass. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (c) ‘Will’ should be replaced with ‘would’ as the reporting verb is in past tense. e.g. He told them that he would teach English in
the college.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 29

60. I shall write to you when I shall reach Chennai. No error

(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (c) ‘Shall’ should be removed from the sentence because when the condition is in present, then result should be in future.
e.g. If I come early, I will take you to the ride.
61. Neither of these two documents support your claim on the property. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (b) ‘Supports’ should be used in place of ‘support’ as the subjective case (Neither) is singular.
e.g. Neither of my sisters supports me.
62. He is school teacher, but all his sons are doctors. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) Article ‘a’ should be used before ‘school teacher’ as a countable is always preceded by an article. e.g. Hema is a dancer.
63. His grandfather had told him to smoke was a bad habit. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (b) ‘ To smoke’ should be used by ‘smoking’ because here, use of gerund is more appropriate than infinitive.
e.g. Swimming is a good exercise.
64. My book, which I gave it to you yesterday, is very interesting. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (b) ‘It to’ should be removed from the sentence. e.g. The pen which I gifted you, was very precious.
65. I am entirely agreeing with you but I regret I can’t help you. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ê (a) ‘Agreeing’ is wrong use of ‘agree’, so it should be replaced with ‘agree’. Also, ‘am’ is inappropriate. (I entirely agree with you,
but I regret I can’t help you.)
e.g. I completely agree with your opinion in the matter.

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-75) In the following items each passage 67. S1 : One of the first things the learning of a new
consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given language teaches you is that language comes from
in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each the region of the unconscious.
have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S6 : The test of how much you know is : how much can
S.You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four you say without having to think how you are going
sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet. to say it?
66. S1 : Once upon a time there was a king who had a P : What is often meant by ‘thinking in a language’ is
wonderfully nice garden. really the ability to use it without thinking about it.
S6 : In the trees lived a nightingale that sang so sweetly Q : We, grown-up people, have to filter it through our
that all who passed by stood still and listened. minds–a much more laborious process.
P : In the middle of the garden there was a lovely forest R : That is why children learn a new language so
with tall trees and deep lakes. effortlessly : it comes straight from their instincts.
Q : In this garden were to be seen the most wonderful S : But we cannot say that we know a language, or
flowers with silver bells tied to them. know what we have studied of it, until we can use it
R : The garden was so large that even the gardener instinctively.
himself did not know where it began and where it The proper sequence should be
ended. (a) S Q R P (b) R P S Q
(c) P Q S R (d) R Q S P
S : These bells always sounded so that nobody should
pass by without noticing the flowers. Ê (d) RQSP is the correct sequence.
The proper sequence should be
68. S1 : For seventeen years she led a sheltered life in the
(a) Q P R S (b) S P Q R convent.
(c) Q S R P (d) Q P S R
S6 : Two years later she left the Loreto Convent where
Ê (c) QSRP is the correct sequence. she had spent many happy and useful years.
30 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

P : Her heart went out to the people living there. P : The man who values the applause more than his
Q : In 1946 she asked for permission to work in the own effort has not outgrown his youth.
slums. Q : It is our achievement or work which wins lasting
R : Then one day, while she was returning from an rewards.
errand, she saw the slums of Kolkata. R : But these are only the trappings, the ephemeral
S : She felt she had found her second vocation, her real illusions.
calling. S : One should concentrate on one’s work knowing
The proper sequence should be that applause will come unsought.
(a) P R S Q (b) R P S Q (c) R P Q S (d) Q R P S The proper sequence should be
(a) S R Q P (b) P S R Q (c) Q P S R (d) R Q P S
Ê (b) RPSQ is the correct sequence.
Ê (d) RQPS is the correct sequence.
69. S1 : Good memory is so common that we regard a man
who does not possess it as eccentric. 72. S1 : My office sent an urgent email asking me to
S6 : She wheeled away the perambulator, picturing to return.
herself his terror when he would come out and find S6 : It was evening before I could sit and write to my
the baby gone. parents that I would be joining them soon.
P : I have heard of a father who having offered to take P : I immediately replied requesting a few days of
the baby out in a perambulator, was tempted by the grace as I had to book the return passage, pack
sunny morning to pause on his journey and slip into and attend sundry matters before winding up my
a public house for a glass of beer. establishment here.
Q : A little later, his wife had to do some shopping which Q : On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure
took her past the public house where to her horror, I would get my clothes in time.
she discovered her sleeping baby. R : Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my
R : Leaving the perambulator outside, he disappeared money and made reservations for my return
into the drink shop. journey.
S : Indignant at her husband’s behaviour, she decided to S : From the shop next to it, I bought a couple of
teach him a lesson. trunks to dump my books and other odd articles
The proper sequence should be so that I could send them away in advance.
(a) P Q R S (b) P R Q S The proper sequence should be
(c) P S Q R (d) P Q S R (a) P Q R S (b) P R Q S
(c) P R S Q (d) P S R Q
Ê (b) PRQS is the correct sequence.
Ê (b) PRQS is the correct sequence.
70. S1 : Human ways of life have steadily changed.
S6 : Even if we try to do nothing, we cannot prevent 73. S1 : Wordsworth knew the behaviour of owls in the
change. night better than most of us know the ways of
P : Ancient Egypt-Greece-the Roman Empire - the Dark black birds in day time.
Ages and the Middle Ages - the Renaissance - the age S6 : His great poetry owes much to the night.
of modern science and of modern nations one has P : Out of school there were no restrictions on the
succeeded the other; the history has never stood still. hours he kept.
Q : About ten thousand years ago, man lived entirely by Q : No poet ever had happier school days.
hunting. R : He would skate by the light of the stars, snare
R : A settled civilised life only began when agriculture woodcocks at dead of night, watch the sunrise
was discovered. after a log ramble.
S : From that time to this, civilisation has always been S : Throughout life he was an inveterate walker by
changing. night.
The proper sequence should be The proper sequence should be
(a) Q R S P (b) Q P S R (c) Q S R P (d) P R S Q (a) Q P R S (b) P S Q R
(c) Q R P S (d) S Q P R
Ê (a) QRSP is the correct sequence.
Ê (a) QPRS is the correct sequence.
71. S1 : In our youth we are apt to think that applause and
publicity constitute success. 74. S1 : Science has already conferred an immense boon
S6 : So let us be initiated into the mysteries of maturity on mankind by the growth of medicine.
and be taught how to resist and spurn the lure of S6 : The general death rate in 1948 (10-8) was the
hollow shows. lowest ever recorded up to that date.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 31

P : It has continued ever since and is still continuing. 79. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelising the
Q : In the 18th century people expected most of their powerful currents of the united mass movement so as to
children to die before they were grown-up. give the utmost impetus to the national ........ for
R : In 1920, the infant mortality rate in England and independence.
Wales was 80 per thousand; in 1948 it was 34 per (a) struggle (b) conflict (c) onslaught (d) march
thousand.
Ê (a) ‘struggle’ (make forceful efforts to get free).
S : Improvement began at the start of the 19th century,
chiefly owing to vaccination. 80. Because of his ........ habits, he could not save much
The proper sequence should be money.
(a) R P Q S (b) Q S P R (c) S Q R P (d) P Q S R (a) extravagant (b) frugal
(c) unsavoury (d) bad
Ê (b) QSPR is the correct sequence.
Ê (a) ‘extravagant’ (lacking restraint in spending money or
75. S1 : The young traveller gazed out into the dismal using resources).
country with a face of mingled repulsion and
interest. 81. Socrates was ........ of spreading discontent among young
men of Athens and of trying to destroy their faith in the
S6 : He quickly restored it to his secret pocket.
old Gods.
P : At intervals he drew from his pocket a bulky letter
(a) rebuked (b) disparaged
to which he referred and on the margins of which (c) accused (d) demonised
he scribbled some notes.
Q : It was a navy revolver of the largest size. Ê (c) ‘accused’ (a person or group of people who are charged
R : From the back of his waist he produced something with or on a trial for a crime).
which one would hardly have expected to find in 82. The robbers fell ........ amongst themselves over the
the possession of so mild-mannered a man. sharing of the loot.
S : As he turned it slantwise to the light, the glint upon (a) out (b) through
the rims of the copper shells within the drum (c) off (d) across
showed that it was fully loaded.
Ê (a) ‘out’ in the appropriate usage.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) R P Q S (c) Q P R S (d) P R Q S 83. A really sophisticated person would never be ........
enough to think that he is always right.
Ê (d) PRQS is the correct sequence. (a) reverent (b) naive
(c) articulate (d) humble
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-85) Each of the following sentences in
this section has a blank space and four words are given after each Ê (b) ‘naive’ (of a person or action showing a lack of
sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate experience or wisdom).
for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer 84. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to
Sheet accordingly. ........ accidents.
76. The mounting pressure was so overwhelming that he (a) troublesome (b) final
(c) great (d) gruesome
ultimately ........ to her wish.
(a) yielded in (b) gave in Ê (d) ‘gruesome’ (causing repulsion or horror or
(c) cowed in (d) agreed in unpleasant).

Ê (b) ‘gave in’ (admit defeat or cease fighting or arguing). 85. Creative people are often ........ with their own
uniqueness.
77. Authority ........when it is not supported by the moral
(a) obsessed (b) deranged
purity of its user.
(c) unbalanced (d) dissatisfied
(a) prevails (b) entails (c) crumbles (d) waits
Ê (d) ‘dissatisfied’ (not content or happy with something).
Ê (c) ‘crumbles’ (break or fall apart into small fragments).
78. In a developing country like India some industries will Directions (Q.Nos. 86-105) Look at the underlined part of
have to be brought within public ........ and control, for each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible
otherwise rapid growth of the economy may be substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is
impossible. better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the
(a) perspective (b) hegemony Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If
(c) observation (d) ownership none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as
your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’
Ê (d) ‘ownership’ (shows the effect of public administration). response will be signified by the letter (d).
32 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

86. The police accused him for theft. 96. Though it was raining, but I went out.
(a) with (b) in (a) but yet I (b) I
(c) of (d) No improvement (c) however I (d) No improvement

Ê (c) ‘Accuse’ is always followed by ‘of ’. Ê (b) Use only ‘I’ in place of ‘but I’.

87. He wanted that I left immediately. 97. There is no chance of success unless you do not work
(a) I may leave (b) me to leave
hard.
(c) I leave (d) No improvement (a) unless you work (b) until your working
(c) until you do not work (d) No improvement
Ê (b) Wrong use of case (pronoun). Use ‘me to leave’.
Ê (a) Unless is itself negative so use of ‘not’ is superfluous.
88. This is to certify that I know Mr J Mathews since 1970. So, ‘unless you work’ is correct.
(a) am knowing (b) had known
(c) have known (d) No improvement
98. She has grown too old to do little work.
(a) some (b) any
Ê (c) Use ‘have known’ as verbs of perception are not used (c) a little (d) No improvement
progressively.
Ê (b) Use ‘any’ to show the negativity in a complete manner.
89. They took away everything that belonged to him. Rest of the options are of positive sense.
(a) that had been belonging (b) that belong
99. No one enjoys to deceive his family.
(c) that has been belonging (d) No improvement
(a) deceiving (b) for deceiving
Ê (d) No improvement (c) deceive (d) No improvement

90. It was the mother of the girl of whose voice I had Ê (a) ‘Deceiving’ is correct because after the verb of
recognised. preception, gerund is used without preposition.
(a) whose voice (b) the voice of who 100. Have you ever saw the flower of a pumpkin plant?
(c) voice whose (d) No improvement
(a) see (b) seeing
(a) ‘Of ’ is not to be used before ‘whose’ here. So, use only (c) seen (d) No improvement
Ê
‘whose voice’. The sentence is in present perfect tense, so third form
Ê (c)
91. The Executive Council is consisted of ten members. of verb will be used, i.e. seen.
(a) consists of (b) comprises of 101. It is an ancient historical place and it once belongs to the
(c) constituted of (d) No improvement Pandavas.
Wrong use of voice (passive) as it is a fact here in the (a) belonged (b) belonging
Ê (a) (c) belong (d) No improvement
sentence. Hence, the correct use is ‘consists of ’.
92. The maid was laying the table for dinner. Ê (a) Here, sentence is all about past moment, so past form
of verb will be used i.e. belonged.
(a) setting up (b) lying
(c) sorting out (d) No improvement 102. Since we were knowing the correct route, we did not
worry at all.
Ê (d) No improvement
(a) knew (b) have known
93. We have so arranged the matters and one of us is always (c) know (d) No improvement
on duty.
Ê (a) ‘Knew’ is most suitable here, instead of ‘were knowing’.
(a) that one of us (b) so that one of us
(c) such that one of us (d) No improvement 103. Our country can progress when only people work hard.
(a) when people only work hard
Ê (c) ‘Such that one of us’ is suitable clause here.
(b) when people work hard only
94. Hardly had we got into the forest when it began to rain. (c) only when people work hard
(a) Hardly we got (b) We had hardly got (d) No improvement
(c) We had got hard (d) No improvement
Ê (c) Use of ‘only when’ shows the condition. So, ‘only when
(d) No improvement people work hard’ is correct usage.
Ê
95. Each time he felt tired he lied down. 104. Wake me up when father will come.
(a) comes (b) will have come
(a) lies (b) lays
(c) came (d) No improvement
(c) lay (d) No improvement
Ê (a) Wrong use of tense (future tense) here as in the
Ê (c) ‘Lay’ is appropriate as ‘lied’ is used with helping verb.
sentence, present tense should be used. So, the correct
option is (a), i.e. comes.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 33

105. Do take an umbrella with you lest you not do get wet.
(a) lest you should get wet (b) lest you should not get wet
(c) lest you might not get wet (d) No improvement

Ê (a) ‘Should’ is always used with ‘lest’. Hence, the correct use is ‘lest you should get wet’.

Directions (Q. Nos. 106-120) Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled.
These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to
re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
106. that it would affect the investigation process they refused of these raids saying to divulge the venues
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S (b) S R P Q (c) Q S R P (d) R P Q S

Ê (c) QSRP is the correct sequence.

107. that he already has buying things that rich man goes on
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R (b) R S Q P (c) S Q R P (d) R P Q S

Ê (b) RSQP is the correct sequence.

108. the police commissioner rushed the crowd to control the police force
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q R S P (b) P Q R S (c) P S R Q (d) R S P Q

Ê (c) PSRQ is the correct sequence.

109. my brother to attend his friend’s wedding is going to Chennai tomorrow
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R (b) Q P S R (c) R Q P S (d) P R S Q

Ê (d) PRSQ is the correct sequence.

110. quickly he gave orders to catch the thief to his men
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) S P R Q (b) Q S R P (c) P S R Q (d) R S P Q

Ê (b) QSRP is the correct sequence.

111. to give a definition if I were I would begin like this
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q P R S (b) P Q R S (c) S R Q P (d) R S P Q

Ê (a) QPRS is the correct sequence.

112. deserve all honour in society in doing their job well men of conscience who take pride whatever its nature
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) R Q S P (b) Q R P S (c) P R S Q (d) S P Q R

Ê (a) RQSP is the correct sequence.

34 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

113. while some live to eat and drink many do not have enough in luxury
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S R Q (b) P R S Q (c) S P Q R (d) R Q S P

Ê (a) PSRQ is the correct sequence.

114. I believed then that no matter one should always find some time for exercise and I believe even now
P Q R
the amount of work one has
S
The proper sequence should be
(a) P R Q S (b) P S R Q (c) R P Q S (d) R P S Q

Ê (d) RPSQ is the correct sequence.

115. I wonder whenever I decide to go to the cinema with my scooter why I always have trouble
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q S P R (b) Q R S P (c) P S R Q (d) P R S Q

Ê (c) PSRQ is the correct sequence.

116. The bird-catcher by means of snares knew all the birds of the forest by the hundred
P Q R
and was accustomed to capturing the winged creatures
S
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q P S R (b) Q S R P (c) P Q S R (d) P R Q S

Ê (b) QSRP is the correct sequence.

117. Man is a biological being his physical and material needs confined to not merely
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) R S P Q (b) S R Q P (c) R P S Q (d) S P R Q

Ê (d) SPRQ is the correct sequence.

118. A gang of robbers while they were fast asleep entered the village and stole the property of the villagers at night
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q S R P (b) S Q P R (c) S P Q R (d) Q P S R

Ê (a) QSRP is the correct sequence.

119. The opposition members the ruling of the Speaker to protest against of the Parliament walked out
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) S P Q R (b) Q R P S (c) R S P Q (d) S R Q P

Ê (d) SRQP is the correct sequence.

120. When a boy saved her by a speeding car at the risk of his life a little girl was about to be run over
P Q R S
The proper sequence should be
(a) S P R Q (b) R S Q P (c) S Q P R (d) Q P S R

Ê (c) SQPR is the correct sequence.

 General Studies
1. Which one of the following is considered as ‘good 5. Consider the following map of India:
cholesterol’ with reference to individuals facing the risk
of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension?
(a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
(b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
(c) Triglyceride
(d) Fatty acids

Ê (a) HDL is also known as ‘good cholesterol’ present in our

body because they can transport fat molecules out of
artery walls and help in reducing the cardio vascular
diseases.
2. Which of the following pairs of vitamin and disease
is/are correctly matched?
1. Vitamin-A : Rickets
2. Vitamin-B 1 : Beri-beri
3. Vitamin-C : Scurvy
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
The areas marked in the map given above account for the
Ê (b) Deficiency of vitamin-B1 causes Beri-Beri disease, production of which one of the following cash crops?
which affects peripheral nervous system and
cardio-vascular system. Deficiency of vitamin-C causes (a) Cotton (b) Groundnut (c) Sugarcane (d) Tobacco
scurvy. Vitamin-C helps in synthesis of collagen fibre. Cotton cultivation is closely related to black soils
Bleeding gums are caused due to its deficiency.
Ê (a)
(regur). Block soils covers most of the Deccan plateau,
Deficiency of vitamin A causes Night-blindness which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya
whereas Rickets is caused due to the deficiency of Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of
Vitamin D. Tamil Nadu.It has high water retaining capacity.
3. The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to 6. Pir Panjal range in the Himalayas is a part of
the resultant (a) Shiwalik (b) Trans Himalaya
(a) energy (b) power (c) force (d) impulse (c) Central Himalaya (d) Lesser Himalaya

Ê (c) According to the statement of Newton’s Second Law Ê (d)

dp
r
Fext = r = ma Himalayas range Parts include
r r
dt Trans Himalaya Karakoram, Zansbar, Ladakh
Where, Fext = Resultant force on the body
r
Greater ● Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Parts of
dp Himalaya Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Himachal
= Rate of change of momentum (Himadri) Pradesh
dt
Lesser Himalaya Jammu and Kashmir, Pir Panjal range,
m = Mass of the body (Himachal) Dhauladhar range, Mussoorie range, Nag Tibba,
a = Acceleration of the body Mahabharat range (in Nepal)
Therefore, rate of change of momentum of a body Shiwaliks (or Jammu hills, (Jammu and Kashmir), Shiwalik Hill
Sub Himalaya) (Himachal Pradesh), Miri, Dafla, Abor Mishmi
equals to the resultant force acting on the body.
hills (Arunachal) Dhang range, Dudhwa range
4. After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the (Uttarakhand) China hill (Nepal)
roof-top because
(a) water helps air around the roof-top to absorb the heat 7. Consider the following statements regarding laterite
instantly soils of India :
(b) water has lower specific heat capacity 1. Laterite soils are generally red in colour.
(c) water is easily available 2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash.
(d) water has large latent heat of vaporisation 3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and
Uttar Pradesh.
Ê (a) People sprinkle water on the roof because when this
water gets evaporated they take up some of the heat
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.
from the roof for the process of evaporation. As some of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the heat gets released the roof becomes cooler making (a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4
the rooms also cool. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
36 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (c) Laterite soil is found in areas with high temperatures 12. Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in
and heavy rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods. blood of patient by
During rainfall silica is leached downwards and iron and
aluminium oxide remains in the top layers. They are poor 1. interfering in the process of platelet production in
in calcium, magnesium, nitrogen, phosphorus and bone marrow
potash. 2. infecting endothelial cells
3. binding with platelets
8. Which of the following statements regarding
4. accumulating platelets in intestine
Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean
climate is higher than the Monsoon climate. Ê (d) The platelet count in dengue fever decreases because
3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates. virus infects vascular endothelial cells, suppresses
Select the correct answer using the code given below : the platelet in bone marrow and also gets attached to
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 the platelet cells individually.
13. The SI unit of mechanical energy is
Ê (c) Characteristics of Monsoon climate are
l Found in the zones between 5° and 30° North and (a) Joule (b) Watt
South latitude. (c) Newton-second (d) Joule-second
l Best developed in the Indian sub-continent,
Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, South China Ê (a) The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy is
Sea and Northern Australia. called mechanical energy. So, SI unit of energy is
l Mean annual temperature is fairly high. Joule (Mechanical Energy).
l Average summer temperature : 27-32°C. 14. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if
l Agricrops – rice, sugarcane, jute etc.
and only if
Features of Mediterranean climate are
(a) there can be a heat flow between them even if they are
l Prevails in parts of California,
South-Western—Australia. at different temperatures
l South Africa and parts of Central Chile. (b) there cannot be a heat flow between them even if they
l Hot and dry summers and cool and wet winters. are at different temperatures
9. The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it (c) there is no heat flow between them
should be made non-conductor of heat. The plastic used (d) their temperatures are slightly different
there is the first man-made plastic, which is
Ê (c) Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium, if
(a) polythene (b) terylene (c) nylon (d) bakelite there is no net flow of heat between them when they
are brought into thermal contact. If there is a
Ê (d) Bakelite is a type of plastic (i.e. polythene) once moulded,
temperature difference between them, then the flow
does not melt in the presence of heat. It is used for
of heat will be there, till it reaches to the same
making electrical appliances, handles of crockery etc.
temperature.
10. Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster
in Bhopal in December, 1984, was used in the Union 15. ‘German silver’ is used to make decorative articles,
Carbide factory for production of coinage metal, ornaments etc. The name is given
because
(a) dyes (b) detergents (c) explosives (d) pesticides
(a) it is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its
Ê (d) Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) gas was used as a precursor for components
the formation of pesticides.
(b) Germans were the first to use silver
11. The germplasm is required for the propagation of plants (c) its appearance is like silver
and animals. Germplasm is the (d) it is an alloy of silver
1. genetic resources
2. seeds or tissues for breeding Ê (c) German silver is an alloy of copper, zinc and nickel.
3. egg and sperm repository It is called so as it appears like silver.
4. a germ cell’s determining zone 16. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol,
Select the correct answer using the code given below : ergosterol, sitosterol etc. which very closely resemble
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 cholesterol. These plant sterols are referred as
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) phytosterols (b) calciferols
Ê (c) The germplasm includes the collection of genetic resources (c) ergocalciferols (d) lumisterols
for further breeding and research programmes in plants
and animals. It is a collection of seeds and tissues in case Ê (a) All sterols derived from plants are referred as
of plants, egg and sperms in case of animals. phytosterols.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 37

17. With which one of the following countries, India has 21. In Artificial Insemination (AI) process, which of the
signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female?
Brahmaputra and Sutlej rivers? (a) Egg only (b) Fertilised egg
(a) Pakistan (b) China (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal (c) Sperms only (d) Egg and sperm

Ê (b) The main rivers originating from China entering into Ê (c) In Artificial Insemination, the sperms are introduced
India are Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej. in the female genital track to induce fertilisation
Brahmaputra is in East whereas Indus and Sutlej are process.
in West of India. China has recently constructed three
dams in Brahmaputra.
22. Genetically Modified (GM) crops contain modified
genetic material due to
18. Headquarters of which one among the following
1. introduction of new DNA
Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest
2. removal of existing DNA
elevation from the mean sea level?
3. introduction of RNA
(a) East Central Railway (b) South Eastern Railway 4. introduction of new traits
(c) South Western Railway (d) West Central Railway
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Railway Zone Headquarters Height
Ê (c) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
East Central Hajipur 55 m
Ê (d) Genetically Modified (GM) crops contain segments of
South Eastern Kolkata 9m foreign DNA that brings a new trait in the existing
South Western Hubli 671 m genome of the organism. It might involve the removal
West Central Jabalpur 412 m of some part of existing DNA too.
At present there are 16-railway zones in India. 23. Which one of the following statements is correct? The
Northen railway with headquarter in Delhi is the velocity of sound
longest rail route in India (6968 km). (a) does not depend upon the nature of media
19. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of (b) is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids
(a) glacial topography (b) volcanic topography (c) is maximum in solids and minimum in liquids
(c) karst topography (d) fluvial topography (d) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases
Ê (c) Karst topography is a landscape formed from the Velocity of sound depends upon the nature of media
dissolution of soluble rocks such as limestone, dolomite
Ê (d)
The speeds of sound in air, water and steel at 0°C are
and gypsum. It is characterised by underground
drainage systems with sinkholes, folines and caves. Medium Speed (m/s)
In the caves of lime stone, the seeping water Air 331
evaporates and some of the calcium carbonate Water 1450
deposited on the caves roof and grow very slowly Steel 5000
towards the floor and are called stalactite.
The water dripping on the floor of the cave also Therefore, velocity of sound is maximum in solids and
evaporates and a column starts growing slowly on the minimum in gases.
floor to the roof which is called stalagmite.
24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the (a) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature.
given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)?
(b) Sound waves having frequency below 20 Hz are known
(a) Mars-Venus-Earth-Mercury-Uranus as ultrasonic waves.
(b) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Earth-Uranus
(c) Sound waves having higher amplitudes are louder.
(c) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Uranus-Earth
(d) Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp.
(d) Venus-Mercury-Mars-Earth-Uranus
Planets Diameter size (Thousands of Km) Ê (b) Longitudinal waves involves change in the density of
Ê (b) the medium but transverse waves involves change in
Mercury 4.8
the shape of the medium.
Venus 12.1 The shape of gases can be changed easily, but it does
Earth 12.6 not try to come back in its original shape. Hence, a
Mars 6.7 transverse wave cannot be produced in gas.
Jupiter 142.4 Sound of frequency less than 20 Hz is known as
Saturn 120 Infrasonic sound or Infra sound. Sound of frequency
Uranus 49.6 greater than 20 KHz is known as Ultrasonic sound or
Ultrasound.
Neptune 44.8
25. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood
Therefore, correct sequence of the given planets in clotting?
increasing order of their diameters are
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B
Mercury → Mars → Venus → Earth → Uranus
(c) Vitamin-D (d) Vitamin-K
38 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (d) Vitamin-K is involved in the blood clotting phenomenon. Ê (a) Andaman and Nicobar islands are part of submerged
It induces the production of certain protein molecules, mountain in ocean. Lakshadweep islands and
which act as precursors for blood clotting enzymes. Maldives are coral in origin whereas Reunion island
is volcanic in origin.
26. Vitamin-B 12 deficiency causes pernicious anaemia.
Animals cannot synthesise vitamin-B 12 . Humans must 31. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the
obtain all their vitamin-B 12 from their diet. The following types of molecule is glucose?
complexing metal ion in vitamin-B 12 is (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
(a) Mg 2+ (Magnesium ion) (b) Fe 2+ (Iron ion) (c) Fat (d) Nucleic acid
(c) Co 3+ (Cobalt ion) (d) Zn 2+ (Zinc ion)
Ê (a) Carbohydrate is energy containing plant products. It
Vitamin-B12 is also called as Cobalamin. Its deficiency includes monosaccharides like glucose molecules.
Ê (c)
in diet causes pernicious anaemia. 32. The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is
27. Consider the following statements : composed of
1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in (a) cytoplasm only
India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas. (b) cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
2. The peninsular India once formed part of the (c) nucleoplasm only
super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, (d) cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles
Africa and South America.
Ê (d) Protoplasm is the living content of a cell that is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? surrounded by plasma membrane. It is composed of
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 33. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his
Ê (b) As per Continental Drift Theory, all continents formed a contributions in
single continental mass; the super-continent was named 1. development of high-yielding crops
Pangaea which first broke into two large continental 2. modernisation of irrigation infrastructure
masses-Laurasia and Gondwanaland. Most of the
ferrous deposits are found in the archaen rocks of
3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides
Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in Ê (a) Norman E. Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his
(a) Pirotan Island (b) Rameswaram efforts to increase foodgrain production by developing
(c) Ganga Sagar Island (d) Port Blair high dwarf wheat variety. This had led to Green
Revolution and he is regarded as Father of Green
Ê (d) Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is situated at Revolution.
Port Blair, Andaman. The park was created in 1983, to
protect marine life such as corals, nesting sea turtles. 34. A myopic person has a power of − 125
. Dioptre. What is
The park covers an area of 281.5 km2 , made up of 15 the focal length and nature of his lens?
islands. (a) 50 cm and convex lens (b) 80 cm and convex lens
29. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (c) 50 cm and concave lens (d) 80 cm and concave lens
1. The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which Ê (d) Myopia is the defect of human eye by virtue of which
generally occurs on 3rd January. eye cannot see clearly far-off object. It can see only the
2. The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, object at near point.
which generally occurs on 4th July. Remedy : Using concave Lens.
3. The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, 1
which generally occurs on 4th July. Power of Lens (P) =
f
4. The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which
generally occurs on 3rd January. Here, P = − 1 .25 Dioptre
1 1 −1 −4
Select the correct answer using the code given below : ∴ P= or f = = = m
f P 1 .25 5
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
4
f =− × 100 cm = −80 cm
Ê (c) Perihelion and Aphelion are the nearest and farthest 5
points of Earth’s direct orbit around the Sun, f = − 80 cm
respectively. Aphelion occurs on 4th July and Perihelion
occurs on 3rd January. Since, focal length of the lens is negative so the lens is
concave in nature.
30. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin?
(a) Reunion island
35. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0°C. The amount
(b) Andaman and Nicobar islands
of heat it requires to melt at 0°C is (take latent heat of
(c) Lakshadweep islands melting of ice to be 333.6 J/g)
(d) Maldives (a) 750.6 J (b) 83.4 J (c) 33360 J (d) 3.336 J
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 39

Ê (c) Latent heat is the amount of heat required per unit 40. Which one of the following is the reason due to which
mass during the change of phase of a substance. the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected
−1
SI unit Jkg towards its left?
Quantity of heat (Q)
Latent heat (L) = (a) Difference in the water masses of northern and southern
mass (m) hemisphere
Here, m= 100 g of ice (b) Temperature and pressure variations
L = 333.6 J/g (c) Inclined axis of the Earth
So, amount of heat (Q) = m × L = 100 × 333.6 J (d) Rotation of the Earth

= 33360 J Ê (d) Coriolis effect causes a deflection in global wind

Q = 33360 J pattern. This force causes moving objects on the
surface of the Earth to be deflected to the right in
36. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide Northern hemisphere and to the left in Southern
chain? hemisphere.
(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotropin (c) Insulin (d) Cortisone 41. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has
(a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure
Ê (c) Insulin hormone is made of polypeptide chains.
(b) abnormally low temperature and pressure
37. Which one of the following is an example of chemical
(c) clear sky and lowest temperature
change?
(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure
(a) Burning of paper
(b) Magnetisation of soft iron Ê (c) The eye of cyclone is a region of mostly calm weather.
(c) Dissolution of cane sugar in water i.e. clear sky and lower temperature. It is roughly
(d) Preparation of ice cubes from water circular area. It is surrounded by the eyewall, a ring of
towering thunderstroms where the most severe
Ê (a) Chemical change involves change in chemical weather occurs.
composition of matter. During magnetisation of iron,
dissolution of sugar in water and preparation of ice 42. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
from water, the chemical compositions do not alter 1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone.
hence they are physical change. While burning of 2. Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute to
paper results in formation of carbon dioxide and water acid rain.
vapours, which have new chemical composition, hence 3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control
it is called chemical change. pollution.
38. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term Select the correct answer using the code given below :
sea-level change? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Atmospheric disturbance
Ê (a) l Acid rain causes decomposition of limestone.
(b) Change in marine water density
(c) Melting of icebergs CaCO3 + H 2 SO4 → CaSO4 + CO2 ↑ + H 2O
(d) Melting of ice sheets l Burning of sulphur along with coal results in
formation of oxides of sulphur as
Ê (d) Short-term variation in sea level occurs due to waves, 1
S + O2 → SO2 ⇒ SO2 + O2 → SO3
tides or specific flood events, such as those associated
2
with a winter snow melt or hurricane or other coastal
When sulphur trioxide (SO 3 ) reacts with water (of
strom. Long-term variation is due to seasonal weather
patterns, variation in the Earth’s declination, change clouds) it forms acid, hence causes acid rain.
in coastal and ocean circulation, anthropogenic SO3 + H 2O → H 2SO4
influence etc. l Eutrophication is the excessive increase of
Melting of icesheets either due to anthropogenic cause nutrients in an ecosystem (like ponds) which results
or climate change is a long term events resulting in sea abnormal growth of population of dependent
organism (like algal bloom is pond). Hence, it can
level rise.
cause pollution instead of controlling it.
39. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra : 43. Which one of the following statements about bar magnet
1. Lohit 2. Tista is correct?
3. Subansiri 4. Sankosh (a) The pole strength of the North pole of a bar magnet is
Arrange the above rivers from West to East : larger than that of the South pole.
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4 (b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to
its axis, the North and South poles get separated.
Ê (a) The principal tributaries of the river Brahmaputra
joining from right are Subansiri, Manas, Torsa, (c) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to
Sankosh, Tista etc. its axis, two new bar magnets are formed.
Those joining from left are – Burhi-Di-hing, Disang, (d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude and
D-hansiri and Kopili. opposite in nature.
40 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (c) Bar magnet has equal and opposite magnitude at their 48. The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for
poles. When a bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to domestic and industrial purposes. Which one of the
its axis, it always create a new bar magnet. The poles of following is the main reason behind that?
bar magnet can never be separated to each other.
(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand of
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct? different industries.
(a) Hydrogen is an element. (b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only.
(b) Hydrogen is the lightest element. (c) Raw material for synthetic rubber is easily available.
(c) Hydrogen has no isotopes. (d) Natural rubber is not durable.
(d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture.
Ê (c) Natural rubber is made from the latex of rubber tree
Ê (c) Hydrogen has three known isotopes namely Protium, found in the hot, damp forests of South-East Asia,
Deuterium and Tritium. Africa and South America.
45. Which one of the following statements is not correct? But during second World War the United States, which
essentially needed rubber for its growing industries,
(a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass was cut off from all sources of natural rubber. Hence it
numbers. developed synthetic rubber plant. Which is a product of
(b) Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers. petroleum refining and styrene, to sustain its
(c) All the atoms of an element have same number of protons. industries. Thus easy availability of raw materials
(d) All the atoms of an element will always have same number from products of petroleum refining industries lead to
of neutrons. growth of synthetic rubber.

Ê (d) Two atoms are said to belong to an element when they 49. A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall.
have same number of protons. But they can have He hears the echo after 0.3 second. If the sound moves
different number of neutrons. e.g. the isotopes of an with a speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him?
element have same number of protons, but different (a) 102 m (b) 11 m (c) 51 m (d) 30 m
number of neutrons.
46. Which of the following statements regarding chemical Ê (c) The sound that is heard after the first ring is due to
reflection of sound at the surface of wall is called echo.
industry in India is/are correct?
Since, sound travel at about 340 m/s in air, for the
1. Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in reflected sound to be audible.
India.
2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of Total distance travelled by sound in going to the
chemical industry. surface and back = Speed × Time
3. Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption So, the distance of the wall (surface) from the sound
of dyestuffs. 1 1
source = × Speed × Time = × 340 × 0.3 = 51 m.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 2 2
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 50. Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in
terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from
Ê (d) Chemical industry is one of the modern but established
industries in India. Chemical industries contribution
the mean sea level :
to export is about 13-14%. Textile industry account for 1. Mussoorie 2. Shimla
about 80% of dye stuff. 3. Ooty 4. Darjeeling
47. Which of the following statements about India’s Select the correct answer using the code given below :
scientific and research mission in Antarctica is/are (a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
correct? (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Ê (a) Ooty 2240 m
Dakshin Gangotri. Shimla 2205 m
2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base
Darjeeling 2050 m
and transit camp.
3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for Mussoorie 2006 m
scientific activities. 51. Consider the following statements :
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 conception of good life for the individual as well as the
society.
Ê (d) The first station Dakshin Gangotri was buried in ice
and abandoned in 1990-91. The second station Maitri 2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of
is situated on the Rocky mountainous region called Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in
Schirmacher Oasis. ‘Bharati’, India’s third and newest India.
permanent research base in situated on a rocky Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
promontory fringing the Prydz Bay between Stornes (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
and Broknes peninsula in the Larsemann Hill area. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 41

Ê (a) Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book written by 55. Which one of the following is the common element
Mahatma Gandhi in 1909. In it, he expresses his views between the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora and the
on Swaraj, modern civilisation, mechanisation etc. Shore temple at Mamallapuram?
52. Which of the following is/are constitutional (a) Both are examples of Nagara architecture.
body/bodies? (b) Both are carved out from solid rocks.
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (c) Both are Gupta period temples.
2. National Commission for Women (d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings.
3. National Commission for Minorities
Ê (b) Kailasanatha temple at Ellora is one of the largest
4. National Human Rights Commission rock-cut temple, built by Rashtrakuta King Krishna I.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Shore temple at Mamallapuram is a structural temple
(a) Only 1 built with blocks of granite by Narasimha Varman II
(b) 1, 3 and 4 of Pallava dynasty.
(c) 3 and 4 56. Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 paintings?
Ê (a) Constitutional bodies are formed by the Constitution 1. The stories of Krishna 2. Ragas and Raginis
which helps the government to run properly. UPSC, 3. The deeds of Hamza 4. The deeds of Babur
SSC, CVC, Election Commission, National Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below :
for STs, National Commission for SCs, Finance
Commission are some examples. They derive power (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
directly from the Constitution. Rajput paintings are also called Rajasthani painting.
Ê (c)
National Commission for Women, National Subject related to Sri Ram Charit, Divine love of
Commission for Minorities, National Human Rights Radha and Krishna, Barahamasa, Raagmala
Commission are statutory bodies created by law paved paintings and those based on Geet-Govinda are
by Parliament. treasures of Rajput paintings.
Erstwhile Planning Commission, NITI Aayog, National 57. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to
Development Council are extra constitutional bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in
non-statutory bodies created by executive order. the economic situation?
53. Which of the following statements relating to the (a) Fourth Plan (1969-74) (b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)
Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian Resurgence (1955) (c) Sixth Plan (1980-85) (d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)
are correct?
Ê (a)
1. Bandung Conference was organised by Indonesia, Five year plan Objective
Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and
Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than ● 4th FYP (1969-74) ‘Growth with stability and
progressive achievement of self
half of the world’s population sent delegates. reliance’ and bring prices control.
2. The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ ● 5th FYP (1974-79) Poverty eradication and attainment
dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance of self-reliance
by the Western powers to consult with them on
decisions affecting Asia. ● 6th FYP (1980-85) Removal of poverty economic and
technological self-reliance
3. The Conference was concerned over tension between employment generation.
the People’s Republic of China and the United States. ● 7th FYP (1985-90) Establishment of self-sufficient
Select the correct answer using the code given below : economy.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with
Ê (d) Bandung Conference was held in Indonesia between respect to Phillips Curve?
18th to 24th April, 1955. Its objective was economic and
1. It shows the trade-off between unemployment and
cultural cooperation, opposition to colonialisation and
inflation.
promotion of Non-Aligned movement.
2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips Curve is
54. Who among the following archaeologists was the first to generally held to be valid only in the short run.
identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and 3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually thought to
the mature Harappan culture? be horizontal at the Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate
(a) Amalananda Ghosh (b) Rakhaldas Banerji
of Unemployment (NAIRU).
(c) Daya Ram Sahni (d) Sir John Marshall Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ê (a) In 1965 Amalananda Ghosh was the first archaeologist
to identify similarities between pre-Harappan culture Ê (c) Philip curve depicts a negative relationship between
and post Harappan culture. He compared the two inflation and unemployment. At higher levels of
culture during his research on Sothi culture in present inflation, there will be unemployment and vice-versa.
Rajasthan. This curve is valid only in the short run.
42 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

59. Which one of the following nations is not a member of However, he/she has to vacate office earlier in any of
the Eurasian Economic Union? the following three cases
l If he ceases to be a member of Lok Sabba.
(a) Belarus (b) Russia l If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker.

(c) Kazakhstan (d) Uzbekistan l If he is removed by a resolution passed by a

majority of all the members of Lok Sabha. Such a

Ê (d) The Eurasian Economic Union (EEU) is an economic resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days
Union of States located primarily in Northern Eurasia. advance notice.
A treaty aiming for the establishment of EEU was
signed on 29th May, 2014 by leaders of Belarus, 63. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005)
Kazakhstan and Russia. was concerned with
60. BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New (a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good
Development Bank at the summit held in governance
(b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice
(a) New Delhi, India (2012)
System
(b) Durban, South Africa (2013)
(c) creating an ombudsman mechanism for reduction of
(c) Fortaleza, Brazil (2014)
corruption in public life
(d) Ufa, Russia (2015)
(d) devising new measures for urban governance and
Ê (c) BRICS –– Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa management
Since 2009, the BRICS nations have met annually at The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) is the
formal summit.
Ê (a)
Committee appointed by the Government of India for
As of 2015, the five BRICS countries represent over 3 giving recommendations for reviewing the public
billion people or 42% of world population, 20% of the administrative system of India. Shri Virappa morley
world GDP. The term ‘BRIC’ was joined in 2001, by headed the second ARC.
then Chairman of Goldman Sachs, Jim O’ Neill. 64. As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition
First summit ––Yekaterinburg, 2009. In 2010, South relates to an order
Africa became the member. 1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority
61. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a
particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try
(a) Regional Rural Banks
3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to
(b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Limited
which he is not entitled
(MUDRA)
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Industrial Development Bank of India (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ê (b) Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Ê (a) A Writ of Prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate
(MUDRA) Bank is a public sector financial institution to stop doing something the law prohibits.
in India.
65. Which one among the following was not an attribute of
The bank will classify its clients into three categories
Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti?
l Sishu –– Allowed loans up to ` 50000

l Kishor –– Allowed loans ` 50000-` 5 lakh

(a) Sharp and polished intellect
l Tarun –– Allowed loans ` 5 lakh- ` 10 lakh
(b) Accomplished sculptor
(c) Fine musical performances
Those eligible to borrow from MUDRA bank are small (d) Poetical talent of a genius
manufacturing unit, shopkeeper, fruit and vegetable
vendors, artisans. Ê (b) Prayag Prashasti is also known as Allahabad pillar
inscription. Harisena was the court poet of
62. Consider the following statements : Samudragupta, who mentioned the achievements of
1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint Sumudragupta in the Prayag Prashasti.
and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha. 66. Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to
2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his
office himself throughout his term and cannot (a) Logic and Philosophy (b) Mathematics
delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during (c) Political morality (d) Grammar
his absence from the station or during his illness. Kamandaka’s ‘Nitisara’ is Sanskrit text on political
Ê (c)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? science. It’s creator’s name is Kamandaki or
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Kamandak. In reality this text is rendering essential
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 principles laid down by Kautilya’s Arthashashtra. It is
in the from of verses. It’s language is very simple.
Ê (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by the Lok Sabha
from amongst its members. The date of election of the 67. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on
Speaker is fixed by the President. Usually, the Speaker (a) Mathematics (b) Surgery
remains in office during the life of Lok Sabha. (c) Peotics (d) Linguistics
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 43

Ê (a) The Lilavati is Indian mathematician Bhaskara-II’s 72. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were
treatise on Mathematics, written in 1150. It is the first defeated by a vote of No Confidence?
volume of his main work Siddhanta Shiromani
alongside the Bijaganita, the Grahaganita and 1. Morarji Desai
Goladhyaya. 2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
3. HD Deve Gowda
68. Which of the following statements are true with respect
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
to the concept of EFFICIENCY as used in mainstream
economics? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
1. Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganisation of (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
production can make anyone better off without
making someone else worse off. Ê (c) A Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in
2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Lok Sabha. The motion needs to the support of 50
Production Possibility Frontier (PPF). members to be admitted.
3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its According to the Constitution, the Council of Minister
Production Possibility Frontier (PPF). stays in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of
4. The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, ‘Pareto the Lok Sabha; once the confidence is withdrawn the
Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all government in bound to resign.
essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency 73. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya
in resource allocation’. Sabha is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
250.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly
In economics the meaning of fiscal efficiency is making from the States and Union Territories.
Ê (d) 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in
use of all resources to make maximum production of
goods and services. When one economy is producing matters such as creation of All India Services.
more goods and services in comparison to other Select the correct answer using the code given below :
economy without any additional resource, then it is (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
called more efficient. (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
69. The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which
Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in Ê (a)
238 are to be the representatives of the States and UTs
(a) Jaipur (b) Suva (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated. At present,
(c) New Delhi (d) Port Moresby Rajya Sabha has 245 members.
Special power of Rajya Sabha
Ê (a) First summit of Forum for India-Pacific Islands l It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a

Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in Suva. It is a subject enumerated in the State List (Article-249).
multinational grouping developed in 2014 for l It can authorise the Parliament to create new all
cooperation between India and 14 Pacific island India services common to both the Centre and
nations. States (Article-312).
70. Which one of the following island nations went for 74. Which of the following statements relating to the office
Parliamentary elections in the month of August, 2015? of the President of India are correct?
(a) Maldives (b) Fiji 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Singapore criminal in special cases.
The 2015 Sri Lankan Parliamentary election-UNP
2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when
Ê (c) the Parliament is in session.
leader Ranil Wickremesinghe became the Prime
Minister. Except Fiji, other are Indian Ocean island 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during
nation. Fiji is in Eastern Pacific. emergency.
4. The President has the power to nominate two
71. Which one of the following nations has faced severe members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian
economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in community.
repayment of IMF loan? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) China (b) Greece (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) Ireland (d) Belgium (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Ê (b) The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an Ê (b) Rajya Sabha is permanent House of legislature and
organisation of 188 countries, working to foster global can’t be dissolved by President even during emergency.
monetary cooperation, secure financial stability,
facilitate international trade, promote high
75. The followers of Gorakhnath were called
employment and sustainable economic growth and (a) Jogis (b) Nath-Panthis
reduce poverty around the world. (c) Tantriks (d) Sanyasis
44 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (a) The followers of Goraknath were called Jogis. The 80. Who among the following is the first Indian
main region of this group in Eastern India and Nepal. sportsperson to reach the finals in the World Badminton
It is a form of Hinduism and worshipped Lord Shiva.
Championship (Women) in 2015?
76. What were the 12 States of the Sikh confederacy called? (a) Jwala Gutta (b) Saina Nehwal
(a) Misl (b) Gurmata (c) PV Sindhu (d) Madhumita Bisht
(c) Sardari (d) Rakhi
Ê (b) Saina Nehwal is the 1st Indian women badminton
Ê (a) Misl is a term called for the 12 states of the sikh player to win Bronze medal in Olympic 2014). She has
confederacy which originated in the 18th century also won Padma Bhushan Award (2015).
history of the Sikhs to describe a unit or brigade of Sikh
warriors and the territory acquired by it in the course 81. Which one of the following Articles/Schedules in the
of its campaign of conquest following the weakening of Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District
the Mughal authority. Councils?
77. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? (a) Eighth Schedule (b) Article-370
1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Article-250
Article-44 of the Constitution of India.
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been Ê (c) As per the 6th Schedule, the four States viz. Assam,
given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court. Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram contain the tribal
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully areas which are technically different from the schedule
independent Court for the country, was set-up under areas.
the Constitution of India in 1950. Though these areas fall within the executive authority
Select the correct answer using the code given below : of the State, provision has been made for the creation of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 the District Councils and Regional Councils for the
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 3 exercise of the certain legislative and judicial power.
Each district is an autonomous district and Governor
Ê (a) Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India is the proposal to can modify/divide the boundaries of the said tribal
replace the personal laws based on the scriptures and
customs of each major religious community in the areas by modification. Currently there are 10 such
country with a common set governing every citizen. The councils.
Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th
January, 1950.
82. Which of the following statements with regard to
UID/Aadhar Card are correct?
It succeeded the Federal Court of India, established
under the Government of India Act. 1935. The Writ 1. It is a 12-digit unique form of identification for all
Jurisdiction of High Court (under Article-226) is wider residents of India.
than that of the Supreme Court (under Article-32), 2. It is an identity number along with the biometric
because the Supreme Court can issue writ only for the information of the individuals.
enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for 3. It is a national identity and citizenship card.
any other purpose. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
78. Which of the following is/are the example(s) of Transfer
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Payment(s)?
1. Unemployment allowance Ê (b) Unique Identification Number (UID) renamed as
2. Payment of salary Aadhar, is a 12 digit individual indentification number
3. Social security payments with the biometric information of individual, issued by
4. Old age pension Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).
Aadhar is a important component of government’s
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
JAM trinity i.e. Jan Dhan, Aadhar and Mobile phone.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Recentty. government paved a bill to provide Aadhar,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of these as statutory status.
Ê (c) Transfer payment as the name suggest, is done 83. Which of the following statements about Comptroller
through by transferring the cash benefits (part of and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?
Government’s Welfare Scheme) to the beneficieries.
1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from
79. The Erawan Shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office
in August, 2015, is located at on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the
(a) Singapore (b) Bangkok
expiry of the 6 years term.
(c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Kabul 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution
of India.
Ê (b) Erawan Shrine, formally the Thao Maha Shrine, i.e. 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the
‘Shrine of Lord Brahma the Great’ is a Hindu temple in President of India in consultation with the Prime
Bangkok (Thailand). Minister and the Council of Ministers.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 45

4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address Ê (b) The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional
from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Right)
misbehaviour or incapacity. Act 2006 has following provisions
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (i) A forest dweller is
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (a) A person primarily residing in forests
and depends on forests and forest land
Ê (a) Article-148 of Constitution of India provides for the office of for livelihood.
CAG. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the
entire financial system of the country at both the levels. The (b) The above condition have been true for
CAG is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under 75 years or above (for other traditional
his hand and seal. He holds office for a period of 6 years or up to forest dweller).
the age of 65 years.
(c) That one is member of Scheduled Tribe
84. Human Development Report for each year at global level is residing in area where they are
published by scheduled.
(a) WTO (b) World Bank (c) UNDP (d) IMF (ii) The onus of implementation of the Act lies
at the state /UT Governments.
Ê (c) Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual report
published by United Nations Development Programme (iii) The Act seeks to recognise and vest certain
(UNDP). The report was first launched in 1990 by the Pakistan forest right in the forest dwelling
economist Mahbub-ul-Haq and Indian Nobel Laureate Scheduled Tribes and other traditional
Amartya Sen. forest dweller.
85. Which one among the following statements about the coins of 88. Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles
the Gupta rulers is correct? Tennis Title (2015) partnering with
(a) The obverse and reverse, both, had only the king’s portrait and (a) Kristina Mladenovic
date. (b) Flavia Pennetta
(b) The obverse and reverse, both, had only an image of a deity and (c) Martina Hingis
date. (d) Sania Mirza
(c) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse had an
image of a deity or a motif. Ê (c) Leander Paes along with Martina Hingis won
(d) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse always had US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title-2015.
They have defeated Bethanie Mattek and Sam
a date.
Querrey by 6-4, 3-6, 10-7 and won the title.
Ê (c) Gupta age is referred to as the ‘Golden Age’ of ancient India 89. Who among the following is the winner of the
and was perhaps the most prosperous era in the Indian
History.
World Food Prize (2015)?
Gupta rulers issued large number of gold coins which are (a) Sanjaya Rajaram
called as dinars, which contains portrait of king on one side (b) Baldev Singh Dhillon
and image of a deity or a motif in reverse side. (c) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed
86. The Agrahara in early India was (d) Rajendra Singh Paroda
(a) the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins Ê (c) World Food Prize Foundation declared’ World
(b) the garland of flowers of Agar Food Prize, 2015 to Sir Fazle Hasan Abed of
(c) the grant of land to officers and soldiers Bangladesh. In one of the American State
(d) land of village settled by Vaishya farmers Department Programme Abed’s name was
declared as winner of the award.
Ê (a) Agrahara is a type of land grants given to Brahmin by the
Royal kings and this land is exempted from all kinds of taxes. 90. In which one of the following judgments of the
Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of
87. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of death penalty was first laid down?
Forest Rights) Act 2006 are correct?
(a) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab (1980)
1. The Act recognises forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled (b) Gopalanachari vs State of Kerala (1980)
Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before
October 25, 1980. (c) Dr. Upendra Baxi Vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1983)
2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the (d) Tukaram Vs State of Maharashtra (1979)
State/UT governments.
Ê (a) Indian Judiciary has pointed out their view
3. The Act seeks to recognise and vest certain forest rights in the regarding death penalty by ruling out in
forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab, that the
dwellers. death penalty must be restricted to the ‘rarest
Select the correct answer using the code given below : of rare’ case, this view of Supreme Court was
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 very much favouring to minimise the use of
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 capital punishment to penalise the criminals.
46 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

91. Consider the following statements about the Ê (b) Iqta was Islamic practice of tax farming that was
President of India: introduced by Iltutmish in Delhi Sultanate. It was
basically grant of revenue from territory in lieu of salary.
1. The President has the right to address and send This grant was not hereditary.
message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific
information. 95. Which one of the following books was not illustrated with
2. The President can call for information relating to paintings in Akbar’s court?
proposals for legislation. (a) Hamzanama (b) Razmnama
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to (c) Baburnama (d) Tarikh-i-Alfi
administration of the Union must be communicated
to the President. Ê (c) Daswanth, Mukand, Basawan, Haribansh, Ram were
Which of the statements given above are correct? some famous painters of Akbar’ court.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 96. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’?
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Electricity (b) National Defence
Ê (d) As per Article 86 (1) of the Constitution the (c) Light House (d) Public Parks
President has the right to address either Houses or
their joint sitting, at any time and to require the Ê (a) A public good is a product that one individual can
attendance of members for this purpose. consume without reducing its availability to another
individual and from which no one is excluded.
92. In which one of the following cases, the constitutional
validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights 97. Which one of the following is not among the aims of the
of Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61)?
Court of India? (a) Rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on the
(a) Muhammad Ahmed Khanvs Shah Bano Begum development of basic and heavy industries.
(b) Danial Latifi vs Union of India (b) Large expansion of employment opportunities.
(c) Mary Roy vs State of Kerala (c) Achieve self-sufficiency in foodgrains and increase
(d) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry
and exports.
Ê (b) The Act was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi (d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a more
government to nullify the decision in Shah Bano even distribution of economic power.
Begum case. The law applies to whole of India
except Jammu and Kashmir. Ê (c) Second Five Year Plan was based on the PC Mahalanobis
93. Which of the following statements about the model. The objective of this Plan were
Vijayanagara empire is/are true? (i) Rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on
the development of basic and heavy industries.
1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God (ii) Promote socialist pattern of society (as envisaged at
Virupaksha. Avadi summit of INC, 1955).
2. Rulers used the title ‘Hindu Suratrana’ to indicate (iii) To increase national income by 25%.
their close links with Gods. (iv) Expansion of employment and reduction of inequality.
3. All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit (v) Increase the vote of investment from 7% to 11% of GDP.
and Tamil. 98. The National Policy for Children 2013 recognises every
4. Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in person as a child below the age of
temples.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
(a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 2 The National Policy for children gives utmost priority to
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ê (d)
right to life, health and nutrition and also gives
importance to development of education, protection and
Ê (d) Vijayanagara empire was founded by Harihar and participation.
Bukka.
The gold coins issued by them are called varahas or 99. Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of
Pagodas. They produced a new style of architecture the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?
called Provida style, characterised by large number (a) Provide girls’ toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio
and prominence of pillar and piers. Horse was the
(CSR) districts by the year 2017
most common animal on the pillars.
(b) 100% girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year
94. Iqta in medieval India meant 2020
(a) land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual (c) Promote a protective environment for girl children through
purposes implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual
(b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to Offences (POCSO) Act 2012
army officers (d) Train Elected Representatives/ Grassroot functionaries as
(c) charity for educational and cultural activities Community Champions to mobilise communities to improve
(d) the rights of the Zamindar CSR and promote girls’ education
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 47

Ê (b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao is a Government of India (i) he holds any office of profit under the Government of
scheme that aims to generate awareness and India or the government of any state.
improving the efficiency of welfare scheme meant for (ii) he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a
women. The scheme was introduced in October, 2014 to competent court.
address the issue or declining child sex ratio. This is a (iii) he is not an Indian citizen or voluntarily acquired
joint initiative of Ministry of Women and Child citizenship of foreign country
Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (iv) he is so disqualified by or under any law made by
and Ministry of Human Resource and Development. It parliament (Article 102).
was launched from Panipat (Haryana). In a dispute regarding qualification the decision of the
President in accordance with the opinion of election
100. Which of the following is not an objective of the commission is final.
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) Improve the overall quality of private educational
103. Which one of the following languages is not recognised in
institutions the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and (a) English (b) Sanskrit
examination systems (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
(c) Correct regional imbalances in access to higher
education Ê (a) Eighth Schedule contains list of official languages of
(d) Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher education Republic of India. As per Article-344(1) and 351 of
institutions to devote themselves to research and Indian Constitution, the 8th Schedule includes 22
innovations language.
104. Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to?
Ê (a) RUSA is a centrally sponsored scheme [65 : 35 funding
for General Category State and 90:10 for Special (a) Avadh (b) Travancore
Category] in 2013. It aims at providing strategic (c) Vijayanagara (d) Ahom
funding to eligible State Higher Education institution.
Ê (c) Hazara Rama belong to the Vijayanagara kingdom.
101. Which of the following statements with regard to Other important temple of Vijayanagara empire were
preventive detention in India is/are correct? (i) Vithalswami temple at Hampi.
1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned (ii) Tadapatri and Parvati temples at Chidambaram.
in clauses (4) and (5) of Article-22 of Constitution of (iii) Varadraja and Ekambarnath temples at
India. Kanchipuram.
2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention 105. Consider the following statements about votive
order on the ground that he was already in jail when inscriptions in the second century BC :
the detention order was passed.
1. They record gifts made to religious institutions.
3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has
been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an 2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the
order of the Magistrate. meritorious results of the action of one person to
another person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Article 22 of Constitution provides that no person who (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ê
is arrested shall be detained in custody without being The incriptions made before 2nd century were mostly
informed of the grounds for such arrest.
Ê (c)
of Mauryan period and majority of them belong to
The Constitution authorises the legislature to make Emperor Ashoka. In these incription, there is also
laws for preventive detention for the security of state, mention of Barbar and Nagarjuni caves, which were
gifted by Emperor Ashoka to Aajivikas. Even it also
the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of
has mention of following of Dhamma by inhabitants of
supplies and services essential to the community or remote states.
reasons connected with defense and foreign affairs.
106. Consider the following statements :
102. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to
continue as a Member of the House if the Member 1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called
the Tantraloka which systematically presents the
(a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political teachings of the Kula and Trika systems.
party from which he/she was elected 2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in
(b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had Gujarat around the eighth century is technically not a
been elected to the House tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and
(c) joins a political party after being elected as an practices.
independent candidate Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her
(a) Only 1
political party
(b) Only 2
Ê (b) In following condition a member of Lok Sabha can be (c) Both 1 and 2
disqualified to continue as a member of the House if (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48 Solved Paper 2016 (I)

Ê (c) Abhinav Gupta (950-1020) was Kashmir based mystic 112. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered
philosopher. He wrote a monograph named as in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in
Tantralok. Haribhadra Suri was Jain thinker from
Gujarat. He wrote ‘Samaraichhkaha’ book. In this get
the year
to know about reincarnation or rebirth influenced by (a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 2003
the karmas (deeds).
Ê (d) The scheme provides for required as OCI of all Person
107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near of Indian Origins (PIOs) who were citizens of India on
Money’? 26th January, 1950 or there after or were eligible to
1. Treasury Bill become citizen of India on 26th January, 1950 except
2. Credit Card who is or had been a citizen of Pakistan, Bangladesh or
such other countries as the Central government may
3. Savings accounts and small time deposits. by notification in official Gazette certify.
4. Retail money market mutual funds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 113. The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Rights in the Constitution of India through the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005
Ê (d) ‘Near Money’ term used in Economics to describe (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003
highly liquid assets that can easily be converted into
cash. (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011

108. Which one of the following terms is used in Economics Ê (a) 93rd Amendment Right to education.
to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a 87th Amendment Substitution the figure ‘2001’ for
counteracting transaction? figure ‘1919’ in Article-81, 82, 170 and 330.
(a) Dumping (b) Hedging
97th Amendment Relating to cooperatives.
(c) Discounting (d) Deflating
114. Consider the following statements :
Ê (b) Hedging means reducing or controlling risk. This is
done of the taking a position in future market, with the 1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid
objective of reducing or limiting risks, associated with details of Ashoka’s Dhamma.
price challenge. 2. The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka
having visited the Konagamana stupa.
109. ‘Citizenfour’, the 87th Academy Award winner in the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
category of documentary feature, is based on the life of
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Abraham Lincoln (b) Albert Einstein (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Edward Snowden (d) Laura Poitras
Ê (b) Ashokan Rock Edicts, Pillar Edicts and cave
Ê (c) ‘Citizenfour’– a 2014 documentary film directed by inscription are located at various places of Indian
Laura Poitras, concerning Edward Snowden and NSA subcontinent. Rummindei is located near Lumbini,
spying scandal. Nepal birth place of Gautama Buddha. The inscription
were deciphered by James Princep in 1837. They were
110. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the written in Prakrit.
Railway Budget 2015-16?
115. Consider the following statements :
(a) Online booking of disposable bed rolls
1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911.
(b) Defence Travel System to eliminate Warrants
2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated
(c) 180 days in advance ticket booking facility for from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and
passengers established as an independent administration under a
(d) Bio-toilets Chief Commissioner in the year 1874.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ê (c) Railway Budget 2015-16 has following provision (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Online booking of dispossible bed roll, defence travel (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
system to eliminate warrant on, biotoilets and 120
days in advance ticket booking facility for passengers. Ê (c) The province of Assam was created in 1911 by the
111. Which one of the following services of ‘India Post’ has probation of Eastern Bengal and Assam. The Assam
territory was first separated from Bengal in 1874 as
permanently been discontinued? the ‘‘North East Frontier’’.
(a) Money Order (b) Telegram
116. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(c) Postal Life Insurance (d) Inland Letter
1. Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest
Ê (b) Telegram is a written message transmitted by using an first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and
electric device, was started in 1850 on experimental practices in India.
basis between Kolkata and Diamond Harbour, made 2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the
public in 1854 and discontinued permanently in 2013. text.
 Solved Paper 2016 (I) 49

3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to 118. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
obtain and take back texts containing
monastic rules. 1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from
workers, employers and independent members.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and
given below : Non-Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 nature.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3 3. Second National Commission on Labour has recommended
Faxian (Fa-Hien) was Chinese Buddhist
against the utility of wage boards.
Ê (c) Select the correct answer using the code given below :
monk who travelled by foot from China to
India. Visited India in the early 5th century, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, and 3
during the reign of Chandragupta-II.
Ê (b) Wage Boards are established by law to investigate wage rate.
117. Which of the following statements are correct? Government has discretion to decide its members.
1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that Except for wage boards for journalist and non journalists
the amount of taxes people pay should relate newspaper and news agency employees other wage boards are
to their income or wealth. non-statutory in nature.
2. The Benefit Principle of taxation States that
individuals should be taxed in proportion to 119. The rank of Major General in Indian Army is equivalent to
the benefit they receive from government (a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force
programmes. (b) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy
3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax (c) Air Commodore in Indian Air Force
from poor families than it does from rich (d) Commodore in Indian Navy
families.
4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being Ê (b) Rank of Major General in Indian Army is equivalent to Rear
cheaper and easier to collect. Admiral in Indian Navy and Air Vice-Marshal in Indian Air
Select the correct answer using the code Force.
given below : 120. Among the currently operational Indian satellites, there is no
(a) 1 and 3 (a) communication satellite (b) navigation satellite
(b) 2 and 4 (c) Earth observation satellite (d) Jupiter orbiter satellite
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ê (d) Type of Satellite Name
Progressive tax is a tax in which the tax rate Communication satellite GSAT 15
Ê (c)
increases as the taxable income increases. Navigation satellite IRNSS 1E
Income tax is an example of progressive tax. Earth observation satellite Bhuban