NEET LIKE MOCK TEST-14

PART-1 PHYSICS
01. A rectangular coil of 100 turns and size 0.1 m  0.05 m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of
0.1 T. The induced e.m.f. when the field drops to 0.05 T in 0.05s is. [New NCERT/XII/158 ]
1) 0.5 V 2) 1.0 V 3) 1.5 V 4) 2.0 V
02. Select the wrong statement. EM waves [New NCERT/XII/206 ]
1) Are transverse in nature 2) Travel in free space at a speed of light
3) Are produced by accelerating charges 4) Travel in all media with same speed
03. Two tuning forks P and Q when set vibrating, give 4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork P is filled,
the beats are reduced to 2 per second what is frequency of P, if that of Q is 250 Hz?
[New NCERT/XI/294 ]
1) 246 Hz 2) 250 Hz 3) 254 Hz 4) 252 Hz
04. The ratio intensities at two points P and Q on a screen in young’s double slit experiment when waves
from sources S1 and S2 have phase difference of  a  00 and  b   / 2 respectively, is
. [New NCERT/XII/265 ]
1) 1:4 2) 4:1 3) 1:2 4) 2:1
05. Dimensional formulae of torque is . [New NCERT/XII/158 ]
1)  MLT 2  2)  ML2T 2  3)  ML2T 1  4)  M 2 L2T 2 

06. A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s at an angle  with the horizontal. After t seconds its
inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R represents horizontal range of the projectile, the value
of  will be: use g  10m / s 2  [New NCERT/XI/40 ]

1 1  5t 2  1 1  4 R   4t 2   R 
1) sin   2) sin  2  3) tan 1   4) cot 1  2 
2  4R  2  5t   5R   20t 
07. A 1 kg block and a 0.5 kg block together on a horizontal frictionless surface. Each block exerts a force
of 6 N on the other. The block move with a uniform acceleration of [New NCERT/XI/65 ]

1) 3 ms 2 2) 6 ms 2 3) 9 ms 2 4) 12 ms 2
08. Moment of inertia does not depend upon [New NCERT/XI/114 ]
1) Distribution of mass 2) Axis of rotation
3) Point of application of force 4) None of these
09. Four charges q1  2 108 C , q2  2 108 C , q3  3 108 C , and q4  6 108 C are placed at four
corners of a square of side 2 m. What is the potential at the centre of the square?
[New NCERT/XII/52 ]
1) 270 V 2) 300 V 3) Zero 4) 100 V
10. At what temperature will the resistance of a copper wire becomes three times its value at 0 0 C ?
(Temperature coefficient of resistance of copper is 4 103 / oC ) [New NCERT/XII/90 ]
1) 550o C 2) 500o C 3) 450o C 4) 400o C
1|P ag e
11. A proton and a deuterium nucleus having certain kinetic energies enter in a uniform magnetic field
with same component of velocity in the direction of magnetic field. Which of the following is correct?
[New NCERT/XII/112 ]
1) Proton has grater pitch of helical motion.
2) Deuterium nucleus has greater pitch of helical motion.
3) Both particles have same pitch of helical motion
4) Which particle has greater pitch depends on the fact that which particle has greater component of
velocity perpendicular to magnetic field.
12. When the temperature of a magnetic material decreases, the magnetization [New NCERT/XII/148 ]
1) Decreases in a diamagnetic material 2) Decreases in a paramagnetic material
3) Decreases in a ferromagnetic material 4) Remains the same in diamagnetic material
13. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of force when the distance r between two
charges varies? [New NCERT/XII/7 ]

1) 2) 3) 4)
14. A boat with base area 8m 2 floating on the surface of a still river is intended to move with a constant
speed of 2 m/s by the application of a horizontal force. If the river bed is 2m deep find the force needed,
(assuming a constant velocity gradient) Coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.90  102 poise.
[New NCERT/XI/191 ]
1) 720 dyne 2) 620 dyne 3) 520 dyne 4) 360 dyne
15. The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is 1930 metre/sec. Then the r.m.s
velocity of oxygen molecules at 1200 K will be [New NCERT/XI/250 ]
1) 482.5 metre/sec 2) 965 metre/sec 3) 1930 Metre/sec 4) 3860 metre/sec
16. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion and its maximum kinetic energy is K1 . If the length
of the pendulum is doubled and it performs simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude as in the
first case, its maximum kinetic energy is K 2 . [New NCERT/XI/271 ]
K1 K1
1) K 2  2) K 2  2 K1 3) K 2  4) K 2  K1
2 4
17. Light travels through a plate of thickness t and refractive index  . If c is the speed of light in vacuum,
the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is [New NCERT/XII/229]
tc t t
1) tc 2) 3) 4)
 c c
18. The Young’s modulus of a wire is determined by the apparatus known as [XI/Practical skills ]
1) Kater’s pendulum apparatus 2) Poiseuille’s apparatus
3) Maxwell’s needle 4) Searle’s apparatus
19. When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate of refractive index  , it is found that reflected and
refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Then which of the following statements is correct?

2|P ag e
 [Old NCERT/XII/381 ]
1) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of polarization parallel to each other
2) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of polarization perpendicular to each
other
3) Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light is partially polarised
4) Reflected light is partially polarised but retracted light is plane polarised
20. Electromagnetic radiation falls on a metallic body whose work function 2eV . For a particular radiation
of frequency v , the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron is found to be 4 eV. What would be
5v
the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron for the radiation of frequency ?
3
[New NCERT/XII/281 ]
8 10 20
1) eV 2) 8eV 3) eV 4) eV
3 3 3
21. A couple produces [New NCERT/XI/110 ]
1) Linear motion 2) Rotational motion 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Neither (1) nor (2)
22. The nuclear radius of 8 O is 3  10 15 m . If an atomic mass unit is 1.67 1027 kg , then the nuclear
16

density is approximately [New NCERT/XII/309 ]

3 3
1) 2.35 10 g cm
17
2) 2.35 10 kg m
17
3) 2.35 1017 gm3 4) 2.35 1017 kg mm3
23. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown
in figure. The current through the diode is [Old NCERT/XII/486 ]

1) 10 mA 2) 15 mA 3) 20 mA 4) 5 mA
24. A person moved from A to B on a circular path as shown in figure. If the distance travelled by him is
60 m, then the magnitude of displacement would be: (Given cos1350  0.7 ).
[Old NCERT/XI/41 ]

1) 42 m 2) 47 m 3) 19 m 4) 40 m
25. If s , k and r are coefficients of static friction, kinetic friction and rolling friction, then
[New NCERT/XI/60,62 ]
1)  s  k   f 2) k  r  s 3) r  k  s 4) r  k  s
26. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is
[New NCERT/XII/299 ]

3|P ag e
 1) 1/4 2) 4/9 3) 9/4 4) 4
27. Match column I with Column II [New NCERT/XII/309,311,315,316 ]
Column I Column II
A) Hydrogen bomb 1) Fission
B) Atom bomb 2) Fusion
C) Binding energy 3) R0 A1/3

D) Radius of nucleus 4) Mass deduct

1)  A   3 ;  B    2 ;  C   1 ;  D    4

2)  A   2 ;  B   1 ;  C    4 ;  D   3

3)  A   3 ;  B   1 ;  C    2 ;  D    4

4)  A   4 ;  B    2 ;  C    3 ;  D   1

28. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 1000 C and 1100 C . The rate of heat flow
in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 2000 C and 2100 C , the rate
of heat flow will be [New NCERT/XI/215 ]
1) 16.8 J / s 2) 8.0 J / s 3) 4.0 J / s 4) 44.0 J / s
29. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 104 N / m2 . The density of the gas is 4 kg / m3 . What
is the energy of the gas due to its thermal motion? [New NCERT/XI/252 ]
1) 5  104 J 2) 6  104 J 3) 7 104 J 4) 3  104 J
30. The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which points are in same phase?
[New NCERT/XI/283 ]

1) F and G 2) C and E 3) B and G 4) B and F

31. In a Wheatstone’s bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth arm
is formed by two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be
balanced will be [New NCERT/XII/101 ]
P 2R P R  S1  S2  P R  S1  S2  P R
1)  2)  3)  4) 
Q S1  S 2 Q S1S2 Q 2S1S2 Q S1  S 2
32. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the
circuit unchanged the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is
[New NCERT/XII/131 ]
S2 SG G2 G
1) 2) 3) 4)
S  G S  G S  G S  G

4|P ag e
33. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 volt and internal resistance of 400 ohm. Its terminals are connected
to a load of 4000 ohm. The voltage across the load is [New NCERT/XII/171 ]
1) 220 volt 2) 440 volt 3) 200 volt 4) 400 volt
34. Assertion (A): The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net
force.
Reason (R): Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done only in case of a system of
one particle. [New NCERT/XI/73,76 ]
In the light of the above statements-Assertion & Reason, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
35. In an experiment when a PN junction diode is forward biased [XII/Practical skills ]
1) Only holes are attracted towards each other and move towards the depletion region
2) Electrons and holes move away from the junction depletion region
3) Width of the potential barrier decreases
4) No change in the current takes place
36. If rain falls vertically with a velocity Vr and wind blows with a velocity vw from east to west, then a
person standing on the roadside should hold the umbrella in the direction [Old NCERT/XI/76 ]
Vw Vr Vrw Vr
1) tan   2) tan   3) tan   4) tan  
Vr Vw Vr2  Vw2 Vr 2  Vw2
37. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m
moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is
[New NCERT/XI/85 ]
1  3  1  2  2  1  3  1 
1) v i v j 2) v i v j 3) v i v j 4) v i v j
4 2 3 3 3 3 2 4
 dA 
38. A planet revolves about the sun in elliptical orbit. The areal velocity   of the planet is
 dt 
4.0 10 m / s . The least distance between planet and the sun is 2  10 m . Then the maximum speed
16 2 12

of the planet in km/s is [New NCERT/XI/129 ]

1) 10 2) 20 3) 30 4)40
39. A point charge Q is positioned at the centre of the base of a square pyramid as shown. The flux
through one of the four identical upper faces of the pyramid is [New NCERT/XII/30 ]

5|P ag e
 Q Q Q
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
16 0 4 0 8 0

40. A steel ring of radius r and cross-sectional area ‘A’ is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius R  R  r  .
If Young’s modulus be E, then the force with which the steel ring is expanded is
[New NCERT/XI/170 ]
R  Rr  E  Rr  Er
1) AE 2) AE   3)   4)
r  r  A A  AR
41. When you walk through a metal detector carrying a metal object in your pocket, it raises an alarm. The
phenomenon work on [New NCERT/XII/189 ]
1) Electromagnetic induction 2) Resonance in ac circuits
3) Mutual induction in ac circuit 4) Interference of electromagnetic waves
42. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. The energy released during this process
is: (mass of neutron  1.6725 1027 kg , mass of proton  1.6725 1027 kg , mass of electron
 9 1031 kg ) [New NCERT/XII/311 ]
1) 0.511 MeV 2) 7.10 MeV 3) 6.30 MeV 4) 5.4 MeV
43. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d  2 m has a capacitance of 4  F .
The new capacitance of the system if half of the space between them is filled with a dielectric material
of dielectric constant K  3 (as shown in figure) will be: [New NCERT/XII/70 ]
1) 2  F 2) 32  F 3) 6  F 4) 8  F
44. Consider Earth to be a homogeneous sphere. Scientist A goes deep down in a mine and scientist B
goes high up in a balloon. The gravitational field measured by [New NCERT/XI/134 ]
1) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on increasing
2) B goes decreasing and that by A goes on increasing
3) Each decreases at the same rate
4) Each decrease at different rates
45. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is [New NCERT/XII/492 ]

1) A  0, B  1, C  0 2) A  1, B  0, C  0 3) A  1, B  1, C  0 4) A  1, B  0, C  1

CHEMISTRY
46. Compounds A and C in following reactions are [New NCERT/XII/200-201]
H 2 SO4 , 
CH 3CHO 
( i ) CH 3 MgBr
( ii ) H 2 O
( A)  ( B) 
Hydroboration oxidation
(C )

1) Identical 2) Positional isomers 3) Functional isomers 4) Optical isomers

47. Match the Columns – I with column – II [New NCERT/XI/304]
Column – I Column – II

(A) CH 4  O2 
Cu /523 K /100 atm
 (p) HCHO

6|P ag e
 (B) CH 4  O2 
Mo2 O3
 (q) (CH3)3COH

 CH COO  Mn (r) CH3OH

(C) C2 H 6  O2 
3

2


(D)  CH 3 3 CH 
KMnO4
Oxidation
 (s) CH3COOH

1) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s) 2) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)

3) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) 4) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
48.
Electrolyte: KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAc NaCl

  (S cm2mol-1): 150 145 426 91 127

Calculate  HOAc using appropriate molar conductance’s of the electrolytes listed above at infinite
dilution in H2O at 250C. [New NCERT/XII/49 ]
1) 217.5 2) 390.7 3) 552.7 4) 517.2
49. Read the following statements and choose the correct option [New NCERT/XII/231]
i) The carbonyl carbon atom is sp2 – hybridised
ii) The carbonyl carbon is an electrophilic (Lewis acid) centre
iii) The carbonyl oxygen is a nucleophilic (Lewis base) centre
iv) Carbonyl compounds are non – polar in nature.
v) The carbonyl carbon atom forms three sigma   bonds.
1) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct 2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct
3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct 4) (ii) and (v) are correct
50. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dil. HNO3 before testing for halogens because
[Practical Chemistry]
1) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3 2) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3
3) Ag2S is soluble in HNO3 4) AgCN is soluble in HNO3
0
51. At 25 C, the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M solution of [New NCERT/XII/24 ]
1) CaCl2 2) KCl 3) Glucose 4) Urea
52. In O2 , O2 and O22  molecular species, the total number of antibonding electrons respectively are
[New NCERT/XI/129-130 ]
1) 7, 6, 8 2) 1, 0, 2 3) 6, 6, 6 4) 8, 6, 8
53. Which of the following has the maximum acidic strength? [New NCERT/XII/251 ]
1) o  nitrobenzoic acid 2) m  nitrobenzoic acid
3) p  nitrobenzoic acid 4) p  nitrophenol
54. Given below are two statements: [New NCERT/XII/264 ]

Statements I: In Hoffmann degradation reaction, the migration of only and alkyl group takes place
from carbonyl carbon of the amide to the nitrogen atom.
Statements II: The group is migrated in Hoffmann degradation reaction to electron deficient atom.
In the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

7|P ag e
 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
55. How many moles of Al2  SO4 3 would be in 50g of the substance? [New NCERT/XI/18 ]
1) 0.083 mole 2) 0.952 mole 3) 0.481 mole 4) 0.140 mole
56. Full name of DDT is [New NCERT/XII/188 ]
1) 1, 1, 1 – trichloro – 2, 2 – bis (p- chlorophenyl) ethane
2) 1, 1 – dichloro – 2, 2 – diphenyl trimethylethane
3) 1, 1 – dichloro – 2, 2 – diphenyl trichloroethane
4) None of these
57. Which of the following elements have half – filled f – orbitals in their ground state?
(Given: atomic number Sm= 62; Eu=63; Tb = 65; Gd = 64, Pm=61) [New NCERT/XII/110 ]
I) Sm II) Eu III) Tb IV) Gd
V) Pm
Choses the correct answer from the options given below.
1) II and IV only 2) I and V only 3) I and II only 4) III and IV only
58. Least thermally stable is [New NCERT/XI/324 ]
1) CCl4 2) SiCl4 3) GeCl4 4) GeBr4
59. The strength of bonds formed by s  s and p  p , s  p overlap in the order of
[New NCERT/XI/120 ]
1) s  p  s  s  p  p 2) p  p  s  s  s  p
3) s  s  p  p  s  p 4) s  s  s  p  p  p
60. Match Column – I with Column – II. [New NCERT/XII/121 ]
Column – I Column – II
(Ligand) (Type of ligned)
A) Triphenylphosphine (p) Unidentate
B) BF3 (q) Didentate
C) Ethylenediamine (r) Not a ligand
D) Ethylenediaminetetracetate ion (s) Hexadentate
1) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q) 2) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D- (s)
3) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s) 4) A – (p), B – (q), c – (s), D – (r)
61. According to Bohr’s theory the energy required for an electron in the Li2+ ion to be emitted from n  2
state is (given that the ground state ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV)
[New NCERT/XI/48 ]
1) 61.2 eV 2) 13.6 eV 3) 30.6 eV 4) 10.2 eV
62. Phenol is less acidic than ____ [New NCERT/XII/205 ]
1) Ethanol 2) o  nitrophenol 3) o  methylphenol 4) o  methoxyphenol

8|P ag e
63. Assertion (A): KMnO4 is used as an indicator against both the titration of oxalic acid Mohr’s salt.
Reason (R): KMnO4 is a self-indicator. [Practical Chemistry ]
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
64. In the following four elements, the ionisation potential of which one is the highest?
[Old NCERT/XII/209 ]
1) Oxygen 2) Argon 3) Barium 4) Cesium
65. What is the molar solubility of Fe(OH)3 if Ksp  1.0 1038 ?
[New NCERT/XI/204 ]
1) 3. 16 x 10-10 2) 1. 386 x 10-10 3) 1. 45 x 10-9 4) 1.12 x 10-11
66.

[New NCERT/XII/276 ]
Above reaction is known as:
1) Streeker’s reaction 2) Sandmeyer’s reaction
3) Wohl – Ziegler reaction 4) Stephen’s reaction
67. The thermal dissociation of calcium carbonate showing heterogeneous equilibrium is
[New NCERT/XI/180 ]
CaCo3 (s) CaO(s)  CO2 ( g )
For this reactions which of the following is / are true
(i) Kc  CO2 ( g )
(ii) K p  PCO2

(iii) CaCO3  s   and CaO(s) are both constant

(iv) CO2  g   is constant

(v) CaCO3 ( s) , CaO  s   and CO2  g   all are constant.

1) (i), (ii) and (iv) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii) 3) (ii) and (v) 4) (i), (iii) and (v)
68. Which of the following exhibit only +3 oxidation state? [New NCERT/XII/112 ]
1) U 2) Th 3) Ac 4) Pa
69. Which is the correct order of electronegativity?
[New NCERT/XI/191 ]
1) F > O > N > C 2) F > N > O > C 3) F > N > O > C 4) F < N < O = C
70. During the charging of lead storage battery, the reaction at anode is represented by

9|P ag e
 [New NCERT/XII/55 ]
1) Pb 2   SO42   PbSO4 2) PbSO4  2 H 2O  PbO2  SO42   4 H   2e 

3) Pb  Pb 2   2e  4) Pb 2   2e  Pb

71. In Clemmensen reduction, carbonyl compounds is treated with. [New NCERT/XII/238 ]

1) Zinc amalgam + HCl 2) Sodium amalgam + HCl
3) Zinc amalgam + nitric acid 4) Sodium amalgam + HNO3
72. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism? [New NCERT/XII/126 ]
2
4) Cu  NH 3 4 
3 3
1) CO  CN 6  2) Cr  C2O4 3  3)  ZnCl4 
2

73. A process has H  200 J mol 1 and S  40 JK 1 mol1 . Out of the values given below, choose the
minimum temperature above which the process will be spontaneous: [New NCERT/XI/162 ]
1) 20 K 2) 12 K 3) 5 K 4) 4 K
74. Assertion (A): Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body [New NCERT/XII/296 ]
Reason (R): Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin and cannot be excreted from the body with urine.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
75. Which of the following compounds is isomeric with 2, 2, 4, 4 – tetramethylhexane?
1) 3 – ethyl – 2, 2 – dimethylpentane [New NCERT/XI/270 ]
2) 4 – isopropylheptane
3) 4 – ethyl -3 – methyl – 4 –n – propyloctane
4) 4, 4 – diethyl – 3 – methylheptane
76. Consider figure and mark the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/114 ]

1) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1  E2 and product is less stable than reactant
2) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1  E2 and product is more stable than reactant

3) Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is E1  E2 and reactant is more stable
than product
4) Activation energy of back ward reaction E1 and product is more stable than reactant.

77. The major organic product in the reaction, CH3  O  CH CH3 2  HI  Product is

10 | P a g e
 [New NCERT/XII/218 ]

CH 3OC  CH 3 2

1) CH 2OCH  CH 3 2  2) I

3) CH3I+(CH3)2CHOH 4) CH3OH+(CH3)2CHI

78. The five d–orbitals are designated as d xy , d yz , d xz , d x2  y2 and d z 2 . Choose the correct statement

[New NCERT/XI/59 ]
1) The shapes of the first three orbitals are similar but that of the fourth and fifth orbitals are different
2) The shapes of all five d – orbitals are similar
3) The shapes of the first four orbitals are similar but that of the fifth orbital is different
4) The shapes of all five d – orbitals are different.
79. If Nx is the number of bonding orbitals of an atom and Ny is the number of antibonding orbitals, then
the molecule/atom will be stable if
[New NCERT/XI/129 ]
1) Nx>Ny 2) Nx = Ny 3) Nx < Ny 4) Nx  Ny
80. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
[New NCERT/XII/129 ]
4 2
1)  Fe  CN 6  2)  Ni  CO  4  3)  Ni  CO 4  4) CoF6 


81. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state
[New NCERT/XI/240 ]
2) Cr  CN 6
3
1) MnO4 3) NiF62  4) CrO2Cl2
82. 200 ml of water is added to 500 ml of 0.2 M solution. What is the molarity of this diluted solution?
[New NCERT/XII/4 ]
1) 0.5010 M 2) 0.2897 M 3) 0.7093 M 4) 0.1428 M
83. The value of electrode potential 104 M  H  H 2 1atm  Pt at 298 K would be

[New NCERT/XII/38 ]
1) – 0.236 V 2) + 0.404 V 3) + 0.236 V 4) – 0.476 V
84. The value of the ionic product of water [New NCERT/XI/193 ]
1) Depends on volume of water 2) Depends on temperature
3) Changes by adding acid or alkali 4) Always remains constant
85. Consider the following bromides:
[New NCERT/XII/174 ]

11 | P a g e
 The correct order of SNI reactivity is
1) B > C > A 2) B > A > C 3) C > B > A 4) A > B > C

86. Given below are two statements: [New NCERT/XII/235 ]

Statement I: The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole –
dipole interactions.
Statement II: The boiling points aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar
molecular masses due to the absence of H – bonding.
In the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both statements I and statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
87. Assertion(A): Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become
spontaneous at high temperature. [New NCERT/XI/158-159 ]
Reason(R): Entropy of the system increases with increase in temperature.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
88. Which of the following statements are correct? [New NCERT/XI/304 ]
i) Decomposition reaction of higher alkanes into smaller fragments by the application of heat is called
pyrolysis.
ii) Pyrolysis and cracking are different processes.
iii) Dodecane on pyrolysis gives a mixture of heptane and pentene.
iv) Pyrolysis follows free radical mechanism.
v) Pyrolysis of dodecane proceeds in the presence of platinum, palladium or nickel.
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) 4) (ii) and (v)
89. Kjeldahl method is not applicable to which of the following? [New NCERT/XI/288 ]
1) Nitro compounds 2) Azo compunds 3) Pyrodine 4) All of these
90. A radioactive element has a half-life of 200 days. The percentage of original activity remaining after
83 days is [New NCERT/XII/119 ]
1) 100 2) 83 3) 75 4) 200

12 | P a g e
 BOTANY
91. Statement I: Almost all bacteria possess lipoproteinaceous plasma membrane. [New NCERT/XI/14-15
Statement II: The plasma membrane of archaebacteria as well as eubacteria have same type of lipids.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
92. Match the following [New NCERT/XI/175-176.
Column-I Column-II
A. 2, 4 – D I. Used to speed up malting process
B. Kinetin II. Promote cell division
C. GA3 III. Used as weedicide
D. Dicotyledons IV. Lateral growth
1) A — III, B — II, C —1, D — IV 2) A — I, B — III, C — II, D — IV
3) A — II, B — III, C — I, D — IV 4) A — III, B — IV, C — I, D — II
93. How many ATP molecules will be generated in a plant system during complete oxidation of 40
molecules of glucose? [New NCERT/XI/161.
1) 180 2) 360 3) 1440 4) 3040
94. Statement I: Human Genome Project was completed in 2003
Statement II: Human in Genome Project was a mega project pf 13 years
[New NCERT/XII/102
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
95. A cell division time is 1 minute. In 20 minutes, a culture tube (culture medium) is 1/8" filled with cells.
When the tube will be fully filled? [New NCERT/XI/14.
1) 21 minutes 2) 23 minutes 3) 60 minutes 4) 160 minutes
96. Assertion (A): Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically-coloured to avoid being detect by the
predator. [New NCERT/XII/197
Reason (R): Mimicry is a method to acquire body colour blending with the surroundings
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
97. Match the following stem modifications given in column I with their examples given in column II and select the
correct combination from the options given below [New NCERT/XI/159][Practical Skills]
Column –I Column-II
(Stem Modifications) (Found in)
A. Underground stem I. Opuntia

13 | P a g e
 B. Stem tendril II. Potato
C. Stem thorns III. Citrus
D. Flattened stem IV. Cucumber
1) A — I; B — II; C — III; D — IV 2) A — II; B — III; C — IV; D — I
3) A - III; B – IV: C- II: D - I 4) A — II; B — IV; C — III; D — I
98. While planning for an artificial hybridisation programme involving dioecious plants, which of the following
steps would not be relevant? [New NCERT/XII/117
1) Bagging of female flower 2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
3) Emasculation 4) Collection of pollen
99. Select the two correct statements out of the four (i — iv) given below about lac operon
[New NCERT/XII/100-101
i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
ii) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
iii) The z-gene codes for permease
iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod
1) (ii) and (iii) 2) (i) and (iii) 3) (ii) and (iv 4) (i) and (ii)
100. Match the column- l with column II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
[New NCERT/XI/146
Column-I Column-II
A. Emerson effect I. C4 cycle
B. Hill reaction II. Photolysis
C. Calvin cycle III. C3cycle
1) A — I; B — II; C — III; D — IV 2) A— I; B — III; C — IV; D — II
3) A — III; B — IV; C — I; D — II 4) A — IV; B — II; C — III: D - 1
101. Expressed sequence tags (ESTs) refer to [New NCERT/XII/103]
1) Genes expressed as RNA 2) Polypeptide expression
3) DNA polymorphism 4) Nove1 DNA sequences
102. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes
[New NCERT/XII/59,67,69]
Column I Column II
A. Gergor J. Mendel (i) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
B. Sutton and boveri (ii) Laws of inheritance
C. Henking (iii) Drosphila
D. Morgan (iv) Discovered X-body
1) A-(ii),B-(i),C-(iv),D-(iii) 2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii) D-(iii)
3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iii) 4) A-(ii), B-(iii),C-(iv),D-(i)
103. Assertion (A): DNA synthesis occurs in G1 and G2 periods of cell cycle.
Reason (R): During G2 phase, the DNA content become double. [New NCERT/XI/121-122]
1) Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

14 | P a g e
 2) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct
4) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
104. During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde, which of the following
reaction occur [New NCERT/XI/147]
1) O 2) Reduction 3) Electrolysis 4) Hydrolysis
105. Pick out the correct statement- [New NCERT/XI/175-176]
(i) Cytokinin especially help in delaying senescence,
(ii) Auxin are involved in regulating apical dominance.
(iii) Ethylene breaks seed dormancy
(iv) Gibberellin are responsible for immature falling of leaves
(v) Kinetin is a natural cytokinin
1) (i),(iii) and (v) only 2) (i) and (iii) only
3) (ii) and (iii) only 4) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
106. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are:
[Old NCERT/XI/87]
1) Vessels 2) Fibres 3) Transfusion tissue 4) Tracheids
107. Statement-I: During the conversion of succinyl coA to succinic acid step, a molecule of ATP is
synthesised. [New NCERT/XI/159]
Statement-II: in a couple reaction ATP is converted to ADP with simultaneous synthesis of GTP from
GDP.
1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is corre4ct
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
108. Microtubules are absent in [New NCERT/XI/ 99]
1) Mitichondria 2) Centriole 3) Flagella 4) Spindle fibers
109. Match the following columns. [New NCERT/XI/121-122]
Column I Column II
A. M-phase I. Repication of DNA
B. S-phase II. Quiescent stage
C. G2 -phase III. Condensation of chromatin
D. G0 -phae IV. Protein sybthesis
1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
110. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structure are: [New NCERT/XII/18-19]
1) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
2) Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
3) Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
4) Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote

15 | P a g e
111. Which one is the example of gramineae family? [In syllabus , not in NCERT]
1) Cucurbita maxicane 2) Pisum sativum 3) Solonum nigum 4) Zea mays
112. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant
DNA technology? [New NCERT/XII/96]
1) Genetic code is not ambiguous 2) Genetic code is redundant
3) Genetic code is nearly universal 4) Genetic code is specific
113. Which of the following characteristics won ld cause a country to be considered a liigh-priority region
for conservation efforts? [New NCERT/XII/124]
1) A high degree of endemism 2) having low species richness
3) Having little natural habitat remaining 4) All the above
114. Which anatomy of plants is being described by the statements given below?
[New NCERT/XI/72][Practical Chemistry]
(i) The cortex consists of several layers of thin-walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
(ii) The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells have a deposition of water-impermeable, waxy
material -suberin- in form of casparian strips.
(iii) Secondary growth takes place.
(iv) Pith is small or inconspicuous.
1) Dicotyledonous root 2) Monocotyledonous root
3) Dicotyledonous stem 4) Monocotyledonous stem
115. Chlorophyll is suited for the capture of light energy because: [New NCERT/XI/137]
1) Certain wavelengths of light raise it to an excited state.
2) In its excited state chlorophyll gives off electrons
3) Chlorophyll’s structure allows it to attach to thylakoid membranes.
4) All of the above
116. Mac Arthur observed that five closely related species of Warblers living on the same tree were able to
avoid competition and co-exist due to [New NCERT/XII/198]
1) Cooperation in their foraging efforts
2) Behavioural differences in their foraging activities
3) Different kinds of insects they eat 4) All of the above
117. In the given columns, column I contains the terms and column II contains its description. Select the correct match
from the option given below. [Old NCERT/XI/4]
Column-1 Column-II
A. Growth I. Production of offspring.
B. Reproduction II. Composed of one or more cells.
C. Metabolism III. Increasing in mass and increase I number of individuals.
D. Cellular organization IV. Sum of all chemical reactions occurring in body.
1) A — I; B — II; C — III; D — IV 2) A — III; B — I; C — II; D — IV
3) A — III; B — I; C — IV; D — I 4) A — II; B — IV; C — III; D — I
118. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is governed by the 2' law of thermodynamics. The
average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is [New NCERT/XII/209]
1) 5% 2) 10% 3) 25% 4) 50%

16 | P a g e
119. Assertion (A): Endosperm is a nutritive tissue which is triploid.
Reason (R): Endosperm is formed by fusion of secondary nucleus to second male gamete. It is used by developing
embryo. [New NCERT/XII/18]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
120. Select the correct statement with respect to mitosis. [New NCERT/XI/122]
1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
2) Cliromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase
121. Plasticity in plant growth means that: [New NCERT/XI/173]
1) Plant roots are extensible
2) Plant development is dependent on the environment
3) Stems can extend
4) None of the above
122. Satellite DNA is important because it [New NCERT/XII/105 ]
1) Shows high degree of polymerphism in population and also the same degree of polyniorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from parents to children
2) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
3) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
4) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
123. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about S-phase (synthetic phase)?
[New NCERT/I/121 ]
(i) It occurs between G, and G2 phase.
(ii) It marks the period during which DNA replicates.
(iii) At the end of this phase, DNA is doubled but the number of chromosomes remains unchanged.
(iv) As the DNA is doubled in this phase, number of chromosomes is also doubled...
(v) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C.
1) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) 2) (i), (ii), (üi), (v) 3) All of the above 4) Only(iv)
124. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
[New NCERT/XII/69 ]
1) Multipleallelism 2) Mosaicism 3) Pleiotropy 4) Polygeny
125. Statement I: The fibrous root system is better adapted than the tap root system for anchorage to the soil
Statement II: The primary root and its branches constitute tap root system.
[New NCERT/XI/158 ]
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

17 | P a g e
 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
126. Citrate synthase, an enzyme of TCA cycle is located in:
[New NCERT/XI/159 ]
1) Cytosol in prokaryotes. 2) Mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes
3) Both (l) and (2) 4) None of the above
127. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
[New NCERT/XI/24,30,34 ]
Column-I Column-II
(Group of Plant Kindgdom) (Examples)
A. Algae I. Solanum tuberosum
B. Fungi II. Equisetum
C. Angiosperm III. Chlamydominas
D. Pteridophyte IV. Rhizopus
1) A— III; B — IV; C — II; D — I 2) A— III; B — IV; C — I; D — II
3) A— IV; B — I; C — III; D — II 4) A— IV; B — I; C — II; D — III
128. The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their
destinations is
[New NCERT/XII/105 ]
1) Chloroplast 2) Mitochondria 3) Lysosome 4) Endoplasmic reticulum
129. Which of the following does not lead to genetic variability? [New NCERT/XII/105 ]
1) Random fertilization
2) Crossing over during meiosis.
3) Division of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis.
4) Orientation of chromosomes during metaphase I of meiosis
130. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of
[New NCERT/XI/77 ]
1) Size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
2) Intercalary meristem
3) Shoot apical meristem
4) Position of axillary buds
131. Experimental material used by Hershey and Chase for proving that DNA controls heredity was
[New NCERT/XII/85 ]
1) Diplococcus pneumoniae 2) Salmonella typhimurium
3) T2 phage 4) TMV
132. Assertion (A): Under conditions of high light intensity and limited CO2 supply, photorespiration has a useful
role in protecting the plants from photo-oxidative damage.
Reason (R): If enough CO2 is not available to utilise light energy for carboxylation to proceed, the excess energy
may not cause damage to plants.
[New NCERT/XI/147 ]
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
18 | P a g e
 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
133. Variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia growing in different Himalayan ranges comes under
[New NCERT/XII/105 ]
1) Species diversity 2) Ecological diversity 3) Genetic diversity 4) Population diversity
134. Read carefully the following statements about pteridophytes . [New NCERT/XI/30,32
(i) They are used for medicinal purposes.
(ii) They are frequently grove as ornaments.
(iii) They are called vascular cryptogams.
(iv) The produce spores rather than seeds.
(v) They are used as soil binders.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) (i), (ii) and(v) 2) (ii), (iv) and (v) 3) (ii),(iii),(iv)and v) 4) All of the above
135. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the F - heterozygote is
crossed with homozygous recessive parental type (aa bb). What would be the ratio of offspring in the next
generation? [New NCERT/XII/63
1) 1:1:1:1 2) 9:3:3:1 3) 3:1 4) 1:1

ZOOLOGY
136. Statement related to human Insulin are given below which statement (s) is/are correct about genetically
engineered Insulin? [New NCERT/XII/181-182
i) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C- peptide
ii) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and
combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
iii) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
iv) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
v) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) (ii) only 2) (iii) and (iv) only
3) (iii), (iv) and (v) only 4) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
137. Which of the following contraceptive method correctly matches with its mode of action?
Contraceptive Method Mode of action [New NCERT/XII/144-145
1) Tubectomy Makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation
2) Oral pills Inhibit ovulation and implantation
3) Diaphragrms Spermicidal and increases phagocytosis of sperms within
the uterus
4) IUDs Block gamete transport
138. Statement I: In resting state, edges of thin filament partially overlap the ends thick filament.
Statement II: H-zone is the overlapped area of thick and thin filament.
[New NCERT/XI/120

19 | P a g e
 1) Both Statement I and Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II is correct
139. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? [New NCERT/XI/208
1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided in to a few conical masses called meduallary pyramids
projecting into the calyces.
2) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the meduallary pyramids pelvis.
3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle.
4) Renal corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) of the
nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney.
140. Assertion (A): Aperson who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
Reason (R): Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus.
[New NCERT/XII/136
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
141. Match the following columns. [New NCERT/XI/39
Column I Column II
(Phylum) (Body cavity)
A) Platyhelminthes I) Enterocoel
B) Nematoda II) No body cavity
C) Annelida III) Pseudocoel
D) Echinodermata IV) Schizocoel
CODES
A B C D A B C D
1) IV II III I 2) II III IV I
3) IV III II I 4) III II IV I
142. Which of the following terms is not correctly matched with its feature?
[New NCERT/XI/236
1) Efferent neurons-Carries is from CNS to the effector.
2) Axon terminal-Possess neurotransmitter containing vesicle.
3) Limbic system-Along with the hypothalamus, it is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour,
expression of emotional reactions and motivation.
4) Association areas-Present in cerebellum and responsible for functions like intersensory associations,
memory and communication.
143. Read the following statements. [Old NCERT/XI/105
I) It is a contractile tissue present only in the heart.
II) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of these cells and make them stick together.

20 | P a g e
 III) Communication juntions at some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit, i.e , when one
cell receives a single to contact, its neighbours are also stimulate to contact.
IV) Striations are present In this tissue.
Which of the following type of tissue being described by the above statements?
1) Skeletal muscle 2) Cardiac muscle 3) Smooth muscle 4) Cartilage
144. The hormone secretin is produced in [New NCERT/XI/247
1) Pancreas and influences conversion of glycogen into glucose.
2) Gastro-intestinal tract and stimulates pancreas.
3) Adrenal glands and accelerates heartbeat.
4) Tests and produces male’s secondary sexual characters.
145. Statement I: When two or more species coevolves, they do not reciprocally affect each other’s
evolution. [New NCERT/XII/202
Statement II: Evolution of the flower and its pollinator species are not tightly linked.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II is correct
146. Match the blood vessels of human heart listed under column I with the functions given under column
II and choose the answer. [New NCERT/XI/202
Column I Column II
(Phylum) (Body cavity)
A) Dorsal aorta I) Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs
B) Vena cava II) Brings oxygenated blood from different parts
of the body to the right atrium
C) Pulmonary artery III) Brings oxygenated blood to the left atrium
D) Pulmonary vein IV) Carries oxygenated blood to lungs
1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
147. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel
electrophoresis? [New NCERT/XII/168
1) DNA can be seen in visible light.
2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible under.
3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light.
4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.
148. Statement I: Ribozyme is a type of enzyme. [New NCERT/XI/112
Statement II: Ribozyme is made up of amino acids.
1) Both statement I and Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both statement I and Statement II is correct
149. Match the following columns. [New NCERT/XI/183
21 | P a g e
 Column I Column II
A) Earthworm I) Moist cuticle
B) Aquatic arthropods II) Gills
C) Fish III) Lungs
D) Birds/Reptiles IV) Trachea
A B C D A B C D
1) II I IV III 2) I IV II III
3) I III II IV 4) I II IV II
150. Read the following statements (i) to (v) and answer the following question.
i) This structure is also called womb. [New NCERT/XII/30
ii) Its shape is like an inverted pear.
iii) The wall of this structure has three layers of tissue.
iv) It secretes several steroid hormones.
Identify the correct characteristics feature regarding uterus from the above statements.
1) (i) and(iv) 2) (iii) and (v) 3) (i),(ii) and (iv) 4)All the five statements

151. Glomerular filtrate contains [New NCERT/XI/208.

1) Blood without blood cells and proteins 2) Plasma without sugar
3) Blood with proteins but without cells 4) Blood without urea
152. Narcotic drugs like charas, bhang and ganja are extracted from: [New NCERT/XII/143.
1) Cannabis sativa 2) Coco plant 3) Poppy seeds 4) Hallucinogen
153. Correctly match the column-I with column-II [New NCERT/XI/108.
Column I Column II
A. Drugs I. Gums, cellulose
B. Polymeric substances II. Morphine, codeine
C. Alkaloids III. Carotenoids, Anthocyanins
D. Pigments IV. Vinblastin, curcumin
1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
154. Menstruation is initiated by [New NCERT/XII/34-35.
1) A sudden release of FSh from the anterior pituitary
2) A lack of estrogens and progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum
3) An increased release of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum
4) A sudden drop in LH
155. Assertion (A): Lumbricus and Nereis both belong to annelida [New NCERT/XI/143.
Reason (R): They have nephridia
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
22 | P a g e
156. Which of the following are required to facilitate cloning into a vector? [New NCERT/XII/169.
1) Origin of replication 2) Selectable marker
3) Cloning sites 4) All of these
157. Statement I: Tendon is present in all bone joints [Old NCERT/XI/103.
Statement II: Tendon connects the bones together and holds them in position
1) Both statement I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect
4) Both statement I and II are correct
158. Dark coloured Peppered Moth is able to survive in industrial areas as compared to light coloured from
because of [New NCERT/XII/116.
1) High fecundity 2) Mimicry
3) Natural selection in smoky environment 4) Lethal mutation
159. Assertion (A): Family planning is an action plan to attain reproductive health among people
Reason (R): Improved programmes covering reproduction related areas were propagated by RCH to
create awareness among people
[New NCERT/XII/41.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
160. Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against
them? [New NCERT/XI/51.
1) Pteropus and Ornihorhyncus-Viviparity
2) Garden lizard and crocodile – Three chambered heart
3) Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation
4) Dog fish, saw fish-cold blooded (poikilothermal)
161. Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction A  X  B  A  B  X
[New NCERT/XI/117.
1) Dehydrogenase 2) Transferase 3) Hydrolase 4) Lyase
162. Which of the following structures are situated in the cortical region of the kidney?
[New NCERT/XI/208.
i) Malpighian corpuscle
ii) PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubules)
iii) DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubules)
iv) Collecting duct
v) Loop of Henle
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (iv), (v) and (i)
163. Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

23 | P a g e
 [New NCERT/XII/167
1) 5’-GAATTC-3’, 3’-CTTAAG-5’ 2) 5’-CCAATG-3’, 3’-GAATCC-5’
3) 5’-CATTAG-3’, 3’-GATAAC-5’ 4) 5’-GATACC-3’, 3’-CCTAAG-5’
164. Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective tissue, muscular, or nervous tissue by its
[Old NCERT/XI/102
1) Large extracellular matrix 2) Contractibility
3) Ability to carry action potentials 4) Basement membrane
165. Which of the following statement is correct about Bt toxin? [New NCERT/XII/179.
1) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
2) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilize it and thus prevent it and
thus prevent its multiplication
3) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
4) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active from in the insect gut
166. Which two structures are formed after second meiotic division in secondary oocyte?
[New NCERT/XII/33
1) Second polar body and a diploid ovum 2) First polar body and a haploid ovum
3) First polar body and diploid ovum 4) Second polar body and a haploid ovum
167. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
[New NCERT/XII/131.
1) Malaria - Plasmodium 2) Plague – Yersinia pestis
3) Tuberculosis – Trichuris trichura 4) Pneumonia – Plasmodium
168. Match the following joints with the bones involved: [New NCERT/XI/227][Practical Skills].
Column I Column II
A. Gliding joint i. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
B. Hinge joint ii. Between atlas and axis
C. Pivot joint iii. Between the carpals
D. Saddle joint iv. Between humerus and ulna
Select the correct option from the following
1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv 2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
169. When the blood of a foetus is agglutinated by its mother’s Rh antibodies, then which of the following
condition arises as a severe anaemia? [New NCERT/XI/196.
1) Immunization 2) Ectopic pregnancy
3) Erythroblastosis foetalis 4) Both (2) and (3)
170. ‘Saheli’ a new oral contraceptive developed by [New NCERT/XII/42-43
1) All Indian Institute of Medical Science
2) Central Drug Research Institute
3) Health Care Pvt.Ltd
4) Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp.Ltd

24 | P a g e
171. In genetic engineering, where genes can be inserted from one organism into another or back into the
original organism uses which of the following techniques?
[New NCERT/XII/171.
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) Gene gun
3) DNA hybridization 4) Gel electrophoresis
172. About how many times does the nymph of the Periplaneta americana undergo moulting before
becoming an adult? [Old NCERT/XI/15
1) 4 2) 2 3) 17 4) 13
173. Assertion (A): Enzymes lower the activation energy [New NCERT/XI/115
Reason (R): A substrate molecule can be acted upon by a particular enzyme
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
174. What is the disadvantage of using porcine insulin (from pig) in diabetic patients?
1) It leads hypercalcemia 2) It is expensive [New NCERT/XII/181
3) It may cause allergic reactions 4) It can lead to mutation in human genome
175. The given figure shows the longitudinal section of kidney with few structures labelled as I, II, III &
IV identify renal vein in the given figure[New NCERT/XI/201

1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
176. Match the following columns. [New NCERT/XII/165
Column I Column II
A. Eco RI I. E Coil R 245
B. Hind III II. Bacillus amylolique-faciens
C. BamHi III. Haemophilus influenzae
D. EcoRII IV. Escherichia coli RY13
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
177. Which of the following statements are correct for innate immunity? [New NCERT/XII/134
i) Bacteria entry through a break in the skin
ii) Resident phagocytic cells engulf the bacteria
iii) B-cells are stimulated to produce specific antibodies
iv) Diapedesis allows new phagocytic leukcocytes to invade the infected areas
1) iii and iv 2) i and ii 3) i and iii 4) ii and iv

25 | P a g e
178. A person feels no sensation when he puts his hand over flame. The part of the brain which has damaged
is [New NCERT/XI/236
1) Cerebellum 2) Medulla oblongata 3) Diencephalon 4) Hypothalamus
179. Assertion (A): Production of LH increases, while that of FSH decreases in the ovulation phase
Reason (R): Due to decrease in the level of FSH, ovulation (release of ovum) takes place
[New NCERT/XII/35
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
180. Select the incorrect match from the given options [New NCERT/XII/125-125
1) Homo habilis – Their brain capacities were between 650-800cc
2) Homo erectus – Its fossil was discovered in Java in 1891 about 1.5 mya
3) Neanderthal man – Brain size of 1400cc
4) Ramapithecus – Arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races

26 | P a g e