PODAR INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL CHINCHWAD

QUESTION BANK Std X 2023-24

SCIENCE

CH 1 Chemical reactions and equation (Question Bank)

MCQ
1. A substance which oxidises itself and reduces others is known as-

a. Oxidizing agent

b. Reducing agent

c. Both of these

d. None of these

2. When gases Sulphur dioxide and Hydrogen sulphide are mix in presence of water ,
the reaction is S02 + 2H2S ---------> 2H2O + 3S. Here Hydrogen sulphide is acting as-

a. An oxidizing agent

b. A Reducing agent

c. A dehydrating agent

d. A catalyst

3. Fatty foods become rancid due to the process of

(a) oxidation

(b) corrosion

(c) reduction

(d) hydrogenation

4. In which of the following, heat energy will be evolved?

(a) Electrolysis of water

(b) Dissolution of NH4Cl in water

 (c) Burning of L.P.G.

(d) Decomposition of AgBr in the presence of sunlight

5.In the electrolytic decomposition of water gives H2 and O2 in the ratio of

(a) 1 : 2 by volume

(b) 2 : 1 by volume

(c) 8 : 1 by mass

(d) 1 : 2 by mass

6. Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to
sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to

(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride

(ii) sublimation of silver chloride

iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride

(iv) oxidation of silver chloride

(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only

7. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide accompanied
by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in
water to form its solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about
slaking of lime and the solution formed?

(i) It is an endothermic reaction

(ii) It is an exothermic reaction

(iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven

(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (i) and (iv)

(d)(iii) and (iv)

For question numbers 6 and 10, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A)
and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

8. Assertion: Calcium carbonate when heated gives Calcium oxide and water.

Reason: On heating Calcium carbonate decomposition reaction takes place.

9. Assertion: Brown fumes are produced when Lead nitrate is heated.

Reason: Nitrogen dioxide is produced due to decomposition of Lead nitrate.
10.Assertion (A) : Precipitation reactions produce soluble salts.
Reason (R) : In the reaction : Lead oxide + Carbon
→ Lead + Carbon dioxide, carbon is getting oxidised.
11. Assertion (A) : On passing steam over hot iron, oxygen gas is produced.
Reason (R) : A molecule of zinc sulphate contains four atoms of oxygen.
12.Assertion (A): Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.
Reason (R) : Sulphur trioxide is formed on reaction of sulphur with oxygen.

Very short answer questions. (2 mark)

13 Give reason- i. silver does not evolve hydrogen on reacting with dil H2SO4.

ii.Combustion reaction an oxidation reaction.

14 A student burnt a metal A found in the form of a ribbon. The ribbon burnt with a
dazzling Flame & a white powder B is formed which is basic in nature. Identify A & B.
Write the Balanced chemical equation

15.A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white washing

i. Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula. ii. Write the reaction of the
substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water.

16. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.

17.A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name
the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.

18. You are provided with two containers made up of copper and aluminium.
You are also provided with solutions of dilute HCl, dilute HNO3, ZnCl2 and
H2O. In which of the above containers these solutions can be kept?

19.A substance X, which is an oxide of a group 2 element, is used intensively

in the cement industry. This element is present in bones also. On treatment
with water it forms a solution which turns red litmus blue. Identify X and also
write the chemical reactions involved.

Short answer questions. (3mark)

20.Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and
identify the type of reaction in each case.

(a) Thermit reaction, iron (III) oxide reacts with aluminium and gives molten
iron and aluminium oxide.
(b) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in an atmosphere of nitrogen gas to form
solid magnesium nitride.
(c) Chlorine gas is passed in an aqueous potassium iodide solution to form
potassium chloride solution and solid iodine.

21. Mohan took distilled water for the electrolytic decomposition of water but did not
see any bubbles near the electrodes. Explain why? How he can conduct the experiment
successfully ?

22.A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a
test tube. The evolved gas was then passed through lime water. What change would
be observed in lime water? Write balanced chemical equation for both the change
observed?
23.In the reaction MnO2 +4HCl ------> MnCl2 + 2H2O +Cl2
(a) Name the substance oxidised.
(b) Name the oxidising agent.
(c) Name the reducing agent and the substance reduced
24. An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to form
yellow ppt of compound Q which is used in photography. Q on exposure to sunlight
undergoes decomposition reaction to form metal present in P along with reddish brown
gas. Identify P &Q. Write the chemical reaction & type of chemical reaction.
25. Bhawana took a pale green substance A in a test tube. And heated it over the
flame of a burner. A brown colored residue B was formed along with evolution of two
gases with burning smell of sulphur. Identify A &B. Write the chemical reaction
involved.

26.On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, copper oxide
(black), oxygen gas and a brown gas X is formed

(a) Write a balanced chemical equation of the reaction.

(b) Identity the brown gas X evolved.

(c) Identity the type of reaction.

(d) What could be the pH range of aqueous solution of the gas X?

Long answer questions. (5 mark)

27

Observe the above activity & answer the questions

a. Do you observe anything happening around the zinc granules?
b. Is there any change in its temperature?
c. Why is glass tube not dipped in dil H2SO4 ?
d. Is H2 gas heavier or lighter than air?
e. Write chemical reactions involved.
28.Write the equation for a combination reaction as directed –

a) element + element
b) compound + element

c) compound + compound

How will you classify them in terms of change in energy ?

State meaning of combination reaction.

29. The white solid compound "A" decomposes quite rapidly on heating in the
presence of a black substance "X" to form a solid compound "B" and a gas "C".
When an aqueous solution of compound "B" is reacted with silver nitrate solution,
then a white precipitate of silver chloride is obtained along with potassium nitrate
solution. Gas "C" does not burn itself but helps burn other things.

(a) What is compound A?

(b) What is compound B?

(c) What is gas C?

(d) What do you think is the black substance X? What is its function?

(e) What is the general name of substances like X?

30. You are given with

(a) Iron Nails

(b) CuSO4 solution

(c) Bacl2

(d) Cu powder

(e) Ferrous sulphate crystal

(f) Quick lime.

Make five reactions that can take place from these materials.

31. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.

(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.

(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and Sulpher dioxide.
 (c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminum sulphate to give aluminum chloride and
precipitate of barium sulphate

(d) Oxygen reacts with copper to form copper oxides

(e) A metal is heated with dil H2SO4.

32.When metal X is treated with a dilute acid Y, then a gas Z is evolved which burns
readily by making a little explosion.

(a) Name any two metals which can behave like metal X.

(b) Name any two acids which can behave like acid Y.

(c) Name the gas Z.

(d) Is the gas Z lighter than or heavier than air?

(e) Is the reaction between metal X and acid Y exothermic or

endothermic?

.33.On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, copper
oxide, a colourless gas X and a brown gas Y is formed.

Identify the gases X and Y. Identify the type of chemical reaction involved. Write a
balanced chemical equation of the above reaction.

34. A solution of slaked lime produced by the reaction is used for white washing
walls. Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a
thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after
two to three days of white washing and gives a shiny finish to the walls. It is
interesting to note that the chemical formula for marble is also CaCO3.

a) Give the reaction for the formation of calcium carbonate with physical states.
b) Write the formulas of slaked lime, quick lime.
c) Explain why calcium carbonate is used for white washing and not any other
substance.
d) Write any one application of calcium carbonate other than white washing.

35. When fats and oils are oxidized, they become rancid and their smell and taste
change. Usually substances which prevent oxidation (antioxidants) are added to foods
containing fats and oil. Keeping food in air tight containers helps to slow down oxidation.

a. What do you mean by the word RANCIDITY?

 b. Write any two methods to prevent rancidity.
c. What is the meaning of antioxidants. Give an example.
d. Which gas is filled in the chips packets to keep them crunchy?

Chapter 2 Acids Bases and Salts

1 Marks Questions

1. Which of the following gives CO2 on heating?

(a) Slaked Lime (b) Quick lime

(c) Lime stone (d) Soda ash

2. Plaster of Paris is made from

(a) Lime stone (b) Slaked Lime

(c) Quick lime (d) Gypsum

3. Setting of Plaster of Paris takes place due to -

(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Dehydration (d) Hydration

4. Baking powder is mixture of-

a. baking soda and tartaric acid
b. baking soda and sulphuric acid
c. baking soda and carbon dioxide
d. flour and sugar
5. Tartaric acid is a –
a. Strong acid
b. Weak acid
c. Natural acid
d. Both b and c

6. If we use baking soda in place of baking powder-

a. Cake will be bitter in taste
b. Cake will be spongy
c. Both a and b are true
d. Both a and b are false

7. Which of the following can be used in place of tartaric acid-

a. Lime water
 b. HCl
c. Acetic acid
d. NaOH
8. Which of the compound is formed when baking soda is heated-
a. CaCO3
b. CH3COOH
c. NaOH
d. Na2CO3

Two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

1. Assertion: Phenolphthalein gives pink colour in basic solution.

Reason: Phenolphthalein is a natural indicator.

2. Assertion: H2CO3 is a strong acid.

Reason: A strong acid completely dissociates in water.

3. Assertion: Ammonia solution is an alkali.

Reason: Ammonia solution turns blue litmus red.

4. Assertion: After white washing the wall, a shiny white finish on the wall is obtained
after two-three days.
Reason:Calcium oxide reacts with CO2 to form Calcium hydrogen carbonate ,which
gives shiny white finish.
5. Assertion : Copper sulphate crystals are wet because they contain water of
crystallisation.
Reason : Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of molecules of water present in
one formula unit of salt.
6. Assertion: The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is highly
exothermic reaction.
 Reason: Water must always be added slowly to acid with constant stirring.
7. Assertion : pH = 7 signifies pure water.
Reason: pH of acetic acid is greater than 7.
8. Assertion : Bleaching powder reacts with dilute acids to evolve chlorine.
Reason: The chlorine liberated by the action of dilute acids on bleaching powder
is called available chlorine.

2 Marks Questions

1. How is concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of

acid is diluted? What is the correct method of dilution of acid?
2. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching
powder. Write the chemical reaction involved in the process.
3. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water. Write
the reaction involved in the formation of the sodium compound.
4. What happens to the crystals of washing soda when exposed to air?

5. What is the chemical name of washing soda? Name three raw materials used in
making washing soda by Solvay process?

6. Give the name and formula of two- (i) strong monobasic acids
(ii) weak dibasic acids
7. Fresh milk has a pH of 6.What will be the PH value if milk changes into a curd.
Justify.
8. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an
example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
9. You have two solutions ‘A’ and ‘B’. The pH of solution ‘A’ is 6 and pH of solution ‘B’ is
9 Which solution has more hydrogen ions concentration? Which is acidic and which one
is basic?
3 Marks Questions
1. A compound X of sodium is commonly used in the kitchen for making crispy
pakoras. It is also used for curing acidity in the stomach. Identify ‘X’. What is its
chemical formula? State the reaction that takes place when it is heated during
cooking?
2. How is plaster of Paris chemically different from gypsum? How may these be
interconverted? Write one use of plaster of Paris?
3. Metal compound ‘A’ reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce
effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a
 balanced chemical equation for the reaction, if one of the compounds
formed is calcium chloride.
4. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?

(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set a curd?

5. Salt A commonly used in bakery products on heating gets converted into another
salt B which itself is used for removal of hardness of water and a gas C is evolved. The
gas C when passed through lime water, turns it milky. Identify A, B and C.

6. You have two solutions A and B. The pH of the solution is 6 and pH of solution B is
8.which solution has more Hydrogen ion concentration? Which of these solutionsis
acidic and basic solutions?

7. What is meant by Water of crystallisation? Explain with reactions that crystalline salts
contain water of crystallisation.

8. In one of the industrial processes used for manufacture of sodium hydroxide, a gas X
is formed as by product. The gas X reacts with lime water to give a compound Y which
is used as a bleaching agent in chemical industry. Identify X and Y giving the chemical
equation of the reactions involved.

5 Marks Questions

1. A road tanker carrying acid was involved in an accident and its contents spilled
on the road. At the side of the road iron drain cover began melting and fizzing as the
acid ran over them. A specialist was called to see if the acid actually leaked into the
nearby river.

(a) Explain why specialist could carry out sample test to see of the river water
contains some acid or not

(b) Suggest a better report name for the word ‘melting’

(c) Explain why the drain covers began fizzing as the acid ran over them.

2. Compound such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but

are not categorized as acids. Describe an activity.

3. A compound X is bitter in taste. It is a component of washing powder &

reacts with dil. HCI to produce brisk effervescence which give rise to
 colourless, odourless gas Y which turns lime water milky due to formation of
Z. When excess of this gas is passed, milkyness disappears due to formation
of P. Identify X, Y, And Z & P. Also write reactions involved in it.
4. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda. Also Write their
chemical formula.
5. A sulphate salt of Group 2 element of the Periodic Table is a white, soft
substance, which can be moulded into different shapes by making its
dough. When this compound is left in open for some time, it becomes a
solid mass and cannot be used for moulding purposes. Identify the sulphate
salt and why does it show such a behaviour? Give the reaction involved.
6. Lime is an alkaline substance. The figure shows some of the properties of a
calcium compound 'X'. The letters are not chemical symbols of substances.
Answer the questions that follow:

(a) Identify 'X' and 'Y'.

(b) Write the chemical reaction and identify 'P'.
(c) Identify 'Z' and write reaction of 'Y' to get 'Z'.
(d) Name an acid which can liberate 'P' from'X'?
(e) Write reaction of lime water with 'P'.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS-

1. Take solutions of glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid, etc. n Fix two
nails on a cork, and place the cork in a 100 mL beaker. Connect the nails to the two
terminals of a 6 volt battery through a bulb and a switch, as shown in. Now pour
some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the current. Repeat with dilute sulphuric
acid. What do you observe? Repeat the experiment separately with glucose and
alcohol solutions. What do you observe now? Does the bulb glow in all cases?

Following the above paragraph, answer the following questions;

i) What was the changes occur in case of acids i.e HCl, H2SO4?
ii) Why do glucose and alcohol do not conduct electricity?

iii) Why do acids do not show acidic behaviour in absence of water?

iv) Does rain water or distilled water will conduct electricity?

V) Why do aqueous solution of acids conduct electricity?

2. On heating gypsum at 373 K, it loses water molecules and becomes calcium

sulphate hemihydrate ( CaSO4 .½ H2O ). This is called Plaster of Paris.Plaster of Paris
is a white powder and on mixing with water, it changes to gypsum once again giving
a hard solid mass.

Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one

formula unit of a salt. Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper
sulphate. Chemical formula for hydrated copper sulphate is Cu SO4 . 5H2O. Now you
would be able to answer the question whether the molecule of Na2CO3 .10H2O is
wet.

Answer the following questions on the basis of the above paragraph:

i) What is the molecular formula of gypsum?

ii) Write the equation of formation of plaster of paris by heating gypsum?

iii) What are the uses of Plaster of Paris?

iv) Give the equation when POP is mixed with water?

v) What does this 2 denotes in CaSO4. 2 H2O?

3.Sodium hydroxide When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of

sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. The
process is called the chlor-alkali process because of the products formed– chlor for
chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.

Based on the above given information, answer the following questions:

i) Write the chemical equation involved in this process?

ii) What are the substance that are formed at anode and cathode on chlor- alkali process?

iii) What are the uses of chlorine?

iv) Where does the sodium hydroxide solution is formed?

V) What are the uses of Sodium hydroxide?

4. Salts of a strong acid and a strong base are neutral with pH value of 7. On the
other hand, salts of a strong acid and weak base are acidic with pH value less than 7
and those of a strong base and weak acid are basic in nature, with pH value more
than 7.
Answer the following in reference to the above paragraph:

i) Classify the following as strong bases and weak bases: KOH, NaOH, CsOH, NH4OH

ii) Write a reaction of a strong acid and a weak base?

iii) What happens when strong acids and bases react to each other? Explain by giving
example.

iv) Identify the following as strong acid: CH3COOH, H2SO4, HNO3, H3PO4, H2CO3, HCl.

v) Classify the following acis as strong or weak acid: acetic acid, citric acid, tartaric acid,
oxalic acid.

5. A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, called pH scale

has been developed. The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. On
the pH scale we can measure pH generally from 0 (very acidic) to 14 (very alkaline).
pH should be thought of simply as a number which indicates the acidic or basic
nature of a solution. Higher the hydronium ion concentration, lower is the pH value.

Answer the following on the basis of above paragraph:

i) What does the scale represent when pH value increases from 7 to 14?

ii) What is the pH value of milk of magnesia?

iii) What are the important of pH in everyday life?

iv) What happens when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5?

V) Two solutions X&Y. The pH of X is 4 and the pH of Y is 7. What is the nature of two
solution?

Chapter 3: Metals and Non metals

MCQ

1. Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot
water?

(a) Na

(b) Ca

(c) Mg

(d) Fe
 2.Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction
of iron with steam?
(a) FeO

(b) Fe2O3

(c) Fe3O4

(d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4

3. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following

properties of aluminium are responsible for the same?

(i) Good thermal conductivity

(ii) Good electrical conductivity

(iii) Ductility

(iv) High melting point

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i) and (iv)

4. What happens when calcium is treated with water?

(i) It does not react with water

(ii) It reacts violently with water

(iii) It reacts less violently with water

(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium

(a) (i) and (iv)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
 (d) (iii) and (iv)

5. Which of the following metals exists in its native state in nature?

(a) Cu
(b) Au
(c) Zn
(d) Ag
A. (A) & (B)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (B) & (D)
D. (C) & (D)

6. Stainless steel is very useful material for our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
A. Ni and Cr
B. Cu and Cr
C. Ni and Cu
D. Cu and Au

7. 2 ml each of concentrated HCl, HNO₃ and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated
HNO₃ in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of
metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got
dissolved in test tube C respectively. The metal could be
A. Al
B. Au
C. Cu
D. Pt

8. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron.
Which of the given properties is not shown by Z?
A. Has high melting point
B. Has low melting point
C. Conducts electricity in molten state
D. Occurs as solid

9. During smelting, an additional substance is added which combines with impurities to form
a fusible product known as
A. Slag
B. Mud
C. Gangue
D. Flux

Assertion reason type

10. Assertion (A) : Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with
nitric acid.
Reason (R) : Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.

11. Assertion (A) : Zinc carbonate is heated strongly in presence of air to

form zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.
Reason (R) : Calcination is the process in which a carbonate ore is heated
strongly in the absence of air to convert into metal oxide.
12. . Assertion : Iron is the most widely used metal. But it is never used in its
pure state.
Reason: Pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot.

2 marks
14. Write one example of each of
(i) a metal which is so soft that it can be cut with a knife and a non-metal which is the
hardest substance.
(ii) a metal and a non-metal which exist as liquid at room temperature.

15. Which of the following two metals will melt at body temperature (37 °C) ?
Gallium, Magnesium, Caesium, Aluminium
16. Why does calcium float in water? Write reaction involved in the process.

17.Give reason for the following:

a) Aluminium oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state.
18. What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from amongst the
following oxides:
Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O
19.Give the formulae of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by
the combination of following pairs of elements.
(a) Mg and N2

(b) Li and O2

(c) Al and Cl2

(d) K and O2

20.Two ores A and B were taken. On heating ore A gives CO2 whereas, ore B
gives SO2. What steps will you take to convert them into metals?

3 marks
21. When a metal X is treated with cold water, it gives a basic salt Y with
molecular formula XOH (Molecular mass = 40) and liberates a gas Z which easily
catches fire. Identify X, Y and Z and also write the reaction involved.

22. Compound X and aluminium are used to join railway tracks.

(a) Identify the compound X
(b) Name the reaction
(c) Write down its reaction.
23. State the electron-dot structure for calcium and sulphur.
Show the formation of CaS by the transfer of electrons.
Name the ions present in this compound CaS. Atomic number of Ca = 20, S= 16
24. Name the two metals which react violently with cold water. Write any three
observation you would make when such a metal is dropped into water.

5 mark Questions

25. An element A burns with golden flame in air. It reacts with

another element B, atomic number 17 to give a product C. An
aqueous solution of product C on electrolysis gives a compound
D and liberates hydrogen.
Identify A, B, C and D
Also write down the equations for the reactions involved.
26.In the formation of compound between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons
and B gains one electron.

(i) What is the nature of bond between A and B?

(ii) Suggest the formula of the compound formed between A and B.

(b) On similar lines explain the formation of MgCl2 and AlCl3 molecule.

(c) Common salt conducts electricity only in the molten state. Why?

(d) Why is melting point of NaCl high? (2012)

27. The metals extracted from their ores are not very pure. They contain impurities,
which can be removed by the process of refining.

Name the most widely used process of refining impure metals.

Draw a diagram of the apparatus used for refining of copper metal and state:
(i) The name of the rods which are used as cathode and anode.

(ii) The electrolyte used during the process.

(iii) What happens to the pure metal when current passes through the electrolyte?

(iv) What happens to the soluble and insoluble impurities present in the impure copper?

Case study based

28. The metals in the middle of the activity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper, etc.,
are moderately reactive. These are usually present as sulphides or carbonates in
nature. It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulphides and
carbonates. Therefore, prior to reduction, the metal sulphides and carbonates must be
converted into metal oxides. The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating
strongly in the presence of excess air. This process is known as roasting. The
carbonate ores are changed into oxides by heating strongly in limited air. This process
is known as calcination

i) What is Calcination?

ii) Give a suitable example for the process Roasting.

iii) What is the process of converting metal oxide to metal?

iv) Name some other reducing agent which can be used to extract metal from metal
oxide?

29. „ Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air. This is because
it reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide.
„ Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its shiny brown
surface and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate.

„ Iron when exposed to moist air for a long time acquires a coating of a brown flaky
substance called rust. Let us find out the conditions under which iron rusts.

i) Write a chemical reaction occur during the rusting of iron.

ii) Give three methods to prevent the corrosion of metals.

iii) What is meant by Galvanization?

iv) What is amalgam?

30. Metal oxides are basic in nature. But some metal oxides, such as aluminium oxide,
zinc oxide, etc., show both acidic as well as basic behaviour. Such metal oxides which
react with both acids as well as bases to produce salts and water are known as
amphoteric oxides.
Most metal oxides are insoluble in water but some of these dissolve in water to form
alkalis

i) Write a chemical reaction of Aluminium when burnt in air?

ii) Give a example of amphoteric oxide with reaction.

iii) Why potassium and sodium is kept under the kerosene oil?

iv) Name two oxide when are soluble in water and form alkalis?

CHAPTER-4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. This is an example of a saturated hydrocarbon
a) C2H4 c) C3H4
b) C2H6 d) C3H6

2. The name of this compound would end with

a) –ane b) --ol b) –ene d) –al

3. A student studies that a soap molecule has two ends, one of which is an ionic end
and the other is the carbonic chain. Which option explains the interaction of a soap
molecule with oil?

(a) ionic end of the soap interacts with the oil

(b) the closest end of the soap interacts with the oil
(c) carbonic chain end of the soap interacts with the oil
(d) ends of the soap randomly interact with the oil

4.The image represents a carbon compound.

Which functional group is present in the compound?
(a) alcohol
(b) aldehyde
(c) carboxylic acid
(d) ketone

5.The formula of butanol is C4H9OH. The next higher homologous series of alcohol is
(a) C3H7OH (b) C2H5OH
(c) C5H11OH (d) C6H13OH

6. The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is

a. Acetaldehyde
b. Formaldehyde
c. Ethanal
d. Ethanol

7. Diamond is not a good conductor of electricity because

a. It is very hard
b. Its structure is very compact
c. It is not soluble in water
d. It has no free electrons to conduct electric current.
8. A molecule of ammonia has -

a. One N-H bond

b. Three N-H bonds
c. Four N-H bonds
d. One N=H bond and One N-H bond

Assertion Reason Questions:

1. Assertion : The element carbon forms the basic structural framework of more
compounds than any other element
Reason : The carbon-carbon bond is ionic.
2. Assertion : Carbon forms a large number of compounds .
Reason : Carbon has small in size and is tetravalent.
3.Assertion : Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
aldehyde.
Reason : Molecular formula of Butanone is C4H8O.

4. Assertion: Soaps do not work well with hard water where as detergents work well with
hard water.
Reason: Soaps are biodegradable and do not create water pollution.

5. Assertion : Following are the members of a homologous series :

CH3OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason : A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by -CH2 unit is
called homologous series.
6. Assertion (A) : Esterification is a process in which a sweet smelling substance is
produced.
Reason (R): When esters react with sodium hydroxide, an alcohol and sodium salt of
carboxylic acid are obtained.
7. Assertion (A) : Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid.
Reason (R) : The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it often freezes
during winters in cold climates.

Very short answer questions (1 mark)

1. Which of the following formula represents saturated hydrocarbon?

CnH2n, CnH2n-2, CnH2n+2, CnH2n-1

2. Draw the electron dot structure of Ethene.

3. Carbon has four electrons in its valence shell. How does Carbon attain stable
electronic configuration?

4. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of

a) Ethane b) Propane

5. Why is fullerene so called?

6. How do two successive members of a homologous series differ from each other?

7. State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to large
numbers of carbon compounds.
Short answer question (2mark)
1.Write the general formula of hydrocarbon alkene.Write the name of simplest alkene.
2. Which element exhibits the property of catenation to maximum extent and Why?
3.Write the name and formula of the second member of homologous series having
general formula CnH2n
4. Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having
functional group -Cl.
5. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula,
say C3H6O. Write their structures and name them. State the relation between the two in
the language of science.
6. Write the chemical equation to show what happen when methane is treated with
chlorine in the presence of sunlight ? Identify the type of reaction.
7. What happens when 5% alkaline KMnO4 solution is added drop by drop to warm
ethanol taken in a test tube? State the role of alkaline KMnO4 solution in this reaction.
8. Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt
for welding. In your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this
purpose?
Short answer question (3 mark)

1. Give reason why Carbon never forms C4+ cation and C 4- anion but forms covalent
compounds which are bad conductors of electricity and have low melting and boiling
points.
2. Give answers to the following statements. (i) An allotrope of carbon which has a
two-dimensional layered structure consisting of fused benzene rings.

(ii) An allotrope of carbon which looks like a soccer ball.

(iii) An allotrope of carbon which contains both single and double bonds.

3. What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of pentane, C5H12.
Explain why we cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series.

4. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List
their three characteristic properties.

5. What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in
this compound. Why are such compounds

(i) poor conductors of electricity and

(ii) have low melting and boiling points?

What happens when this compound burns in oxygen?

6. Two carbon compounds X and Y have the molecular formula C4H8 and C5H12
respectively. Which one of these is most likely to show addition reaction? Justify your
answer. Also give the chemical equation to explain the process of addition reaction in
this case.

Long answer question (5 mark)

1 .a. List two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds.

b. Name the type of bonding found in most of the carbon compounds. Why
does carbon form compounds mainly by this kind of bonding?
c. Give a reason.

(i) Carbon compounds generally have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) Carbon compounds generally do not conduct electricity.

2. What are Covalent compounds?Why are they different from ionic compounds?List
their three characteristic properties.

3. What is meant by the Homologous series of Carbon compounds? Classify the

following carbon compounds into two homologous series and name them.
C3H4, C3H6, C4H6, C4H8, C5H8, C5H10

4. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess cone, sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an
unsaturated compound ‘Y’. ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas
‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the equation of the chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’
and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the reaction.

5. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4, a substance
with fruity smell is produced. Answer the following:

(i) State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write
the chemical equation for the reaction and write the chemical name of the product
formed.

(ii) State the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction.

6. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following :
(a) Sodium;

(b) Sodium hydroxide;

(c) Ethanol

Write the name of one main product of each reaction.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS-

1. Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving
rise to large molecules. This property is called catenation. These compounds may
have long chains of carbon, branched chains of carbon or even carbon atoms
arranged in rings. In addition, carbon atoms may be linked by single, double or triple
bonds.

i) What are saturated compounds?

ii) What is the another versatile property of carbon?

iii) Give two example of unsaturated compounds.

iv) What would be the electron dot structure of C2H6.

v) Name any one element other than carbon which show catenation property?

2.Carbon, in all its allotropic forms, burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide along
with the release of heat and light. Most carbon compounds also release a large
amount of heat and light on burning.

Saturated hydrocarbons will generally give a clean flame while unsaturated carbon
compounds will give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke.

i) Complete the reaction: CH3CH2OH +O2 gives

ii) What is the reason for incomplete combustion?

iii) Combustion is an oxidation or reduction type of reaction?

iv) Draw the structure of the compound: But-2- yne.

V) What is homologous series?

3.Carbon compounds can be easily oxidised on combustion. In addition to this

complete oxidation, we have reactions in which alcohols are converted to carboxylic
acids. We see that some substances are capable of adding oxygen to others. These
substances are known as oxidising agents.

i) Give two example of good oxidising agent.

ii) Complete the reaction: CH3CH2CH2OH + Alk. KMnO4 👉?
iii) What are the uses of alcohol?

iv) Why Acidified potassium dichromate is called an oxidising agent?

v) What is the use of ethanoic acid?

4.Most dirt is oily in nature and as you know, oil does not dissolve in water. The
molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. The
ionic-end of soap interacts with water while the carbon chain interacts with oil. The
soap molecules, thus form structures called micelles, where one end of the
molecules is towards the oil droplet while the ionic-end faces outside. This forms an
emulsion in water. The soap micelle thus helps in pulling out the dirt in water and we
can wash our clothes clean.

i) What is hydrophobic end?

ii) Draw the structure of micelle.

iii) What are scums?

iv) What is hard water?

V) To remove hardness of water, the water is treated with soap or detergent?

5.Ethanoic acid is commonly called acetic acid and belongs to a group of acids
called carboxylic acids. 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar and is
used widely as a preservative in pickles.

i) What is glacial acetic acid?

ii) Complete the reaction: NaOH + CH3CH2COOH 👉?

iii) What is esterification reaction?

iv) What happens when ethanoic acid is reacted with carbonates and bicarbonates?

V) Write the reaction of ethanoic acid with sodium hydrogen carbonate?

6.Frothing in Yamuna:

The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is high phosphate content
in the wastewater because of detergents used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghat and
households. Yamuna’s pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been labelled
‘dead’ as there is no oxygen in it for aquatic life to survive.
1) Predict the pH value of the water of river Yamuna if the reason for froth is high
content of detergents dissolved in it.

● a) 10-11
● b) 5-7
● c) 2-5
● d) 7

2) Which of the following statements is correct for the water with detergents
dissolved in it?

● a) low concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-)and high concentration of hydronium

ion (H3O+)
● b) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-)and low concentration of hydronium
ion (H3O+)
● c) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) as well as hydronium ion (H3O+)
● d) equal concentration of both hydroxide ion (OH-) and hydronium ion (H3O+).

3) If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to you, which of the

following methods will you adopt to neutralize it?

● a) Treating the water with baking soda

● b) Treating the water with vinegar
● c) Treating the water with caustic soda
● d) Treating the water with washing soda

4) High content of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to:

● a) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae.

● b) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and no effect of growth of algae.
● c) increased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae.
● d) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and decreased growth of algae.

Chapter 11 : Human Eye And The Colourful world

Assertion - Reason :

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

1. Q1. Assertion : Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle headlights
and searchlights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the center of curvature of a concave mirror the image
formed is real and inverted

Q2. Assertion : The light emerges from parallel sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with that in which it enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of the incident ray and emergent
ray coming out of the glass slab is called lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light.

Q3. Assertion : When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the surface , the
pencil appears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it passes from
water to air.

Q4. Assertion :A rainbow is sometimes seen in the sky in the rainy season,
when the observer's back is towards the Sun.
Reason: Internal reflection in the water droplets causes dispersion and the
final rays are in backward direction.

Q 5.Assertion : The Sun appears flattened at sunrise and sunset.

Reason : The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is due
to atmospheric refraction.
1 mark Questions

Q6. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of

light visible?

Q7. Why does the sky appears blue from the Earth’s surface ?
at sunrise?
Q8. What is the Tyndall effect?

Q9. Give an example of optical phenomena which occurs in nature due to

atmospheric refraction.

Q10. Give an example of a phenomenon where the Tyndall effect can be observed.

Q11. Name the type of particles which acts as a prism in the formation of a rainbow in the
sky.

Q12..What is the cause of dispersion of white light on passing through a prism?

Q13.Name the atmospheric phenomenon due to which the sun can be seen above the
horizon about two minutes before actual sunrise.

Q14. Why is red selected for danger signal lights?

Q15. Why do different components of white light deviate through different angles when
passing through a triangular glass prism?

Q16. What will be the color of the sky, when it is observed from a place in the absence of
any atmosphere? Why?

Q17. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?

a. Reflection, refraction and dispersion

b. Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

c. Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

d.Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

Q18. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

a. dispersion of light by water droplets

b. refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
c. scattering of light by dust particles
d. internal reflection of light by clouds

Q19. The clear sky appears blue because

a. blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere

b. ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
c. violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other
 colors by the atmosphere

d. light of all other colors is scattered more than

the violet and blue color lights by the atmosphere

Q20. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of

light of different colors of white light in air?

a. Red light moves fastest

b. Blue light moves faster than green light
c. All the colors of the white light move with the same speed
d. Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and

the violet light

Q21. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in color. These can be
easily seen from a distance because among all other colors, the red light

(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog

(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog

(d) moves fastest in air

Q22. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish

appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

(a) Dispersion of light

(b) Scattering of light

(c) Total internal reflection of light

(d) Reflection of light from the earth

Q23. The bluish color of water in deep sea is due to

a. the presence of algae and other plants found in water

b. reflection of sky in water
c. scattering of light
d. absorption of light by the sea
 2, 3 Marks Questions

Q24. What is meant by spectrum of white light? How can we recombine the components
of white light after a prism has separated them? Draw a diagram to illustrate it.

Q25. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky.
Illustrate it with the help of a labeled diagram.

Q26. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism.
Mark on it (a) the incident ray. (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of
deviation.

Q27. The stars appear to twinkle but the planets do not. Give reason.

Q28. A young boy can adjust the power of his eye-lens between 50 D & 60 D. His
far point is infinity.
(a) What is the distance of his retina from the eye-lens?
(b) What is his near point?

Q29. A myopic person having far point 80 cm uses spectacles of power –1.0 D. How far
can he see
Clearly?

Q30. A 52-year-old near-sighted person wears eye glass of power of –5.5D for
distance viewing. His
doctor prescribes a correction of +1.5D in the near-vision section of his bi-focals this
measured
relative to the main parts of the lens
(i) What is the focal length of his distance viewing part of the lens.
(ii) What is the focal length of the near vision section of the lens.

Q31. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is at 75 cm from the eye. What is the
power of the lens required to enable him to read clearly a book held at 25 cm from
the eye?

5 marks Questions

Q32. (a) What is dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show the dispersion
of white light by a glass prism.
 (b) A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes
through it but a glass slab does not produce any spectrum. Explain why is it
so?

Q33..

(a) What color(s) will be seen on the screen?

(b) Copy the diagram above and draw the beam entering Prism 1 and emerging from Prism 3
and falling on the screen.
(c) Name all the processes that take place when the beam of light enters Prism 1 and emerges
from Prism 3.

Case Study Based Questions

Q34. There are various natural phenomena associated with light. Refraction of light is the
phenomenon in which when light travels from one transparent medium to another
transparent medium it changes its direction. The change in direction of light is due to the
change in velocity of light in different media. And hence the path of the light also changes in
different media. In case of refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab we must
observe that the incident ray and the emergent ray are parallel to each other. We can see
the pencil immersed in water as bent at the water air interface only because of the refraction
of light. Again the second phenomenon is dispersion of light in which white light when
passed through the prism splits into seven coloured spectrum. And these seven colors are
VIBGYOR. We can see here the angle of deviation is different for different colors because
different wavelengths of different colors. Also, Newton observed that when the second prism
is placed inverted to the first prism the white light incident on the first prism will come out as
white light only when it emerges from the second prism. The phenomenon of formation is
also because of the dispersion of light. In that case the tiny water droplets acts as prisms.
But most importantly, the refraction of light occurs only because of the change in refractive
index of medium. The twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of light.

Questions:

1) Rainbow formation takes place because of which phenomenon is related to light?

2) What is meant by total internal reflection?

3) Why does atmospheric refraction occur?

 4) For which color the angle of deviation is more in case of dispersion?

Q35. Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on

passing through earth’s atmosphere. As we move above the surface of earth,
density of air goes on decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also
affect the optical density of earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric
refraction, stars seen appear higher than they actually are; advanced sunrise;
delayed sunset, oval appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset; stars
twinkle, planets do not.
(i) Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) all of these

(ii) Apparent position of the star appears raised due to

(a) atmospheric refraction
(b) scattering of light
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

(iii) The sun appears oval shaped or flattened due to

(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) cannot say

(iv) Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by

(a) scattering of light
(b) dispersion of light
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) none of these
(v) In absence of atmosphere, the color of sky appears
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) red
(d) yellow

Q36. Light of all the colors travels at the same speed in vacuum for all
wavelengths. But in any transparent medium

(glass or water), the light of different colors travel with different speeds for
different wavelength that means

that the refractive index of a particular medium is different for different

wavelengths. As there is a difference in

their speeds, the light of different colors bend through different angles. The
speed of violet color is maximum and the speed of red color is minimum in
glass so, the red light deviates least and violet color deviates most.

Hence, higher the wavelength of a color of light, smaller the refractive index
and less is the bending of light.

(i) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of

light of different colors of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves the fastest.
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(c) All the colors of the white light move with the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet
light.

(ii) Which of the following is the correct order of wavelength?

(a) Red> Green> Yellow (b) Red> Violet> Green

(c) Yellow> Green> (d) Red> Yellow>

Violet Orange

(iii) Which of the following is the correct order of speed of light in glass?

(a) Red> Green> Blue (b) Blue> Green> Red

(c) Violet> Red> Green (d) Green> Red> Blue

(iv) Which color which has maximum frequency

(a) Red (b) Violet

(c) Blue (d) Green

Q 37. The human eye is a complex organ that enables us to perceive the world
around us. It consists of various parts that work together to provide vision. The
cornea is the transparent outer covering of the eye that helps in focusing
light. The iris, the colored part of the eye, controls the amount of light
entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil. The lens, located behind
the iris, further focuses the light onto the retina, which contains light-sensitive
cells called rods and cones. These cells convert light into electrical signals,
which are then transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve. The brain
processes these signals and interprets them as visual images. The eye is
capable of adjusting its focal length through a process called
accommodation, allowing us to see objects at different distances clearly. The
eye is also sensitive to different colors due to the presence of cones that
respond to specific wavelengths of light. Understanding the functioning of
the human eye and the properties of light helps us comprehend vision,
perception, and phenomena such as refraction, dispersion, and the formation
of images.

i) What is the function of the cornea?

a) Controlling the amount of light entering the eye
b) Focusing light onto the retina
c) Transmitting electrical signals to the brain
d) Providing vision

ii) What part of the eye controls the amount of light entering the eye?
a) Cornea
b) Iris
c) Lens
d) Retina

iii) Where are the light-sensitive cells called rods and cones located?
a) Cornea
b) Iris
c) Lens
d) Retina

iv) How are visual images transmitted to the brain?

a) Via the cornea
b) Via the iris
c) Via the optic nerve
d) Via the lens

v) What is the process called that allows the eye to adjust its focal length?
a) Accommodation
b) Refraction
c) Dispersion
d) Reflection
 Chapter 12 : Electricity

1 mark Questions

Q1. A coil in the heater consumes power P on passing current. If it is cut in two halves
and then joined in parallel it will consume power -
a) P b) P/2
c) 2P d) 4P
Q2. A cooler of 1500W,200V and a fan of 500W,200 V are to be used from a household
supply. The rating of the fuse to be used -
a) 2.5 A b) 5.0A
c) 7.5 A d) 10 A
Q3. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 ohm and 4 ohm respectively are connected
in series to a 6V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ohm resistor in 5 sec will be-
a) 5 J b) 10 J
c) 20 J d) 30 J
Q4.Bulbs B1 and B2 are exactly identical. When the key K is pressed, the reading of the
ammeter will

(a) remain unchanged (b) be doubled

(c) be halved (d) become four times

Q5.Column I contains some features of AC supply in India and column II contains

their
relevant values/details. Match columns I and II.
 Column I Column II

(A) Value of the frequency of AC supply in (i) Green (yellow)

India

(B) Colour of the earth wire in household (ii) 50

wiring.

(C) Colour of the wire in which the ‘switch’ (iii) 15

needs to be put in a
domestic electric circuits.

(D) Rating of the fuse wire (in A) used in (iv) Red/Brown

domestic power circuits

(a) A–(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv)

(b) A–(iii), B—(i), C—(ii), D—(iv)
(c) A–(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(d) A–(iv), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(i)

Q.6 Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly
connected.

Q7.What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5
Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω

(c) 5 Ω

(d) 1 Ω

Assertion - Reason :

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the

statements, mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

Q8. Assertion : In an open circuit the current passes from one terminal of the electric
cell to another.

Reason : Generally the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

Q9. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V= IR

Reason : V= IR is the equation which defines Resistance.

Q10. Assertion : Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have
lesser resistance.

Reason : Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.

Q11.Assertion : When the resistances are connected end-to-end consecutively, they

are said to be in series.

Reason : In case the total resistance is to be increased, then the individual resistances
are connected in series.

2 marks Questions
Q12. What is the power of a torch bulb rated at 2.5V and 500mA?

Q13. Which has higher resistance – a 50W bulb or a 2.5W bulb and how many times?

Q14.Why is the tungsten metal more coiled in the bulb and not installed in straight
parallel wire form?

Q15.Why are heating elements made of alloys rather than metals?

3 marks Questions

Q16. List in Tabular form three differences between an Ammeter and Voltmeter.

Q17. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuits. List any three reasons.

Q18. Explain the role of fuse in series with any electrical appliance in an electric circuit.
Why should a fuse with a defined rating for an electric circuit not be replaced by one
with a larger rating?

Q19. Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising 3 cells and an electric
bulb, ammeter, plug-key in the ON mode and another with same components but with
two bulbs in parallel and a voltmeter across the combination.

Q20. Two resistors 3 ohm and an unknown resistor are connected in series across a 12
V battery. If the voltage drop across the unknown resistors 6 V, find

a) Potential across 3 ohm resistor

b) The current through unknown resistor
c) Equivalent resistance of the circuit

Q21. Show the manner in which three resistors of values 4Ω,6Ω and 12Ω can be
connected to get an equivalent resistance of (i) 8Ω (ii) 9Ω.

Q22.A given length of a wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once
again. By what factor does the resistance of the wire change?

5 marks Questions

Q23. (a) Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power.

(b) Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has higher electrical resistance when
in use.
 (c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules.

Q24. a) A wire of resistance 20 ohm is bent in the form of a closed circle. What is the
effective resistance between two points at the ends of any diameter of the circle?

b) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 4 cells of 2V each

connected to a key, an ammeter and two resistors of 2 ohm and 3 ohm respectively in
series and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across 3 ohm.

Q25. Three bulbs each having power P are connected in series in an electric circuit. In
another circuit , another set of three bulbs of the same power are connected in parallel
to the same source.

a) Will the bulbs in both the circuits glow with the same brightness? Justify.
b) Now let one bulb in each circuit get fused. Will the rest of the bulbs continue to
glow in each circuit? Give a reason.
c) Representing each bulb by a resistor, draw a circuit diagram for each case.

Q26. Though the same current flows through the electric line wires and the filament of
the bulb, yet only the filament glows. Why?

b) The temperature of the filament of the bulb is 2700 degree centigrade when it glows.
Why does it not get burnt up at such a high temperature?

c) The filament of an electric lamp, which draws a current of 0.25 A is used for 4 hours.
calculate the amount of charge flowing through the circuit.

d)An electric iron is rated 2KW at 220 V. Calculate the capacity of the fuse that should
be used for the electric iron.

Q27 . An electric geyser consumes 2.2 units of electrical energy per hour for its use. It is
designed to work at mains voltage of 220 V.

a) What is the Power rating of this device?

b) What is the current flowing through this device when it is connected across the
mains?
c) What is the resistance of this device?
d) Does the resistance of this device remain constant during its operation/ working?
e) Cost of energy consumed if each unit costs Rs. 6.00.

Q28.Find out the following in the electric circuit given in figure alongside:
(i) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the combination

(ii) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor

(iii) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance

(iv) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor

(v) Difference in ammeter readings, if any

Q29.A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.

(i) How will the resistance of each part of the wire compare with the original
resistance?

(ii) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the
combination compare with the resistance of the original wire? What will be the ratio of
resistance in series to that of parallel?

(iii) Calculate the resistance of 2 km long copper wire of radius 2 mm. (Resistivity of
copper = 1.72 x 1 0-8ohm -meter)

Q30.

(i) State what happens when switch A is connected to

(a) Position 2

(b) Position 3

(ii) Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.

(iii) Calculate the current

(a) in each 12 ohm lamp when lit.

(b) In each 4ohm lamp when lit.

(iv) Show, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 ohm or 12 ohm , has the higher
power

Q31. Resistances are connected as shown in the diagram. Find the equivalent
resistance between the points P and Q.

Q32. Resistances are connected as shown in the diagram. Find the equivalent

resistance between the points A and B.

Q33. Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the following diagram:

Q34.In the circuit shown below, calculate the equivalent resistance between the points
(i) A and B, (ii) C and D.

Solution:

Q35.Six equal resistors of 1 ohm each are connected to form the sides of a hexagon
ABCDEF. Calculate the resistance offered by the combination if the current enters at A
and leaves it at D.

Q36.From the following observations taken while determining the resistance of a

conductor, draw the current-voltage graph and calculate the resistance of conductor?
 Ammeter reading I (in Voltmeter reading V (in volt)
ampere)

0.2 0.4

0.3 0.6

0.5 1.0

0.8 1.6

1.5 3

Q37. Calculate equivalent resistance in the following cases:

Q38.Three resistances, of which two are equal when connected in series, have an
effective resistance of 30 ohms. When the three resistances are connected in parallel,
the effective resistance is 3 ohms. Find the values of the individual resistances.

Q39.A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of
nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively.Justify

Q40.(a) What is the least count of voltmeter?

 (b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark.
Calculate its least count.

(c)What is meant by the statement that “the frequency of current in India is 50 Hz”?

Q41.(a)State Joule’s law of heating.

(b)How will the heat produced in an electric circuit be affected, if the resistance in
the circuit is doubled for the same current?

Case based Questions:

Q42. Read the following and answer any four questions: (4 marks)

The SI unit of resistivity is Ω m. It is a characteristic property of the material. The metals

and alloys have very low resistivity in the range of 10^–8 Ω m to 10^–6 Ω m. They are
good conductors of electricity. Insulators like rubber and glass have resistivity of the
order of 1012 to 10^17 Ω m. Both the resistance and resistivity of a material vary with
temperature.
Table 12.2 reveals that the resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its
constituent metals. Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures. For this
reason, they are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron, toasters
etc. Tungsten is used almost exclusively for filaments of electric bulbs, whereas copper
and aluminium are generally used for electrical transmission lines.
i) A wire of length 2m and another wire of length 5m are made up of the same material
and have the same area of cross section, which wire has higher resistance?
a) Both have equal resistance
b) The 2m wire has higher resistance
c) The 5m wire has higher resistance
d) The value of resistance cannot be determined from the given data

ii )A wire has the same resistance as the one given in the figure. Calculate its resistivity
if the length of the wire is 10m and its area of cross section is 2m^2.

a) 16 ohm-metre
b) 8 ohm-metre
c) 16 kilo ohm-metre
d) 8 kilo ohm-metre

iii) Calculate the ratio of the resistivity of 2 wires having the same length and same
resistance with area of cross section 2m2 and 5m2 respectively.
a) 5:7
b) 2:7
c) 2:5
d) 7:5

iv) The reciprocal of resistivity is________

a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Conductivity
d) Impedance

Q43.Resistance is the opposition offered by the conductor to the flow of electric current.
When two or more resistors are connected in series then electric current through each
resistor is the same but the electric potential across each resistor will be different. If R1,
R2 and R3 are the resistance connected in series then current through each resistor will
be I but potential difference across each resistor is V1, V2 and V3 respectively.
Thus, the total potential difference is equal to the sum of potential difference across
each resistor. Hence, V= V1 + V2 + V3

Again, IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3

Thus, R = R1 + R2 + R3

Hence in case of series combination of resistors, the total resistance is the sum of
resistance of each resistor in a circuit.

Now, in case of parallel combinations of resistors, electric current through each resistor
is different but the potential difference across each resistor is the same. If resistors R1,
R2 and R3 are connected in parallel combination then potential difference across each
resistor will be V but current through each resistor is I1, I2 and I3 respectively.

Thus, total current through the circuit is the sum of current flowing through each resistor.

I = I1 + I2 + I3

Again, V/R= V/R1 + V/R2 + V/R3

Thus, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

Hence, in case of a parallel combination of resistors, the reciprocal of total resistance is

the sum of reciprocal of each resistance connected in parallel.

Questions:

1) In which case the equivalent resistance is more and why?

2) In our home, which type of combination of electric devices is preferred? Why?

3) If n resistors of resistance R are connected in parallel then what is the equivalent

resistance?

4) Define one ohm.

Q44.When electric current flows through the circuit this electrical energy is used in two
ways, some part is used for doing work and remaining may be expended in the form of
heat. We can see, in mixers after using it for a long time it becomes more hot, fans also
become hot after continuous use. This type of effect of electric current is called the
heating effect of electric current. If I is the current flowing through the circuit then the
amount of heat dissipated in that resistor will be H = VIt

This effect was discovered by Joule, hence it is called Joule's law of heating.

Also, we can write, H = I2Rt

Thus, heat produced is directly proportional to the square of the electric current, directly
proportional to the resistance of the resistor and the time for which electric current flows
through the circuit. This heating effect is used in many applications. The heating effect is
also used for producing light. In the case of an electric bulb, the filament produces more
heat energy which is emitted in the form of light. And hence filaments are made from
tungsten which has a high melting point.

In case of an electric circuit, this heating effect is used to protect the electric circuit from
damage.

The rate of doing work or rate of consumption of energy is called power. Here, the rate
at which electric energy dissipates or consumed in an electric circuit is called electric
power. And it is given by P= VI

The SI unit of electric power is watt.

Questions:

1) What is the SI unit of electric energy?

2) How does the heating effect work to protect the electric circuit?

3) 1KW h = ?

4) If a bulb is working at a voltage of 200V and the current is 1A then what is the power
of the bulb?

Q45.We can see that, as the applied voltage is increased the current through the wire
also increases. It means that the potential difference across the terminals of the wire is
directly proportional to the electric current passing through it at a given temperature.

Thus, V= IR

Where R is the proportionality constant called as resistance of the wire. Thus, we can
say that the resistance of the wire is inversely proportional to the electric current. As the
resistance increases, current through the wire decreases. The resistance of the
conductor is directly proportional to length of the conductor, inversely proportional to the
area of cross section of the conductor and also depends on the nature of the material
from which conductor is made. Thus R= qL/A, where q is the resistivity of the material of
the conductor. According to the resistivity of the material they are classified as
conductors, insulators and semiconductors. It is observed that the resistance and
resistivity of the material varies with temperature. And hence there are vast applications
of these materials based on their resistivity.

The SI unit of resistance is ohm while the SI unit of electric current is ampere. The
potential difference is measured in volt. Conductors are the materials which are having
less resistivity or more conductivity and hence they are used for transmission of
electricity. Alloys are having more resistivity than conductors and hence they are used in
electric heating devices. While insulators are bad conductors of electricity.

Questions:

1) What is the SI unit of resistivity?

2) What is variable resistance?

3) Why is tungsten used in electric bulbs?

4) 1M ohm = ?

Chapter - Life Processes

Multiple Choice Type questions:

1. Amoeba shows the following kind of nutrition –

a) Autotrophic
b) Holozoic
c) Saprotrophic
d) Parasitic

2. The process by which blood is cleared of metabolic wastes in case of kidney failure is
called

a) Artificial kidney

b) Dialysis

c) Transplantation

d) Filtration

3. In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

a) Stomach
b) Food Pipe
c) Mouth
d) Small Intestine

4. Which of the following organisms have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium
b) Plasmodium
c) Paramecium
d)Rhizobium
5. When air is blown from mouth into a test – tube containing lime water, the lime
water turned milky due to presence of –
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Water vapour

Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

a) ASSERTION : Aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to
anaerobic respiration.
REASON : Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the
cell.
b) ASSERTION :Energy is required to carry out different life
processes.
REASON : Energy is obtained in the form of ATP in the
mitochondria.
c) Assertion: Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.

Reason: It is so to ensure enough time for the release of CO2 and for the absorption of
O2 .

d) Assertion: In a healthy adult, the initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180 L daily, but
the actual volume excreted is only a litre a day.

Reason: Most of the filtrate is lost from the body in the form of sweat.

e) Assertion: The four chambered heart does not mix oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood.

Reason: Four chambered heart is found in mammals with advanced body function

Very Short Answer Type Questions(1 Mark)

1.Which tissue transports soluble products of photosynthesis?

2.What is the role of saliva in digestion of food?

3.What will happen if platelets are absent in the blood?

4. Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping systems. How is
the leakage prevented?

5. Why is the right kidney placed slightly lower in position as compared to the left
kidney?

6. Which substance is selectively reabsorbed by the tubular part of nephron?

7. Name a common nutrient that is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by
the kidney tubules.

8. Where does digestion of fat take place in our body?

9. What is the role of acid in our stomach?

10.Name the respiratory pigment in human beings. Where is this pigment found?

11.Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
organisms?

12.Name the process of loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the
plants.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (2 MARK)

1. Differentiate between blood and lymph on the basis of colour, presence of RBC,
direction of flow

2. What is the advantage of a four chambered heart in humans?

3. Give two points of difference between arteries and veins on the basis of criteria given
below: Direction of flow, oxygenated/deoxygenated blood, thick/thin wall

4. What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of our digestive system and write its
function.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (3 MARK)

1. Write the function of the following:

a) Bile b) Hydrochloric acid c) Villi

2. Write the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

3. What are the adaptations of leaves for photosynthesis?

4. State the function of the following in the alimentary canal

(i) Liver (ii) Gallbladder (iii) Villi

5. (i) A product is formed in the cytoplasm of our muscles due to breakdown of glucose
when there is a lack of oxygen. Name the product and also mention the effect of
build-up of this product.

(ii) Differentiate between fermentation in yeast and aerobic respiration on the basis of
end products formed.

6. What is the logic behind the heavy breathing as we climb up a mountain?

7. What is the role of respiratory pigment in respiration? Give one example.

8. State reason for the following:

(i) Arteries have thick and elastic walls

(ii) Arteries form capillaries

LONG ANSWER TYPE (5 MARK)

1. What is double circulation? What is its advantage? Show with a labelled diagram.

2. How is urine produced? How is it regulated?

3. What are the many different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in
various organisms?

4. Describe the breathing process in human beings.

5. (i) Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide during transportation of blood in human beings and label the following parts on
it.

Lung to capillaries, pulmonary artery to lungs, aorta to body, pulmonary veins from
lungs.

(ii) What is the advantage of having separate channels of heart for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?

6. What according to you is the advantage of having a four- chambered heart?

7. (i) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following parts on it.

(a) Renal artery

(b) Bowman’s capsule

(c) Glomerulus

(d) Collecting duct

(ii) Name four substances in the initial filtrate which are selectively reabsorbed as the
filtrate floor along the tubule.

8. Waste products of plants are useful for human beings. Is it true? Explain.

9. (a) State the form in which the following are stored:

(i) Unused carbohydrates in plants

(ii) The energy derived from food in humans.

(b) Describe the process of nutrition in Amoeba with the help of diagrams.

(c) How does Paramecium obtain its food?

10.(i) Name the process and explain the type of nutrition found in green plants. List the
raw materials required for this process. Give a chemical equation for the mentioned
process.

(ii) Write three events that occur during this process.

11.(a) Write the reaction that occurs when glucose breaks down anaerobically in yeast.

(b) Write the mechanism by which fishes’ breath in water.

(c) Name the balloon likes structures present in lungs. List its two functions.

(d) Name the respiratory pigment and write its role in human beings.

12. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following parts on it:
(i) Right Renal Artery

(ii) Vena cava.

(iii) Urinary bladder

(iv) Left kidney

(b) List two vital functions of the kidney.

13. (a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.

(c) Draw excretory system in human being and label the following organs of excretory
system which perform following functions:

(i) form urine

(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from the kidney.

(iii) store urine until it is passed out.

14. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following:

(i) part in which urine is produced

(ii) part which stores the urine

(iii) part which connects (i) and (ii)

(iv) part from which urine is passed out.

(b) Name the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed along the tubular part of
the nephron depends on?

Case Based Questions:

Chronic kidney disease, or CKD, causes more deaths than breast cancer or prostate
cancer. It is an under-recognized public health crisis. It affects an estimated 37
million people in the U.S. and approximately 90% of those with a CKD don’t even
know they have it. CKD is the ninth leading cause of death in the U.S. Chronic
Kidney Disease means kidneys are damaged and losing their ability to keep you
healthy. In the early stages of the disease, most people do not have symptoms. But
as CKD gets worse , wastes can build up in blood and one gets sick. One may
develop other problems like high BP, Anaemia, Weak bones, Poor nutritional health
and nerve damage. Because kidneys are vital to so many of the body functions,
CKD also increases risk of having heart and blood vessel disease. While these
problems may happen slowly and without symptoms, they can lead to kidney failure,
which can appear without warning. Once kidneys fail, dialysis or a kidney transplant
is needed to stay alive. This stage of CKD is known as kidney failure, end-stage
kidney disease. The two main causes of CKD are diabetes and High BP.

a) What are the functions of kidneys in human beings? Give any two functions.
b) State two main causes of chronic kidney diseases.
c) What is an Artificial kidney?
d) Name the basic filtration unit of the kidney.

Chapter - Control and Coordination

Multiple choice questions:

Q1) What is the function of the pituitary gland?

(a) To develop sex organs in males

(b) To stimulate growth in all organs

(c) To regulate sugar and salt levels in the body

(d) To initiate metabolism in the body

Q2) Which of the following options shows the order of events correctly when a bright
light is focused on our eyes?

(a) Bright light → receptors in eyes → sensory neuronàspinal cord → motor neurons
→ eyelid closes

(b) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal cord → sensory neuron → motor
neurons → eyelid closes

(c) Bright light → receptors in eyes → sensory neuron → motor neurons → spinal
cord → eyelid closes

(d) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal cordà motor neurons → sensory
neuron → eyelid closes
Q3) A female is suffering from an irregular menstrual cycle. The doctor prescribed
her some hormonal tablets. Which option shows that the hormone she lacks in her
body is from the endocrine gland?

(a) Oestrogen

(b) Testosterone

(c) Adrenalin

(d) Thyroxin

Q4) When we touch the leaves of the “touch-me-not” plant, they begin to fold up and
droop. How does the plant communicate the information of touch?

(a) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from the external
environment to cells.

(b) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from cell to cell.

(c) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from tissue to
specialized cells.

(d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from cells to specialized
tissues.

Q5) How will information travel within a neuron?

(a) Dendrite -> cell body -> axon -> nerve ending

(b) Dendrite -> axon -> cell body -> nerve ending

(c) Axon -> dendrite -> cell body -> nerve ending

(d) Axon -> cell body -> dendrite -> nerve ending

Q6) Which parts of the brain control blood pressure?

(a) Spinal cord, skull, hypothalamus

(b) Cord, skull, cerebrum

(c) Pons, medulla, cerebellum

(d) Pons, medulla, pituitary

Q7) Organisms depend on hormones as well as electric impulses for the
transmission of signals from the brain to the rest of the body. What can be a likely
advantage of hormones over electric impulses?

(a) It is secreted by all types of cells present in the body.

(b) It is secreted by stimulated cells and reaches all cells of the body.

(c) It is relayed to the target organ faster than electric impulses.

(d) It does not depend on an external stimulus to be generated in the cells.

Q8) The image shows the structure of a neuron.

Which of the following options shows the mechanism of the traveling of sense in our
body after our nose senses a smell?

(a) Olfactory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve cell → axon → nerve ending →
release of the signal dendritic tip of another nerve cell

(b) Olfactory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve cell → axon → cell body → release of
signal → dendritic tip of other nerve cell

(c) Gustatory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve cell → cell body → axon → release of
the signal dendritic tip of another nerve cell

(d) Gustatory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve cell → axon → cell body → release of
the signal dendritic tip of another nerve cell
Assertion and Reason questions:

Q.1. Assertion(A) : Insulin regulates blood sugar level.

Reason (R) : Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes.

Q.2. Assertion(A) : Animals can react to stimuli in different ways.

Reason (R) : All animals have a nervous system and an endocrine system involving
hormones.

Q.3. Assertion(A): The effect of auxin hormone on the growth of the root is exactly
opposite to that on a stem.

Reason (R) : Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth in the root and decreases the
rate of growth in the stem.

Q.4. Assertion(A): A nerve impulse is an electrochemical event.

Reason (R) : In a nerve impulse there are changes in the resting potential which
spreads down the nerve fibre.

Q.5. Assertion(A) : The spinal nerves are 31 in number.

Reason (R) : Spinal nerves only have sensory neurons in them

Q.6. Assertion(A) : The brain is also known as the central nervous system.

Reason (R) : Central nervous system controls and regulates voluntary actions.

Q.7. Assertion(A): Cyton region of nerve fibre collects information for the brain.

Reason (R): Nerve fibres can either have or lack myelin sheath.

2 Mark Questions:

Q1) Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals.

Q2)Name the part of the brain that controls posture and balance of the body.Name the
fluid that is found between the meninges.

Q3) What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?

Q4) What happens at the synapse between two neurons?

Q5) What are plant hormones ?Mention the names of two growth promoting
hormones.

Q6) How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement
of a shoot towards light ?

Q7) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable ?

3 Mark Questions:

Q1) How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood ?

Q2) a. How does chemical coordination take place in animals ?

b. Why is the use of iodised salt advisable ?

Q3) How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support ? Give an example
of a plant hormone that promotes growth apart from auxin.

Q4) Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.(Explain with the help of a

diagram).

Q5) Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and
coordination in animals.

Q6) How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other ?

5 Mark Questions:

Q1) a. Which system is working when you start sweating during exercise ? What is its
function ?

b. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury ?

Q2) a. Identify and label the parts shown as A and B in the accompanying figure.

b. Name the hormone secreted by thyroid. What is the function ?

c. Why is the use of iodised salt advisable ?

Q3) 1. a. Name the parts labeled A and B in the neuron drawn above.

b. Which part acquires the information in the neuron ?

2. Which part acquires the information in the neuron ?

3. Through which part does the information travel ?

4. In what form does this information travel ?

5. Where is the impulse converted into a chemical signal for onward transmission ?

Q4) (a) What are plant hormones ? Give one example of a plant hormone that

1. promotes growth

2. inhibits growth.

3. promotes cell division

4. promotes the growth of a tendril around a support.

(b) Name the parts labeled A, B and C in the diagram given below. Write one function of
each part.

Q5) a. Name the nervous system which controls the functioning of internal organs. How
does this system work ?

b. Which system is working when you start sweating during exercise ? What is its
function ?

Case Study Based questions:

Read the case/passage and answer the questions given below.

Q1) Coordination is the process through which two or more organs interact and
complement the functions of one another. The neural system & endocrine system jointly
coordinate & regulate the physiological functions in the body. The neural system
provides an organized network of point-to-point connections for quick coordination. The
endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.

i). Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired?

(a) Adrenal (b) Testes (c) Pituitary (d) Ovary

ii). What is the correct direction of flow of electrical impulses ?

iii). Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of
secretion of

(a) oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary

(b) oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland

(c) testosterone from testes and oestrogen from ovary

(d) testosterone from thyroid gland and oestrogen from pituitary gland

iv). Any change in the environment to which an organism responds is called

(a) stimulus (b) coordination (c) response (d) hormone

Q2) To carry out a simple function such as eating food there has to be coordination of
the eyes, hands and the mouth. The eyes have to focus on the food, the hands have to
pick it up and take it to the mouth where it will be chewed. All these actions have to be
coordinated in such a manner that they follow a particular sequence and the action is
completed. A similar mechanism is also needed for internal functions of the body. This
function is carried out by the nervous system. It is composed of
(a) Specialized cells which can detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli.

These are called neurons.

(b) Nerve fibres which are certain bundles of extended processes of nerve cells.

The individuals also have to adjust to the changing conditions around them and vary
their responses. At the same time, the internal conditions of the body should be
maintained constant. This is called homeostasis. The internal conditions of the body are
maintained at a constant by controlling the physiology of the organisms.

(i) What will be the correct sequence in which conduction of information through nerves
takes place?

(ii) How is homeostasis said to maintain the equilibrium of the body?

(iii) What function does the central nervous system perform?

(iv) What happens when the dendrite tip of a nerve cell receives a signal?

Q3) All the living organisms (plants and animals) respond and react to changes in the
environment around them. The changes in the environment to which the organisms
respond and react are called stimuli (singular: stimulus). The living organisms show
response to stimuli such as light, heat, cold, sound, smell, taste, touch, pressure, pain,
water, and force of gravity, etc. The response of organisms to a stimulus is usually in the
form of some movement of their body parts. For example, if a man touches a very hot
utensil accidently, he quickly pulls his hand away from the hot utensil. Here, heat is the
stimulus and the man reacts by moving his hand away from the hot utensil. Similarly,
when the Sun is bright, we close our eyes. In this case, light is the stimulus and we
react by closing our eyes.
1.Humans respond to changes in their surrounding environment. The changes are
known as - a. Activity b. Stimuli c. Action d. Coordination

2. You close your eyes when your friend points the torchlight towards your eye. Which
sensory organ is involved?

a. Skin b. Eyes c. Nose d. Tongue

3. A baby cries when hears the thunder. What is the stimulus that is involved?

a. Smell b. Sound c. Taste d. Light

4. Based on the situation below, which situation shows humans respond to stimuli?

I- A boy pulls his hand when touching a hot object.

II- A girl is reading a book.

III- A girl closes her ear when hearing the thunder.

IV- A boy is walking to school.

a. I and III

b. I and IV

c. II and III
d.II and IV

5. A response is ____

a. A change in the environment that causes a reaction

b. Something you write on a test
c. A reaction to a change in the environment
d. The way plants communicate

Q4) The human brain is a 3- pound (1.4-kilogram) mass of jelly-like fats and
tissues—yet it's the most complex of all known living structures. The human brain is
more complex than any other known structure in the universe. Weighing in at three
pounds, on average, this spongy mass of fat and protein is made up of two overarching
types of cells—called glia and neurons— and it contains many billions of each. Neurons
are notable for their branch-like projections called axons and dendrites, which gather
and transmit electrochemical signals. Different types of glial cells provide physical
protection to neurons and help keep them, and the brain, healthy. Together, this
complex network of cells gives rise to every aspect of our shared humanity. We could
not breathe, play, love, or remember without the brain.

1. Animals such as elephants, dolphins, and whales actually have larger brains, but
humans have the most developed cerebrum. It's packed to capacity inside our skulls
and is highly folded. Why is our brain so highly folded?

2. Which among these is not a function of the cerebrum?

a) speech b) Learning c) Posture d) Emotion

3. Which among these protects our brain?

a) Neurotransmitter b) Cerebrospinal fluid c) Meninges d) Grey matter

i) a, b & c

ii) b & c

iii) c & d

iv) b,c&d

Q5) The cerebrum is the main thinking part of the brain. It is the site of our faculties
such as learning, reasoning, intelligence, personality ,memory and our thoughts,
sensations, actions and movements are controlled by the cerebrum. The cerebrum has
different areas for performing different functions. There are association areas in
cerebrum which control thinking and memory. These association areas also store
information and experiences There are sensory areas where information is received
from the sense organs like eyes, ears, nose, tongue and skin, and giHe us the
sensation or feeling Similarly, cerebrum has motor areas from which instructions are
sent to muscles to do various types of jobs. Now, answer the following questions?

1.State true or false? All the voluntary actions of the body are coordinated by the
cerebrum.

a.True b.False

2. State true or false? The cerebrum is also known as hindbrain.

a.True b.False

3. State true or false? The cerebrum receives sensory information through the receptors
of sense organs
a.True b.False

4. State true or false? Cerebrum has motor areas from which instructions are sent to
muscles to do various types of jobs.

a.True b.False

Chapter 8 : How do organisms reproduce?

Multiple choice questions:

Q1) Fruits are formed from the

a) Stamen

b) Stigma

c) Ovary

d) Ovule

Q2) Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to ……………………

a) Keep the individual organism alive

b) Fulfill their energy requirement

c) Maintain growth

d) Continue the species generation after generation

Q3) The male reproductive parts of a flower, the stamens, are collectively known as

a) Androecium

b) Filament
c) Anther

d) Gynoecium

Q4) Which of the following diseases is transmitted sexually?

a) Kala Azar

b) Jaundice

c) Cholera

d) Syphilis

Q5) IUCD is for

a) Vegetative propagation

b) Contraception

c) Increasing fertility

d) Avoiding miscarriage

Q6) Which among the following is not the function of the testes at puberty?

(i) Formation of germ cells

(ii) Secretion of testosterone

(iii) Development of placenta

(iv) Secretion of estrogen

a) (i) and(ii)

b) (ii) and(iii)

c) (iii) and(iv)

d) (i) and(iv)
Q7)The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for the transport of sperm is

a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra

b) Testis → ureter → urethra

c) Testis → urethra → ureter

d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter

Q8) What conclusion can be made about the division in plasmodium?

a) The cyst repeatedly divides to form many daughter cells.

b) The cell divides multiple times giving rise to many daughter cells.

c) The nucleus repeatedly divides inside the cell to form new daughter cells.

d) The cyst enlarges in size and then bursts, producing many new daughter cells.

Q9) The ratio of the number of chromosomes in a human zygote and a human sperm is

a) 2:1

b) 3:1

c) 1:2

d) 1:3

Q10) Which event will likely occur in the ovaries of females after attaining puberty?

a) Fertilization

b) Synthesis of eggs

c) Production of eggs

d) Growth and development of the embryo

Assertion - Reason
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

i) Assertion – Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are known as clones.

Reason – They are known as clones as they are genetically identical.

ii) Assertion - Vagina is also called a birth canal.

Reason - During the birth baby passes through the vagina

iii) Assertion - Vasectomy is a surgical method of birth control

Reason – In vasectomy, a small portion of the oviduct is cut or tied properly.

iv)Assertion – HIV – AIDS is a bacterial disease.

Reason - It is spread through sharing food and water .

v) Assertion - Pollen grains from the carpel stick to the stigma of stamen.

Reason - The fertilized egg cells grow inside the ovules and become seeds.

vi) Assertion -The offspring produced by sexual reproduction is likely to adjust better in
environmental fluctuation.

Reason - During the fusion of gametes there is mixing of genetic material from two parents.

vii) Assertion - Testes lie in penis outside the body.

Reason - Sperms require temperature lower than the body temperature for development

viii) Assertion - Spores are unicellular bodies.

Reason - The parent body simply breaks up into smaller pieces on maturation.

ix) Assertion - Asexual reproduction is a primitive type of reproduction.

Reason - Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic cell division.

x) Assertion - Colonies of yeast multiply in sugar solution.

Reason- Sugar is made of sucrose which provides energy for sustaining all life activities.

2 mark questions

i)Mention any two disadvantages of producing new plants by vegetative reproduction ?

ii) What is fertilization? Differentiate between internal and external fertilization.

iii) List two functions of the ovary of the female reproductive system?

iv) How can pregnancy be prevented surgically?

v )Write the differences between fission and fragmentation?

vi) List any two advantages of vegetative propagation?

vii) Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this
method sexual or asexual?

3 marks questions

i) List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction?

ii) What is meant by pollination?Name and differentiate between the two modes of
pollination in flowering plants?

iii) What changes take place in the uterus if fertilization takes place?

iv)What is placenta?Describe its structure . State its functions in case of a pregnant human
female?

v) Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of

species?

vi) What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the
reproduction process? How does the amount of DNA remain constant through each
new generation is a combination of DNA copies of two individuals?

vii) Draw labeled diagrams to illustrate budding in Hydra.

viii) Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction.
Which species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival – the one
reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually? Give reason to justify your
answer.

5 mark questions
Q1)Differentiate between the following:

a)pollen tube and style

b)Fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium

c)Fragmentation and Regeneration

d)Bud of Hydra and Bryophyllum

e)Vegetative propagation and spore formation

Q 2) Name the following

a)The body part in which the testes are present in a human male.

b)The part from where sperms are released out of the body.

c)The part of the female reproductive system containing a mature egg.

d)The accessory fluid in human males whose secretion activates the sperms.

e) The period of adolescence when the reproductive tissues begin to mature.

Q 3) Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. How is this process different from
reproduction?

Q 4) On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces, it was observed that many of
these pieces developed as new individuals. Name the process and list two organisms in
which this process may be observed. Draw a schematic diagram to illustrate the
changes that are likely to be observed during the development of new individuals in any
one of the organisms named.

Q.5) (a) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram , and write their functions.

(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms.

(c) Define the terms pollination and fertilization.

Q 6) Distinguish between unisexual and bisexual flowers giving one example of each.
Draw a diagram showing process of germination of pollen grains on stigma and label
the following parts :

(i) Female germ cell

(ii) Male germ cell

(iii) Ovary

Q 7) Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the part

(i) that produces eggs

(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place

(iii) where zygote is implanted.

What happens to a human egg when it is not fertilized?

Q 8) (a) Explain with the help of a diagram how pollen after landing on the stigma of a
flower helps male germ cell to reach the female germ cell. Label the following : ovary,
female germ cell, male germ cell and pollen grain.

(b) State the meaning of pollination and mention a distinguishing feature between
self-pollination and cross-pollination.

Q 9) (a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms
and secretes a hormone. Name the hormone secreted and state its function.

(b) Write the site of fertilization and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the
human female.

(c) State, in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mothers body.

Case based questions

Q1) After fertilization the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the
ovule.The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.The ovary
grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit .Meanwhile the petals,sepals,stamens,style and
stigma may shrivel and fall off.Have you ever observed any flower part still persisting in the
fruit?try and work out the advantages of seed formation for the plant.The seed contains the
future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions.This
process is known as germination.

i) Characters transmitted from parents to offsprings are present in-

a] cytoplasm b] ribosome c] Golgi bodies d] genes

ii) The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains
constant due to

a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation

b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation

c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation

d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation

iii) In a flower the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are

a) Stamen and anther

b) Filament and stigma

c) Anther and ovary

d) Stamen and style

iv) The development of seedling from an embryo under appropriate conditions is called

a) Regeneration

b) Germination

c) Vegetative propagation

d) Pollination

Q2) The male reproductive system consists of portions which produce the germ-cells
and other portions that deliver the germ-cells to the site of fertilization. Testes are
located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because sperm formation requires a
lower temperature than normal
body temperature. It also has a role of secretion of male sex hormone which brings
changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty. Vas deferens unites with a
tube coming from the urinary bladder. Urethra is a common passage for sperms and
urine. Prostate gland and seminal vesicles add their secretions so that sperms are now
in fluid.

(i) Name the sex hormone associated with males.

(a) Testosterone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Oestrogen
(d) None of these
(ii) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Sperms are present in a fluid
(b) Fluid provides nutrition to sperms
(c) Fluid makes easier transportation of sperms
(d) Fluid helps to bind the sperms together

(iii) Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because
(a) sperms formation requires higher temperature than body temperature
(b) sperms formation requires lower temperature than body temperature
(c) it is easier to transport sperms from the scrotum
(d) None of these

(iv) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Sperms and urine have a common passage from urethra.
(b) Sperms have a long tail that helps them to move forward.
(c) Sperms contain genetic material.
(d) Sperm formation requires 1–3°C higher temperature than normal body temperature.

(v) What is the nature of semen?

(a) slightly acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Slightly basic
(d) Strongly basic

Q 3) A newly married couple does not want to have children for a few years. They
consulted a doctor who advised them on the barrier method and the chemical method of
birth control. Yet another couple who already have two children and are middle aged
also consulted a doctor for some permanent solution to avoid unwanted pregnancy.
Doctor advised them to use a surgical method of birth control.

(i) What are the barrier methods of birth control?

(a) Condom (b) Diaphragm (c) Oral pills (d) Both (a) and (b)

(ii) How physical barriers prevent pregnancy?

(a) They kill the sperms

(b) They kill the ovum

(c) They prevent sperms from meeting the ovum

(d) They prevent intercourse

(iii) How chemical methods prevent pregnancy?

(a) Vaginal pills contain chemical called spermicides which kill the sperms

(b) Oral pills prevent ovulation so there will be no fertilization

(c) Oral pills stop menstruation in females

(d) Both (a) and (b)

(iv) Select the correct statement regarding the surgical method of birth control.

(a) It involves termination of pregnancies in women particularly after eight weeks of

conception

(b) Small portion of sperm duct or vas deferens in males is removed by surgical
operation and both cut ends are ligated properly

(c) Small portion of oviducts in females is removed by surgical operation and cut ends
are ligated

(d) Both (b) and (c)

(v) Select the correct statement regarding birth control methods.

(a) Barrier method of birth control also protects the couple from sexually transmitted
diseases
(b) Some women experience unpleasant side effects on taking oral pills because of
change in hormonal balance in body

(c) Surgical method in males is called vasectomy and in females is called tubectomy

(d) All of these

Q 4) X, Y and Z are three sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). X and Z are caused by
bacteria whereas Y is caused by virus P. Virus P lowers the immunity of a person and
leads to an incurable disease. X starts as painless sores on the genitals rectum or
mouth. Z causes painful urination and abnormal discharge from genitals.

(i) Select the option that correctly identifies disease X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

(a) AIDS Syphilis Gonorrhoea

Syphilis AIDS Gonorrhoea

Gonorrhoea Syphilis AIDS

Syphilis Gonorrhoea AIDS

(ii) Identify virus P from the given paragraph.

(a) Human papilloma virus

(b) Human adenovirus

(c) Human immunodeficiency virus

(d) Human cytomegalovirus

(iii) What are the symptoms of disease Y?

(a) Weight loss

(b) Fever or night sweats

(c) Fatigue and weakness infections

(d) All of these

(iv) Select the incorrect statement regarding diseases X and Y.

(a) Both X and Y can spread from infected mother to unborn baby during pregnancy

(b) Both X and Y can spread from infected partner to healthy partner by unprotected sex

(c) Y can also spread through use of contaminated needles and blood transfusion

(d) None of these.

(v) How can disease Y be prevented?

(a) By following polygamy and having protected sex

(b) Use of sterilized needles for injecting medicines, blood tests, etc

(c) Collecting blood from unknown donors without background check by blood bank
professionals

(d) All of these.

Chapter - Heredity

Assertion-Reasoning type questions:

1. Assertion: Monohybrid cross involves crossing over of one character and

interpreting its progeny.
Reason: Crossing over of Tall homozygous and Short homozygous pea plant is
called Monohybrid Cross.
2. Assertion: Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments.
Reason: Pea plant provides diverse visible traits and has a short life span.
3. Assertion: When heterozygous tall plants were self crossed, the result obtained were
both tall and short plants.
Reason: Heterozygous plants contain both dominant and recessive alleles.
4. Assertion: When TT and tt pea plant were crossed, only tall plants were obtained in
F1 progeny.
Reason: This was because Tall allele was dominant over the short allele.
5. Assertion: The term genetics was coined by Mendel.
Reason: Mendel gave the laws of dominance & segregation.
6. Assertion: If a cross is made between purple (PP) and white flowers (pp), it would
result in an all white flower progeny.
Reason: pp is the dominant gene.

1 Mark Questions:(VSA and MCQ)

1. What is the unit of inheritance in living organisms?

2.Which chromosomes are called autosomes?

3. What happens if DNA copying is not perfectly accurate?

4. What do you mean by dominant traits?

5. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes then the numbers of
chromosomes in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:
(a) 60

(b) 23

(c) 22

(d) 40

6. What will be the number of chromosomes present in each gamete produced by the plants if
the palisade cells of a species of plant contain 28 chromosomes in all?

(a) 56

(b) 28

(c) 14

(d) 4

7. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F1 generation of
pure-breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds.

Dominants trait Recessive trait No. of F2 offspring

Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524

From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained was:

(a) 1881

(b) 22572

(c) 2508

(d) 5643

8. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall
plants as:

(a) Tallness is the dominant trait

(b) Shortness is the dominant trait

(c) Tallness is the recessive trait

(d) Height of plant is not governed by gene t or t

9. In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired
chromosomes are:

(i) Large chromosome

(ii) Small chromosome

(iii) Y chromosome

(iv) X chromosome

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (iii) and (ii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

10. Which of the following determines the sex of a child?

(a) The length of the mother’s pregnancy

(b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation

(c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum

(d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm

2 Mark Questions:

1.How does Asexually Reproducing Organisms produce variations among their progeny?
Explain giving an example.

2. What are Mendelian Laws of Inheritance?

3. The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
mother.Justify.

4. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?

5. Define heredity. Write the sex of the baby that inherits Y-chromosome from the father.

6. Give two example where sex is determined by the environmental factors.

7. Define Genetics. What is the contribution of Mendel in the field of genetics?

3 Mark Questions:
1.A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant
denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flowers you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants
are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.

2. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plants with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plants
we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F2 generation,
then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of the F2 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F2 generation but appeared in F2 generation,
mentioning the reason for the same.

3. An individual cannot pass on to its progeny the experiences of its lifetime.” Justify the
statement with the help of an example and also give reason for the same.

5 Mark Questions:

1.Demonstrate with an example that traits may be dominant or recessive. Write down Mendel’s
law related to it.

2. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants denoted
by tt, Preeti obtained only tall plants denoted by Tt in the F1 generation. However, in the F2
generation she obtained both tall and short pea plants. Using the above information, explain the
law of dominance.

3. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the FI had all
white flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100
individuals, 75 of which had white flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(а) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?

4. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the F1 had all
purple flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100
individuals, 75 of which had purple flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(a) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?

5. A man who has four sons and one daughter believes that he produces more sperm with Y as
a chromosome. With suitable reasons, justify whether he is right or wrong in thinking this way.

6. Akshat and his wife have attached earlobe (recessive trait) and are professional dancers.
They told their colleagues that their offspring would also have attached earlobes and will be a
good dancer. Is their notion right? Support your answer with suitable reasons.
7. Ashima saw a female being blamed by the family members for producing a girl child. She
approached them and told that the genetic basis of sex determination of human beings clearly
indicates that only the female should not be blamed for producing a girl child. The family
members agreed to her argument and felt sorry for their act.
Based on the above answer the following questions:
(а) What is the basis of sex determination in human beings?
(b) What are the chances of the birth of a boy or a girl during sexual reproduction in human
beings?
(c) What values were shown by Ashima in dealing with the situation?

Chapter 15 : Our Environment

Q1 Assertion - Reason

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

i) Assertion- Aquariums are known as the man made ecosystems.

Reason - Aquariums are created and maintained by humans.

a) b) c) d) e)

ii) Assertion - Consumers are present at the first trophic level.

 Reason - Consumers or heterotrophs fix energy making it available for
autotrophs.

a) b) c) d) e)

iii) Assertion - Aquatic food chain is the food chain preent in water bodies

Reason - The example of aquatic food chain is

phytoplankton--------zooplankton-----------fish-------------- shark

a) b) c) d) e)

Q2 1 mark Questions

i) Which of the following belongs to the first trophic levels?

Grasshopper, rose plant, cockroach , vulture , neem plant

ii) List two items which can be easily recycled but we generally throw
them in dustbins?

iii) If a harmful chemical enters the food chain comprising snakes

,peacock, mice and plants, which of these organisms is likely to have the
maximum concentration of this chemical in its body?

iv) Why did United Nations act to control the production of CFCs used in
refrigerators?

Q3 3 mark Questions

i) We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned,

Why?

ii) Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional?

iii) Number of vultures is decreasing remarkably in recent years which has

become a matter of concern

a) Vultures belong to which category of animal?

b) What is their role in nature regarding the maintenance of ecological

balance?

c) Give the position of vultures occupy in a food chain.

 iv) How would you dispose the following wastes?

a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels?

b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans?

c) Plastic materials?

Q4 5 mark questions

i) Write in detail about garbage management?

ii) Suggest any five activites in daily life which are ecofriendly?

Q5 Case based Questions

All the organisms such as plants , animals , micro organisms and human beings
as well as the physical surroundings interact with each other and maintain a balance in
nature.All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non living constituents
of the environment form an ecosystem .Thus an ecosystem consists of biotic
components comprising physical factors like temperature , rainfall , wind , soil , and
minerals.

i) Replacing of plastic cups by the paper cups for selling tea on train is
preferred because

a) Paper cups are more aesthetic.

b) Paper cups are more hygienic.

c) Paper cups are cheaper.

d) Paper cups are more biodegradable and eco friendly.

ii) Flow of energy in ecosystem is ----------------

a) Unidirectional b) bidirectional
 c)Multidirectional d) no specific direction

iii) Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

a) Pond b) crop field

b) lake d) Forest

iv) Which of the following is not a functional component of an ecosystem?

a) Communities b) Decomposers

c) Sunlight d) Energy flow

Chapter 10 - Light: Reflection & Refraction

Q1: Assertion - Reason

For each question, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as
given below

i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.

ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

iii) A is true but R is false.

iv) A is false but R is true

1) Assertion: Concave lenses are used in peepholes.

Reason: Concave lenses form virtual and erect images.

2) Assertion: An object placed in front of a convex lens forms the image of the same size.
 Reason: Object is placed between the center of curvature and focus.

3) Assertion: Light traveling from air into a glass slab bends away from the normal.

Reason: Light moves faster in air than glass slab.

4) Assertion: A spherical lens has two foci, whereas spherical mirrors only have one.

Reason: A spherical lens causes refraction of light while a spherical mirror causes
reflection of light.

5) Assertion: Power of a concave lens is negative.

Reason: Focal length of concave lens is taken on the left hand side.

6) Assertion: Dentists use concave mirrors.

Reason: Concave mirrors are converging mirrors.

1 Mark Questions

1. How should a ray of light be incident on a rectangular glass slab so that it comes
out from the opposite side of the slab without being displaced?

2. Focal length of plane mirror is

a. At infinity
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. None of these

3. A ray of light traveling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend
towards or away from the normal ? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction
of light in this situation.

4. Write the difference between real image and virtual image.

 5. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens each have a focal length of -10 cm. The
mirror and the lens are likely to be

(a) both concave

(b) both convex

(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex

(d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave

2 Mark Questions

1. An object is placed at a distance of 30cm from a concave lens of focal length

15cm.List four Characteristics of image formed by lens.

2. What is understood as lateral displacement of light? Illustrate this with the help of a
diagram. List two factors on which the lateral displacement in a particular substance
depends.

3. A truck uses a convex mirror as a viewfinder whose radius of curvature is 2.0 m. A

maruti car is coming behind the truck at a distance of 10 m. What will be the position of
the image of the car and size of the image of the car when observed by the driver of the
truck through the convex mirror?

4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how the
temperature is achieved by this device.

5. The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3. List four information you
obtain from this statement about mirror/image?

6. A student has to perform an experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing
through a rectangular glass slab for three different angles of incidence. Two of his
friends suggest the following options to him:
 (A) Draw the incident rays corresponding to 20o , 50o and 70o as angles of incidence
and fix the two pins on the incident ray just 2 cm apart.

(B) Draw the incident rays corresponding to 30o , 45o and 60o as the angles of
incidence and fix two pins on the incident rays nearly 8 cm apart. Which is the better
option he should follow? Give reason in support of your answer.

7. A student obtained a sharp image of a lighted candle on a screen using a convex

lens. Now he wants to focus a distant lamp on a far away electric pole. In which
direction should the lens be move for this purpose with respect to the screen, to get a
sharp image on the screen? Justify your answer.

8. A ray of light enters into benzene from air. If the refractive index of benzene is 1.50,
by what percent does the speed of light reduce on entering the benzene?

3 Mark Questions

1. Answer below questions -

a) What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?

b) State and define the S.I. unit of power of a lens.

c) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length

10 cm are placed in close contact with each other. Calculate the lens
power of this combination.

2. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to vacuum are 3/2 and 4/3
respectively. If the speed of light in glass is 2 x 10^8 m/s, find the speed of light in
vacuum and water.

3. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30cm from a mirror is formed on
a screen placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 60cm from its pole. What is the
nature of the mirror? Find its focal length. If the height of flame is 2.4 cm. Find the
height of the image. State whether formed is erect or inverted.

4. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length

10 cm. Draw the ray diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image
formed.
5. A spherical mirror produces a magnification of -1, on a screen placed at a distance
of 50cm from the mirror.

a) Write the type of the mirror.

b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

6. Rohit focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He
noted down the position of the candle , screen and lens as under :

Position of candle = 26.0 cm

Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm

Position of screen = 74.0 cm

i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?

ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position
of 38 cm?

iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (ii) as said above?

Q7. Absolute refractive indices of two media P and Q are 1.33 (nP) and 2.52 (nQ)
respectively. The speed of light in medium P is 2 x 108 m/s. (a) What would be the
speed of light in medium Q (VQ)?

(b) If the angle of incidence for a ray of light travelling from medium P to Q is 0°, then
what will be the path of light in the medium Q

5 Mark Questions

1. A spherical mirror produces a magnification of -1, on a screen placed at a distance of

50cm from the mirror.
a) Write the type of the mirror.
b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
 2. (а) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image of an object placed between
infinity and the optical centre of a concave lens.

(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate-

(i) the distance of the object from the lens.

(ii) the magnification for the image formed.

(iii) the nature of the image formed.

3.(i) Which property of concave mirror is utilized for using them as shaving mirrors?

(ii) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. Using
proper ray diagram, explain in what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differs
with respect to the incident beam of light.

(iii) A concave lens has a focal length of 50 cm. Calculate its power.

4. (i) A lens produces a magnification of -0.5. Is this a converging or diverging lens? If the focal
length of the lens is 6 cm, draw a ray diagram showing the image formation in this case.

(ii) A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by directing it from different
directions on a convex lens held vertically. She was surprised to see that in a particular
direction, the beam of light continues to move along the same direction after passing through
the lens. State the reason for her observation. Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.

5. (i) On entering in a medium from air, the speed of light becomes half of its value in air. Find
the refractive index of that medium with respect to air?

(ii) A glass slab made of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index
n2. A light ray is incident on the slab. Draw the path of the rays of light emerging from the glass
slab, if (i) n1> n2 (ii) n1 = n2 (iii) n1< n2

(a) What color(s) will be seen on the screen?

(b) Copy the diagram above and draw the beam entering Prism 1 and emerging from Prism 3
and falling on the screen.

(c) Name all the processes that takes place when the beam of light enters the Prism 1 and
emerges from Prism 3.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. An object at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The
focal length of the mirror is

(a) – 30 cm

(b) 30 cm

(c) – 15 cm

(d) +15 cm

2.A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ by

(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 0

3.The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value of i is

(a) 0°

(b) 45°

(c) 90°

(d) depend on the material of the slab

4.You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in
which the light will travel fastest is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) equal in all three media

5. Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be

(a) a zebra of black stripes

(b) a horse of black stripes

(c) a horse of less brightness

(d) a zebra of less brightness

6.When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed by it shift

(a) away from the lens

(b) towards the lens

(c) first towards and then away from the lens

(d) first away and then towards the lens

7.When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it, shift :

(a) away from the lens on the same side of object

(b) toward the lens

(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens

(d) first towards and then away from the lens

8.The laws of reflection hold good for

(a) plane mirror only

(b) concave mirror only

(c) convex mirror only

(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape

9. Light from the Sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called

(a) centre of curvature

(b) focus

(c) radius of curvature

(d) optical centre

10. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed

(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector

(b) very near to the focus of the reflector

(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector

(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector

11. Four students A,B,C and D did their experiment of finding the focal length of convex lens by
obtaining image of a distant object as follows:

i) Student A used the window grill in the laboratory as the object and a white paper sheet held in
hand as the screen.

ii) Student B used a distant tree in the shade and a white thick held in a stand as the screen.

iii) Student C used a well illuminated laboratory window grill as the object and a white paper
sheet held in a stand as the screen.

iv) Student D used a well illuminated distant tree as the object and a white thick board held in a
stand as the screen.

12. To trace the path of ray of light through the triangular glass prism, a student observes that
the emergent ray has

(a) bent away from the base of the prism

(b) bent towards the base of the prism

(c ) moved parallel to the direction of incident ray

(d) gone perpendicular to incident ray.

13. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?

A. Concave mirror as well as convex lens.

B. Convex mirror as well as concave lens.

C. Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each others.

D. Concave mirror as well as concave lens.

14. Consider these indices of refraction: glass: 1.52; air: 1.0003; water: 1.333. Based on the
refractive indices of three materials, arrange the speed of light through them in decreasing
order.

A. The speed of light in water > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in glass.

B. The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in air.

C. The speed of light in air > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in glass.

D. The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in water.
Q15. If a beam of red light and a beam of violet light are incident at the same angle on the
inclined surface of a prism from air medium and produce angles of refraction r and v
respectively, which of the following is correct?

A. r = v

B. r > v

C. r = 1/v

D. r < v

Case study Based Questions

Q1. We can see when the pencil immersed in water it appears like bent at the water air
interface. Also, the letters appears to be raised when we will see that letters through a glass
slab placed over it. If the media used are different that means the bending of light is
different in different media. And hence we can say that the light does not travel along a
straight line path through different media. According to the velocity of light in that medium
the bending of light takes place. Thus, we can say the phenomenon in which light ray bends
or changes its direction when traveling from one medium to other is called as refraction of
light. And also we can observed that if the ray of light is traveling from rarer medium to
denser medium it bends towards the normal whereas when the ray of light travels from
denser medium to rarer medium it bends away from the normal. And the extent of bending
of light in a particular medium depends on the refractive index of the medium mostly. More
the refractive index more is the bending or denser is the medium and less will be the
velocity of light in that medium.

If less is the refractive index then less will be the bending or medium is rarer and velocity of
light will be more in that medium. Like the refractive index of air is found to be 1.0003 and
that of water is found to be 1.33. And hence water is more denser than air, air is rarer
medium as compared to water. Thus, velocity of light in air medium is greater than velocity
of light in water medium.

The absolute refractive index of the medium is given by

Absolute Refractive index= (speed of light in air)/(speed of light in medium) = c/v

Thus, for different media refractive index is different and accordingly the velocity of light is
also different.

1) If the refractive indices of glass and ice are 1.52 and 1.31 respectively. Then in which
medium the velocity of light is more? What it’s value?

( Velocity of light in air= 3*108 m/s)

2) How you can define rarer and denser medium on the basis of optical density?

3) If the Refractive index of diamond is found to be highest i.e. 2.42 then what it indicates?
4) What will happen if we took a glass filled with kerosene instead of water? What would be
the observations?

Q 2.We have, the object distance is the distance of the object from the pole of the mirror. And
we always know that object is placed in front of mirror that means on left side and hence object
distance u is always taken as negative. The distance of the image from the pole of the mirror is
taken as image distance. The image distance may be positive or negative on the basis of nature
of image formed. And the distance of principal focus from the pole is called as focal length of the
mirror. Thus, the relationship between the object distance u, image distance v and focal length f
is given by mirror formula.

Thus,

Mirror formula:

1/v + 1/u = 1/f

And magnification in case of mirror gives the extent to which the image is magnified as
compared to object size. Magnification is given by the ratio of height of image (h’) to the height
of object (h).

Thus, magnification = (height of image)/(height of object)

Thus, m = h’/h

Also, in terms of object distance and image distance magnification is given by,

Magnification m = h’/h = -v/u

As we know that, image height is positive if the image formed is virtual while height of image is
negative for real images.

Similarly in case of lenses, lens formula is given by

1/v – 1/u = 1/f

And magnification in case of lenses is given by

Magnification m = h’/h = v/u

The power of a lens depends on the focal length of the lens and it is the ability of the lens to
diverge or converge the number of rays incident on it. Also, power of lens is defined as the
reciprocal of focal length of the lens.

Thus, P = 1/f

Questions:

1) If the focal length of the lens is measured in meter what will be the unit of power of lens?

2) What is the sign of power of convex and concave lens?

3) If the lenses placed in contact with powers P1, P2, P3, P4 are used then what is the net
power of the lens system?

4) If the magnification produced is negative and positive in case of mirrors then what about
the nature of images formed there?

Q3. When the rays of light travels from one transparent medium to another,
the path of light is deviated. This phenomena is called refraction of light. The
bending of light depends on the optical density of medium through which the
light pass.

The speed of light varies from medium to medium. A medium in which the
speed of light is more is optically rarer medium whereas in which the speed
of light is less is optically denser medium. Whenever light goes from one
medium to another, the frequency of light does not change however, speed
and wavelength change. It concluded that change in speed of light is the
basic cause of refraction.
(i) When light travels from air to glass, the ray of light bends

(a) towards the normal (b) away from normal

(c) anywhere (d) none of these

(ii) A ray of light passes from a medium A to another medium B. No bending

of light occurs if the ray of light hits the boundary of medium B at an angle of

(a) 0° (b) 45°

(c) 90° (d) 120°

(iii) When light passes from one medium to another, the frequency of light

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains same (d) none of these

(iv) When light passes from glass to water, the speed of light

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains same (d) first increases then

decrease

(v) The bottom of pool filled with water appears to be ______ due to
refraction of light

(a) shallower (b) deeper

(c) at same depth (d) empty

Q 4.The relation between distance of an object from the mirror (u), distance of image from the
mirror (v) and the focal length (F) is called mirror formula. This formula is valid in all situations
for all spherical mirrors for all positions of the object. The size of image formed by a spherical
mirror depends on the position of the object from the mirror. The image formed by a spherical
mirror can be bigger than the object, equal to the object or smaller than the object. The size of
the image relative to the object is given by the linear magnification (m). Thus, the magnification
is given by the ratio of height of image to the height of object. If magnification is negative, image
is real and if it is positive, image is virtual.
(i) What is the position of an image when an object is placed at a distance of 20 em from a
concave mirror of

focal length 20 cm?

(a) 5 cm (b) 20 cm

(c) 10 cm (d) infinity

(ii) If the magnification of an image is -2, the characteristic of image will be

(a) real and inverted (b) virtual and enlarged

(c) virtual and inverted (d) real and small

(iii) The mirror formula holds for

(a) concave mirror (b) convex mirror

(c) plane mirror (d) all of these

(iv) A parallel beam of light is made to fall on a concave mirror. An image is formed at a distance
of 7.5 from the mirror. The focal length of the mirror is

(a) 15 cm (b) 7.5 cm

(c) 3.75 cm (d) 10 cm

Q 5.Mrs Vincent, grade 5 teacher, finds that her students do not draw when she draws on the
board. Every time she had to turn towards them to see whether they draw and label the
diagrams. John, one of her students, fixed two big mirrors at the two sides of the black board.
With this Mrs. Vincent was able to draw and also supervise her students through the mirror. All
the students did their work properly.

1.Which type of mirrors are fixed by John ?

2.State the nature and size of the image formed?

3.Write two uses of such a mirror to put and why?

4. A full length image of a distant building can be definitely be seen using

(a). concave mirror

(b). convex mirror

(c). plane mirror

(d). both concave as well as plane mirror

Chapter 13 - Magnetic effects of electric current

Q.1. The magnetic field lines in the middle of the current carrying solenoid are

(a) circles

(b) spirals

(c) parallel to the axis of the tube

(d) perpendicular to the axis of the tube

Q2.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines?

(a) The direction of the magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the
north pole of a magnetic compass needle points.

(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves

(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field
lines

Q3.The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is

the largest when the angle between the conductor and the magnetic field is:

(a) 45

(b) 60

(c) 90

(d) 180

Q4.A student places some iron fillings around a magnet.The iron fillings
arrangethemselves as shown in image.The student labelled four different regions
around the magnet. Where would be the magnetic field the strongest?

(A) S

(B) R

(C) Q

(D) P

Q5.A light bar magnet is suspended near a current carrying wire as shown below. What
will happen to the light bar magnet?

A) It will rotate in a clockwise direction.

B) It will rotate in an anti-clockwise direction.

C) It will move to the right side.

D) It will move to the left side.

Q6.Who has stated the right hand thumb rule?

A)Oersted

B)Einstein

C)Fleming

D)Maxwell

Q7. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near along straight
current carrying wire?

(A)The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.

(B)The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.

(C)The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.

(D)The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

Q8.The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-
circuiting or Overloading is

(a) earthing

(b) use of stabilisers

(c) use of fuse

(d) use of electric metre

Q9.The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is :

(A) More at the ends than at the centre

(B) Minimum in the middle

(C) Same at all points

(D) Found to increase from one end to the other

Q10.Switches are connected to

(a) live wire.

(b) neutral wire.

(c) earth wire.

(d) anyone.
Q11.No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it is placed-
(A) Perpendicular to the magnetic field

(B) Parallel to the magnetic Field

(C ) Far away from the magnetic field

(D) Inside a magnetic field

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given by the

corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Q12. Assertion(A : The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a
current carrying solenoid is inversely proportional to the current flowing through the
solenoid.

Reason : The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current

carrying solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns per

unit length of a solenoid.

Q13. Assertion: Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.

Reason: There cannot be two directions of the magnetic field at a point.

Q14. Assertion: Magnetic field can be created using a solenoid.

Reason: The strength of the magnetic field will depend on the number of turns of the
solenoid.

Q15.Assertion : The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current
carrying circular coil increases on increasing the radius of the circular coil.

Reason : Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular
coil..

Q16.Assertion : On freely suspending a current-carrying solenoid, it comes to rest in

N-S direction just like a bar magnet.

Reason : One end of current carrying straight solenoid behaves as a North pole and
the other end as a South pole.

SECTION–B

1 mark questions

Q17. What is meant by a magnetic field?

Q18. How is the direction of the magnetic field at a point determined?

Q19. Why are magnetic field lines closed curves?

Q20. Mention the shape of the magnetic field lines around a current-carrying straight
conductor.

Q21. Differentiate between bar magnet and electromagnet.

Q22. Name the rule which gives the direction of current in a conductor.

Q23. State the rule which is used to find the direction of force in a current carrying
conductor..

Q24. List two sources of magnetic fields.

Q25. Define the term ‘induced current’.

Q26. When a current-carrying conductor is kept in a magnetic field, state the position
when maximum force acts on it.

Q27. State the conclusions that can be drawn from the observation that a
current-carrying wire deflects a magnetic needle placed near it.
Q28. Mention the angle between a current-carrying conductor and magnetic field for
which the force experienced by this current-carrying conductor placed in the magnetic
field is largest.

Q29.Name some sources of direct current and alternating current.

Q30. What does the crowding of magnetic field lines indicate?

Q31.Why are magnetic field lines more crowded towards the pole of a magnet?

SECTION B

2 mark QUESTIONS

Q32. How does the strength of magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor
depend upon

(i) distance from-the conductor?

(ii) current flowing through the conductor?

Q33.Define alternating current and direct current. Explain why alternating current is
preferred over direct current for transmission over long distances.

Q34. What does the magnetic field pattern inside the solenoid indicate? State how this
field can be utilized to make an electromagnet. List two ways by which strength of this
magnet can be increased.

Q35. Explain briefly two different ways to induce current in a coil. State the rule which
determines the direction of induced current.

Q36 Explain whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if:

(i) It is placed in the field at rest.

(ii) It moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.

(iii) It moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines.

Q37. How would the strength of magnetic field due to current carrying loop be affected
if:

(i) Radius of the loop is reduced to half its original value.

(ii) Strength of current through the loop is doubled.

Q38.A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation
for the following cases, and give reason for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is
displaced away from the wire.

Q39.How will the direction of force be changed, if the current is reversed in the
conductor placed in a magnetic field ?

SECTION C

3 MARKS

Q39. The flow of current in a circular wire creates a magnetic field at its center. How can
the existence of this field be detected? State the rule which helps to predict the direction
of the magnetic field.

Q40. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the
Figure. What are the directions of magnetic fields produced by it at points P and Q?
Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?

Q41. A circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the paper. Let the current pass through
the loop clockwise. With the help of a diagram, explain how the direction of the
magnetic field can be determined inside and outside the loop. Name the law used to
find the direction of the magnetic field.

Q42.Give reason for the following :

a.The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating.

b.It is dangerous to touch the live wire of the main supply rather than neutral wire.

c. Using a fuse in a household electric circuit is important.

Q43. Consider a circular wire lying in the plane of the table and the direction of current
in it is anticlockwise -

(a) Draw the magnetic field line produced around it

(b) Why does the magnetic field at the center of the current carrying loop appear
straight. Explain?

Q44.Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a statement
that the magnetic field at ‘A’ is stronger than at ‘B’. Justify this statement. Also redraw
the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.

Q45.For the same current flowing through a solenoid and a straight conductor, the
magnetic field produced by a solenoid is much stronger than the magnetic field
produced by a straight current carrying conductor. State one reason to justify this
statement.

5 MARK QUESTION

Q46. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram the distribution of a magnetic field due
to a current through a circular loop. Why is it that if a current carrying loop has n turns
the field produced at any point is n times as large as that produced by a single turn?

Q47. (i) How does the strength of the magnetic field due to the current carrying
conductor depend upon the current flowing and distance from the conductor?
Q48. α-particles are positively charged particles. State whether an a-particle will
experience any force in a magnetic field, if

(a) it is placed in a field at rest.

(b) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.

(c) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to the field lines. Justify your
answer in each case.

Q49. A current carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field of the
horse-shoe magnet. The conductor is displaced upward. What will happen to the
displacement of the conductor if-

(a) current in the conductor is increased

(b) a horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another stronger horse-shoe magnet and
(c) the length of the conductor is increased.

Case study based question

Q50. In the birthday party of Bharat, a class 7 student, his parents gave big slinky to all
his friends as return gifts. The next day, during physics class Mr. Mohan, the teacher,
explained to them about the production of magnetic fields using current carrying coils
and also said that they can make permanent magnets, using such coils by passing high
currents through them. That night Sumanth,a friend of Bharat, asked his father about
the coils, and their shape. His father asked him to bring the slinky that his friend gave
and explained the uses of solenoid.

a. What type of magnetic field is developed inside a solenoid? Which rule is used to
determine the polarity of a solenoid ?

b. How does the magnetic field developed by a bar magnet different from solenoid?

c. What will happen if the distance between two consecutive turns of slinky is
increased?

d. How can the magnetic field produced in a solenoid be increased?

Q51.The change in electric current through the circuit produces a magnetic field around
it. Magnetic field is a vector quantity which has both magnitude as well as direction. The
magnetic field lines produced are directed from the north pole and end at the south
pole. These lines are closed curves from which strength of the magnetic field is
determined. Where magnetic field lines are crowded magnetic field is stronger and
where very apart the strength of magnetic field is weak. So, we can say that as the
current through the electrical circuit increases then the magnitude of the magnetic field
also increases. If a current carrying conductor is holded in the right hand by curling
fingers around it. Then, the thumb gives the direction of electric current and curled
fingers gives the direction of magnetic field.

As the magnitude of the magnetic field depends on the current through it. Also, if the
number of turns of wire in a circuit is more then also the magnitude of magnetic field is
more. If a coil having many circular turns of insulated copper wire wound closely to form
a cylindrical shape is called a solenoid. Solenoid is used to produce a strong magnetic
field which can be used to magnetise the piece of magnetic material. And hence they
are used in making electromagnet mainly.

Questions:

1) What is the nature of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid?

2) For what right hand thumb rule is used?

3) What are the properties of magnetic poles?

4) How can you determine the north pole of a current carryting solenoid?

Q52.The domestic electric circuit consists of a red insulated cover called as live wire,
wire with black insulation called neutral wire and the wire with green insulation is called
Earth wire. We know that the fuse is connected in series with the circuit to prevent the
damaging of electrical appliances and circuit from overloading. Overloading occurs
when live wire and the neutral wire come in direct contact with each other. Because of
which current through the circuit increases suddenly. Also, overloading may occur
because of connecting many appliances to a single socket. The Earth wire which is
green in colour is connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This type
of safety measure is used in appliances like electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator
etc. The Earth wire gives a low resistance conducting path for the electric current. In this
way it protects us from severe electric shock.

All the appliances are connected in a parallel circuit so that the potential difference
across each appliance will be the same.

Questions:

1) What are the signs of live wire and neutral wire?

2) In our country what is the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire?

3) What is short circuiting?

4) What is the main purpose of using a fuse in an electric circuit?

 Q53..Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite
force on a current carrying conductor, which was experimentally found to be true. But
we know that current is due to charges in motion. Thus, it is clear that a charge moving
in a magnetic field experiences a force, except when it is moving in a direction parallel
to it. If the direction of motion is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the
magnitude of force experienced depends on the charge, velocity (v) , strength of
magnetic field(B), and sine of the angle between v and B.

Questions

1.Write the statement of the rule to find out the direction of force.

2.What is the S.I unit of Magnetic field.

3.Define S.I unit of magnetic field.

4.List two properties of magnetic field lines

Chapter :- Life Processes

MCQ:-
1. The chlorophyll in photosynthesis is used for
I. Absorbing light
II. Breaking down water molecule
III. No function
IV. Reduction of CO2
2. Proteins after digestion are converted into
I. Carbohydrates
II. Small globules
III. Amino acids
IV. starch
3. Carbohydrates in the plants are stored in the form of
I. Glycogen
II. Starch
III. Glucose
IV. Maltose
4. Main site of photosynthesis
I. Leaf
II. Stem
III. Chloroplast
IV. Guard cells
5. The small pores present of leaf’s surface are called
I. Stomata
 II. Chlorophyll
III. Guard cells
IV. None of these
6. Photosynthesis is a
I. Catabolic process
II. Parabolic process
III. Amphibolic process
IV. Photochemical lprocess
7. Opening and closing of pores is a function performed by
I. Stomata
II. Chlorophyll
III. Chloroplast
IV. Guard cells
8. Which element is used in the synthesis of proteins?
I. Hydrogen
II. Oxygen
III. Nitrogen
IV. Carbon dioxide
9. Temporary finger like extensions on amoeba are called
I. Cell membrane
II. Cell wall
III. Pseudopodia
IV. Cilia
10. Bile juice is secreted by
I. Stomach
II. Pancreas
III. Small intestine
IV. Liver
11. Which of these juices is secreted by pancreas?
I. Trypsin
II. Pepsin
III. Bile juice
IV. Both I and II
12. Lipase acts on
I. Amino acids
II. Fats
III. Carbohydrates
IV. All of these
13. Respiratory pigment in human body is
I. Chlorophyll
II. Water
III. Blood
IV. haemoglobin
14. Blood consist of what fluid medium?
 I. Lymph
II. Platelets
III. Plasma
IV. All of these
15. One cell-thick vessels are called
I. Arteries
II. Veins
III. Capillaries
IV. Pulmonary artery

Short Answers.
1. Name the following
(a) The process in plants that links light energy with chemical energy
(b) Organisms that can prepare their own food
(c) The cell organelle where photosynthesis occurs
(d) Cells that surround a stomatal pore
(e) Organisms that cannot prepare their own food
(f) An enzyme secreted from gastric glands in stomach that acts on proteins.

2. “All plants give out oxygen during day and carbon dioxide during night”. Do
you agree with this statement? Give reason.
3. How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
4. Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in the
dark and the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer? Give
reasons.
5. If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day,
does it mean that there is no photosynthesis occurring? Justify your
answer.
6. Why do fishes die when taken out of water?
7. Differentiate between an autotroph and a heterotroph
8. Is ‘nutrition’ a necessity for an organism? Discuss.
9. What would happen if green plants disappear from earth?
10. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this
plant remain healthy for long? Give reasons for your answer
11.How does aerobic respiration differ from anaerobic respiration?
12. Differentiate between an artery and a vein.
13. What are the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis?
14. Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
15. What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands?
16. What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
17. What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
 18. Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small
intestine?
19. Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in
terrestrial organisms?
20. Why is blood circulation in human heart called double circulation?
21. What is the advantage of having four chambered heart?
22. Mention the major events during photosynthesis
23. In each of the following situations what happens to the rate of
photosynthesis?
(a) Cloudy days (b) No rainfall in the area (c) Good manuring in the area
(d) Stomata get blocked due to dust
24 . Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where is it
produced?

Long Answer Questions

1. Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
2. Describe the alimentary canal of man.
3. Explain the process of breathing in man.
4. Explain the importance of soil for plant growth.
5. Draw the diagram of the alimentary canal of man and label the following
parts. Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestine
6. How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings?
7. Explain the mechanism of photosynthesis.
8. Explain the three pathways of breakdown in living organisms.
9. Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings.
10. Describe the process of urine formation in kidneys.

Heredity
1. Exchange of genetic material takes place in
(a) vegetative reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) budding
2. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white
flower progeny. The nature of the cross will be
(a) double fertilisation
(b) self pollination
(c) cross fertilisation
(d) no fertilisation
3. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in
progeny that were all tall plants because
(a) tallness is the dominant trait
(b) shortness is the dominant trait
(c) tallness is the recessive trait
(d) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene
5. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow
seeded pea plant, (rr YY) the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
6. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one.
This/these unpaired chromosome is/are (i) large chromosome (ii) small
chromosome (iii) Y-chromosome (iv) X-chromosome
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
7. The maleness of a child is determined by
(a) the X chromosome in the zygote
(b) the Y chromosome in zygote
(c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex
(d) sex is determined by chance
8. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will
develop into a
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
9. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with
wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow
(RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny will have new
combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following
(i) Round, yellow (ii) Round, green (iii) Wrinkled, yellow (iv) Wrinkled, green
 (a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
10. Select the correct statement
(a) Tendril of a pea plant and phylloclade of Opuntia are homologous (b)
Tendril of a pea plant and phylloclade of Opuntia are analogous
(c) Wings of birds and limbs of lizards are analogous
(d) Wings of birds and wings of bat are homologous

Long Answer Questions .

1. Differentiate between inherited and acquired characters. Give one
example for each type
2. Give reasons why acquired characters are not inherited.
3. In the following crosses write the characteristics of the progeny

4. Study the following cross and showing self pollination in F1 , fill in

the blank and answer the question that follow

5. Give reasons for the appearance of new combinations of characters

in the F2 progeny.

Short Answer Questions

1. How is the sex of a newborn determined in humans?
2. Do genetic combinations of mothers play a significant role in
determining the sex of a newborn?
3. Why do all the gametes formed in human females have an X
chromosome?
 4. In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a
male or female child is 50 : 50. Give a suitable explanation.
5. Give the pair of contrasting traits of the following characters in
pea plant and mention which is dominant and recessive
(i) yellow seed
(ii) round seed
6. Why did Mendel choose a pea plant for his experiments?

Chapter 11 : Human Eye And The Colourful world

Assertion - Reason :

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

Q1. Assertion : Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle headlights and
searchlights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror the image
formed is real and inverted

Q2. Assertion : The light emerges from parallel sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with that in which it enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of the incident ray and emergent
ray coming out of the glass slab is called lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light.

Q3. Assertion : When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the surface , the
pencil appears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it passes from
water to air.

1 mark Questions

Q4. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of

light visible?

Q5. Why does the sun appear red

at sunrise?
Q6. What is the Tyndall effect?

Q7. Give an example of optical phenomena which occurs in nature due to

atmospheric refraction.

Q8. Give an example of a phenomenon where the Tyndall effect can be observed.

Q9. Name the type of particles which acts as a prism in the formation of a rainbow in the
sky.

Q10..What is the cause of dispersion of white light on passing through a prism?

Q11.Name the atmospheric phenomenon due to which the sun can be seen above the
horizon about two minutes before actual sunrise.

Q12. Why is red selected for danger signal lights?

Q13. Why do different components of white light deviate through different angles when
passing through a triangular glass prism?

Q14. What will be the color of the sky, when it is observed from a place in the absence of
any atmosphere? Why?

Q15. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?

a. Reflection, refraction and dispersion

b. Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

c. Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

d.Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

Q16. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

e. dispersion of light by water droplets

f. refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
g. scattering of light by dust particles
h. internal reflection of light by clouds

Q17. The clear sky appears blue because

e. blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere

f. ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
g. violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other

colors by the atmosphere

 h. light of all other colors is scattered more than
the violet and blue color lights by the atmosphere

Q18. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of

light of different colors of white light in air?

e. Red light moves fastest

f. Blue light moves faster than green light
g. All the colors of the white light move with the same speed
h. Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and

the violet light

Q19. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in color. These can be
easily seen from a distance because among all other colors, the red light

(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog

(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog

(d) moves fastest in air

Q20. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish

appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

(a) Dispersion of light

(b) Scattering of light

(c) Total internal reflection of light

(d) Reflection of light from the earth

Q21. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to

e. the presence of algae and other plants found in water

f. reflection of sky in water
g. scattering of light
h. absorption of light by the sea
 2, 3 Marks Questions

Q22. What is meant by spectrum of white light? How can we recombine the components
of white light after a prism has separated them? Draw a diagram to illustrate it.

Q23. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky.
Illustrate it with the help of a labelled diagram.

Q24. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism.
Mark on it (a) the incident ray. (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of
deviation.

Q25. Why does sun appear reddish at sunrise? Explain the help of a labelled
diagram.

5 marks Questions

Q26. (a) What is dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show the dispersion
of white light by a glass prism.

(b) A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes
through it but a glass slab does not produce any spectrum. Explain why is it
so?

Q27.

(a) What colour(s) will be seen on the screen?

(b) Copy the diagram above and draw the beam entering Prism 1 and emerging from Prism 3
and falling on the screen.
(c) Name all the processes that takes place when the beam of light enters the Prism 1 and
emerges from Prism 3.

Q1. There are various natural phenomena associated with light. Refraction of light is the
phenomenon in which when light travels from one transparent medium to another
transparent medium it changes its direction. The change in direction of light is due to the
change in velocity of light in different media. And hence the path of the light also changes in
different media. In case of refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab we must
observe that the incident ray and the emergent ray are parallel to each other. We can see
the pencil immersed in water as bent at the water air interface only because of the refraction
of light. Again the second phenomenon is dispersion of light in which white light when
passed through the prism splits into seven coloured spectrum. And these seven colors are
VIBGYOR. We can see here the angle of deviation is different for different colors because
different wavelengths of different colors. Also, Newton observed that when the second prism
is placed inverted to the first prism the white light incident on the first prism will come out as
white light only when it emerges from the second prism. The phenomenon of formation is
also because of the dispersion of light. In that case the tiny water droplets acts as prisms.
But most importantly, the refraction of light occurs only because of the change in refractive
index of medium. The twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of light.

Questions:

1) Rainbow formation takes place because of which phenomenon is related to light?

2) What is meant by total internal reflection?

3) Why does atmospheric refraction occur?

4) For which color the angle of deviation is more in case of dispersion?

Q2. Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing

through earth’s atmosphere. As we move above the surface of earth, density
of air goes on decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also affect
the optical density of earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric
refraction, stars seen appear higher than they actually are; advanced sunrise;
delayed sunset, oval appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset; stars
twinkle, planets do not.
(i) Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) all of these
(ii) Apparent position of the star appears raised due to
(a) atmospheric refraction
(b) scattering of light
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

(iii) The sun appears oval shaped or flattened due to

(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) cannot say

(iv) Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by

(a) scattering of light
(b) dispersion of light
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) none of these

(v) In absence of atmosphere, the color of sky appears

(a) blue
(b) black
(c) red
(d) yellow

Q3. Light of all the colors travels at the same speed in vacuum for all
wavelengths. But in any transparent medium

(glass or water), the light of different colors travel with different speeds for
different wavelength that means

that the refractive index of a particular medium is different for different

wavelengths. As there is a difference in
their speeds, the light of different colors bend through different angles. The
speed of violet color is maximum and the speed of red color is minimum in
glass so, the red light deviates least and violet color deviates most.

Hence, higher the wavelength of a color of light, smaller the refractive index
and less is the bending of light.

(i) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of

light of different colors of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves the fastest.
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(c) All the colors of the white light move with the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet
light.

(ii) Which of the following is the correct order of wavelength?

(a) Red> Green> Yellow (b) Red> Violet> Green

(c) Yellow> Green> (d) Red> Yellow>

Violet Orange

(iii) Which of the following is the correct order of speed of light in glass?

(a) Red> Green> Blue (b) Blue> Green> Red

(c) Violet> Red> Green (d) Green> Red> Blue

(iv) Which color which has maximum frequency

(a) Red (b) Violet

(c) Blue (d) Green

The spreading of light by the air molecules is called scattering of light. The lig
appears red at sunrise and sunset, appearance of blue sky it is due to the scat
depends on the size of particles. The smaller the molecules in the atmospher
of scattering of light depends on the wavelength of light. When light from su
by the dust particles and air molecules present in the atmosphere. The path o
hole is seen because of scattering of the sun light by the dust particles presen
(i) To an astronaut in a spaceship, the colour of earth appears

(a) red (b) blue

(c) white (d) black

(ii) At the time of sunrise and sunset, the light from sun has to travel.
(a) longest distance of atmosphere
(b) shortest distance of atmosphere
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) can't say
(iii) The colour of sky appears blue, it is due to the
(a) refraction oflight through the atmosphere
(b) dispersion of light by air molecules
(c) scattering of light by air molecules
(d) all of these.

(iv) At the time of sunrise and sunset

(a) Blue colour scattered and red colour reaches our eye
(b) Red colour scattered and blue colour reaches our eye
(c) Green and blue scattered and orange reaches our eye
(d) None of these

(v) The danger signs made red in colour, because

(a) the red light can be seen from farthest distance
(b) the scattering of red light is least
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Chapter 12 : Electricity

1 mark Questions

Q1. A coil in the heater consumes power P on passing current. If it is cut in two halves
and then joined in parallel it will consume power -
b) P b) P/2
c) 2P d) 4P
Q2. A cooler of 1500W,200V and a fan of 500W,200 V are to be used from a household
supply. The rating of the fuse to be used -
b) 2.5 A b) 5.0A
c) 7.5 A d) 10 A
Q3. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 ohm and 4 ohm respectively are connected
in series to a 6V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ohm resistor in 5 sec will be-
b) 5 J b) 10 J
c) 20 J d) 30 J
Q4.Bulbs B1 and B2 are exactly identical. When the key K is pressed, the reading of the
ammeter will

(a) remain unchanged (b) be doubled

(c) be halved (d) become four times

Q5.Column I contains some features of AC supply in India and column II contains

their
relevant values/details. Match columns I and II.

Column I Column II

(A) Value of the frequency of AC supply in (i) Green (yellow)

India

(B) Colour of the earth wire in household (ii) 50

wiring.

(C) Colour of the wire in which the ‘switch’ (iii) 15

needs to be put in a
domestic electric circuits.

(D) Rating of the fuse wire (in A) used in (iv) Red/Brown

domestic power circuits

(a) A–(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv)

(b) A–(iii), B—(i), C—(ii), D—(iv)
(c) A–(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(d) A–(iv), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(i)
Q.6 Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly
connected.

Q7.What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5
Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω

(b) 10 Ω

(c) 5 Ω

(d) 1 Ω

Assertion - Reason :

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the

statements, mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

Q8. Assertion : In an open circuit the current passes from one terminal of the electric
cell to another.

Reason : Generally the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

Q9. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V= IR

Reason : V= IR is the equation which defines Resistance.

Q10. Assertion : Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have
lesser resistance.

Reason : Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.

Q11.Assertion : When the resistances are connected end-to-end consecutively, they

are said to be in series.

Reason : In case the total resistance is to be increased, then the individual resistances
are connected in series.

2 marks Questions

Q12. What is the power of a torch bulb rated at 2.5V and 500mA?

Q13. Which has higher resistance – a 50W bulb or a 2.5W bulb and how many times?

Q14.Why is the tungsten metal more coiled in the bulb and not installed in straight
parallel wire form?

Q15.Why are heating elements made of alloys rather than metals?

3 marks Questions

Q16. List in Tabular form three differences between an Ammeter and Voltmeter.

Q17. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuits. List any three reasons.

Q18. Explain the role of fuse in series with any electrical appliance in an electric circuit.
Why should a fuse with a defined rating for an electric circuit not be replaced by one
with a larger rating?
Q19. Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising 3 cells and an electric
bulb, ammeter, plug-key in the ON mode and another with same components but with
two bulbs in parallel and a voltmeter across the combination.

Q20. Two resistors 3 ohm and an unknown resistor are connected in series across a 12
V battery. If the voltage drop across the unknown resistors 6 V, find

d) Potential across 3 ohm resistor

e) The current through unknown resistor
f) Equivalent resistance of the circuit

Q21. Show the manner in which three resistors of values 4Ω,6Ω and 12Ω can be
connected to get an equivalent resistance of (i) 8Ω (ii) 9Ω.

Q22.A given length of a wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once
again. By what factor does the resistance of the wire change?

5 marks Questions

Q23. (a) Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power.

(b) Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has higher electrical resistance when
in use.

(c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules.

Q24. a) A wire of resistance 20 ohm is bent in the form of a closed circle. What is the
effective resistance between two points at the ends of any diameter of the circle?

b) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 4 cells of 2V each

connected to a key, an ammeter and two resistors of 2 ohm and 3 ohm respectively in
series and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across 3 ohm.

Q25. Three bulbs each having power P are connected in series in an electric circuit. In
another circuit , another set of three bulbs of the same power are connected in parallel
to the same source.

d) Will the bulbs in both the circuits glow with the same brightness? Justify.
e) Now let one bulb in each circuit get fused. Will the rest of the bulbs continue to
glow in each circuit? Give a reason.
f) Representing each bulb by a resistor, draw a circuit diagram for each case.

Q26. Though the same current flows through the electric line wires and the filament of
the bulb, yet only the filament glows. Why?
b) The temperature of the filament of the bulb is 2700 degree centigrade when it glows.
Why does it not get burnt up at such a high temperature?

c) The filament of an electric lamp, which draws a current of 0.25 A is used for 4 hours.
calculate the amount of charge flowing through the circuit.

d)An electric iron is rated 2KW at 220 V. Calculate the capacity of the fuse that should
be used for the electric iron.

Q27 . An electric geyser consumes 2.2 units of electrical energy per hour for its use. It is
designed to work at mains voltage of 220 V.

f) What is the Power rating of this device?

g) What is the current flowing through this device when it is connected across the
mains?
h) What is the resistance of this device?
i) Does the resistance of this device remain constant during its operation/ working?
j) Cost of energy consumed if each unit costs Rs. 6.00.

Q28.Find out the following in the electric circuit given in figure alongside:

(i) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the combination

(ii) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor

(iii) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance

(iv) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor

(v) Difference in ammeter readings, if any

Q29.A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.

(i) How will the resistance of each part of the wire compare with the original
resistance?
 (ii) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the
combination compare with the resistance of the original wire? What will be the ratio of
resistance in series to that of parallel?

(iii) Calculate the resistance of 2 km long copper wire of radius 2 mm. (Resistivity of
copper = 1.72 x 1 0-8ohm -meter)

Q30.

(i) State what happens when switch A is connected to

(a) Position 2

(b) Position 3

(ii) Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.

(iii) Calculate the current

(a) in each 12 ohm lamp when lit.

(b) In each 4ohm lamp when lit.

(iv) Show, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 ohm or 12 ohm , has the higher
power

Q31. Resistances are connected as shown in the diagram. Find the equivalent
resistance between the points P and Q.
Q32. Resistances are connected as shown in the diagram. Find the equivalent

resistance between the points A and B.

Q33. Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the following diagram:

Q34.In the circuit shown below, calculate the equivalent resistance between the points
(i) A and B, (ii) C and D.

Solution:
Q35.Six equal resistors of 1 ohm each are connected to form the sides of a hexagon
ABCDEF. Calculate the resistance offered by the combination if the current enters at A
and leaves it at D.

Q36.From the following observations taken while determining the resistance of a

conductor, draw the current-voltage graph and calculate the resistance of conductor?

Ammeter reading I (in Voltmeter reading V (in volt)

ampere)

0.2 0.4

0.3 0.6

0.5 1.0

0.8 1.6

1.5 3

Q37. Calculate equivalent resistance in the following cases:

Q38.Three resistances, of which two are equal when connected in series, have an
effective resistance of 30 ohms. When the three resistances are connected in parallel,
the effective resistance is 3 ohms. Find the values of the individual resistances.

Q39.A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of
nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively.Justify

Q40.(a) What is the least count of voltmeter?

(b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark.
Calculate its least count.

(c)What is meant by the statement that “the frequency of current in India is 50 Hz”?

Q41.(a)State Joule’s law of heating.

(b)How will the heat produced in an electric circuit be affected, if the resistance in
the circuit is doubled for the same current?

Case based Questions:

Q42. Read the following and answer any four questions: (4 marks)
The SI unit of resistivity is Ω m. It is a characteristic property of the material. The metals
and alloys have very low resistivity in the range of 10^–8 Ω m to 10^–6 Ω m. They are
good conductors of electricity. Insulators like rubber and glass have resistivity of the
order of 1012 to 10^17 Ω m. Both the resistance and resistivity of a material vary with
temperature.
Table 12.2 reveals that the resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its
constituent metals. Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures. For this
reason, they are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron, toasters
etc. Tungsten is used almost exclusively for filaments of electric bulbs, whereas copper
and aluminium are generally used for electrical transmission lines.

i) A wire of length 2m and another wire of length 5m are made up of the same material
and have the same area of cross section, which wire has higher resistance?
a) Both have equal resistance
b) The 2m wire has higher resistance
c) The 5m wire has higher resistance
d) The value of resistance cannot be determined from the given data

ii )A wire has the same resistance as the one given in the figure. Calculate its resistivity
if the length of the wire is 10m and its area of cross section is 2m^2.
a) 16 ohm-metre
b) 8 ohm-metre
c) 16 kilo ohm-metre
d) 8 kilo ohm-metre

iii) Calculate the ratio of the resistivity of 2 wires having the same length and same
resistance with area of cross section 2m2 and 5m2 respectively.
a) 5:7
b) 2:7
c) 2:5
d) 7:5

iv) The reciprocal of resistivity is________

a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Conductivity
d) Impedance

Q43.Resistance is the opposition offered by the conductor to the flow of electric current.
When two or more resistors are connected in series then electric current through each
resistor is the same but the electric potential across each resistor will be different. If R1,
R2 and R3 are the resistance connected in series then current through each resistor will
be I but potential difference across each resistor is V1, V2 and V3 respectively.
Thus, the total potential difference is equal to the sum of potential difference across
each resistor. Hence, V= V1 + V2 + V3

Again, IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3

Thus, R = R1 + R2 + R3

Hence in case of series combination of resistors, the total resistance is the sum of
resistance of each resistor in a circuit.
Now, in case of parallel combinations of resistors, electric current through each resistor
is different but the potential difference across each resistor is the same. If resistors R1,
R2 and R3 are connected in parallel combination then potential difference across each
resistor will be V but current through each resistor is I1, I2 and I3 respectively.

Thus, total current through the circuit is the sum of current flowing through each resistor.

I = I1 + I2 + I3

Again, V/R= V/R1 + V/R2 + V/R3

Thus, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

Hence, in case of a parallel combination of resistors, the reciprocal of total resistance is

the sum of reciprocal of each resistance connected in parallel.

Questions:

1) In which case the equivalent resistance is more and why?

2) In our home, which type of combination of electric devices is preferred? Why?

3) If n resistors of resistance R are connected in parallel then what is the equivalent

resistance?

4) Define one ohm.

Q44.When electric current flows through the circuit this electrical energy is used in two
ways, some part is used for doing work and remaining may be expended in the form of
heat. We can see, in mixers after using it for a long time it becomes more hot, fans also
become hot after continuous use. This type of effect of electric current is called the
heating effect of electric current. If I is the current flowing through the circuit then the
amount of heat dissipated in that resistor will be H = VIt

This effect was discovered by Joule, hence it is called Joule's law of heating.

Also, we can write, H = I2Rt

Thus, heat produced is directly proportional to the square of the electric current, directly
proportional to the resistance of the resistor and the time for which electric current flows
through the circuit. This heating effect is used in many applications. The heating effect is
also used for producing light. In the case of an electric bulb, the filament produces more
heat energy which is emitted in the form of light. And hence filaments are made from
tungsten which has a high melting point.

In case of an electric circuit, this heating effect is used to protect the electric circuit from
damage.
The rate of doing work or rate of consumption of energy is called power. Here, the rate
at which electric energy dissipates or consumed in an electric circuit is called electric
power. And it is given by P= VI

The SI unit of electric power is watt.

Questions:

1) What is the SI unit of electric energy?

2) How does the heating effect work to protect the electric circuit?

3) 1KW h = ?

4) If a bulb is working at a voltage of 200V and the current is 1A then what is the power
of the bulb?

Q45.We can see that, as the applied voltage is increased the current through the wire
also increases. It means that the potential difference across the terminals of the wire is
directly proportional to the electric current passing through it at a given temperature.

Thus, V= IR

Where R is the proportionality constant called as resistance of the wire. Thus, we can
say that the resistance of the wire is inversely proportional to the electric current. As the
resistance increases, current through the wire decreases. The resistance of the
conductor is directly proportional to length of the conductor, inversely proportional to the
area of cross section of the conductor and also depends on the nature of the material
from which conductor is made. Thus R= qL/A, where q is the resistivity of the material of
the conductor. According to the resistivity of the material they are classified as
conductors, insulators and semiconductors. It is observed that the resistance and
resistivity of the material varies with temperature. And hence there are vast applications
of these materials based on their resistivity.

The SI unit of resistance is ohm while the SI unit of electric current is ampere. The
potential difference is measured in volt. Conductors are the materials which are having
less resistivity or more conductivity and hence they are used for transmission of
electricity. Alloys are having more resistivity than conductors and hence they are used in
electric heating devices. While insulators are bad conductors of electricity.

Questions:

1) What is the SI unit of resistivity?

2) What is variable resistance?

3) Why is tungsten used in electric bulbs?

4) 1M ohm = ?

Chapter - Life Processes

Case Study Based

The process of filtering blood outside the human body to remove harmful
wastes is called Dialysis. Dialysis takes place in an enclosed chamber. The
given diagram shows how dialysis works.

1. Which of the following must be true for a dialysis chamber?

Circle ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ to indicate your response

2. What type of blood vessel brings in the blood with wastes?

3. Which organ acts like a natural dialysis chamber in the human body?
Sanjeev wanted to check whether plant leaves release water vapour.
He took a potted plant and covered the plant with a plastic bag. The
picture below shows what he observed after 2 hours.

1. Sanjeev compared the results of the activity with a new pot to

conirm his indings. Which of the following best represents the
new pot?

2. How does the loss of water by plant leaves help the plant?
Mention two points.

Blood transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to different parts of

the human body. The exchange of gases between blood and
inhaled air takes place in the capillaries of lungs. The diagram
below shows how blood circulates in the human body.
1. What statement is supported by the diagram

A. All arteries carry oxygenated blood.

B. Capillaries are permeable to gases

C. The wall between the left ventricle and the right

ventricle is porous

D. Blood can low back and forth between the right atrium
and the right ventricle.

2. Which of these will be the immediate effect if gaseous

exchange in the lung capillaries reduces?

A.Blood will low in the reverse direction.

B. Pulmonary veins will receive blood with less oxygen.

CThe space inside the left and the right atrium will
increase.

D. The pressure of blood inside the capillaries will

decrease.
Multiple Choice Type questions:

1. Amoeba shows the following kind of nutrition –

a) Autotrophic
b) Holozoic
c) Saprotrophic
d) Parasitic

2. The process by which blood is cleared of metabolic wastes in case of kidney failure is
called

a) Artificial kidney

b) Dialysis

c) Transplantation

d) Filtration

3. In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

a) Stomach
b) Food Pipe
c) Mouth
d) Small Intestine

4. Which of the following organisms have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium
b) Plasmodium
c) Paramecium
d)Rhizobium
5. When air is blown from mouth into a test – tube containing lime water, the lime
water turned milky due to presence of –
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Water vapour
Assertion and Reason Type Questions:
e) ASSERTION : Aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to
anaerobic respiration.
REASON : Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the
cell.
b) ASSERTION :Energy is required to carry out different life
processes.
REASON : Energy is obtained in the form of ATP in the
mitochondria.
c) Assertion: Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.

Reason: It is so to ensure enough time for the release of CO2 and for the absorption of
O2 .

d) Assertion: In a healthy adult, the initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180 L daily, but
the actual volume excreted is only a litre a day.

Reason: Most of the filtrate is lost from the body in the form of sweat.

e) Assertion: The four chambered heart does not mix oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood.

Reason: Four chambered heart is found in mammals with advanced body function

Very Short Answer Type Questions(1 Mark)

1.Which tissue transports soluble products of photosynthesis?

2.What is the role of saliva in digestion of food?

3.What will happen if platelets are absent in the blood?

4. Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping systems. How is
the leakage prevented?

5. Why is the right kidney placed slightly lower in position as compared to the left
kidney?

6. Which substance is selectively reabsorbed by the tubular part of nephron?

7. Name a common nutrient that is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by
the kidney tubules.
8. Where does digestion of fat take place in our body?

9. What is the role of acid in our stomach?

10.Name the respiratory pigment in human beings. Where is this pigment found?

11.Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
organisms?

12.Name the process of loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the
plants.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (2 MARK)

1. Differentiate between blood and lymph on the basis of colour, presence of RBC,
direction of flow

2. What is the advantage of a four chambered heart in humans?

3. Give two points of difference between arteries and veins on the basis of criteria given
below: Direction of flow, oxygenated/deoxygenated blood, thick/thin wall

4. What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of our digestive system and write its
function.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (3 MARK)

1. Write the function of the following:

a) Bile b) Hydrochloric acid c) Villi

2. Write the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

3. What are the adaptations of leaves for photosynthesis?

4. State the function of the following in the alimentary canal

(i) Liver (ii) Gallbladder (iii) Villi

5. (i) A product is formed in the cytoplasm of our muscles due to breakdown of glucose
when there is a lack of oxygen. Name the product and also mention the effect of
build-up of this product.

(ii) Differentiate between fermentation in yeast and aerobic respiration on the basis of
end products formed.
6. What is the logic behind the heavy breathing as we climb up a mountain?

7. What is the role of respiratory pigment in respiration? Give one example.

8. State reason for the following:

(i) Arteries have thick and elastic walls

(ii) Arteries form capillaries

LONG ANSWER TYPE (5 MARK)

1. What is double circulation? What is its advantage? Show with a labelled diagram.

2. How is urine produced? How is it regulated?

3. What are the many different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in
various organisms?

4. Describe the breathing process in human beings.

5. (i) Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide during transportation of blood in human beings and label the following parts on
it.

Lung to capillaries, pulmonary artery to lungs, aorta to body, pulmonary veins from
lungs.

(ii) What is the advantage of having separate channels of heart for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?

6. What according to you is the advantage of having a four- chambered heart?

7. (i) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following parts on it.

(a) Renal artery

(b) Bowman’s capsule

(c) Glomerulus

(d) Collecting duct

 (ii) Name four substances in the initial filtrate which are selectively reabsorbed as the
filtrate floor along the tubule.

8. Waste products of plants are useful for human beings. Is it true? Explain.

9. (a) State the form in which the following are stored:

(i) Unused carbohydrates in plants

(ii) The energy derived from food in humans.

(b) Describe the process of nutrition in Amoeba with the help of diagrams.

(c) How does Paramecium obtain its food?

10.(i) Name the process and explain the type of nutrition found in green plants. List the
raw materials required for this process. Give a chemical equation for the mentioned
process.

(ii) Write three events that occur during this process.

11.(a) Write the reaction that occurs when glucose breaks down anaerobically in yeast.

(b) Write the mechanism by which fishes’ breath in water.

(c) Name the balloon likes structures present in lungs. List its two functions.

(d) Name the respiratory pigment and write its role in human beings.

12. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following parts on it:

(i) Right Renal Artery

(ii) Vena cava.

(iii) Urinary bladder

(iv) Left kidney

(b) List two vital functions of the kidney.

13. (a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.

(c) Draw excretory system in human being and label the following organs of excretory
system which perform following functions:

(i) form urine

(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from the kidney.

(iii) store urine until it is passed out.

14. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following:

(i) part in which urine is produced

(ii) part which stores the urine

(iii) part which connects (i) and (ii)

(iv) part from which urine is passed out.

(b) Name the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed along the tubular part of
nephron depends on?

Case Based Questions:

Chronic kidney disease, or CKD, causes more deaths than breast cancer or prostate
cancer. It is an under-recognized public health crisis. It affects an estimated 37
million people in the U.S. and approximately 90% of those with a CKD don’t even
know they have it. CKD is the ninth leading cause of death in the U.S. Chronic
Kidney Disease means kidneys are damaged and losing their ability to keep you
healthy. In the early stages of the disease, most people do not have symptoms. But
as CKD gets worse , wastes can build up in blood and one gets sick. One may
develop other problems like high BP, Anaemia, Weak bones, Poor nutritional health
and nerve damage. Because kidneys are vital to so many of the body functions,
CKD also increases risk of having heart and blood vessel disease. While these
problems may happen slowly and without symptoms, they can lead to kidney failure,
which can appear without warning. Once kidneys fail, dialysis or a kidney transplant
is needed to stay alive. This stage of CKD is known as kidney failure, end-stage
kidney disease. The two main causes of CKD are diabetes and High BP.
 b) What are the functions of kidneys in human beings? Give any two functions.
f) State two main causes of chronic kidney diseases.
g) What is Artificial kidney?
h) Name the basic filtration unit of the kidney.

Chapter - Heredity
Assertion-Reasoning type questions:

7. Assertion: Monohybrid cross involves crossing over of one character and

interpreting its progeny.
Reason: Crossing over of Tall homozygous and Short homozygous pea plant is
called Monohybrid Cross.
8. Assertion: Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments.
Reason: Pea plant provides diverse visible traits and has a short life span.
9. Assertion: When heterozygous tall plants were self crossed, the result obtained were
both tall and short plants.
Reason: Heterozygous plants contain both dominant and recessive alleles.
10. Assertion: When TT and tt pea plant were crossed, only tall plants were obtained in
F1 progeny.
Reason: This was because Tall allele was dominant over the short allele.
11. Assertion: The term genetics was coined by Mendel.
Reason: Mendel gave the laws of dominance & segregation.
12. Assertion: If a cross is made between purple (PP) and white flowers (pp), it would
result in an all white flower progeny.
Reason: pp is the dominant gene.
1 Mark Questions:(VSA and MCQ)

1. What is the unit of inheritance in living organisms?

2.Which chromosomes are called autosomes?

3. What happens if DNA copying is not perfectly accurate?

4. What do you mean by dominant traits?

5. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes then the numbers of
chromosomes in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:

(a) 60

(b) 23

(c) 22

(d) 40

6. What will be the number of chromosomes present in each gamete produced by the plants if
the palisade cells of a species of plant contain 28 chromosomes in all?

(a) 56

(b) 28

(c) 14

(d) 4

7. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F1 generation of
pure-breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds.

Dominants trait Recessive trait No. of F2 offspring

Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524

From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained was:

(a) 1881

(b) 22572

(c) 2508
(d) 5643

8. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall
plants as:

(a) Tallness is the dominant trait

(b) Shortness is the dominant trait

(c) Tallness is the recessive trait

(d) Height of plant is not governed by gene t or t

9. In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired
chromosomes are:

(i) Large chromosome

(ii) Small chromosome

(iii) Y chromosome

(iv) X chromosome

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (iii) and (ii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

10. Which of the following determines the sex of a child?

(a) The length of the mother’s pregnancy

(b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation

(c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum

(d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm

2 Mark Questions:

1.How does Asexually Reproducing Organisms produce variations among their progeny?
Explain giving an example.

2. What are Mendelian Laws of Inheritance?

3. The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
mother.Justify.

4. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?

5. Define heredity. Write the sex of the baby that inherits Y-chromosome from the father.

6. Give two example where sex is determined by the environmental factors.

7. Define Genetics. What is the contribution of Mendel in the field of genetics?

3 Mark Questions:

1.A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant
denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flowers you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants
are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.

2. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plants with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plants
we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F2 generation,
then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of the F2 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F2 generation but appeared in F2 generation,
mentioning the reason for the same.

3. An individual cannot pass on to its progeny the experiences of its lifetime.” Justify the
statement with the help of an example and also give reason for the same.

5 Mark Questions:

1.Demonstrate with an example that traits may be dominant or recessive. Write down Mendel’s
law related to it.

2. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants denoted
by tt, Preeti obtained only tall plants denoted by Tt in the F1 generation. However, in the F2
generation she obtained both tall and short pea plants. Using the above information, explain the
law of dominance.

3. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the FI had all
white flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100
individuals, 75 of which had white flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(а) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?
4. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the F1 had all
purple flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100
individuals, 75 of which had purple flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(a) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?

5. A man who has four sons and one daughter believes that he produces more sperm with Y as
a chromosome. With suitable reasons, justify whether he is right or wrong in thinking this way.

6. Akshat and his wife have attached earlobe (recessive trait) and are professional dancers.
They told their colleagues that their offspring would also have attached earlobes and will be a
good dancer. Is their notion right? Support your answer with suitable reasons.

7. Ashima saw a female being blamed by the family members for producing a girl child. She
approached them and told that the genetic basis of sex determination of human beings clearly
indicates that only the female should not be blamed for producing a girl child. The family
members agreed to her argument and felt sorry for their act.
Based on the above answer the following questions:
(а) What is the basis of sex determination in human beings?
(b) What are the chances of the birth of a boy or a girl during sexual reproduction in human
beings?
(c) What values were shown by Ashima in dealing with the situation?

Chapter 15 : Our Environment

Q1 Assertion - Reason

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

i) Assertion- Aquariums are known as the man made ecosystems.

Reason - Aquariums are created and maintained by humans.

a) b) c) d) e)

ii) Assertion - Consumers are present at the first trophic level.

Reason - Consumers or heterotrophs fix energy making it available for

autotrophs.

a) b) c) d) e)

iii) Assertion - Aquatic food chain is the food chain preent in water bodies

Reason - The example of aquatic food chain is

phytoplankton--------zooplankton-----------fish-------------- shark

a) b) c) d) e)

Q2 1 mark Questions

i) Which of the following belongs to the first trophic levels?

Grasshopper, rose plant, cockroach , vulture , neem plant

ii) List two items which can be easily recycled but we generally throw
them in dustbins?

iii) If a harmful chemical enters the food chain comprising snakes

,peacock, mice and plants, which of these organisms is likely to have the
maximum concentration of this chemical in its body?

iv) Why did United Nations act to control the production of CFCs used in
refrigerators?

Q3 3 mark Questions

i) We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned,

Why?
 ii) Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional?

iii) Number of vultures is decreasing remarkably in recent years which has

become a matter of concern

a) Vultures belong to which category of animal?

b) What is their role in nature regarding the maintenance of ecological

balance?

c) Give the position of vultures occupy in a food chain.

iv) How would you dispose the following wastes?

a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels?

b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans?

c) Plastic materials?

Q4 5 mark questions

i) Write in detail about garbage management?

ii) Suggest any five activities in daily life which are eco friendly?

Q5 Case based Questions

All the organisms such as plants , animals , micro organisms and human beings
as well as the physical surroundings interact with each other and maintain a balance in
nature.All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non living constituents
of the environment form an ecosystem .Thus an ecosystem consists of biotic
components comprising physical factors like temperature , rainfall , wind , soil , and
minerals.

i) Replacing of plastic cups by the paper cups for selling tea on train is
preferred because
 a) Paper cups are more aesthetic.

b) Paper cups are more hygienic.

c) Paper cups are cheaper.

d) Paper cups are more biodegradable and eco friendly.

ii) Flow of energy in ecosystem is ----------------

a) Unidirectional b) bidirectional

c)Multidirectional d) no specific direction

iii) Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

a) Pond b) crop field

b) lake d) Forest

iv) Which of the following is not a functional component of an ecosystem?

a) Communities b) Decomposers

c) Sunlight d) Energy flow

Chapter 10 - Light: Reflection & Refraction

Q1: Assertion - Reason

For each question, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as
given below

i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.

ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
iii) A is true but R is false.

iv) A is false but R is true

1) Assertion: Concave lenses are used in peepholes.

Reason: Concave lenses form virtual and erect images.

2) Assertion: An object placed in front of a convex lens forms the image of the same size.

Reason: Object is placed between the center of curvature and focus.

3) Assertion: Light traveling from air into a glass slab bends away from the normal.

Reason: Light moves faster in air than glass slab.

4) Assertion: A spherical lens has two foci, whereas spherical mirrors only have one.

Reason: A spherical lens causes refraction of light while a spherical mirror causes
reflection of light.

5) Assertion: Power of a concave lens is negative.

Reason: Focal length of concave lens is taken on the left hand side.

6) Assertion: Dentists use concave mirrors.

Reason: Concave mirrors are converging mirrors.

1 Mark Questions

1. How should a ray of light be incident on a rectangular glass slab so that it comes
out from the opposite side of the slab without being displaced?

2. Focal length of plane mirror is

 a. At infinity
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. None of these

3. A ray of light traveling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend
towards or away from the normal ? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction
of light in this situation.

4. Write the difference between real image and virtual image.

5. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens each have a focal length of -10 cm. The
mirror and the lens are likely to be

(a) both concave

(b) both convex

(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex

(d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave

2 Mark Questions

1. An object is placed at a distance of 30cm from a concave lens of focal length

15cm.List four Characteristics of image formed by lens.

2. What is understood as lateral displacement of light? Illustrate this with the help of a
diagram. List two factors on which the lateral displacement in a particular substance
depends.

3. A truck uses a convex mirror as a viewfinder whose radius of curvature is 2.0 m. A

maruti car is coming behind the truck at a distance of 10 m. What will be the position of
the image of the car and size of the image of the car when observed by the driver of the
truck through the convex mirror?
4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how the
temperature is achieved by this device.

5. The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3. List four information you
obtain from this statement about mirror/image?

6. A student has to perform an experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing
through a rectangular glass slab for three different angles of incidence. Two of his
friends suggest the following options to him:

(A) Draw the incident rays corresponding to 20o , 50o and 70o as angles of incidence
and fix the two pins on the incident ray just 2 cm apart.

(B) Draw the incident rays corresponding to 30o , 45o and 60o as the angles of
incidence and fix two pins on the incident rays nearly 8 cm apart. Which is the better
option he should follow? Give reason in support of your answer.

7. A student obtained a sharp image of a lighted candle on a screen using a convex

lens. Now he wants to focus a distant lamp on a far away electric pole. In which
direction should the lens be move for this purpose with respect to the screen, to get a
sharp image on the screen? Justify your answer.

8. A ray of light enters into benzene from air. If the refractive index of benzene is 1.50,
by what percent does the speed of light reduce on entering the benzene?

3 Mark Questions

1. Answer below questions -

a) What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?

b) State and define the S.I. unit of power of a lens.

c) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length

10 cm are placed in close contact with each other. Calculate the lens
power of this combination.

2. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to vacuum are 3/2 and 4/3
respectively. If the speed of light in glass is 2 x 10^8 m/s, find the speed of light in
vacuum and water.
3. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30cm from a mirror is formed on
a screen placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 60cm from its pole. What is the
nature of the mirror? Find its focal length. If the height of flame is 2.4 cm. Find the
height of the image. State whether formed is erect or inverted.

4. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length

10 cm. Draw the ray diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image
formed.

5. A spherical mirror produces a magnification of -1, on a screen placed at a distance

of 50cm from the mirror.

e) Write the type of the mirror.

f) Find the distance of the image from the object.
g) What is the focal length of the mirror?
h) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

6. Rohit focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He
noted down the position of the candle , screen and lens as under :

Position of candle = 26.0 cm

Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm

Position of screen = 74.0 cm

i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?

ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position
of 38 cm?

iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (ii) as said above?

Q7. Absolute refractive indices of two media P and Q are 1.33 (nP) and 2.52 (nQ)
respectively. The speed of light in medium P is 2 x 108 m/s. (a) What would be the
speed of light in medium Q (VQ)?

(b) If the angle of incidence for a ray of light travelling from medium P to Q is 0°, then
what will be the path of light in the medium Q
 5 Mark Questions

2. A spherical mirror produces a magnification of -1, on a screen placed at a distance of

50cm from the mirror.
e) Write the type of the mirror.
f) Find the distance of the image from the object.
g) What is the focal length of the mirror?
h) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

2. (а) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image of an object placed between
infinity and the optical centre of a concave lens.

(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate-

(i) the distance of the object from the lens.

(ii) the magnification for the image formed.

(iii) the nature of the image formed.

Case Based Question

Mrs Vincent, grade 5 teacher, finds that her students do not draw when she draws on the board.
Every time she had to turn towards them to see whether they draw and label the diagrams.
John, one of her students, fixed two big mirrors at the two sides of the black board. With this
Mrs. Vincent was able to draw and also supervise her students through the mirror. All the
students did their work properly.

1.Which type of mirrors are fixed by John ?

2.State the nature and size of the image formed?

3.Write two uses of such a mirror to put and why?

4. A full length image of a distant building can be definitely be seen using

(a). concave mirror

(b). convex mirror

(c). plane mirror

(d). both concave as well as plane mirror

5.(i) Which property of concave mirror is utilized for using them as shaving mirrors?
(ii) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. Using
proper ray diagram, explain in what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differs
with respect to the incident beam of light.

(iii) A concave lens has a focal length of 50 cm. Calculate its power.

6. (i) A lens produces a magnification of -0.5. Is this a converging or diverging lens? If the focal
length of the lens is 6 cm, draw a ray diagram showing the image formation in this case.

(ii) A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by directing it from different
directions on a convex lens held vertically. She was surprised to see that in a particular
direction, the beam of light continues to move along the same direction after passing through
the lens. State the reason for her observation. Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.

7. (i) On entering in a medium from air, the speed of light becomes half of its value in air. Find
the refractive index of that medium with respect to air?

(ii) A glass slab made of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index
n2. A light ray is incident on the slab. Draw the path of the rays of light emerging from the glass
slab, if (i) n1> n2 (ii) n1 = n2 (iii) n1< n2

(a) What color(s) will be seen on the screen?

(b) Copy the diagram above and draw the beam entering Prism 1 and emerging from Prism 3
and falling on the screen.

(c) Name all the processes that takes place when the beam of light enters the Prism 1 and
emerges from Prism 3.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. An object at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The
focal length of the mirror is

(a) – 30 cm

(b) 30 cm

(c) – 15 cm

(d) +15 cm

2.A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ by
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 0

3.The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value of i is

(a) 0°

(b) 45°

(c) 90°

(d) depend on the material of the slab

4.You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in
which the light will travel fastest is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) equal in all three media

5. Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be

(a) a zebra of black stripes

(b) a horse of black stripes

(c) a horse of less brightness

(d) a zebra of less brightness

6.When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed by it shift

(a) away from the lens

(b) towards the lens

(c) first towards and then away from the lens

(d) first away and then towards the lens

7.When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it, shift :

(a) away from the lens on the same side of object

(b) toward the lens

(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens

(d) first towards and then away from the lens

8.The laws of reflection hold good for

(a) plane mirror only

(b) concave mirror only

(c) convex mirror only

(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape

9. Light from the Sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called

(a) centre of curvature

(b) focus

(c) radius of curvature

(d) optical centre

10. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed

(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector

(b) very near to the focus of the reflector

(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector

(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector

11. Four students A,B,C and D did their experiment of finding the focal length of convex lens by
obtaining image of a distant object as follows:

i) Student A used the window grill in the laboratory as the object and a white paper sheet held in
hand as the screen.

ii) Student B used a distant tree in the shade and a white thick held in a stand as the screen.

iii) Student C used a well illuminated laboratory window grill as the object and a white paper
sheet held in a stand as the screen.
iv) Student D used a well illuminated distant tree as the object and a white thick board held in a
stand as the screen.

12. To trace the path of ray of light through the triangular glass prism, a student observes that
the emergent ray has

(a) bent away from the base of the prism

(b) bent towards the base of the prism

(c ) moved parallel to the direction of incident ray

(d) gone perpendicular to incident ray.

13. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?

A. Concave mirror as well as convex lens.

B. Convex mirror as well as concave lens.

C. Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each others.

D. Concave mirror as well as concave lens.

14. Consider these indices of refraction: glass: 1.52; air: 1.0003; water: 1.333. Based on the
refractive indices of three materials, arrange the speed of light through them in decreasing
order.

A. The speed of light in water > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in glass.

B. The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in air.

C. The speed of light in air > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in glass.

D. The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in water.

Q15. If a beam of red light and a beam of violet light are incident at the same angle on the
inclined surface of a prism from air medium and produce angles of refraction r and v
respectively, which of the following is correct?

A. r = v

B. r > v

C. r = 1/v

D. r < v
 Chapter 13 - Magnetic effects of electric current

Q.1. The magnetic field lines in the middle of the current carrying solenoid are

(a) circles

(b) spirals

(c) parallel to the axis of the tube

(d) perpendicular to the axis of the tube

Q2.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines?

(a) The direction of the magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the
north pole of a magnetic compass needle points.

(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves

(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength

(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field
lines
Q3.The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is
the largest when the angle between the conductor and the magnetic field is:

(a) 45

(b) 60

(c) 90

(d) 180

Q4.A student places some iron fillings around a magnet.The iron fillings
arrangethemselves as shown in image.The student labelled four different regions
around the magnet. Where would be the magnetic field the strongest?

(A) S

(B) R

(C) Q

(D) P

Q5.A light bar magnet is suspended near a current carrying wire as shown below. What
will happen to the light bar magnet?

A) It will rotate in a clockwise direction.

B) It will rotate in an anti-clockwise direction.

C) It will move to the right side.

D) It will move to the left side.

Q6.Who has stated the right hand thumb rule?

A)Oersted

B)Einstein

C)Fleming

D)Maxwell

Q7. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near along straight
current carrying wire?

(A)The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.

(B)The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.

(C)The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.

(D)The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

Q8.The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-
circuiting or Overloading is

(a) earthing

(b) use of stabilisers

(c) use of fuse

(d) use of electric metre

Q9.The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is :

(A) More at the ends than at the centre

(B) Minimum in the middle

(C) Same at all points

(D) Found to increase from one end to the other

Q10.Switches are connected to

(a) live wire.

(b) neutral wire.

(c) earth wire.

(d) anyone.
Q11.No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it is placed-
(A) Perpendicular to the magnetic field

(B) Parallel to the magnetic Field

(C ) Far away from the magnetic field

(D) Inside a magnetic field

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given by the

corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Q12. Assertion(A : The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a
current carrying solenoid is inversely proportional to the current flowing through the
solenoid.

Reason : The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current

carrying solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns per

unit length of a solenoid.

Q13. Assertion: Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.

Reason: There cannot be two directions of the magnetic field at a point.

Q14. Assertion: Magnetic field can be created using a solenoid.

 Reason: The strength of the magnetic field will depend on the number of turns of the
solenoid.

Q15.Assertion : The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current
carrying circular coil increases on increasing the radius of the circular coil.

Reason : Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular
coil..

Q16.Assertion : On freely suspending a current-carrying solenoid, it comes to rest in

N-S direction just like a bar magnet.

Reason : One end of current carrying straight solenoid behaves as a North pole and
the other end as a South pole.

SECTION–B

1 mark questions

Q17. What is meant by a magnetic field?

Q18. How is the direction of the magnetic field at a point determined?

Q19. Why are magnetic field lines closed curves?

Q20. Mention the shape of the magnetic field lines around a current-carrying straight
conductor.

Q21. Differentiate between bar magnet and electromagnet.

Q22. Name the rule which gives the direction of current in a conductor.

Q23. State the rule which is used to find the direction of force in a current carrying
conductor..

Q24. List two sources of magnetic fields.

Q25. Define the term ‘induced current’.

Q26. When a current-carrying conductor is kept in a magnetic field, state the position
when maximum force acts on it.

Q27. State the conclusions that can be drawn from the observation that a
current-carrying wire deflects a magnetic needle placed near it.
Q28. Mention the angle between a current-carrying conductor and magnetic field for
which the force experienced by this current-carrying conductor placed in the magnetic
field is largest.

Q29.Name some sources of direct current and alternating current.

Q30. What does the crowding of magnetic field lines indicate?

Q31.Why are magnetic field lines more crowded towards the pole of a magnet?

SECTION B

2 mark QUESTIONS

Q32. How does the strength of magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor
depend upon

(i) distance from-the conductor?

(ii) current flowing through the conductor?

Q33.Define alternating current and direct current. Explain why alternating current is
preferred over direct current for transmission over long distances.

Q34. What does the magnetic field pattern inside the solenoid indicate? State how this
field can be utilized to make an electromagnet. List two ways by which strength of this
magnet can be increased.

Q35. Explain briefly two different ways to induce current in a coil. State the rule which
determines the direction of induced current.

Q36 Explain whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if:

(i) It is placed in the field at rest.

(ii) It moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.

(iii) It moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines.

Q37. How would the strength of magnetic field due to current carrying loop be affected
if:

(i) Radius of the loop is reduced to half its original value.

(ii) Strength of current through the loop is doubled.

Q38.A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation
for the following cases, and give reason for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is
displaced away from the wire.

Q39.How will the direction of force be changed, if the current is reversed in the
conductor placed in a magnetic field ?

SECTION C

3 MARKS

Q39. The flow of current in a circular wire creates a magnetic field at its center. How can
the existence of this field be detected? State the rule which helps to predict the direction
of the magnetic field.

Q40. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the
Figure. What are the directions of magnetic fields produced by it at points P and Q?
Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?

Q41. A circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the paper. Let the current pass through
the loop clockwise. With the help of a diagram, explain how the direction of the
magnetic field can be determined inside and outside the loop. Name the law used to
find the direction of the magnetic field.

Q42.Give reason for the following :

a.The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating.

b.It is dangerous to touch the live wire of the main supply rather than neutral wire.

c. Using a fuse in a household electric circuit is important.

Q43. Consider a circular wire lying in the plane of the table and the direction of current
in it is anticlockwise -

(c) Draw the magnetic field line produced around it

(d) Why does the magnetic field at the center of the current carrying loop appear
straight. Explain?

Q44.Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a statement
that the magnetic field at ‘A’ is stronger than at ‘B’. Justify this statement. Also redraw
the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.

Q45.For the same current flowing through a solenoid and a straight conductor, the
magnetic field produced by a solenoid is much stronger than the magnetic field
produced by a straight current carrying conductor. State one reason to justify this
statement.

5 MARK QUESTION

Q46. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram the distribution of a magnetic field due
to a current through a circular loop. Why is it that if a current carrying loop has n turns
the field produced at any point is n times as large as that produced by a single turn?

Q47. (i) How does the strength of the magnetic field due to the current carrying
conductor depend upon the current flowing and distance from the conductor?
Q48. α-particles are positively charged particles. State whether an a-particle will
experience any force in a magnetic field, if

(a) it is placed in a field at rest.

(b) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.

(c) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to the field lines. Justify your
answer in each case.

Q49. A current carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field of the
horse-shoe magnet. The conductor is displaced upward. What will happen to the
displacement of the conductor if-

(d) current in the conductor is increased

(e) a horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another stronger horse-shoe magnet and
(f) the length of the conductor is increased.

Case study based question

Q50. In the birthday party of Bharat, a class 7 student, his parents gave big slinky to all
his friends as return gifts. The next day, during physics class Mr. Mohan, the teacher,
explained to them about the production of magnetic fields using current carrying coils
and also said that they can make permanent magnets, using such coils by passing high
currents through them. That night Sumanth,a friend of Bharat, asked his father about
the coils, and their shape. His father asked him to bring the slinky that his friend gave
and explained the uses of solenoid.

b. What type of magnetic field is developed inside a solenoid? Which rule is used to
determine the polarity of a solenoid ?

b. How does the magnetic field developed by a bar magnet different from solenoid?

c. What will happen if the distance between two consecutive turns of slinky is
increased?

d. How can the magnetic field produced in a solenoid be increased?

Q51.The change in electric current through the circuit produces a magnetic field around
it. Magnetic field is a vector quantity which has both magnitude as well as direction. The
magnetic field lines produced are directed from the north pole and end at the south
pole. These lines are closed curves from which strength of the magnetic field is
determined. Where magnetic field lines are crowded magnetic field is stronger and
where very apart the strength of magnetic field is weak. So, we can say that as the
current through the electrical circuit increases then the magnitude of the magnetic field
also increases. If a current carrying conductor is holded in the right hand by curling
fingers around it. Then, the thumb gives the direction of electric current and curled
fingers gives the direction of magnetic field.

As the magnitude of the magnetic field depends on the current through it. Also, if the
number of turns of wire in a circuit is more then also the magnitude of magnetic field is
more. If a coil having many circular turns of insulated copper wire wound closely to form
a cylindrical shape is called a solenoid. Solenoid is used to produce a strong magnetic
field which can be used to magnetise the piece of magnetic material. And hence they
are used in making electromagnet mainly.

Questions:

1) What is the nature of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid?

2) For what right hand thumb rule is used?

Chapter 11 : Human Eye And The Colourful world

Assertion - Reason :

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

Q1. Assertion : Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle headlights and
searchlights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror the image
formed is real and inverted

Q2. Assertion : The light emerges from parallel sided glass slab in a direction
perpendicular with that in which it enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of the incident ray and emergent
ray coming out of the glass slab is called lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light.

Q3. Assertion : When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the surface , the
pencil appears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it passes from
water to air.

1 mark Questions

Q4. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of

light visible?

Q5. Why does the sun appear red

at sunrise?
Q6. What is the Tyndall effect?

Q7. Give an example of optical phenomena which occurs in nature due to

atmospheric refraction.

Q8. Give an example of a phenomenon where the Tyndall effect can be observed.

Q9. Name the type of particles which acts as a prism in the formation of a rainbow in the
sky.

Q10..What is the cause of dispersion of white light on passing through a prism?

Q11.Name the atmospheric phenomenon due to which the sun can be seen above the
horizon about two minutes before actual sunrise.

Q12. Why is red selected for danger signal lights?

Q13. Why do different components of white light deviate through different angles when
passing through a triangular glass prism?

Q14. What will be the color of the sky, when it is observed from a place in the absence of
any atmosphere? Why?

Q15. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?

a. Reflection, refraction and dispersion

b. Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection

c. Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

d.Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

Q16. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

i. dispersion of light by water droplets

j. refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
k. scattering of light by dust particles
l. internal reflection of light by clouds
Q17. The clear sky appears blue because

i. blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere

j. ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
k. violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other

colors by the atmosphere

l. light of all other colors is scattered more than

the violet and blue color lights by the atmosphere

Q18. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of

light of different colors of white light in air?

i. Red light moves fastest

j. Blue light moves faster than green light
k. All the colors of the white light move with the same speed
l. Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and

the violet light

Q19. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in color. These can be
easily seen from a distance because among all other colors, the red light

(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog

(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog

(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog

(d) moves fastest in air

Q20. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish

appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

(a) Dispersion of light

(b) Scattering of light

(c) Total internal reflection of light

(d) Reflection of light from the earth

 Q21. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to

i. the presence of algae and other plants found in water

j. reflection of sky in water
k. scattering of light
l. absorption of light by the sea

2, 3 Marks Questions

Q22. What is meant by spectrum of white light? How can we recombine the components
of white light after a prism has separated them? Draw a diagram to illustrate it.

Q23. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky.
Illustrate it with the help of a labelled diagram.

Q24. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism.
Mark on it (a) the incident ray. (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of
deviation.

Q25. Why does sun appear reddish at sunrise? Explain the help of a labelled
diagram.

5 marks Questions

Q26. (a) What is dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show the dispersion
of white light by a glass prism.

(b) A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes
through it but a glass slab does not produce any spectrum. Explain why is it
so?
Q27.

(a) What colour(s) will be seen on the screen?

(b) Copy the diagram above and draw the beam entering Prism 1 and emerging from Prism 3
and falling on the screen.
(c) Name all the processes that takes place when the beam of light enters the Prism 1 and
emerges from Prism 3.

Q1. There are various natural phenomena associated with light. Refraction of light is the
phenomenon in which when light travels from one transparent medium to another
transparent medium it changes its direction. The change in direction of light is due to the
change in velocity of light in different media. And hence the path of the light also changes in
different media. In case of refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab we must
observe that the incident ray and the emergent ray are parallel to each other. We can see
the pencil immersed in water as bent at the water air interface only because of the refraction
of light. Again the second phenomenon is dispersion of light in which white light when
passed through the prism splits into seven coloured spectrum. And these seven colors are
VIBGYOR. We can see here the angle of deviation is different for different colors because
different wavelengths of different colors. Also, Newton observed that when the second prism
is placed inverted to the first prism the white light incident on the first prism will come out as
white light only when it emerges from the second prism. The phenomenon of formation is
also because of the dispersion of light. In that case the tiny water droplets acts as prisms.
But most importantly, the refraction of light occurs only because of the change in refractive
index of medium. The twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of light.

Questions:

1) Rainbow formation takes place because of which phenomenon is related to light?

2) What is meant by total internal reflection?

3) Why does atmospheric refraction occur?

4) For which color the angle of deviation is more in case of dispersion?

Q2. Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing
through earth’s atmosphere. As we move above the surface of earth, density
of air goes on decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also affect
the optical density of earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric
refraction, stars seen appear higher than they actually are; advanced sunrise;
delayed sunset, oval appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset; stars
twinkle, planets do not.
(i) Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) all of these

(ii) Apparent position of the star appears raised due to

(a) atmospheric refraction
(b) scattering of light
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

(iii) The sun appears oval shaped or flattened due to

(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) cannot say

3) What are the properties of magnetic poles?

4) How can you determine the north pole of a current carryting solenoid?

Q52.The domestic electric circuit consists of a red insulated cover called as live wire,
wire with black insulation called neutral wire and the wire with green insulation is called
Earth wire. We know that the fuse is connected in series with the circuit to prevent the
damaging of electrical appliances and circuit from overloading. Overloading occurs
when live wire and the neutral wire come in direct contact with each other. Because of
which current through the circuit increases suddenly. Also, overloading may occur
because of connecting many appliances to a single socket. The Earth wire which is
green in colour is connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This type
of safety measure is used in appliances like electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator
etc. The Earth wire gives a low resistance conducting path for the electric current. In this
way it protects us from severe electric shock.

All the appliances are connected in a parallel circuit so that the potential difference
across each appliance will be the same.

Questions:

1) What are the signs of live wire and neutral wire?

2) In our country what is the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire?

3) What is short circuiting?

4) What is the main purpose of using a fuse in an electric circuit?

Q53..Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite
force on a current carrying conductor, which was experimentally found to be true. But
we know that current is due to charges in motion. Thus, it is clear that a charge moving
in a magnetic field experiences a force, except when it is moving in a direction parallel
to it. If the direction of motion is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the
magnitude of force experienced depends on the charge, velocity (v) , strength of
magnetic field(B), and sine of the angle between v and B.

Questions

1.Write the statement of the rule to find out the direction of force.

2.What is the S.I unit of Magnetic field.

3.Define S.I unit of magnetic field.

4.List two properties of magnetic field lines.

(iv) Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by

(a) scattering of light
(b) dispersion of light
(c) atmospheric refraction
(d) none of these
(v) In absence of atmosphere, the color of sky appears
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) red
(d) yellow

Q3. Light of all the colors travels at the same speed in vacuum for all
wavelengths. But in any transparent medium

(glass or water), the light of different colors travel with different speeds for
different wavelength that means

that the refractive index of a particular medium is different for different

wavelengths. As there is a difference in

their speeds, the light of different colors bend through different angles. The
speed of violet color is maximum and the speed of red color is minimum in
glass so, the red light deviates least and violet color deviates most.

Hence, higher the wavelength of a color of light, smaller the refractive index
and less is the bending of light.

(i) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of

light of different colors of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves the fastest.
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(c) All the colors of the white light move with the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet
light.

(ii) Which of the following is the correct order of wavelength?

(a) Red> Green> Yellow (b) Red> Violet> Green

(c) Yellow> Green> (d) Red> Yellow>

Violet Orange

(iii) Which of the following is the correct order of speed of light in glass?

(a) Red> Green> Blue (b) Blue> Green> Red

(c) Violet> Red> Green (d) Green> Red> Blue

(iv) Which color which has maximum frequency

(a) Red (b) Violet

(c) Blue (d) Green

The spreading of light by the air molecules is called scattering of light. The lig
appears red at sunrise and sunset, appearance of blue sky it is due to the scat
depends on the size of particles. The smaller the molecules in the atmospher
of scattering of light depends on the wavelength of light. When light from su
by the dust particles and air molecules present in the atmosphere. The path o
hole is seen because of scattering of the sun light by the dust particles presen
(i) To an astronaut in a spaceship, the colour of earth appears

(a) red (b) blue

(c) white (d) black

(ii) At the time of sunrise and sunset, the light from sun has to travel.
(a) longest distance of atmosphere
(b) shortest distance of atmosphere
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) can't say

(iii) The colour of sky appears blue, it is due to the

(a) refraction oflight through the atmosphere
(b) dispersion of light by air molecules
(c) scattering of light by air molecules
(d) all of these.

(iv) At the time of sunrise and sunset

(a) Blue colour scattered and red colour reaches our eye
(b) Red colour scattered and blue colour reaches our eye
(c) Green and blue scattered and orange reaches our eye
(d) None of these

(v) The danger signs made red in colour, because

(a) the red light can be seen from farthest distance
(b) the scattering of red light is least
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
 Chapter 12 : Electricity

1 mark Questions

Q1. A coil in the heater consumes power P on passing current. If it is cut in two halves
and then joined in parallel it will consume power -
c) P b) P/2
c) 2P d) 4P
Q2. A cooler of 1500W,200V and a fan of 500W,200 V are to be used from a household
supply. The rating of the fuse to be used -
c) 2.5 A b) 5.0A
c) 7.5 A d) 10 A
Q3. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 ohm and 4 ohm respectively are connected
in series to a 6V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ohm resistor in 5 sec will be-
c) 5 J b) 10 J
c) 20 J d) 30 J
Q4.Bulbs B1 and B2 are exactly identical. When the key K is pressed, the reading of the
ammeter will

(a) remain unchanged (b) be doubled

(c) be halved (d) become four times

Q5.Column I contains some features of AC supply in India and column II contains

their
relevant values/details. Match columns I and II.

Column I Column II
 (A) Value of the frequency of AC supply in (i) Green (yellow)
India

(B) Colour of the earth wire in household (ii) 50

wiring.

(C) Colour of the wire in which the ‘switch’ (iii) 15

needs to be put in a
domestic electric circuits.

(D) Rating of the fuse wire (in A) used in (iv) Red/Brown

domestic power circuits

(a) A–(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv)

(b) A–(iii), B—(i), C—(ii), D—(iv)
(c) A–(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(d) A–(iv), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(i)

Q.6 Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly
connected.

Q7.What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5
Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω

(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω

(d) 1 Ω

Assertion - Reason :

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the

statements, mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of
Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

Q8. Assertion : In an open circuit the current passes from one terminal of the electric
cell to another.

Reason : Generally the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

Q9. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V= IR

Reason : V= IR is the equation which defines Resistance.

Q10. Assertion : Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have
lesser resistance.

Reason : Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.

Q11.Assertion : When the resistances are connected end-to-end consecutively, they

are said to be in series.

Reason : In case the total resistance is to be increased, then the individual resistances
are connected in series.

2 marks Questions

Q12. What is the power of a torch bulb rated at 2.5V and 500mA?
Q13. Which has higher resistance – a 50W bulb or a 2.5W bulb and how many times?

Q14.Why is the tungsten metal more coiled in the bulb and not installed in straight
parallel wire form?

Q15.Why are heating elements made of alloys rather than metals?

3 marks Questions

Q16. List in Tabular form three differences between an Ammeter and Voltmeter.

Q17. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuits. List any three reasons.

Q18. Explain the role of fuse in series with any electrical appliance in an electric circuit.
Why should a fuse with a defined rating for an electric circuit not be replaced by one
with a larger rating?

Q19. Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising 3 cells and an electric
bulb, ammeter, plug-key in the ON mode and another with same components but with
two bulbs in parallel and a voltmeter across the combination.

Q20. Two resistors 3 ohm and an unknown resistor are connected in series across a 12
V battery. If the voltage drop across the unknown resistors 6 V, find

g) Potential across 3 ohm resistor

h) The current through unknown resistor
i) Equivalent resistance of the circuit

Q21. Show the manner in which three resistors of values 4Ω,6Ω and 12Ω can be
connected to get an equivalent resistance of (i) 8Ω (ii) 9Ω.

Q22.A given length of a wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once
again. By what factor does the resistance of the wire change?

5 marks Questions

Q23. (a) Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power.

(b) Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has higher electrical resistance when
in use.

(c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules.
Q24. a) A wire of resistance 20 ohm is bent in the form of a closed circle. What is the
effective resistance between two points at the ends of any diameter of the circle?

b) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 4 cells of 2V each

connected to a key, an ammeter and two resistors of 2 ohm and 3 ohm respectively in
series and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across 3 ohm.

Q25. Three bulbs each having power P are connected in series in an electric circuit. In
another circuit , another set of three bulbs of the same power are connected in parallel
to the same source.

g) Will the bulbs in both the circuits glow with the same brightness? Justify.
h) Now let one bulb in each circuit get fused. Will the rest of the bulbs continue to
glow in each circuit? Give a reason.
i) Representing each bulb by a resistor, draw a circuit diagram for each case.

Q26. Though the same current flows through the electric line wires and the filament of
the bulb, yet only the filament glows. Why?

b) The temperature of the filament of the bulb is 2700 degree centigrade when it glows.
Why does it not get burnt up at such a high temperature?

c) The filament of an electric lamp, which draws a current of 0.25 A is used for 4 hours.
calculate the amount of charge flowing through the circuit.

d)An electric iron is rated 2KW at 220 V. Calculate the capacity of the fuse that should
be used for the electric iron.

Q27 . An electric geyser consumes 2.2 units of electrical energy per hour for its use. It is
designed to work at mains voltage of 220 V.

k) What is the Power rating of this device?

l) What is the current flowing through this device when it is connected across the
mains?
m) What is the resistance of this device?
n) Does the resistance of this device remain constant during its operation/ working?
o) Cost of energy consumed if each unit costs Rs. 6.00.

Q28.Find out the following in the electric circuit given in figure alongside:
(i) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the combination

(ii) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor

(iii) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance

(iv) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor

(v) Difference in ammeter readings, if any

Q29.A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.

(i) How will the resistance of each part of the wire compare with the original
resistance?

(ii) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the
combination compare with the resistance of the original wire? What will be the ratio of
resistance in series to that of parallel?

(iii) Calculate the resistance of 2 km long copper wire of radius 2 mm. (Resistivity of
copper = 1.72 x 1 0-8ohm -meter)

Q30.

(i) State what happens when switch A is connected to

(a) Position 2

(b) Position 3

(ii) Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.

(iii) Calculate the current

(a) in each 12 ohm lamp when lit.

(b) In each 4ohm lamp when lit.

(iv) Show, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 ohm or 12 ohm , has the higher
power

Q31. Resistances are connected as shown in the diagram. Find the equivalent
resistance between the points P and Q.

Q32. Resistances are connected as shown in the diagram. Find the equivalent

resistance between the points A and B.

Q33. Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the following diagram:

Q34.In the circuit shown below, calculate the equivalent resistance between the points
(i) A and B, (ii) C and D.

Solution:

Q35.Six equal resistors of 1 ohm each are connected to form the sides of a hexagon
ABCDEF. Calculate the resistance offered by the combination if the current enters at A
and leaves it at D.

Q36.From the following observations taken while determining the resistance of a

conductor, draw the current-voltage graph and calculate the resistance of conductor?
 Ammeter reading I (in Voltmeter reading V (in volt)
ampere)

0.2 0.4

0.3 0.6

0.5 1.0

0.8 1.6

1.5 3

Q37. Calculate equivalent resistance in the following cases:

Q38.Three resistances, of which two are equal when connected in series, have an
effective resistance of 30 ohms. When the three resistances are connected in parallel,
the effective resistance is 3 ohms. Find the values of the individual resistances.

Q39.A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of
nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively.Justify

Q40.(a) What is the least count of voltmeter?

 (b) In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between the ‘0’ mark and 0.5 V mark.
Calculate its least count.

(c)What is meant by the statement that “the frequency of current in India is 50 Hz”?

Q41.(a)State Joule’s law of heating.

(b)How will the heat produced in an electric circuit be affected, if the resistance in
the circuit is doubled for the same current?

Case based Questions:

Q42. Read the following and answer any four questions: (4 marks)

The SI unit of resistivity is Ω m. It is a characteristic property of the material. The metals

and alloys have very low resistivity in the range of 10^–8 Ω m to 10^–6 Ω m. They are
good conductors of electricity. Insulators like rubber and glass have resistivity of the
order of 1012 to 10^17 Ω m. Both the resistance and resistivity of a material vary with
temperature.
Table 12.2 reveals that the resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its
constituent metals. Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures. For this
reason, they are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron, toasters
etc. Tungsten is used almost exclusively for filaments of electric bulbs, whereas copper
and aluminium are generally used for electrical transmission lines.
i) A wire of length 2m and another wire of length 5m are made up of the same material
and have the same area of cross section, which wire has higher resistance?
a) Both have equal resistance
b) The 2m wire has higher resistance
c) The 5m wire has higher resistance
d) The value of resistance cannot be determined from the given data

ii )A wire has the same resistance as the one given in the figure. Calculate its resistivity
if the length of the wire is 10m and its area of cross section is 2m^2.

a) 16 ohm-metre
b) 8 ohm-metre
c) 16 kilo ohm-metre
d) 8 kilo ohm-metre

iii) Calculate the ratio of the resistivity of 2 wires having the same length and same
resistance with area of cross section 2m2 and 5m2 respectively.
a) 5:7
b) 2:7
c) 2:5
d) 7:5

iv) The reciprocal of resistivity is________

a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Conductivity
d) Impedance

Q43.Resistance is the opposition offered by the conductor to the flow of electric current.
When two or more resistors are connected in series then electric current through each
resistor is the same but the electric potential across each resistor will be different. If R1,
R2 and R3 are the resistance connected in series then current through each resistor will
be I but potential difference across each resistor is V1, V2 and V3 respectively.
Thus, the total potential difference is equal to the sum of potential difference across
each resistor. Hence, V= V1 + V2 + V3

Again, IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3

Thus, R = R1 + R2 + R3

Hence in case of series combination of resistors, the total resistance is the sum of
resistance of each resistor in a circuit.

Now, in case of parallel combinations of resistors, electric current through each resistor
is different but the potential difference across each resistor is the same. If resistors R1,
R2 and R3 are connected in parallel combination then potential difference across each
resistor will be V but current through each resistor is I1, I2 and I3 respectively.

Thus, total current through the circuit is the sum of current flowing through each resistor.

I = I1 + I2 + I3

Again, V/R= V/R1 + V/R2 + V/R3

Thus, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

Hence, in case of a parallel combination of resistors, the reciprocal of total resistance is

the sum of reciprocal of each resistance connected in parallel.

Questions:

1) In which case the equivalent resistance is more and why?

2) In our home, which type of combination of electric devices is preferred? Why?

3) If n resistors of resistance R are connected in parallel then what is the equivalent

resistance?

4) Define one ohm.

Q44.When electric current flows through the circuit this electrical energy is used in two
ways, some part is used for doing work and remaining may be expended in the form of
heat. We can see, in mixers after using it for a long time it becomes more hot, fans also
become hot after continuous use. This type of effect of electric current is called the
heating effect of electric current. If I is the current flowing through the circuit then the
amount of heat dissipated in that resistor will be H = VIt

This effect was discovered by Joule, hence it is called Joule's law of heating.

Also, we can write, H = I2Rt

Thus, heat produced is directly proportional to the square of the electric current, directly
proportional to the resistance of the resistor and the time for which electric current flows
through the circuit. This heating effect is used in many applications. The heating effect is
also used for producing light. In the case of an electric bulb, the filament produces more
heat energy which is emitted in the form of light. And hence filaments are made from
tungsten which has a high melting point.

In case of an electric circuit, this heating effect is used to protect the electric circuit from
damage.

The rate of doing work or rate of consumption of energy is called power. Here, the rate
at which electric energy dissipates or consumed in an electric circuit is called electric
power. And it is given by P= VI

The SI unit of electric power is watt.

Questions:

1) What is the SI unit of electric energy?

2) How does the heating effect work to protect the electric circuit?

3) 1KW h = ?

4) If a bulb is working at a voltage of 200V and the current is 1A then what is the power
of the bulb?

Q45.We can see that, as the applied voltage is increased the current through the wire
also increases. It means that the potential difference across the terminals of the wire is
directly proportional to the electric current passing through it at a given temperature.

Thus, V= IR

Where R is the proportionality constant called as resistance of the wire. Thus, we can
say that the resistance of the wire is inversely proportional to the electric current. As the
resistance increases, current through the wire decreases. The resistance of the
conductor is directly proportional to length of the conductor, inversely proportional to the
area of cross section of the conductor and also depends on the nature of the material
from which conductor is made. Thus R= qL/A, where q is the resistivity of the material of
the conductor. According to the resistivity of the material they are classified as
conductors, insulators and semiconductors. It is observed that the resistance and
resistivity of the material varies with temperature. And hence there are vast applications
of these materials based on their resistivity.

The SI unit of resistance is ohm while the SI unit of electric current is ampere. The
potential difference is measured in volt. Conductors are the materials which are having
less resistivity or more conductivity and hence they are used for transmission of
electricity. Alloys are having more resistivity than conductors and hence they are used in
electric heating devices. While insulators are bad conductors of electricity.

Questions:

1) What is the SI unit of resistivity?

2) What is variable resistance?

3) Why is tungsten used in electric bulbs?

4) 1M ohm = ?

Chapter - Life Processes

Multiple Choice Type questions:

1. Amoeba shows the following kind of nutrition –

a) Autotrophic
b) Holozoic
c) Saprotrophic
d) Parasitic

2. The process by which blood is cleared of metabolic wastes in case of kidney failure is
called

a) Artificial kidney

b) Dialysis

c) Transplantation

d) Filtration

3. In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in:

a) Stomach
b) Food Pipe
c) Mouth
d) Small Intestine
4. Which of the following organisms have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium
b) Plasmodium
c) Paramecium
d)Rhizobium
5. When air is blown from mouth into a test – tube containing lime water, the lime
water turned milky due to presence of –
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Water vapour

Assertion and Reason Type Questions:

i) ASSERTION : Aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to
anaerobic respiration.
REASON : Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the
cell.
b) ASSERTION :Energy is required to carry out different life
processes.
REASON : Energy is obtained in the form of ATP in the
mitochondria.
c) Assertion: Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.

Reason: It is so to ensure enough time for the release of CO2 and for the absorption of
O2 .

d) Assertion: In a healthy adult, the initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180 L daily, but
the actual volume excreted is only a litre a day.

Reason: Most of the filtrate is lost from the body in the form of sweat.

e) Assertion: The four chambered heart does not mix oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood.

Reason: Four chambered heart is found in mammals with advanced body function

Very Short Answer Type Questions(1 Mark)

1.Which tissue transports soluble products of photosynthesis?

2.What is the role of saliva in digestion of food?

3.What will happen if platelets are absent in the blood?

4. Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping systems. How is
the leakage prevented?

5. Why is the right kidney placed slightly lower in position as compared to the left
kidney?

6. Which substance is selectively reabsorbed by the tubular part of nephron?

7. Name a common nutrient that is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by
the kidney tubules.

8. Where does digestion of fat take place in our body?

9. What is the role of acid in our stomach?

10.Name the respiratory pigment in human beings. Where is this pigment found?

11.Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
organisms?

12.Name the process of loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the
plants.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (2 MARK)

1. Differentiate between blood and lymph on the basis of colour, presence of RBC,
direction of flow

2. What is the advantage of a four chambered heart in humans?

3. Give two points of difference between arteries and veins on the basis of criteria given
below: Direction of flow, oxygenated/deoxygenated blood, thick/thin wall

4. What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of our digestive system and write its
function.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (3 MARK)

1. Write the function of the following:

a) Bile b) Hydrochloric acid c) Villi

2. Write the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

3. What are the adaptations of leaves for photosynthesis?

4. State the function of the following in the alimentary canal

(i) Liver (ii) Gallbladder (iii) Villi

5. (i) A product is formed in the cytoplasm of our muscles due to breakdown of glucose
when there is a lack of oxygen. Name the product and also mention the effect of
build-up of this product.

(ii) Differentiate between fermentation in yeast and aerobic respiration on the basis of
end products formed.

6. What is the logic behind the heavy breathing as we climb up a mountain?

7. What is the role of respiratory pigment in respiration? Give one example.

8. State reason for the following:

(i) Arteries have thick and elastic walls

(ii) Arteries form capillaries

LONG ANSWER TYPE (5 MARK)

1. What is double circulation? What is its advantage? Show with a labelled diagram.

2. How is urine produced? How is it regulated?

3. What are the many different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in
various organisms?

4. Describe the breathing process in human beings.

5. (i) Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide during transportation of blood in human beings and label the following parts on
it.

Lung to capillaries, pulmonary artery to lungs, aorta to body, pulmonary veins from
lungs.

(ii) What is the advantage of having separate channels of heart for oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?

6. What according to you is the advantage of having a four- chambered heart?

7. (i) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following parts on it.

(a) Renal artery

(b) Bowman’s capsule

(c) Glomerulus

(d) Collecting duct

(ii) Name four substances in the initial filtrate which are selectively reabsorbed as the
filtrate floor along the tubule.

8. Waste products of plants are useful for human beings. Is it true? Explain.

9. (a) State the form in which the following are stored:

(i) Unused carbohydrates in plants

(ii) The energy derived from food in humans.

(b) Describe the process of nutrition in Amoeba with the help of diagrams.

(c) How does Paramecium obtain its food?

10.(i) Name the process and explain the type of nutrition found in green plants. List the
raw materials required for this process. Give a chemical equation for the mentioned
process.

(ii) Write three events that occur during this process.

11.(a) Write the reaction that occurs when glucose breaks down anaerobically in yeast.

(b) Write the mechanism by which fishes’ breath in water.

(c) Name the balloon likes structures present in lungs. List its two functions.

(d) Name the respiratory pigment and write its role in human beings.

12. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following parts on it:
(i) Right Renal Artery

(ii) Vena cava.

(iii) Urinary bladder

(iv) Left kidney

(b) List two vital functions of the kidney.

13. (a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.

(c) Draw excretory system in human being and label the following organs of excretory
system which perform following functions:

(i) form urine

(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from the kidney.

(iii) store urine until it is passed out.

14. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label the following:

(i) part in which urine is produced

(ii) part which stores the urine

(iii) part which connects (i) and (ii)

(iv) part from which urine is passed out.

(b) Name the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed along the tubular part of
nephron depends on?

Case Based Questions:

Chronic kidney disease, or CKD, causes more deaths than breast cancer or prostate
cancer. It is an under-recognized public health crisis. It affects an estimated 37
million people in the U.S. and approximately 90% of those with a CKD don’t even
know they have it. CKD is the ninth leading cause of death in the U.S. Chronic
Kidney Disease means kidneys are damaged and losing their ability to keep you
healthy. In the early stages of the disease, most people do not have symptoms. But
as CKD gets worse , wastes can build up in blood and one gets sick. One may
develop other problems like high BP, Anaemia, Weak bones, Poor nutritional health
and nerve damage. Because kidneys are vital to so many of the body functions,
CKD also increases risk of having heart and blood vessel disease. While these
problems may happen slowly and without symptoms, they can lead to kidney failure,
which can appear without warning. Once kidneys fail, dialysis or a kidney transplant
is needed to stay alive. This stage of CKD is known as kidney failure, end-stage
kidney disease. The two main causes of CKD are diabetes and High BP.

c) What are the functions of kidneys in human beings? Give any two functions.
j) State two main causes of chronic kidney diseases.
k) What is Artificial kidney?
l) Name the basic filtration unit of the kidney.

Chapter 8 : How do organisms reproduce?

Q1 Assertion - Reason

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

i) Assertion – Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are known as clones.

Reason – They are known as clones as they are genetically identical.

a) b) c) d) e)

ii) Assertion - Vagina is also called a birth canal.

Reason - During the birth baby passes through the vagina

a) b) c) d) e)

iii) Assertion - Vasectomy is a surgical method of birth control

Reason – In vasectomy, a small portion of oviduct is cut or tied properly.

a) b) c) d) e)

iv)Assertion – HIV – AIDS is a bacterial disease.

Reason - It is spread through sharing food and water .

a) b) c) d) e)

Q2 1 mark questions

i)Mention any one disadvantage of producing new plants by vegetative reproduction ?

ii) What is fertilization and its product?

iii) List two functions of the ovary of the female reproductive system?

iv) How can pregnancy be prevented surgically?

Q3 2 marks questions

i)Write the differences between fission and fragmentation?

ii)List any two advantages of vegetative reproduction?

Q4 3 marks questions

i)List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction?

ii)What is meant by pollination?Name and differentiate between the two modes of pollination
in flowering plants?

iii)What changes takes place in the uterus if fertilization takes place?

iv)What is placenta?Describe its structure . State its functions in case of a pregnant human
female?

Q5 5 mark questions

i)Differentiate between the following:

a)pollen tube and style

b)Fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium

c)Fragmentation and Regeneration

d)Bud of Hydra and Bryophyllum

e)Vegetative propagation and spore formation

ii) Name the following

a)The body part in which the testes are present in a human male.

b)The part from where sperms are released out of the body.

c)The part of female reproductive system containimg a mature egg.

d)The accessory fluid in human males whose secretion activates the sperms.

e) The period of adolescence when the reproductive tissues begin to mature.

Q6 Case based questions

a)After fertilization the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.The
ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.The ovary grows
rapidly and ripens to form a fruit .Meanwhile the petals,sepals,stamens,style and stigma
may shrivel and fall off.Have you ever observed any flower part still persisting in the fruit?try
and work out the advantages of seed formation for the plant.The seed contains the future
plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions.This process is
known as germination.

i) Characters transmitted from parents to offsprings are present in-

a] cytoplasm b] ribosome c] Golgi bodies d] genes

ii) The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains
constant due to

a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation

b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation

c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation

d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation

iii) In a flower the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
 a) Stamen and anther

b) Filament and stigma

c) Anther and ovary

d) Stamen and style

iv) The development of seedling from an embryo under appropriate conditions is called

a) Regeneration

b) Germination

c) Vegetative propagation

d) Pollination

Chapter - Heredity
Assertion-Reasoning type questions:

13. Assertion: Monohybrid cross involves crossing over of one character and
interpreting its progeny.
Reason: Crossing over of Tall homozygous and Short homozygous pea plant is
called Monohybrid Cross.
14. Assertion: Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments.
Reason: Pea plant provides diverse visible traits and has a short life span.
15. Assertion: When heterozygous tall plants were self crossed, the result obtained were
both tall and short plants.
Reason: Heterozygous plants contain both dominant and recessive alleles.
16. Assertion: When TT and tt pea plant were crossed, only tall plants were obtained in
F1 progeny.
Reason: This was because Tall allele was dominant over the short allele.
17. Assertion: The term genetics was coined by Mendel.
Reason: Mendel gave the laws of dominance & segregation.
18. Assertion: If a cross is made between purple (PP) and white flowers (pp), it would
result in an all white flower progeny.
Reason: pp is the dominant gene.

1 Mark Questions:(VSA and MCQ)

1. What is the unit of inheritance in living organisms?

2.Which chromosomes are called autosomes?

3. What happens if DNA copying is not perfectly accurate?

4. What do you mean by dominant traits?

5. If a normal cell of human body contains 46 pairs of chromosomes then the numbers of
chromosomes in a sex cell of a human being is most likely to be:

(a) 60

(b) 23

(c) 22

(d) 40

6. What will be the number of chromosomes present in each gamete produced by the plants if
the palisade cells of a species of plant contain 28 chromosomes in all?

(a) 56

(b) 28

(c) 14

(d) 4

7. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F1 generation of
pure-breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds.

Dominants trait Recessive trait No. of F2 offspring

Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524

From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained was:

(a) 1881

(b) 22572

(c) 2508

(d) 5643

8. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall
plants as:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait

(b) Shortness is the dominant trait

(c) Tallness is the recessive trait

(d) Height of plant is not governed by gene t or t

9. In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired
chromosomes are:

(i) Large chromosome

(ii) Small chromosome

(iii) Y chromosome

(iv) X chromosome

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (iii) and (ii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

10. Which of the following determines the sex of a child?

(a) The length of the mother’s pregnancy

(b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation

(c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum

(d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm

2 Mark Questions:

1.How does Asexually Reproducing Organisms produce variations among their progeny?
Explain giving an example.

2. What are Mendelian Laws of Inheritance?

3. The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not their
mother.Justify.

4. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
5. Define heredity. Write the sex of the baby that inherits Y-chromosome from the father.

6. Give two example where sex is determined by the environmental factors.

7. Define Genetics. What is the contribution of Mendel in the field of genetics?

3 Mark Questions:

1.A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant
denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flowers you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants
are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.

2. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plants with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plants
we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F2 generation,
then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of the F2 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F2 generation but appeared in F2 generation,
mentioning the reason for the same.

3. An individual cannot pass on to its progeny the experiences of its lifetime.” Justify the
statement with the help of an example and also give reason for the same.

5 Mark Questions:

1.Demonstrate with an example that traits may be dominant or recessive. Write down Mendel’s
law related to it.

2. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants denoted
by tt, Preeti obtained only tall plants denoted by Tt in the F1 generation. However, in the F2
generation she obtained both tall and short pea plants. Using the above information, explain the
law of dominance.

3. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the FI had all
white flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100
individuals, 75 of which had white flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(а) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?

4. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the F1 had all
purple flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100
individuals, 75 of which had purple flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(a) What are the genotypes of F2 individuals?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?
5. A man who has four sons and one daughter believes that he produces more sperm with Y as
a chromosome. With suitable reasons, justify whether he is right or wrong in thinking this way.

6. Akshat and his wife have attached earlobe (recessive trait) and are professional dancers.
They told their colleagues that their offspring would also have attached earlobes and will be a
good dancer. Is their notion right? Support your answer with suitable reasons.

7. Ashima saw a female being blamed by the family members for producing a girl child. She
approached them and told that the genetic basis of sex determination of human beings clearly
indicates that only the female should not be blamed for producing a girl child. The family
members agreed to her argument and felt sorry for their act.
Based on the above answer the following questions:
(а) What is the basis of sex determination in human beings?
(b) What are the chances of the birth of a boy or a girl during sexual reproduction in human
beings?
(c) What values were shown by Ashima in dealing with the situation?

Chapter 15 : Our Environment

Q1 Assertion - Reason

Direction – In each of the following questions, a statement of Reason .Of the statements,
mark the correct answer as

a] If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b] If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion

c] If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

d] If Assertion is false and Reason is true

e] If Assertion and reason both are false

i) Assertion- Aquariums are known as the man made ecosystems.

 Reason - Aquariums are created and maintained by humans.

a) b) c) d) e)

ii) Assertion - Consumers are present at the first trophic level.

Reason - Consumers or heterotrophs fix energy making it available for

autotrophs.

a) b) c) d) e)

iii) Assertion - Aquatic food chain is the food chain preent in water bodies

Reason - The example of aquatic food chain is

phytoplankton--------zooplankton-----------fish-------------- shark

a) b) c) d) e)

Q2 1 mark Questions

i) Which of the following belongs to the first trophic levels?

Grasshopper, rose plant, cockroach , vulture , neem plant

ii) List two items which can be easily recycled but we generally throw
them in dustbins?

iii) If a harmful chemical enters the food chain comprising snakes

,peacock, mice and plants, which of these organisms is likely to have the
maximum concentration of this chemical in its body?

iv) Why did United Nations act to control the production of CFCs used in
refrigerators?

Q3 3 mark Questions

i) We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned,

Why?

ii) Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional?

iii) Number of vultures is decreasing remarkably in recent years which has

become a matter of concern
 a) Vultures belong to which category of animal?

b) What is their role in nature regarding the maintenance of ecological

balance?

c) Give the position of vultures occupy in a food chain.

iv) How would you dispose the following wastes?

a) Domestic wastes like vegetable peels?

b) Industrial wastes like metallic cans?

c) Plastic materials?

Q4 5 mark questions

i) Write in detail about garbage management?

ii) Suggest any five activites in daily life which are ecofriendly?

Q5 Case based Questions

All the organisms such as plants , animals , micro organisms and human beings
as well as the physical surroundings interact with each other and maintain a balance in
nature.All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non living constituents
of the environment form an ecosystem .Thus an ecosystem consists of biotic
components comprising physical factors like temperature , rainfall , wind , soil , and
minerals.

i) Replacing of plastic cups by the paper cups for selling tea on train is
preferred because

a) Paper cups are more aesthetic.

b) Paper cups are more hygienic.

c) Paper cups are cheaper.

 d) Paper cups are more biodegradable and eco friendly.

ii) Flow of energy in ecosystem is ----------------

a) Unidirectional b) bidirectional

c)Multidirectional d) no specific direction

iii) Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

a) Pond b) crop field

b) lake d) Forest

iv) Which of the following is not a functional component of an ecosystem?

a) Communities b) Decomposers

c) Sunlight d) Energy flow

Environment :- Case Study Based

The table shows some organisms and their food sources in an

ecosystem

1. Identify the primary consumer(s) in the ecosystem.

i) Snake

ii)Shrew

iii) Frog and Shrew

iv) Cricket and Grasshopper

2. A snake eats a frog. What percentage of energy of the frog is
transferred to the snake?

i) 1%

ii) 2%

iii) 10%

iv) 90%

3. Which of these represents the correct food web of the

ecosystem?

4. Which organism has the largest biomass in the ecosystem?

i) Grass

ii) Snake

iii) Eagle

iv)Grasshopper

5. The picture shows the different trophic levels of an ecosystem

1. Which level consists of herbivores?
2. The pair of reactions show the formation of ozone (O₃).

What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) rays in the reaction?

3. The ozone layer of the atmosphere shields the Earth’s

surface from the ultraviolet radiations of the Sun.

A. AIDS

B. COVID

C. Jaundice

D. Skin Cancer

Which of these is likely to increase in humans with

depletion of the ozone layer?

4. Composting is the process where organic wastes are

degraded into compost. The diagram shows the details of
 the process

1. What can be concluded from the diagram?

A. Composting helps in recycling plastic scraps.

B. Composting absorbs heat from the environment

C. Composting takes place only in the presence of

oxygen.

D. Composting takes place in the presence of either

oxygen or carbon dioxide

MCQ.
All the interacting organisms living in an particular area together with the non-living
components of the environment forms………………………

A Ecosystem

B Biosystem

C Geosystem

D Solar system

1. Non- living components in an ecosystem are known

as…………………components.

a) Biotic

b) Abiotic

c) Phenotics
d) None of the above

2. Forests, ponds and lakes are …………………..ecosystems

a) Natural

b) Man- made

c) Both natural and man- made

d) None of the above

3. All green plants are………………………………

a) Consumers

b) Detrivores

c) Producers

d) Carnivores

4. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem can capture about

…………………………of the light energy that falls on their leaves and convert it
into food energy.

a) 10%

b) 100%

c) 1%

d) 1.2%

5. The flow of energy is…………………………………….

a) bidirectional

b) unidirectional

c) multidirectional

d) none of the above.

6……………………………….. enzymes are needed for the break-down of a particular

substance.

a) General

b) Specific

c) Typical

d) Analytical
7. Substances that can be broken down by biological processes are called as
………………..substances.

a) Thermodegradable

b) Geodegradable

c) Biodegradable

d) Chemodegradable

8. The energy available at each trophic level gets decreased progressively due to
…………………………………..of the available energy at each level.

a) Multiplication

b) Loss

c) Addition

d) None of the above

Answer the Following

1. Give the examples of ecosystems you are familiar with?

2. How consumers can be classified?
3. What are the examples of decomposers?
4. Define food chain?
5. What are trophic levels?
6. Enlist the biotic components in an ecosystem you know?
7. What are the abiotic components of the ecosystem?
8. Define consumers?
9. Define biodegradable substances?
10. We can classify the organisms as producers, consumers and decomposers.
This classification is based on which parameter?
11. Solar energy is converted into which type of energy by autotrophs?

Long Answers

1. Write a note on producers?

2. Why autotrophs or producers are at first trophic level? Explain.
3. Write a note on trophic level?
4. Write a note on ozone and its formation?
5. Why it is necessary to make CFC-free refrigerators for all the refrigeration
manufacturing companies
6. Explain why energy flow is unidirectional?
7. Explain why food chains are of only three or four steps in their length and not
more?
 Chapter 10 - Light: Reflection & Refraction

Q1: Assertion - Reason

For each question, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as
given below

i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.

ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

iii) A is true but R is false.

iv) A is false but R is true

1) Assertion: Concave lenses are used in peepholes.

Reason: Concave lenses form virtual and erect images.

2) Assertion: An object placed in front of a convex lens forms the image of the same size.

Reason: Object is placed between the center of curvature and focus.

3) Assertion: Light traveling from air into a glass slab bends away from the normal.

Reason: Light moves faster in air than glass slab.

4) Assertion: A spherical lens has two foci, whereas spherical mirrors only have one.

Reason: A spherical lens causes refraction of light while a spherical mirror causes
reflection of light.

5) Assertion: Power of a concave lens is negative.

Reason: Focal length of concave lens is taken on the left hand side.

6) Assertion: Dentists use concave mirrors.

Reason: Concave mirrors are converging mirrors.

1 Mark Questions

1. How should a ray of light be incident on a rectangular glass slab so that it comes
out from the opposite side of the slab without being displaced?

2. Focal length of plane mirror is

a. At infinity
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. None of these

3. A ray of light traveling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend
towards or away from the normal ? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction
of light in this situation.

4. Write the difference between real image and virtual image.

5. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens each have a focal length of -10 cm. The
mirror and the lens are likely to be

(a) both concave

(b) both convex

 (c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex

(d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave

2 Mark Questions

1. An object is placed at a distance of 30cm from a concave lens of focal length

15cm.List four Characteristics of image formed by lens.

2. What is understood as lateral displacement of light? Illustrate this with the help of a
diagram. List two factors on which the lateral displacement in a particular substance
depends.

3. A truck uses a convex mirror as a viewfinder whose radius of curvature is 2.0 m. A

maruti car is coming behind the truck at a distance of 10 m. What will be the position of
the image of the car and size of the image of the car when observed by the driver of the
truck through the convex mirror?

4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how the
temperature is achieved by this device.

5. The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3. List four information you
obtain from this statement about mirror/image?

6. A student has to perform an experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing
through a rectangular glass slab for three different angles of incidence. Two of his
friends suggest the following options to him:

(A) Draw the incident rays corresponding to 20o , 50o and 70o as angles of incidence
and fix the two pins on the incident ray just 2 cm apart.

(B) Draw the incident rays corresponding to 30o , 45o and 60o as the angles of
incidence and fix two pins on the incident rays nearly 8 cm apart. Which is the better
option he should follow? Give reason in support of your answer.

7. A student obtained a sharp image of a lighted candle on a screen using a convex

lens. Now he wants to focus a distant lamp on a far away electric pole. In which
direction should the lens be move for this purpose with respect to the screen, to get a
sharp image on the screen? Justify your answer.

8. A ray of light enters into benzene from air. If the refractive index of benzene is 1.50,
by what percent does the speed of light reduce on entering the benzene?

3 Mark Questions

1. Answer below questions -

a) What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?

b) State and define the S.I. unit of power of a lens.

c) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length

10 cm are placed in close contact with each other. Calculate the lens
power of this combination.

2. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to vacuum are 3/2 and 4/3
respectively. If the speed of light in glass is 2 x 10^8 m/s, find the speed of light in
vacuum and water.

3. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30cm from a mirror is formed on
a screen placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 60cm from its pole. What is the
nature of the mirror? Find its focal length. If the height of flame is 2.4 cm. Find the
height of the image. State whether formed is erect or inverted.

4. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length

10 cm. Draw the ray diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image
formed.

5. A spherical mirror produces a magnification of -1, on a screen placed at a distance

of 50cm from the mirror.

i) Write the type of the mirror.

j) Find the distance of the image from the object.
k) What is the focal length of the mirror?
 l) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

6. Rohit focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He
noted down the position of the candle , screen and lens as under :

Position of candle = 26.0 cm

Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm

Position of screen = 74.0 cm

i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?

ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position
of 38 cm?

iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (ii) as said above?

Q7. Absolute refractive indices of two media P and Q are 1.33 (nP) and 2.52 (nQ)
respectively. The speed of light in medium P is 2 x 108 m/s. (a) What would be the
speed of light in medium Q (VQ)?

(b) If the angle of incidence for a ray of light travelling from medium P to Q is 0°, then
what will be the path of light in the medium Q

5 Mark Questions

3. A spherical mirror produces a magnification of -1, on a screen placed at a distance of

50cm from the mirror.
i) Write the type of the mirror.
j) Find the distance of the image from the object.
k) What is the focal length of the mirror?
l) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

2. (а) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image of an object placed between
infinity and the optical centre of a concave lens.

(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate-

(i) the distance of the object from the lens.

(ii) the magnification for the image formed.

(iii) the nature of the image formed.

Case Based Question

Mrs Vincent, grade 5 teacher, finds that her students do not draw when she draws on the board.
Every time she had to turn towards them to see whether they draw and label the diagrams.
John, one of her students, fixed two big mirrors at the two sides of the black board. With this
Mrs. Vincent was able to draw and also supervise her students through the mirror. All the
students did their work properly.

1.Which type of mirrors are fixed by John ?

2.State the nature and size of the image formed?

3.Write two uses of such a mirror to put and why?

4. A full length image of a distant building can be definitely be seen using

(a). concave mirror

(b). convex mirror

(c). plane mirror

(d). both concave as well as plane mirror

5.(i) Which property of concave mirror is utilized for using them as shaving mirrors?

(ii) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. Using
proper ray diagram, explain in what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differs
with respect to the incident beam of light.

(iii) A concave lens has a focal length of 50 cm. Calculate its power.

6. (i) A lens produces a magnification of -0.5. Is this a converging or diverging lens? If the focal
length of the lens is 6 cm, draw a ray diagram showing the image formation in this case.

(ii) A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by directing it from different
directions on a convex lens held vertically. She was surprised to see that in a particular
direction, the beam of light continues to move along the same direction after passing through
the lens. State the reason for her observation. Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.

7. (i) On entering in a medium from air, the speed of light becomes half of its value in air. Find
the refractive index of that medium with respect to air?

(ii) A glass slab made of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index
n2. A light ray is incident on the slab. Draw the path of the rays of light emerging from the glass
slab, if (i) n1> n2 (ii) n1 = n2 (iii) n1< n2
(a) What color(s) will be seen on the screen?

(b) Copy the diagram above and draw the beam entering Prism 1 and emerging from Prism 3
and falling on the screen.

(c) Name all the processes that takes place when the beam of light enters the Prism 1 and
emerges from Prism 3.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. An object at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The
focal length of the mirror is

(a) – 30 cm

(b) 30 cm

(c) – 15 cm

(d) +15 cm

2.A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ by

(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 0

3.The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value of i is

(a) 0°

(b) 45°

(c) 90°

(d) depend on the material of the slab

4.You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in
which the light will travel fastest is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) equal in all three media

5. Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be
(a) a zebra of black stripes

(b) a horse of black stripes

(c) a horse of less brightness

(d) a zebra of less brightness

6.When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed by it shift

(a) away from the lens

(b) towards the lens

(c) first towards and then away from the lens

(d) first away and then towards the lens

7.When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it, shift :

(a) away from the lens on the same side of object

(b) toward the lens

(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens

(d) first towards and then away from the lens

8.The laws of reflection hold good for

(a) plane mirror only

(b) concave mirror only

(c) convex mirror only

(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape

9. Light from the Sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called

(a) centre of curvature

(b) focus

(c) radius of curvature

(d) optical centre

10. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed

(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector

(b) very near to the focus of the reflector

(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector

(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector

11. Four students A,B,C and D did their experiment of finding the focal length of convex lens by
obtaining image of a distant object as follows:

i) Student A used the window grill in the laboratory as the object and a white paper sheet held in
hand as the screen.

ii) Student B used a distant tree in the shade and a white thick held in a stand as the screen.

iii) Student C used a well illuminated laboratory window grill as the object and a white paper
sheet held in a stand as the screen.

iv) Student D used a well illuminated distant tree as the object and a white thick board held in a
stand as the screen.

12. To trace the path of ray of light through the triangular glass prism, a student observes that
the emergent ray has

(a) bent away from the base of the prism

(b) bent towards the base of the prism

(c ) moved parallel to the direction of incident ray

(d) gone perpendicular to incident ray.

13. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?

A. Concave mirror as well as convex lens.

B. Convex mirror as well as concave lens.

C. Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each others.

D. Concave mirror as well as concave lens.

14. Consider these indices of refraction: glass: 1.52; air: 1.0003; water: 1.333. Based on the
refractive indices of three materials, arrange the speed of light through them in decreasing
order.

A. The speed of light in water > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in glass.

B. The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in air.

C. The speed of light in air > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in glass.

D. The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in water.

Q15. If a beam of red light and a beam of violet light are incident at the same angle on the
inclined surface of a prism from air medium and produce angles of refraction r and v
respectively, which of the following is correct?

A. r = v

B. r > v

C. r = 1/v

D. r < v

Chapter 13 - Magnetic effects of electric current

Q.1. The magnetic field lines in the middle of the current carrying solenoid are
(a) circles

(b) spirals

(c) parallel to the axis of the tube

(d) perpendicular to the axis of the tube

Q2.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding magnetic field lines?

(a) The direction of the magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the
north pole of a magnetic compass needle points.

(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves

(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength

(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field
lines

Q3.The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is

the largest when the angle between the conductor and the magnetic field is:

(a) 45

(b) 60

(c) 90

(d) 180

Q4.A student places some iron fillings around a magnet.The iron fillings
arrangethemselves as shown in image.The student labelled four different regions
around the magnet. Where would be the magnetic field the strongest?

(A) S

(B) R
(C) Q

(D) P

Q5.A light bar magnet is suspended near a current carrying wire as shown below. What
will happen to the light bar magnet?

A) It will rotate in a clockwise direction.

B) It will rotate in an anti-clockwise direction.

C) It will move to the right side.

D) It will move to the left side.

Q6.Who has stated the right hand thumb rule?

A)Oersted

B)Einstein

C)Fleming

D)Maxwell

Q7. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near along straight
current carrying wire?

(A)The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.

(B)The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.

(C)The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.

(D)The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

Q8.The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-
circuiting or Overloading is

(a) earthing
(b) use of stabilisers

(c) use of fuse

(d) use of electric metre

Q9.The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is :

(A) More at the ends than at the centre

(B) Minimum in the middle

(C) Same at all points

(D) Found to increase from one end to the other

Q10.Switches are connected to

(a) live wire.

(b) neutral wire.

(c) earth wire.

(d) anyone.
Q11.No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it is placed-
(A) Perpendicular to the magnetic field

(B) Parallel to the magnetic Field

(C ) Far away from the magnetic field

(D) Inside a magnetic field

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given by the

corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Q12. Assertion(A : The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a
current carrying solenoid is inversely proportional to the current flowing through the
solenoid.

Reason : The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current

carrying solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns per

unit length of a solenoid.

Q13. Assertion: Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.

Reason: There cannot be two directions of the magnetic field at a point.

Q14. Assertion: Magnetic field can be created using a solenoid.

Reason: The strength of the magnetic field will depend on the number of turns of the
solenoid.

Q15.Assertion : The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current
carrying circular coil increases on increasing the radius of the circular coil.

Reason : Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular
coil..

Q16.Assertion : On freely suspending a current-carrying solenoid, it comes to rest in

N-S direction just like a bar magnet.

Reason : One end of current carrying straight solenoid behaves as a North pole and
the other end as a South pole.

SECTION–B

1 mark questions

Q17. What is meant by a magnetic field?

Q18. How is the direction of the magnetic field at a point determined?

Q19. Why are magnetic field lines closed curves?

Q20. Mention the shape of the magnetic field lines around a current-carrying straight
conductor.

Q21. Differentiate between bar magnet and electromagnet.

Q22. Name the rule which gives the direction of current in a conductor.

Q23. State the rule which is used to find the direction of force in a current carrying
conductor..

Q24. List two sources of magnetic fields.

Q25. Define the term ‘induced current’.

Q26. When a current-carrying conductor is kept in a magnetic field, state the position
when maximum force acts on it.

Q27. State the conclusions that can be drawn from the observation that a
current-carrying wire deflects a magnetic needle placed near it.

Q28. Mention the angle between a current-carrying conductor and magnetic field for
which the force experienced by this current-carrying conductor placed in the magnetic
field is largest.

Q29.Name some sources of direct current and alternating current.

Q30. What does the crowding of magnetic field lines indicate?

Q31.Why are magnetic field lines more crowded towards the pole of a magnet?

SECTION B

2 mark QUESTIONS

Q32. How does the strength of magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor
depend upon

(i) distance from-the conductor?

(ii) current flowing through the conductor?

Q33.Define alternating current and direct current. Explain why alternating current is
preferred over direct current for transmission over long distances.
Q34. What does the magnetic field pattern inside the solenoid indicate? State how this
field can be utilized to make an electromagnet. List two ways by which strength of this
magnet can be increased.

Q35. Explain briefly two different ways to induce current in a coil. State the rule which
determines the direction of induced current.

Q36 Explain whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if:

(i) It is placed in the field at rest.

(ii) It moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.

(iii) It moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines.

Q37. How would the strength of magnetic field due to current carrying loop be affected
if:

(i) Radius of the loop is reduced to half its original value.

(ii) Strength of current through the loop is doubled.

Q38.A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation
for the following cases, and give reason for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is
displaced away from the wire.

Q39.How will the direction of force be changed, if the current is reversed in the
conductor placed in a magnetic field ?

SECTION C

3 MARKS

Q39. The flow of current in a circular wire creates a magnetic field at its center. How can
the existence of this field be detected? State the rule which helps to predict the direction
of the magnetic field.
Q40. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the
Figure. What are the directions of magnetic fields produced by it at points P and Q?
Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?

Q41. A circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the paper. Let the current pass through
the loop clockwise. With the help of a diagram, explain how the direction of the
magnetic field can be determined inside and outside the loop. Name the law used to
find the direction of the magnetic field.

Q42.Give reason for the following :

a.The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating.

b.It is dangerous to touch the live wire of the main supply rather than neutral wire.

c. Using a fuse in a household electric circuit is important.

Q43. Consider a circular wire lying in the plane of the table and the direction of current
in it is anticlockwise -

(e) Draw the magnetic field line produced around it

(f) Why does the magnetic field at the center of the current carrying loop appear
straight. Explain?

Q44.Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a statement
that the magnetic field at ‘A’ is stronger than at ‘B’. Justify this statement. Also redraw
the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.
Q45.For the same current flowing through a solenoid and a straight conductor, the
magnetic field produced by a solenoid is much stronger than the magnetic field
produced by a straight current carrying conductor. State one reason to justify this
statement.

5 MARK QUESTION

Q46. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram the distribution of a magnetic field due
to a current through a circular loop. Why is it that if a current carrying loop has n turns
the field produced at any point is n times as large as that produced by a single turn?

Q47. (i) How does the strength of the magnetic field due to the current carrying
conductor depend upon the current flowing and distance from the conductor?

Q48. α-particles are positively charged particles. State whether an a-particle will
experience any force in a magnetic field, if

(a) it is placed in a field at rest.

(b) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.

(c) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to the field lines. Justify your
answer in each case.

Q49. A current carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field of the
horse-shoe magnet. The conductor is displaced upward. What will happen to the
displacement of the conductor if-

(g) current in the conductor is increased

(h) a horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another stronger horse-shoe magnet and
(i) the length of the conductor is increased.
 Case study based question

Q50. In the birthday party of Bharat, a class 7 student, his parents gave big slinky to all
his friends as return gifts. The next day, during physics class Mr. Mohan, the teacher,
explained to them about the production of magnetic fields using current carrying coils
and also said that they can make permanent magnets, using such coils by passing high
currents through them. That night Sumanth,a friend of Bharat, asked his father about
the coils, and their shape. His father asked him to bring the slinky that his friend gave
and explained the uses of solenoid.

c. What type of magnetic field is developed inside a solenoid? Which rule is used to
determine the polarity of a solenoid ?

b. How does the magnetic field developed by a bar magnet different from solenoid?

c. What will happen if the distance between two consecutive turns of slinky is
increased?

d. How can the magnetic field produced in a solenoid be increased?

Q51.The change in electric current through the circuit produces a magnetic field around
it. Magnetic field is a vector quantity which has both magnitude as well as direction. The
magnetic field lines produced are directed from the north pole and end at the south
pole. These lines are closed curves from which strength of the magnetic field is
determined. Where magnetic field lines are crowded magnetic field is stronger and
where very apart the strength of magnetic field is weak. So, we can say that as the
current through the electrical circuit increases then the magnitude of the magnetic field
also increases. If a current carrying conductor is holded in the right hand by curling
fingers around it. Then, the thumb gives the direction of electric current and curled
fingers gives the direction of magnetic field.

As the magnitude of the magnetic field depends on the current through it. Also, if the
number of turns of wire in a circuit is more then also the magnitude of magnetic field is
more. If a coil having many circular turns of insulated copper wire wound closely to form
a cylindrical shape is called a solenoid. Solenoid is used to produce a strong magnetic
field which can be used to magnetise the piece of magnetic material. And hence they
are used in making electromagnet mainly.

Questions:

1) What is the nature of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid?

2) For what right hand thumb rule is used?

3) What are the properties of magnetic poles?

4) How can you determine the north pole of a current carryting solenoid?

Q52.The domestic electric circuit consists of a red insulated cover called as live wire,
wire with black insulation called neutral wire and the wire with green insulation is called
Earth wire. We know that the fuse is connected in series with the circuit to prevent the
damaging of electrical appliances and circuit from overloading. Overloading occurs
when live wire and the neutral wire come in direct contact with each other. Because of
which current through the circuit increases suddenly. Also, overloading may occur
because of connecting many appliances to a single socket. The Earth wire which is
green in colour is connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This type
of safety measure is used in appliances like electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator
etc. The Earth wire gives a low resistance conducting path for the electric current. In this
way it protects us from severe electric shock.

All the appliances are connected in a parallel circuit so that the potential difference
across each appliance will be the same.

Questions:

1) What are the signs of live wire and neutral wire?

2) In our country what is the potential difference between live wire and neutral wire?

3) What is short circuiting?

4) What is the main purpose of using a fuse in an electric circuit?

Q53..Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite
force on a current carrying conductor, which was experimentally found to be true. But
we know that current is due to charges in motion. Thus, it is clear that a charge moving
in a magnetic field experiences a force, except when it is moving in a direction parallel
to it. If the direction of motion is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the
magnitude of force experienced depends on the charge, velocity (v) , strength of
magnetic field(B), and sine of the angle between v and B.

Questions

1.Write the statement of the rule to find out the direction of force.

2.What is the S.I unit of Magnetic field.

3.Define S.I unit of magnetic field.

4.List two properties of magnetic field lines.

case based questions on our environment

1. Advancement of the technology has resulted in improvement of our lifestyle and

has also changed our attitude. When the human population was low and technology
was in its infancy, the various kinds of solid wastes generated due to human activities
were easily degraded by decomposers present in nature and it did not create any
Significant harmful effect on the environment. In the recent times, however human
population has increased tremendously and the technology has become greatly
advanced. These two factors have contributed Significantly in the deterioration of our
environment due to addition of number of wastes.

(i) Samaira took three different types of solid wastes P,Q, R and buried them under the
soil in a pot, as she wanted to study their rate of decomposition. Her findings are shown
in the given graph

Select the option that correctly identifies P, Q and R

P Q R

(a) Polythene bag Leather bag Fruit peel

(b) Used syringes Broken glass Leather purse

(c) Cardboard Cow dung Rubber mat

(d) Human excreta Paper cup Cow dung

2. (ii) Which of the following statements regarding solid wastes is correct?

(a) Change in the packaging technology has resulted in generation of lot of solid
wastes.

(b) Dumping of solid wastes could reduce the fertility of the soil leading to reduction in
crop yield.

(c) Accumulation of solid waste could cause increased incidents of disease in a locality.

(d) All of these

(iii) Teacher kept few solid wastes in her class as given

Jute bag (I), Tube light (II), Aluminium (oil (III), Paper cup (IV), Fruits (V), Glass tumbler
(VI), Hedge trimming (VII), Plastic bag (VIII), Metal keys (IX), DDT (X)
3. She asked students to arrange them in group A (Biodegradable) and group B
(Non-biodegradable). Select the student that has grouped the items correctly.

(a) Tarun - Group A: I, IV, V,VII, Group B : II, III, VI, VIII, IX, X

(b) Shivani - Group A : I, III, V,VII, X Group B : II, IV, VI, VIII, IX

(c) Neha - Group A: II, III, IV, V, IX Group A: II, III, IV, V, IX

(d) Advait - Group A : I, III, IV, V,X Group B : II, VI, VII, VIII, IX

4. (iv) Select the option that incorrectly matches the type of solid waste and its
correct disposal system

(a) Plastic bottle - Send for recycling

(b) Used tea leaves and kitchen waste - Collect in a pit to form compost

(c) Used syringes and needle - Wash and reused

(d) Municipal solid waste and fecal sludge - Buried in low lying areas to level uneven
surface of land

(v) Given graph shows time taken by different types of materials to decompose.

Which of the following substances could be anon-biodegradable material?

(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) None of these

5. In any given ecosystem, all living organisms are linked in a systematic chain with
respect to their mode of manufacturing food/feeding habits. This sequential interlinking
of organisms involving transfer of food energy from producers through a series of
organisms with repeated eating and being eaten is called the food chain. A food chain
may have 3-4 trophic levels.

(i) Which of the following statements regarding food chain is incorrect?

(a) It is a single straight pathway through which food energy travels in the ecosystem.

(b) It adds adaptability and competitiveness to the organisms.

(c) Presence of isolated food chains adds to instability of the ecosystem.

(d) Food chain binds up inorganic nutrients of the ecosystem.

(ii) Consider the following food chain.

Grass \(\longrightarrow\)A \(\longrightarrow\)Frog \(\longrightarrow\)
Snake\(\longrightarrow\)Eagle

Which of the following can be placed at A?

(a) Grasshopper (b) Rabbit (c) Phytoplankton (d) Rat

6. (iii) Select the correct food chain.

(a) Aquatic plants \(\longrightarrow\) Tadpole \(\longrightarrow\)Water

beetle\(\longrightarrow\)Pike\(\longrightarrow\)Perch

(b) Grass\(\longrightarrow\)Grasshopper\(\longrightarrow\)Snake\(\longrightarrow\)
Frog\(\longrightarrow\) Eagle

(c) Grass\(\longrightarrow\) Rabbit\(\longrightarrow\) Wild cat\(\longrightarrow\) Tiger

(d) Zooplankton \(\longrightarrow\) Phytoplankton \(\longrightarrow\)Small

fish\(\longrightarrow\)Fish

(iv) Food chains are sustained by producers and _____________.

(a) herbivores (b) carnivores (c) omnivores (d) decomposers

7. (v) Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Food chain may terminate at level of herbivore

(b) Food chain is always straight

(c) Food chain may have 3-5 trophic levels

(d) In a food chain, 80 to 90% of potential energy is lost as heat, at each transfer

8. Alternatives are always available in nature which results in a sort of interlocking

pattern or food web. For instance, if a particular species of producers get destroyed by a
disease in an ecosystem, herbivores of that area can feed on other species. Also in a
food web, any given species may operate simultaneously at more than one trophic level

(i) Refer to the given food web.

What will be the effect on the food web if population of water fleas get eliminated?

(a) Population of water beetles will increase.

(b) Population of insect larvae will remain unaffected.

(c) Population of small fish will decrease.

(d) Population of frog will increase.

(ii) In the given food web, which organism operates at both primary and tertiary
consumer level?

(a) Small fish (b) Frog (c) Water fleas (d) Tadpole

9. (iii) Refer to the given food web.

Which of the following statemethe given food web is correct?

(a) When population of U decreases, population of R ants regarding nd V will increase.

(b) When population of Q decreases, population of R, T and U will increase.

(c) When population of R increases, population of S will increase.

(d) When population of S increases, population of R, T and U will also increase.

(iv) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Food webs provide alternative pathways of food availability.

(b) Greater alternatives available in a food web make the ecosystem more stable.

(c) Food webs also help in ecosystem development.

(d) All of these

(v) Food webs make a natural ecosystem ____________ than an man-made ecosystem

(a) unstable (b) stable (c) variable (d) inconsistent

10. Some harmful non-biodegradable chemicals, i.e., pesticides (e.g., DDT) and
heavy metals (e.g., mercury, arsenic cadmium, etc.) enter the bodies of organism
through the food chain and go on concentrating at each trophic level. This phenomenon
is called bio-magnification or biological magnification.

(i) Refer to the given food chain

Phytoplankton \(\longrightarrow\) Zooplankton \(\longrightarrow\)Small fish

\(\longrightarrow\) Large fish\(\longrightarrow\)Fish eating birds
If concentration of DDT in small fish is estimated to be 0.5 ppm, then amount of DDT in
zooplankton and large fish would respectively be

(a) 0.04 ppm, 2ppm (b) 2 ppm, 0.04 ppm (c) 0.04 ppm, 0.04 ppm (d) 2 ppm,
0.5 ppm.

11. Refer to the given table.

Organism Amount of cadmium

A 0.5 ppm

B 25ppm

C 0.003 ppb

D 2ppm

E 0.04ppm

12. A group of scientists analysed samples of five different animals from a river for
possible accumulation of DDT in their body due to bio-magnification. The result
obtained is shown in the given graph.

The correct order of the food chain operating in a river is

(iv) Higher amount of DDT disturb calcium metabolism of birds. This results in

(a) thickening of their egg shells (b) premature breaking of eggs

(c) death of their embryos (d) both (b) and (c)

(v) When animals are sprayed with poisons, they may die immediately, but their bodies
still contain the poison. The poison in their bodies will then be passed on to the animals
which eat them. What would be the consequence of a mass poisoning of the rabbit
population in a grazing food chain and why?

(a) Plants would die quickly as they are eaten by rabbits

(b) Grasshopper would die quickly as all the animals in the food web would be affected

(c) Western rattlesnakes would quickly become poisoned as they eat rabbits

(d) Hawk would become poisoned as they feed on rabbits

13. Ozone layer is present in the earth's atmosphere. It is in the form of a protective
shield. It contains three oxygen atoms (O3) which are formed as a consequence of
photochemical reactions in the environment. Ozone absorbs harmful ultraviolet
radiations of the sun. In this way, it protects all living beings on the earth. The thinning of
ozone layer due to various human activities allows more UV radiations to pass through
it which leads to harmful effects on man, animals and plants.

(i) Ozone layer is present in which layer of the atmosphere?

(a) Troposphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Stratosphere (d) Thermosphere

(ii) Enhanced UV-radiations would affect humans and other animals causing

(a) skin cancer

(b) blindness and increased chances of cataract in eyes

(c) malfunctioning of the immune system

(d) all of these

(iii) Read the given statements regarding ozone.

I. Ozone hole was first discovered over Montreal in 1976.

II. Ozone is a result of photochemical reactions in which starting molecule is oxygen.

III. Harmful chemicals produce active chlorine in presence of UV radiations, that

destroys ozone layers.

IV. Ozone absorbs UV-radiations in the range of 800 - 1100 A.

Select the option that correctly identifies them as true (T) and false (F).

I II III IV

(a) F T T F

(a) F F T T

(c) T T F F

(d) T F T T

(iv) Which of the following are related to depletion of ozone layer?

(a) Chlorofluorocarbons (b) Halons

(c) Carbon tetrachloride (d) All of these

(v) Refer to the given events regarding thinning of ozone layer and arrange them in a
sequence.

I. Active chlorine is produced in presence of UV radiations.

II. CFCs are released in the air.

III. Ozone layer in the stratosphere become thin.

IV. CFCs enter from troposphere into stratosphere.

V. Use of CFCs in refrigerators and air conditioners as coolants.

VI. Active chlorine destroy ozone by converting it into oxygen.

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