120

CHAPTER 5
LIFE PROCESSES
QUESTION BANK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. Haemoglobin and chlorophyll have similar structures.
- A molecule of haemoglobin is composed of atoms of 4 elements (carbon,
hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen, all four organised around iron.
- A chlorophyll is composed the same elements (carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
and nitrogen, all four organised around magnesium)
Considering the above information, which element of haemoglobin is most likely
to be responsible for red colour of our blood?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon (d) Iron
Q2. The image shows the process of making food by a plant.

Which statement can be concluded from the image?

(a) plants absorb CO2 from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and convert
them into glucose.
(b) plants absorb CO2 from the soil and H2O from air as raw materials and convert
them into glucose.
(c) plants absorb O2 from air and glucose from the soil as raw materials and convert
them into light energy.
(d) plants absorb O2 from air and minerals from the soil as raw materials and convert
them into heat energy.

Q3. A student sets up an experiment to study the importance of nutrition in plants.

The student takes 2 pots, pot 1 and pot 2 each with the same healthy plant. Both the
pots were placed in the garden and watered properly. Pot 1 was kept as such, while
pot 2 was kept in an air tight glass box with caustic soda. Caustic soda absorbs
carbon dioxide present in the surrounding. After 2 days, the student observes that
the plant kept in the garden is healthy while the plant placed in container shed leaves
and droops. What is the likely reason for this observation?
(a) lack of nutrients in the soil
(b) absence of oxygen for survival
(c) inability to perform photosynthesis
(d) absorption of light by caustic soda restricting growth
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Q4. Which of the equation show correct conversion of CO2 and H2O into
carbohydrates in
plants?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q5. A student sets up an experiment to study the photosynthesis in plants. The

student destarched a potted plant by keeping it in a dark room for 3 days. Half of the
portion of destarched leaf was placed in a bottle containing caustic potash (absorbs
CO2) as shown.

The student then places the plant in light and tests the leaf after 5 hours for the
presence of starch. The portions inside the bottle shows negative starch test by
reflecting no change in colour when react with iodine, however, other upper portions
of the leaf gave positive starch test showing blue-black colour with iodine. What can
be evaluated from this experiment?
(a) carbon dioxide is directly linked with the colour of leaf
(b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate
(c) lack of carbon dioxide increases amount of starch in plant
(d) lack of carbon dioxide slows the process of photosynthesis
Q6. What will be the likely happen if the number of villi increases in the intestine?
(a) increase in the absorption of food
(b) fast elimination of waste from the body
(c) increase in flow of blood in the small intestine
(d) fast breakdown of larger food particles into smaller ones

Q7. Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?
(a) Lungs→pulmonary vein→left atrium→left ventricle→aorta→body cells
(b) Lungs→pulmonary vein→right atrium→right ventricle→aorta→body cells
(c) Lungs→pulmonary artery→left atrium→left ventricle→venacava→body cells
(d) Lungs→pulmonary artery→right atrium→right ventricle→venacava→body cells
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Q8. Nephron is a unit of filtration in kidneys that filters waste material. It selectively
reabsorbs or excretes water with the help of capillaries that surround it. What is the
likely benefit of this?
(a) It makes the process of filtration at Bowman’s capsule easier.
(b) It helps keep the output of urine constant throughout the day.
(c) It helps to uptake and store excess amount of water in the body for later use.
(d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the amount of water present in
the body.
Q9. Choose the incorrect pair
(a) Ultrafiltration - glomerulus
(b) Storage of urine – urinary Bladder
(c) Reabsorption – tubule
(d) Concentration of Urine – urethra
Q10. We often hear a complaint of overproduction of acid in the stomach. The acid
referred here is:
(a) HNO3 (b) H2SO4 (c) HCl (d) H3PO4

ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q1. Assertion (A): Desert plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis during the
night.
Reason (R): In desert plants, the stomata are closed during the day to conserve
water by reducing transpiration.
Q2. Assertion (A): Warm- blooded animals have their left and right side of the heart
separated for more efficient supply of oxygen to the body.
Reason (R): Energy needs of warm- blooded animals are very low for
maintaining their body temperature.

Q3. Assertion (A): Depending on the complexity of the carbon sources, different
organism uses different kinds of nutritional processes
Reason (R) : Life on earth depend on carbon based molecules, most of these
food sources are also carbon based.
Q4. Assertion (A): In the absence of oxygen the muscle cells undergo aerobic
respiration.
Reason (R): In anaerobic respiration, pyruvate is converted into lactic acid
which is also three carbon molecules.
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Q5. Assertion (A): All the arteries carry oxygenated blood from the heart to various
organs.

Reason (R): Pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood to the Heart.

Q6. Assertion (A): Artificial kidney is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste
products from the blood through dialysis.
Reason (R): Reabsorption occur in artificial kidney.

Q7. Assertion (A): Rings of cartilage are present in the throat.

Reason (R): These ensure that the air-passage does not collapse.

VERY SHORT ANSWER

Q1.In respiration, glucose is broken down into a 3-C molecule called
pyruvate, in the cytoplasm of the cell. Is this particular process aerobic or
anaerobic in nature? Justify your answer.
Q2. In most adults, the left atrium is separated from the right atrium by a
septum (wall) to prevent the oxygen-rich blood in the left atrium from
mixing with the blood containing a higher amount of carbon dioxide in the
right atrium. The patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a hole in the septum
separating the left and right atria (upper chambers) of the heart. This hole
exists in everyone before birth, but most often closes shortly after a baby
is born. Explain why the hole in the septum separating the atria does not
cause problems in a baby before it is born.
Q3.In diabetic patients, with high blood glucose levels, the urine sample
also consists of high levels of glucose. This is mainly because, in the
nephron, glucose is not reabsorbed back into the blood.Explain why does
reabsorption not take place in two points.

Q4. Which respiratory pigment is present in the blood aiding in exchange

of gases in man?

Q5. What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?

Q6. A student observed green dot like structures in some cells when a leaf peel
was viewed under a microscope. Identify these dots and mention what is the green
colour due to?

Q7. Lungs always contain residual volume. Why?

Q8. Name the material transported by the following in plants? (i) Xylem (ii) Phloem

Q9. Name any two major substances which are selectively reabsorbed from the
tubules of a nephron.

Q10. In each of the following situations the rate of the photosynthesis will decrease?
(a) Cloudy days (b) Good manuring in the area (c) Stomata get blocked due to dust
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 Given below is an image of an experiment conducted by a student to understand
the process of respiration. He blows into a clear solution present in the test tube and
sees that it turns cloudy.

(a) What is the most likely substance present in the test tube?
(b) What could be the aim of his experiment?
(c) What kind of respiration is shown in the experiment? Justify your answer.
Q2. There are different nutrients required by the human body. These are in 3 major
categories of carbohydrates, fats and proteins (apart from vitamins, minerals and
roughage).
(a) Digestion of nutrient R happens in the stomach. Identify R.
(b) Consider fats and oils from your diet as large globules in your digestive tract.
Name the reaction that can help in making these easier to absorb.
(c)what is the difference in the kind of medium required for digestive enzymes in the
stomach and the small intestine to work?
Q3.In the digestive tract, food is moved forward by the rhythmic
contraction of muscles lining the tract. This process is called peristalsis.
list all the parts of the digestive tract in which peristalsis occurs.
Q4.Human systems work in coordination with each other. Pratik spent an
hour in the swimming pool and found himself breathing heavily.
(a) Name the:

(i) system/s that help his body regain normalcy

(ii) system/s that help the systems mentioned in (a-i) to function

(b) What can happen to the composition of Pratik's blood if the
system/s mentioned in (a-i) does/do not respond properly?

Q5. Illustrate with diagram the mechanism taking place when

(a) The guard cells swell when water flows in them
(b) The guard cells shrink when water leaves the cells.
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Q6. Human beings exhibit ‘double circulation’.

(a) state the route of the first and the second circulation through the chambers of the
heart .
(b) Name the (i) blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the
heart.
(ii) blood vessels that carry de oxygenated blood from the heat to the
lungs.
Q7. There are various muscles present in the human digestive system known as
sphincters. Two such examples are:
1. Pyloric sphincter – at the junction of stomach and small intestine.
2. Anal sphincter- at the anus. Write their functions.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1 Aerobic respiration requires intake of oxygen to breakdown food to release
energy.
(a) Name the structures through which gaseous exchange takes place in plants and
human beings.
(b) Name the structures that controls the size of the chest cavity in humans to
facilitate exchange of gases.
(c) What is the process by which gas exchange occurs in plants?
(d) Why is the process named in (c) not sufficient to carry oxygen throughout human
body? How is this complemented in humans to ensure that oxygen is carried to all
parts of the body?
(e) Reactions in living systems can absorb heat or release heat. State whether the
heat energy is absorbed/ released during digestion. Also write the scientific term to
denote the same.
Q2. (a) Draw a diagram depicting human alimentary canal and label the
components- gall bladder, liver, and pancreas in it.
(b) State the role of pancreas in digestion of food.

Q3. (a) Draw a flow chart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways.
(b) Where does glycolysis and Krebs cycle occur in aerobic respiration?

CASE BASED / SOURCE BASED TYPE

Q1) Answer the questions based on the following information.
William Harvey (1578–1657) was one of the early biologists who studied the bodies
of humans and animals. He even dissected the bodies and did experiments with the
heart and blood vessels. He concluded from his experiments that the blood leaves
the heart through the arteries and returns via the veins. However, he could not
 126

explain how blood left the arteries to enter the veins. He said there must be some
structure between arteries and veins but he could not find them. Marcello Malpighi
(1628–1694) later discovered these structures while studying a dead frog's lungs
under a microscope.
Q.1.1 Which vessels connecting arteries and vein did Malpighi might have
discovered later while studying frogs under microscope?
Q.1.2 What is the most likely reason why Harvey could NOT find these structures?
Q1.3 Arteries have thicker walls than veins, but no valves. Why?
Q1.4 Which two chambers of the human heart have arteries connected to them?
Q2. Read the given passage and related study concepts answer the following
questions.
Lung cancer is the most widely known and most harmful effect of smoking :98% of
cases are associated with cigarette smoking. The damaging components of cigarette
smoke include tar, carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and nitric oxide. Many of
these harmful chemicals occur in greater concentrations in side-stream smoke
(passive smoking) than in mainstream smoke (inhaled) due to the presence of a filter
in the cigarette.
2.1 Why is passive smoking more dangerous than active smoking?
2.2 (i) What are the consequences if the membranes of alveoli tear off due to chain
smoking?

(ii) lungs become weak making the person more susceptible to infections like
pneumonia.

Q3. Read the given passage and related study concepts answer the following
questions

This transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation and it

occurs in the part of the vascular tissue known as phloem. Besides the products of
photo-synthesis, the phloem transports amino acids and other substances. These
substances are especially delivered to the storage organs of roots, fruits and seeds
and to growing organs. The translocation of food and other substances takes place
in the sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion cells both in upward and
downward directions. Unlike transport in xylem which can be largely explained by
simple physical forces, the translocation in phloem is achieved by utilising energy,
Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP. This
increases the osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it. This
pressure moves the material in the phloem to tissues which have less pressure. This
allows the phloem to move material according to the plant’s needs. For example, in
the spring, sugar stored in root or stem tissue would be transported to the buds
which need energy to grow.
3.1. The translocation of food in plants takes place in which direction?
3.2. What is the term given for the transportation of food in plants by phloem
elements?
3.3. Which main components of phloem help in the translocation process in plants?
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Q4.Read the text below and answer the given questions

The heart is a muscular organ which is as big as our fist. Because both oxygen and
carbon dioxide have to be transported by the blood, the heart has different chambers
to prevent the oxygen-rich blood from mixing with the blood containing carbon
dioxide. The carbon dioxide-rich blood has to reach the lungs for the carbon dioxide
to be removed, and the oxygenated blood from the lungs has to be brought back to
the heart. This oxygen-rich blood is then pumped to the rest of the body.
4.1. How many chambers are present in the heart of mammals and reptiles?
4.2. Name the device that measures blood pressure?
4.3 What is hypertension? Give two reasons which can cause it.

REFRENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=5-13
6) https://docs.google.com/document/d/1x4PG4fqTinTBhaxdLsgk2D-9utxTUns6/edit
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1baPNN_gVSZT257LAA4PaAc55K8ZotWSs/ed
it#heading=h.tyjcwt

CHAPTER 5
LIFE PROCESSES
ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. (d) Iron
Q2. (a) plants absorbCO2from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and
convert them into glucose.
Q3. (c) inability to perform photosynthesis

Q4.(c)

Q5. (b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate

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Q6. (a) increase in the absorption of food

Q7. (a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells

Q8.(d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the amount of water present
in the body.

Q9. (d) Concentration of Urine – urethra

Q10.(c) HCl

ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

Q1. (a)
Q2. (c)
Q3. (a)
Q4. (d)
Q5. (d)
Q6. (c)
Q7. (a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER

Q.1- anaerobic
-This step occurs in all organisms, even those that respire anaerobically
and so this process is likely to be anaerobic.
Q2. The hole in the septum does not cause problems in an unborn
infant as the developing embryo gets nutrition and oxygen from the
mother's blood through the placenta and umbilical cord.
Q3. When some of the glucose from the blood is filtered in the urine, it
does not get reabsorbed as the concentration of glucose is already high
in the blood and so there is little/no concentration gradient causing
glucose to be retained in the urine.

Q4. haemoglobin.

Q5.Flow of water will be disrupted and the process of photosynthesis will be

affected leading to Wilting and death.

Q6.Chloroplast; chlorophyll

Q7. The residual volume acts as a reservoir, ensuring a constant supply of oxygen
for diffusion into the bloodstream and removal of carbon dioxide.

Q8. (i) Xylem- Water and dissolved minerals (ii) Phloem- Organic nutrients (food)

Q9. Glucose and aminoacids

Q10. (a) Cloudy days and (c) Stomata get blocked due to dust
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SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 (a) lime water / dilute aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide/ Ca(OH)2
(b) To prove that carbon dioxide is released during respiration
(c) aerobic respiration; CO2 is a product of either aerobic respiration or
fermentation, fermentation does not take place in human cells.
Q2. (a)Protein
(b) emulsification
(c)Digestive enzymes in the stomach need an acidic medium while those
in the small intestine need an alkaline medium
Q3.-pharynx

- oesophagus

- stomach

- small intestine

- large intestine
anus
Q4.(a)(i) circulatory and respiratory systems
(ii) nervous system
(b) increased carbon dioxide quantity in blood
Q5. (a)The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells. The
guard cells swell when water flows into them, causing the stomatal pore to open.
(b) Similarly, if the guard cells shrink the pore closes.

Q6. (a) – during first circulation: oxygenated blood from lungs come to the left atrium
to left ventricle to pass to the body.
- during second circulation: deoxygenated blood from the body comes to the
right atrium and then right ventricle to pass for oxygenation to the lungs
again.
(b) (i) Pulmonary vein (ii) Pulmonary artery
Q7.1. controls the flow of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the
small intestine.
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2.The anal sphincter controls the bowel movements (stool continence) and the
passage of faeces.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1. (a)Plants: stomata/guard cells Human beings: alveoli/ lungs
(b) Diaphragm & ribs
(c) diffusion
(d) because diffusion is a slow process and human beings have complex tissues
that might not allow diffusion to happen effectively and easily - carried by the
blood/haemoglobin in the blood.
(e) use up heat – endothermic
Q2. (a) Figure 5.6 page 85- NCERT text book
(b) The enzymes in the pancreatic juice further help in digestion as follows:

1) Trypsin Protein digestion

2) Amylase Carbohydrates digestion
3) Lipase Fat digestion

Q3. (a) Figure 5.8 page 88 NCERT text book

(b) glycolysis – cytoplasm Krebs cycle- mitochondria
CASE BASED / SOURCE BASED TYPE
Q.1.1 capillaries
Q.1.2 These structures were too small to be seen by the naked eye.
Q1.3 Walls are thicker to withstand the high pressure of blood pumped by the heart.
- Arteries don't need valves because blood generally flows in one direction
away from the heart. The elasticity of the arteries themselves help maintains this
unidirectional flow.
Q1.4. left ventricle and right ventricle.
Q2.1 smoke if inhaled contains a significant amount of harmful chemicals that can
cause serious health problems like allergies, asthma, bronchitis etc.
Q2.2 (i) When an alveolar sac tears, it becomes less efficient in gas exchange
leading to shortness of breath.
(ii) lungs become weak making the person more susceptible to infections like
pneumonia.

Q3.1. In both in upward and downward directions

Q3.2. translocation.
Q3.3. Sieve Tubes and Companion Cells.

Q4.1. Three
Q4.2. Sphygmomanometer
 131

Q4.3. A condition arising due to high blood pressure. Reason that can cause
hypertension are- Diabetes, Kidney problems, Hyperthyroidism, Pregnancy, Obesity
(any of these)

REFERENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=5-13
6) https://docs.google.com/document/d/1x4PG4fqTinTBhaxdLsgk2D-
9utxTUns6/edit
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CHAPTER 6
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
QUESTION BANK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. In a neurons conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/ in

(a) cell body (b) axonal end (c) dendritic end (d) axon.
Q2. Sapna suffers from a condition due to which her blood sugar level is 174mg/dL.
The average blood sugar level in a healthy adult is < 140mg/dL. Which of the
following could be the cause of Sapna’s condition?
(a) insufficient production of thyroxin in her body
(b) insufficient production of insulin in her body
(c) excess production of thyroxin in her body
(d) excess production of insulin in her body
Q3. Walking in a straight line and riding a bicycle are that activities which are
possible due to a part of brain, Choose the correct location and name of this part
from the given table.

PART OF BRAIN NAME

a) Fore brain Cerebellum
b) Mid brain Medulla
oblongata
c) Hind brain Hypothalamus
d) Hind brain Cerebellum

Q4. A gardener wants the plants in the hedge that he is growing to become bushier
with more branches. Which of the following step he should do?
(a) spray water on the tips of stems to increase growth
(b) dig around the plant roots and apply more manure
(c) trim the hedge by cutting off the tips of the stems
(d) remove all weeds that grow around the hedge.
Q5. How will information travel within a neuron?
(a) Dendrite→cell body→axon→ nerve ending
(b) Dendrite→axon→ cell body→nerve ending
(c) Axon→dendrite→cell body→ nerve ending
(d) Axon→cell body→dendrite→nerve ending
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Q6. Which option correctly shows the order of events when a bright light is focused
on our eyes?
(a) Bright light→ receptors in eyes → sensory neuron→spinal cord→motor
neurons→eyelid closes.
(b) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→spinal cord→sensory neuron→ motor
neurons→eyelid closes.
(c) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→sensory neuron→motor neurons→spinal
cord→ eyelid closes.
(d) Bright light→ receptors in eyes→spinal cord→motor neurons→sensory
neuron→eyelid closes.
Q7. Which parts of the brain controls the blood pressure?
(a) fore brain -cerebrum (b) fore brain - hypothalamus
(c) mid brain- pons (d) hind brain- medulla
Q8. When we touch the leaves of “touch-me-not” plant, they began to fold up and
droop. How does the plant communicate the information of touch?
(a) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from external
environment to cells.
(b) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from cell
to cell.
(c) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from
tissue to specialized cells.
(d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from cell to
specialized tissues.
Q9. The gap between nerve ending of one nerve cell and dendrite of the other nerve
cell is -----
(a) Synapse (b) Axon
(c) Cell body (d) Nucleus

Q10.The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to

(a) effect of light
(b) effect of gravity
(c) rapid cell division in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
(d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
ASSERTION REASON TYPE
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
 133

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q1. Assertion (A): All reflex actions are involuntary actions but only some involuntary
actions are reflex actions.
Reason (R): Reflex actions take the shortest route from the receptor (detector of
stimulus) to the effector (producer of response).

Q2. Assertion (A): Blood cells do not receive or pass information to the rest of the
human body.
Reason (R): Blood cells are not directly connected with neurons.

Q3. Assertion: Cytokinins are present in highest concentration in seeds.

Reason: Cytokinins are a responsible for promoting cell division.

Q4. Assertion: It is advised to have iodised salt in our diet.

Reason: It prevents us from goitre.

Q5. Assertion(A): A receptor is a specialized group of cells in a sense organ that

perceive a particular type of stimulus.
Reason (R): Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.

Q6. Assertion(A): The spinal nerves are 31 in number.

Reason (R): The spinal nerves assist the spinal cord to function.

Q7. Assertion(A): Walking, riding a bicycle are involuntary actions controlled by hind
brain.
Reason (R): Walking, riding a bicycle are controlled by cerebellum.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?

Q2. As first line of defense, stress hormones are released in humans.As an

equivalent, which hormone is likely to be released as first line of defense in plants

Q3. Sheila saw a snake and instantly jumped back. She slowly moved away from the
snake. What is the difference between the actions of instantly jumping and walking
away?

Q4. While on a roller coaster ride, Aditya noticed an increase in his heart beat and
his breathing. Which hormone is responsible for the changes in Aditya’s body?

Q5. Rita, say she suffers from hypothyroidism. Which is function is disrupted in this
deficiency disease?
 134

Q6. Name the structure that protects the spinal cord.

Q7. Which stimulus is related to thigmotropism?

Q8. Pick out the dual glands from the followingand give reason.

(i) Salivary glands (ii) Liver (iii)Pancreas

Q9. Name the gland which is associated with the following problems:
(i) A girl has grown extremely tall
(ii) A woman has swollen neck

Q10.Which of the following actions are involuntary.

(i) Shivering when it is too cold.

(ii) Cutting fruits for making fruit salad.

(iii) Changing channels on TV to watch your favourite programme.

(iv) Peristaltic movement in oesophagus when swallowing food.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Write the name and function of parts in the diagram given below:

Q2. Draw a neat diagram of neuron and label the following.

(i) Part where information is first received.

(ii) Part through which impulse travels.

(iii) Part through which it is released into synapse.

Q3. Raj is blindfolded. He is made to taste the food without seeing it. He
concludes that the food is burnt.
(a) What specific component of the tongue helped him conclude the
taste of the food?
(b) If the food was crunchy, which part of the brain would help him
recognize this texture of the food?
Q4. Raghav was watching Nia and made the following observation:
Nia was practicing boxing. As her opponent swung an arm, Nia ducked
down and retaliated with a punch.
 135

(a) Raghav said that ducking down is a reflex action. Is he correct?

Justify.
(b) Explain the nervous process involved in Nia's retaliation with a
punch.

Q5. Here is a picture of a germinating seed.

(a) What is the environmental stimulus required for the seed to develop roots
downwards and shoots upwards? Name the respective phenomenon.

(b) What environmental factor in the experimental setup shown below can be
altered in Figure X to observe the direction of root growth as observed in Figure
Y?

(c) Name the tropic movement that occurs when pollen tubes grow towards ovules.

Q6. Ovary is a dual gland. Justify.

Q7. How does feedback mechanism regulate hormone secretion?

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Answer the following questions:

(i) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? Name the disease caused due to
deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(ii) How do nerve impulses travel in the body? Explain.

Q2.(a) Give the difference between a reflex action and reflex arc?
(b) Write the differences between the manner in which movement takes place in a
sensitive plant and movement in our legs?

Q3. What are reflex actions? Give examples? Explain reflex arc with an example
with labelled diagram?
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CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1. Read the following passage and answer the questions followed
Some plants like the pea plant climb up other plants or fences by means of tendrils.
These tendrils are sensitive to touch. When they come in contact with any support,
the part of the tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part
of the tendril away from the object. This causes the tendril to circle around the object
and thus cling to it. More commonly, plants respond to stimuli slowly by growing in a
particular direction. Because this growth is directional, it appears as if the plant is
moving.
1.1 Name different types of tropism are shown by plants?
1.2 The movement of ‘touch me not’ plant is different from growth of shoot in the
response to light What is the difference?
1.3 Give one example of chemotropism?
1.4 Name the plants hormones which promote and inhibit cell division in plants.

Q2. Read the following passage and answer the questions followed:-
The term neurodegeneration is a combination of two words - "neuro," referring to
nerve cells and "degeneration," referring to progressive damage. The term
"neurodegeneration" can be applied to several conditions that result in the loss of
nerve structure and function. This deterioration gradually causes a loss of cognitive
abilities such as memory and decision making. Neurodegeneration is a key aspect of
a large number of diseases that come under the umbrella of “neurodegenerative
diseases.” Of these hundreds of different disorders, so far attention has been mainly
focused on only a handful, with the most notable being Parkinson’s disease,
Huntington's disease and Alzheimer’s disease. A large proportion of the less
publicized diseases have essentially been ignored.
2.1 Name any two diseases that are caused due to neurodegeneration.
2.2 Neurodegenerative diseases are cause of concern. Give reason.

Q3. Study the table given below and answer the questions.
S. No Name of the plant Uses
hormone
1 Abscisic acid Seed dormancy
2 Cytokinins Cell elongation and
termination
3 Auxins Promotes cell division
4 Ethylene Ripening of fruits
3.1 Name the plant hormone that regulates phototropism.
3.2 State the plant hormone that stimulates ripening of fruits.
3.3 Name the plant hormone that helps stimulate the opening and closing of
stomata.
3.4 Name the plant hormone that participates in the process of thigmotropism.

Q4 Read the information and answer the questions

Body consists of dense networks of intricately arranged neurons. It sits in the forward
end of the skull, and receives signals from all over the body which it thinks about
before responding to them. Obviously, in order to receive these signals, this thinking
 137

part of the brain in the skull must be connected to nerves coming from various parts
of the body.

4.1 Define reflex action?

4.2 Name the main organs of CNS.
4.3 Draw a flow chart of a reflex arc?

REFERENCES
1) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=6-13
2)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf

5) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf

6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1CuAzYjVWQyBSYFDlzBJZFdyziCyz1CV3/edit
#heading=h.gjdgxs

CHAPTER 6
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. (c) dendritic end
Q2. (b) insufficient production of insulin in her body
Q3.
d) Hind brain Cerebellum

Q4. (c) trim the hedge by cutting off the tips of the stems
Q5. (a) Dendrite→cell body→axon→nerve ending
Q6. (a)Bright light→ receptors in eyes → sensory neuron→spinal cord→motor
neurons→eyelid closes.
Q7. (d)hind brain- medulla
Q8. (b)The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to transfer information from cell to
cell.
 138

Q9. (a) Synapse

Q10. (d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Q1. (b)
Q2. (d)
Q3. (a)
Q4. (a)
Q5. (a)
Q6. (d)
Q7. (c)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1. Reflex actions
Q2. Abscisic Acid/ABA
Q3. Instant jumping- involuntary & reflex action; walking away- voluntary & slow
action
Q4. Adrenaline
Q5. Thyroid hormones play a key role in regulating metabolism, Hypothyroidism
slows down carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism, leading to fatigue and weight
gain.
Q6. Vertebral column
Q7. Thigmotropism is a directional growth movement exhibited by some plants and
fungi in response to touch or physical contact with a solid object.
Q8. Pancreas: The pancreas is a dual gland because it has:

• Exocrine function: It releases digestive enzymes to break down

carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
• Endocrine function: It also secretes hormones like insulin and glucagon
regulating blood sugar levels.

Q9. (i) A girl has grown extremely tall – Pituitary gland

(ii) A woman has swollen neck- Thyroid gland.
Q10. (i) Shivering when it is too cold.
(iv) Peristaltic movement in oesophagus when swallowing food.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. a- receptor – to receive stimulus and triggers a signal.
b-sensory neuron- carries the signal generated by the receptor towards the
spinal cord (CNS) as an electrical impulse.
 139

c- motor neuron- The motor neuron carries the outgoing signal after
interpretation by spinal cord (CNS) to the effector organ.
d- spinal cord- This is the processing centre of the reflex arc, where the signal is
interpreted an appropriate response is decided.
Q2. (i)dendrites. (ii) axon (iii) nerve ending.
Figure 6.1 page 101 NCERT
Q3. (a)The gustatory receptors on the tongue help us to identify the taste
of the food.
(b) Fore brain has a specialized function of hearing. Crunch in the food
can be heard, and this is processed by the forebrain
Q4. Yes, (a) Nia ducked down because of reflex action.
(b)-Nia's brain received the signal from the eyes through sensory nerves,
and the brain processed this signal.

- The brain sent the signal to the hand, through motor nerves to punch
back.

Q. 5(a) –roots growing downwards -stimulus:gravity, phenomenon:positive

geotropism

-shoot growing upwards -stimulus: sunlight, phenomenon:positive

phototropism

(b)The environmental factor that can be altered is adding a

source of water/nutrients towards one side of the root.

(c)The tropic movement that occurs when pollen tubes grow

towards ovules is called chemotropism.

Q 6 Ovary performs two main functions:

(i) Reproductive Function: The ovary produces female sex cells or ova (eggs).

(ii) Endocrine Function: The ovary secrets hormones like oestrogen and
progesterone for the female reproductive system and overall health.

Q. 7 The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback

mechanisms. For example, if the sugar levels in blood rise, they are detected by the
cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the
blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1. (i) Iodised salt is advisable because iodine is necessary for the formation of
thyroxin hormone by thyroid gland. Goitre is the disease caused due to its deficiency.
Symptom: The neck of the person appears to be swollen due to the enlargement of
thyroid gland. (ii) Two neurons are not joined to one another completely. There is a
small gap between a pair of neurons. This gap is called synapse. The nerve
impulses are carried out to this gap by the help of neuro transmitter (chemical
 140

substance). The conduction of nerve impulse through the synapse takes place in the
form of electrical nerve impulse. When a stimulus acts on the receptor, an electrical
impulse is produced with the help of chemicals through the synapse and then to the
other neuron. Thus, in this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
Q2.(a) Reflex Action: A reflex action is an involuntary, automatic, rapid response to a
stimulus at the level of spinal cord for our protection and well-being.

Reflex Arc: is the pathway through which a reflex action occurs.

(b)
Movement in a sensitive Movement in our legs
plant
No specialized tissue Specialized nervous tissue
Change shape depending Contract or relax by the
upon the amount of water movement.
in them.
Do not have specialized Have specialized proteins.
proteins.

Q3. Reflex action is a quick, automatic, involuntary, unconscious response in the

body brought about by a stimulus.

Examples of reflex action:

1. Withdrawal of hand suddenly on touching a hot plate.
2. Withdrawal of finger suddenly when pricked by a thorn.
3. Shivering of the body on feeling cold.
4. Sudden closure of the eyelids when bright light falls on the eye.
Reflex arc: It is the shortest route taken by impulse from receptor to effector.
Example: When we touch a hot plate by our finger, we instantly withdraw our hand.
Here stimulus is touching a hot plate, receptors are our fingers. The specialised
epithelial cells of our fingers respond to stimulus and convert into impulse. This
impulse is carried by sensory neuron to spinal cord which generates a motor
impulse. This impulse is carried by motor neuron to effector organ i.e., muscles of
hand. Response is withdrawal of our hand
CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED
Q1.1 phototropism, geotropism, chemotropism, thigmotropism and hydrotropism.
(any two)
Q1.2 The movement of ‘touch me not’ plant is a nastic movement.
Q1.3 growth of pollen tubes to ovules is one example of chemotropism.
Q1.4 Cytokinins promotes cell division in plants. Abscisic acid inhibits plant growth.
Q2.1 Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease (any two)
 141

Q2.2 Neurodegenerative diseases are cause of concern because they gradually

cause loss of cognitive abilities such as loss of memory and decision making
Q3.1 auxin
Q3.2 ethlyene
Q3.3 Cytokinin.
Q3.4 Auxin
Q4.1 Path through which a reflex action travel.
Q4.2 Brain and Spinal Cord

Q4.3

REFERENCES
1) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=6-13
2)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf

5) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf

6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1CuAzYjVWQyBSYFDlzBJZFdyziCyz1CV3/edit
#heading=h.gjdgxs

***************************************
 142

CHAPTER 7
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?

QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. Contraceptives help in preventing pregnancies. What function would a

contraceptive loop inserted at T serve?

(a) Stopping sperms from reaching and fertilizing eggs

(b) Stopping release of sperms

(c) Blocking the release of eggs

(d) Stopping egg creation

Q2. Identify the example that best describes a response to a stimulus.

(a)Absorption of sunlight by chloroplast

(b) Germination of pollen grains on the stigma
(c) Absorption of nutrients from the soil through root hairs
(d)Transportation of water and nutrients through the xylem

Q3. The thread like structure that develop on a moist slice of bread in Rhizopus are:
(a) Sporangia
(b) Filaments
(c) Rhizoids
(d) Hyphae

Q4. In the male reproductive system along the path of the vas-deferens the
secretions of which gland provide nutrition and mobility to the sperms? (a) Prostate
glands (b) Seminal vesicles (c) both a and b (d) Scrotum

Q5. In the below figure the parts A, B and C are sequentially

(a) Cotyledon, plumule and radicle
(b) Plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle
(d) Radicle, cotyledon and plumule

Q6. Choose the correct order of the stages of binary fission in Leishmania.

(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI

(b) I, III, II, V, IV, VI
 143

(c) I, III, V, II, VI, IV

(d) I, II, III, V, VI, V

Q7. Among the following diseases, which is not sexually transmitted?

(a) Syphilis (b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS (d) Gonorrhoea

Q8. Select the correct sequence of acts that leads to pregnancy in a female
1) Fertilisation of egg 2) ovulation 3) Formation of zygote 4) implantation
(a) 4,3,2,1 (b) 2,1,3,4

(c) 1,2,3,4 (d) 4,3,1,2

Q9. The image shows the structure of a flower. Out of the following processes,
which one is likely be disturbed or not will not take place, if the labelled part is
removed from the flower?

(a) formation of fruit

(b) transport of pollen
(c) formation of pollen
(d) development of pollen tube.

Q10. The diagram below represents the male human reproductive system.
Identify the part that is resposible for the secretion of testosterone.

(a) P (b) Q (c ) R (d) S

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Answer the question selecting appropriate options given below:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
 144

Q1. Assertion (A): Plants that can reproduce asexually cannot reproduce sexually.

Reason (R): Asexual reproduction does not involve the production of gametes.

Q2. Assertion (A): An organism with 24 chromosomes undergoes binary fission to

give rise to daughter cells with 12 chromosomes each.
Reason (R): Binary fission gives rise to two identical daughter cells.

Q3. Assertion (A): Testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity
in scrotum.
Reason (R): scrotum provides a lower temperature than the normal body
temperature for sperm formation.
Q4. Assertion (A): Amoeba takes in food using finger like extensions of the cell
surface.
Reason (R): In all unicellular organism the food is taken in by the entire cell
surface.

Q5. Assertion: Zygote is formed by fusion of sperm with Egg.

Reason: Both the sperm and the egg are haploid.

Q6. Assertion: Urethra forms the common passage for both the sperms and urine.
Reason: It carries both of them outside the male body.

Q7. Assertion: HIV-AIDS is a viral disease.

Reason: It does not spread through sharing of food and shaking hands.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 Kirti wants to produce a hybrid variety of tomatoes. She has tomato plants X and
Y belonging to two different varieties, one with smooth, long fruits and the other one
with wrinkled, round fruits. Tomatoes have bisexual flowers. Kirti carries out the
following steps carefully to cross pollinate the flowers of plants X and Y:
i. She removes a part of the flowers of tomato plant X just before the flowers
bloom.
ii. She manually pollinates the flowers of tomato plant X using pollen from the
flowers of tomato plant Y.
iii. She ties small plastic bags around the pollinated flowers of tomato plant X.
The plastic bags are removed after a couple of days.
What could be reason for covering the pollinated flowers of plant X?
Q2. A new sugarcane plant is genetically the same as the parent plant, but
a child of human parents is genetically not the same as its parents. Explain
why.
Q3. Sita is very fond of gardening. She has different flowering plants in her garden.
One day few naughty children entered her garden and plucked many leaves of
Bryophyllum plant and threw them here in the garden. After few days, Sita observed
that new Bryophyllum plants were coming out from the leaves which fell on the
ground. What does the incident sited in the paragraph indicate?
Q4. Name two bacterial STDs.
 145

Q5. What is the site of fertilization in human being?

Q6. Give the full form of IUCD.
Q7. How is binary fission different from multiple fission?
Q8. Which of the following is a unisexual flower bearing plant?
Q9. Which of the two self-pollination or cross pollination has greater chances
of bringing variations in the progeny? If yes, then why?
Q10. Which tissue provides nutrition to the growing fetus in the womb?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q.1 Compare the reproductive parts of flowers and humans and answer the
questions below:

(a) Which part of the human female reproductive system has a similar function as
the stigma in a flower? Give a reason to support your answer.

(b) Testes in the male reproductive system would correspond to which part of the
male reproductive system in a flower? Justify.

(c) The style of a flower and the fallopian tube in humans correspond functionally
with each other. Is this statement true? Justify your answer.

Q2. Walnut plants belong to a category of plants where the male and female flowers
grow separately on the same plant. A scientist took three plants - P, Q and R. He
removed the male flowers from plant P and the female flowers from plant Q. Plant R,
he left as it is - with both flowers on the same plant. He kept all three plants in an
open space. Will any of these plant/s bear fruits? Justify your answer.

Q3. Bindu wants to try producing a hybrid variety of pumpkins from two varieties P
and Q. Pumpkin plants have unisexual flowers, with both male and female flowers on
all plants. There is a slight variation in the procedure as described below:
- She does NOT remove any part from the pumpkin flowers she wants to
pollinate.
- However, she still ties small plastic bags around the manually pollinated flowers.
Explain why Bindu does not remove any part from the flowers to be pollinated, but
still ties small plastic bags after pollination.

Q4. Justify the following statement:

“The use of contraceptive methods has a direct effect on the health and prosperity of
a family.”
Q5. List differences between pollination and fertilization.

Q6. (a) Name the parts 1 to 4 of human female reproductive system.

(b) Name the part where implantation takes place in the system.
 146

Q7. Read the table and fill the where “? “present

Plant/ animal Reproduction type

Amoeba ?
? Multiple fission
Strawberry ?
? Regeneration
? Budding
Mango, Apples, Pea ?
? Spore formation
Rose, chrysanthemum, grapes ?

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Water hyacinths reproduce both sexually and asexually. They reproduce
sexually by producing seeds through flowers, and asexually by bud formation or
fragmentation. It undergoes reproduction through either of the methods depending
on environmental conditions. Water hyacinths bloom freely in water-rich conditions
whereas, reproduction for survival is more effort- intensive in water-scarce
conditions.

(a) Explain why this variation in reproduction is required in water hyacinths.

(b) Which mode of reproduction is likely to occur in the following conditions?

(i) abundance of water (ii) scarcity of water

Q2. Vasectomy is a method of contraception in males where the vasa

differentia is tied or sealed so as to prevent sperm from entering the
urethra. The diagram below represents the human female reproductive
system with some of its parts marked P, Q, R, S, T.

(a) Identify the labelled part that will be operated on for 'tubectomy' in

females. State its function.

(b) Kavya says that if part R is removed the female would not be able to

produce eggs. Is she correct? Justify.

 147

Q3. Flower if the reproductive organ in the plants. Answer the following questions

A) Name the essential and non- essential parts of

the flower.

B) Where the pollen grains developed?

C) Which parts produced fruit and seed after the process of fertilization in

flowering plants?

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1. Menstrual cycle is the cycle of events taking place in female reproductive
organs, under the control of sex hormones, in every 28 days. At an interval of 28
days, a single egg is released from either of two ovaries. Regular menstrual cycle
stopped abruptly in a married woman. She got herself tested and was happy to
discover that she is pregnant with her first baby.
1.1 Write the function of placenta.
1.2 What is the average duration of menstrual flow per month for normal adult
female?
1.3 Give reason why menstruation stops in a pregnant female?

Q2. A newly married couple does not want have children for few years. They
consulted a doctor who advised them barrier method and chemical method of birth
control. Yet another couple who already have two children and are middle aged also
consulted doctor for some permanent solution to avoid unwanted pregnancy. Doctor
advised them surgical method of birth control.
2.1 Give two barrier methods of birth control.
2.2 How oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy?
2.3 What are the side effects of using Copper T by females? Irritation of uterus and
can cause infection.
2.4 Which parts of reproductive systems are blocked surgically to control
pregnancies?

Q3. X, Y and Z are three sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). X and Z are caused
by bacteria whereas Y is caused by virus P. Virus P lowers the immunity of a person
and leads to an incurable disease. X starts as painless sores on genitals rectum or
mouth. Z causes painful urination and abnormal discharge from genitals.
3.1 If X: Gonorrhoea, Z: _______?
3.2 Identify virus P from the given paragraph.
3.3 How can disease Y be prevented?
 148

REFERENCES

✓ https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%2
0Book.pdf
✓ https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
✓ https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
✓ https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_mate rial/term/10science.pdf
✓ https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=7-13
✓ https://docs.google.com/document/d/1FfOsSYgkRKVb34iFt244PCQXY6V1N1
Zx/edit#heading=h.gjdgxs
✓ https://docs.google.com/document/d/1T3olOmki7xMG77odyitXIld4hL8RFjip/e
dit#heading=h.gjdgxs

CHAPTER 7
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
ANSWER KEY
Multiple choice questions

Q1.(a) Stopping sperms from reaching and fertilizing eggs

Q2.(b) Germination of pollen grains on the stigma
Q3. (d) Hyphae
Q4. (c) both a and b
Q5. (c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle
Q6. (a) I, II, III, VI, V, VI
Q7. (b) Hepatitis
Q8. (b) 2,1,3,4
Q9. (a) formation of fruit
Q10.(d) S

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Q1.(d)
Q2.(d)
Q3.(a)
Q4.(c )
Q5.(b)
Q6.(a)
Q7.(a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. to prevent pollen from other plants from reaching the stigma.
 149

Q2. New sugarcane plants are produced by vegetative propagation which

is an asexual method of reproduction. Only one parent is involved and
there is no mixing of gametes.

Humans reproduce through sexual reproduction involving two parents and

the mixing of male and female gametes, which results in the offspring
having the genes of both parents.

Q3. Bryophyllum leaves have notches along their margins. These notches are where
tiny plantlets, with roots and shoots, develop. Bryophyllum exhibited vegetative
propagation, a type of asexual reproduction.

Q4. Syphilis and Gonorrhoea

Q5. Oviduct / Fallopian tube

Q6. Intrauterine Contraceptive Device.

Q7. Binary fission: Results in the formation of two daughter cells from the parent cell.

Multiple fission: Results in the formation of multiple (more than two) daughter cells
from the parent cell.

Q8. Papaya, Watermelon

Q9. In cross-pollination, pollen from the stamen of one plant fertilizes the ovule of a
different plant. This mixing of genetic material from two different parents creates
offspring with a greater chance of genetic variation.

Q10. The tissue that provides nutrition to the growing foetus in the womb of the
mother is the placenta.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q.1 (a) Vagina - Reason - The stigma of the flower serves as the point of entry of the
male gametes/pollen grains, similarly, the cervix serves as the point of entry of the
male gametes/sperm in humans/ vagina receives the male gametes in humans.

(b) Part - anther - Function - produces male gametes in form of pollen, just like testes
which produce sperms

(c) False - Reason - the main function of the fallopian tube is to serve as the point of
fertilisation, which is not the function of the style in flowers.

Q2. Plants P and R will bear fruits. Plant P has the female reproductive
organs which can receive pollen and fertilisation can take place.

Plant R has both sexes on the same plant facilitating pollination and
fertilisation.
 150

Q3. She does not remove any part from the flowers to be pollinated
because the female pumpkin flowers don't have any male parts.

She still ties the pollinated flowers because the pollen from other male
flowers can still reach the stigma.
Q4. (i) Contraception allows couples to plan their family size and space births. With
control over family size, families can better manage their finances.
(ii) Unplanned pregnancies, especially for young women or those with health
concerns, can pose significant health risks. Contraception helps women avoid
unwanted pregnancies and potential complications during pregnancy and childbirth.
(iii) Some contraceptive methods, like condoms, offer protection against sexually
transmitted infections (STIs), which can benefit the overall sexual health of both
partners.
Q5.
Pollination Fertilization
1)Transfer of pollen grains on stigma. 1) fusion of gametes
2) physical process with the help of 2) chemical process followed by
external agents needed pollination.
3) self or cross pollination take place 3) Double fertilization occurs in flowering
in plants plants
Q6. (a) 1- fallopian tube/ oviduct 2- ovary 3- uterus 4- vagina (b) Uterus
Q7.
Plant/ animal Reproduction type
Amoeba Binary fission/ Asexual reproduction
Plasmodium Multiple fission
Strawberry Vegetative reproduction/ Asexual
reproduction
Hydra/ Planaria Regeneration
Hydra/ Yeast Budding
Mango, Apples, Pea Sexual reproduction
Rhizopus Spore formation
Rose, chrysanthemum, grapes Vegetative propagation / asexual
reproduction

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. (a)The population of each species thrives in its specific habitat/niche, having
particular environmental conditions which can change due to reasons beyond the
organisms' control - Having variation ensures greater chances of survival through
such changes.
(i) abundance of water- asexual reproduction - In its natural environment, the
organism is likely to undergo an energy- efficient method of reproduction such as
asexual reproduction.
(ii) scarcity of water - sexual reproduction - In a stressed environment, the organism
is likely to opt for the effort-intensive method for survival.
 151

Q2. (a) Part Q - Fallopian tube Function - Acts as the fertilization place for egg
& sperm.
(b) No, she is not correct.
Q3. A. (i)essential- stamen and pistil
(ii)Non-essential – sepals and petals
B. anther
C. (i)Ovary develops into fruit
(ii)ovule develops into seed.

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED TYPE

Q1.1 Provide nutrition to the growing foetus and removes wastes from the growing
foetus through mother’s body.
Q1.2 four to five days
Q1.3 Menstruation is triggered by the unfertilized egg leaving the ovary. During
pregnancy, ovulation (release of an egg) stops. The uterine lining to thicken and
prepare for implantation, and consequently, no menstruation occurs.

Q2.1 Condom, Diaphragm

Q2.2 Bring about hormonal imbalance affecting release eggs
Q2.3 Irritation of uterus and can cause infection.
Q2.4 Fallopian tube in female and vas deferens in male

Q3.1 Syphilis
Q3.2 P is Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q3.3 Use of sterilised needles and blades, protected sexual contact, blood
transfusion only after blood tests etc.

REFERENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_mate rial/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=7-13
6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1FfOsSYgkRKVb34iFt244PCQXY6V1N1Zx/edit
#heading=h.gjdgxs
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1T3olOmki7xMG77odyitXIld4hL8RFjip/edit#hea
ding=h.gjdgxs

*******************************************************
 152

CHAPTER 8
HEREDITY

QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Q1) If a tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRr) is crossed with another pea plant
that is short and has white flowers (ttrr), what percentage of GAMETES will have
both alleles for short and white flowers?
(a) 0% (b) 25% (c ) 50% (d) 75%
Q.2 Manisha is an Indian actress. She was born in Delhi to a homemaker mother
and an engineer father. She is around 5 feet tall. She has naturally curly hair. She
has trained in contemporary and ballet dancing. Which of these is MOST LIKELY to
be true about her children?
(a) They may dance well.
(b) They may grow up to have curly hair.
(c) They may be born to an engineer father.
(d) They may become famous actors one day.
Q3. Which statement explains the Mendel’s law of segregation?
(a) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of an allele each from both the
parent.
(b) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of two alleles each from both the
parent.
(c) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of two alleles each from either of
the parent.
(d) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of one allele each from either of
the parent. Q4.
Q4. The inheritance of color trait in flower is as shown. R and r denote two different
genes for color.

Which law of Mendel can be explained using the image?

(a) Only Law of segregation
(b) Only Law of independent assortment
(c) Only Law of segregation and Law of dominance
(d) none of the above
Q5. Two individuals are as shown using geometric shapes. Their sex chromosomes
are respectively denoted by Xf Xm, and Y. What are the possible combinations of
sex chromosomes for their male and female offspring respectively?
 153

(a) Xf Xm and Xm Xm
(b) Xm Y and Xm Xm
(c) Xf Y and Xm Y
(d) Xm Y and Xm Xf
Q6. Attached earlobes in humans is an inherited condition. The allele for attached
earlobes is recessive. What are the chances of parents, both having attached
earlobes, to have a child with attached earlobes.
(a) 0% (b)25% (c ) 75% (d) 100%
Q7. Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on the following
organism.
(a) Drosophila (b) Escherichia Coli (c) Pisum sativum (d) All of these
Q8. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
(a) One person has a scar, but his friend doesn’t.
(b) One person is older than the other.
(c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian.
(d) Two children have different eye colour.
Q9. A monohybrid cross is conducted between one variety of pea plants having pods
that are full (FF) and another having pods that are constrcted(ff). What is the
percentage of heterozygous offsprings in F1 generation.
(a) 100% (b) 75% (c )50% (d) 25%
Q10. The section of DNA that provide information for one protein?
(a) Nucleus (b) Chromosome (c) Trait (d) Gene

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Q1. Assertion: Accumulation of variation in a species increases the chances of its

survival in changing environment.
Reason: Accumulation of heat resistance in some bacteria ensures their survival
even when temperature in environment rises too much.
Q2. Assertion (A): Mendel selected the pea plant for his experiments.
Reason (R): Pea plant is cross-pollinating and has unisexual flowers.
Q3. Assertion: Genes present in every cell of an organism control the traits of the
organisms.
Reason: Gene is specific segment of DNA occupying specific position on a
chromosome.
Q4. Assertion (A): The sex of a child is determined by the mother.
Reason (R): Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.
 154

Q5. Assertion: Monohybrid cross deals with inheritance of one pair of contrasting
characters.
Reason: Dihybrid cross deals with inheritance of two pairs of contrasting
characters.
Q6. Assertion: Genetics is described as a science which deals with heredity.
Reason: Heredity is the transmission of characters from parents to off springs.
Q7. Assertion: When pea plants having round yellow seeds are crossed with plants
having wrinkled green seeds, then all pea plants obtained in F1, generation bear
wrinkled green seeds.
Reason: Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled and green seeds.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 The farmer concludes that the allele for green seeds shows dominance over that
of yellow seeds. Is he right? Justify your answer.
Q2. The farmer crosses two heterozygous green seeded plants and obtains 100
plants in the F1 generation.What would be the number of green and yellow seeds
respectively in F1 generations.
Q3. What should be the genotype of the parent plants to give green and yellow
seeds in equal proportions?
Q4. Haploid (n) means a cell has one set of chromosomes and Diploid (2n) means a
cell has two sets of chromosomes. Based on this information write the ploidy of (i)
human gamete and (ii) human body cell.
Q5. What is the ratio of monohybrid and dihybrid cross?
Q6. Give the term for generation obtained on a cross between first set of parents.
Q7. Who is called the father of genetics?
Q8. Which type of variation is shown by two siblings having different eye colors?
Q9. An allele/trait, whose phenotype (physical appearance) will be expressed even
in the presence of another allele of that gene. It is represented by a capital letter. It is
called _________.
Q10. Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants to study
heredity. What is the scientific name of the pea plant?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. The picture below is of the chromosome pairs present in a cell of a person.
(a) Identify the sex of the person. Give reasons for your answer.
(b) State the number of chromosomes pairs present in a male or female gamete.
Q2. Sex determination in humans happens through sex chromosomes. Along with
other parameters, such processes often help in forensic studies in crime
investigations and/or identification of accidents and natural calamities. In order to
 155

determine whether an accident victim is male or female, which cells can be used and
why?
Q3. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
Q4. “Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive
in a population.” Justify this statement.
Q5. Name the organism Mendel used for his experiments. Explain about F1 and F2
progeny obtained by
Mendel when he bred tall and short varieties of the organism he experimented with.

Q6. Genotype of a plant bearing purple flowers is PP and one with white flowers is
pp. When these are crossed:
(a) Identify the colour of the flowers would you find in F1 progeny?
(b) Give the percentage of white flowers if F1 plants are self-pollinated.

Q7. In a monohybrid cross of tall Pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants
denoted by tt, Preethi obtained only tall plants (denoted by Tt) in F1 generation.
However, in F2 generation she obtained both tall and short plants. Using the above
information, explain the law of dominance.

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Consider a pea plant that is recessive for plant height. It’s genotype is ‘stand
‘phenotype’ is dwarf.
(a) Assuming that the gene for plant height obeys the Mendel’s laws of inheritance,
indicate the genotypes and phenotypes of all possible parents that could have dwarf
offspring.
(b) Perform a cross between Tt x Tt to show the genotypes of the offspring that might
arise in the next generation.
Q2. (i) Differentiate between Homozygous and Heterozygous allele.
(ii) Why dwarf character not expressed in F1 generation of Monohybrid cross?
Q3. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the (a) Traits may be dominant or
recessive, (b) Traits are inherited independently?

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1 Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven
years and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. He investigated
characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits, e.g.,
tall or dwarf plants, yellow and green seeds, etc
Q1.1 Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by Mendel,
how many traits were related to flower, pod and seed respectively.
Q1.2 In a dihybrid cross what are the possible genotypes of (i) Round and yellow
seeds (ii) wrinkled and green seeds

Q2. The most obvious outcome of the reproduction process is the generation of
individuals of several designs, but in sexual reproduction they may not be exactly
alike. The resemblances as well as differences are marked. The rules of heredity
 156

determine the process traits and characteristics are reliably inherited. Many
experiments have been done to study the rules of inheritance.
Q2.1 Which generation will the recessive trait for seed colour and shape of a pea
plant will be expressed in a dihybrid cross.
Q2.2 Write the phenotype and genotype of all progeny in F2 generation in a
dihybrid cross when a round and yellow seeds are crossed with wrinkled and green
seeds.
Q2.3 While performing experiments, what is the difference between F1 and F2
generation?

Q3. Sex determination is the method by which distinction between males and
females is established in a species. The sex of an individual is determined by
specific chromosomes. These chromosomes are called sex chromosomes or
allosomes. X and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes. The normal
chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes of an individual are known as
autosomes.
Q3.1 A couple has six daughters. Give the percentage of possibility of their having a
girl next time?
Q3.2 What is the number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is?
Q3.3 In XX-XY type of sex determination, which gametes are produced by a human
male?

REFERENCES
1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=8-13

CHAPTER 8
HEREDITY
ANSWER KEY
MCQ
Q1.(b) 25%
Q2.(b) They may grow up to have curly hair.
Q3. (a) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of an allele each from both
the parent.
Q4. (c) Only Law of segregation and Law of dominance
Q5. (d) Xm Y and Xm Xf
Q6.(d) 100%
Q7. (c) Pisum sativum
 157

Q8. (d) Two children have different eye colour.

Q9. (a) 100%
Q10. (d) Gene

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Q1. (a)
Q2. (c)
Q3. (b)
Q4. (d)
Q5. (b)
Q6. (b)
Q7.(d)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. Yes, he is right, Since the offspring pod has all green seeds, the allele for green
seeds is dominant even if present in heterozygous state.
Q2. Green seeds- 75 and yellow seeds- 25
Q3. First parent- Gg Second parent - gg
Q4. (i)Human gametes (egg and sperm cells) have a haploid (n) ploidy, (ii) human
body cells have a diploid (2n) ploidy.
Q5. Monohybrid- 3:1 dihybrid – 9:3:3:1
Q6. First Filial 1 generation / F1 generation
Q7. Gregor Mendel.
Q8. Genetic variation
Q9. dominant allele.
Q10. Pisum sativum.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1. (a) male. 23rd pair has X and Y chromosomes. (b) 23
Q2. (i) Any cell of the body (ii) every cell has a 23 rd chromosome as sex
chromosome
– if the sex chromosome is XX- then the victim is female and if the cell has sex
chromosome is XY – then the victim is male.
Q3. (i)Pea plants have a relatively short growing season, allowing Mendel to observe
multiple generations in a short period.
(ii)Pea plants possess several distinct, contrasting traits like seed colour (green or
yellow), seed shape (round or wrinkled), flower colour (purple or white), and plant
height (tall or short). These clear-cut differences made it easy for Mendel to track
inheritance patterns.
(iii) Mendel could also easily control pollination by manually transferring pollen
between different plants (cross-pollination). This control allowed him to study the
effects of specific crosses.
(iv)Pea plants produce many seeds in each pod, providing Mendel with a large
number of individuals to analyse in each generation.
(v)Pea plants are common and relatively easy to grow and maintain in a garden.
 158

Q4. Variation can increase the chance of survival, by favoring the propagation of
genes that increase survival chances and reproduction in a particular environment.
Over time, this process leads to populations better adapted to their surroundings.
Q5. Organism: Garden or Edible Pea (Pisurn sativum).

Q6. (a) Purple. (b) 25%

Q7. Appearance of trait of shortness in F2 generation shows that the trait was
present in F1 generation but was not expressed while the trait of tallness expressed
itself. The trait which expresses itself in the presence of its contrasting form is called
dominant. The other trait which is unable to express its effect in the presence of its
contrasting trait is known as recessive.

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1.(a) (i) Tt (tall) x Tt (tall) (ii) Tt (tall) x tt (dwarf) (iii) tt (dwarf ) x tt ( dwarf)
(b)

Q2(i)
Homozygous allele Heterozygous allele
1) Refers to a pair of genes where 1) Refers to a pair of genes where
both alleles are identical for a the alleles are different for a
 159

particular trait. particular trait.

2) Represented with two 2) Represented with one uppercase

lowercase letters (e.g., tt for letter and one lowercase letter (e.g.,
recessive trait) or two uppercase Tg)
letters (e.g., GG for dominant
trait).
3) An organism with homozygous 3) The dominant trait will only be
alleles will always express the expressed and the recessive trait
corresponding trait, whether remain masked.
dominant or recessive.

(ii) because the dominant allele masks the presence of the recessive allele.

Q3. (a) Dominant and Recessive Traits: Monohybrid Crosses: Mendel conducted
crosses between purebred plants with contrasting traits (e.g., tall vs. short). In the F1
generation, all offspring displayed only one parental trait. This suggested the
existence of alleles, different versions of a gene. The expressed trait in the F1
generation represents the dominant allele, while the masked trait represents the
recessive allele.
(b) Traits are Inherited Independently: Dihybrid Crosses: Mendel also performed
crosses involving two contrasting traits (e.g., round yellow seeds vs. wrinkled green
seeds). F1 Generation: Interestingly, the F1 generation did not show any
combinations of the non-dominant traits (wrinkled yellow or round green). All F1
plants exhibited the dominant combination (round yellow). This observation
supported independent inheritance. The inheritance of one trait (seed shape) wasn't
influenced by the inheritance of the other trait (seed colour).

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED

Q1.1 - 2 traits related to flower: Flower colour (purple or white) and Flower position
(axial or terminal).
2 traits related to pod: Pod shape (inflated or constricted) and Pod colour
(green or yellow).
2 traits related to seed: Seed shape (round or wrinkled) and Seed colour
(yellow or green).
Q1.2 (i) Round and yellow seeds – RRYY, RRYy, RrYY, RrYy (ii) wrinkled and
green seeds.- rryy
Q2.1 F2 generation.
Q2.2
Phenotype Genotype
Round, Yellow RRYY, RRYy, RrYY, RrYy (9 plants)
Round, Green RRyy, Rryy (3 plants)
Wrinkled, Yellow rrYY, rrYy (3 plants)
Wrinkled, Green rryy (1 plant)
 160

Q2.3
F1 generation
1) Usually heterozygous progeny 2) Dominant trait often expressed
F2
generation
1) Progeny show more genetic variations- homozygous and heterozygous.
2) Ration of dominant and recessive phenotypes based on inheritance pattern.

Q3.1 50%
Q3.2 22 pairs that is 44 number of autosomes.
Q3.3 males produce two different types of gametes. Males have one X chromosome
and one Y chromosome (XY). That are their gametes can be either sperm with an X
chromosome or sperm with a Y chromosome.

References
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=8-13

****************************
 194

CHAPTER 13
OUR ENVIRONMENT
QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q1. Given below are some biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem. rock,
rainfall, sunlight, mango tree, rabbit Which of these components can continue to
exist in the absence of the other component/s?
(a) Only sunlight (b) Only rock and sunlight
(c ) Only mango tree and rabbit (d) Only rock, sunlight and rainfall
Q2) At which of the level of a food chain can an omnivore be present?
(a) Only secondary consumers
(b) Only secondary and tertiary consumers
(c ) Only primary and secondary consumers
(d) Only primary, secondary and tertiary consumers
Q3. The table lists some components of an ecosystem. A student wants to classify
these into abiotic components from biotic components separately. Which option
correctly shows the classification done by the student?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Q4. Which statement shows interaction of an abiotic component with a biotic

component in an ecosystem?
(a) A grasshopper feeding on a leaf.
(b) Rainwater running down into the lake.
(c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.
(d) A mouse fighting with another mouse for food.
Q5. The image shows a food web. Observe and select the
correct option.
(a) Fox feeds on hawk to obtain energy.
(b) Hawk feeds on oak to obtain energy
(c) Squirrel feeds on pine borer to obtain energy
(d) Salamander feeds on pine borer to obtain energy
 195

Q6. The manufacturing of Chlorofluorocarbons free refrigerators is mandatory

throughout the world. How this help prevents ozone depletion?
(a) This will help convert oxygen molecules into ozone.
(b) This will help convert the CFCs into ozone molecules.
(c) This will reduce the production of CFC from oxygen molecules.
(d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts with ozone molecules
Q7. Ozone forms by combination of free oxygen atoms and oxygen molecules. How
do free oxygen atoms form at higher levels of atmosphere?
(a) by splitting of molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of low
energy UV radiations
(b) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high
energy UV radiations
(c) by the combination of two molecular oxygen in the presence of high energy UV
radiations
(d) by the combination of two free oxygen atoms in the presence of lower energy UV
radiations
Q8. The table lists some waste products. Which group of waste materials can be
classified as non- biodegradable?
Grass cutting, polythene bags, plastic toys, used tea bags, paper straw, old
clothes, broken foot wears
(a) grass cuttings, used tea bags (b) polythene bags, plastic toys
(c) used tea bags, paper straw (d) old clothes and broken foot wears
Q9. The table shows some waste materials that changed and remained unchanged
when buried in the soil. Classify them as biodegradable and non- biodegradable.
Plastic box, bubble wrap, vegetable peels, rubber
tyre, empty carton, tree leaves

Q10.What is the ratio of average amount of energy absorbed by producers to the

average amount of energy absorbed by the primary consumers?
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1: 10 (d)10:1

ASSERTION REASON TYPE

Answer the question selecting appropriate options given below:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
 196

explanation of (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Q1. ASSERTION: Herbivores are known as producer in an ecosystem.
REASON: Producers prepare food by the process of photosynthesis.
Q2. ASSERTION: Ecosystem consists of components continuously interacting with
each other.
REASON: An ecosystem is made up of only biotic components.
Q3. ASSERTION: All habitats in aquatic medium constitute aquatic ecosystems.
REASON: Ocean and rivers are the examples for aquatic terrestrial
ecosystem.
Q4. ASSERTION: Microorganisms are known as the decomposers of an ecosystem.
REASON: Bacteria and fungi degrade non- biodegradable waste in the
environment.
Q5. ASSERTION: The energy is transfers from one trophic level to another trophic
level in one direction in an ecosystem.
REASON: Producers occupy the first trophic level in a food chain.
Q6. ASSERTION: CFC was emitted from appliances like refrigerators.
REASON: H2S is a greenhouse gas.
Q7. ASSERTION: Energy available at each level of an ecosystem goes on
decreasing.
REASON: Energy flow from one trophic level to next follows 10% law.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1 Fishes like swordfish and king mackerel are tertiary consumers. Fishes like
tilapia and salmon are secondary consumers. The habitat of these fishes is usually
contaminated with heavy metals like mercury. Scientists suggest consuming these
fishes according to the table given below: What phenomenon is likely to have led the
scientists to give such an advisory to the people who consume fish?

Q2. If there is no water, can anything grow or survive? If not why?

Q3. Where is the Ozone layer present in the atmosphere?
Q4. As per the recent survey microplastics have been found in the human blood.
How do you think these have entered the human body?
Q5. Which industries emitted CFC?
Q6. Write the appropriate names of trophic levels A and B in the following figure:
 197

Q7. Arrange the following given wastes in the increasing order of their degradation
in the environment. (Hint: fast to slow degradation)
Bone wastes, paper sheet, plastic bottle
Q8. Lions have no known natural oredators. Based on energy transfer in a food
chain, what could be the most likely reason for the given statement.
Q9. In a pond ecosystem where should the frog be placed in a food chain?
Q10. What is the term given to the accumulation of non-biodegradable substances
increasing in a food chain?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1. Observe the food chain shown below.

Is such a food chain likely to exist in nature? Justify your answer.

Q2. Look at the image and identify biotic and abiotic components of this
ecosystem.

Q3. Complete the following

(i) Air: Abiotic. — Plants: —--------?
(ii) Plant: Producer – Deer: —---------?
Q4. Why is aquarium called as a manmade ecosystem?
Q5. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.” Give reasons to justify
the statement.
Q6. Now a days farmers are making indiscriminate use of fungicides to protect their
crops from microbes. This act kills many useful microbes.
Suggest two eco-friendly methods to save useful microbes.
Q7. Match the following.
A B
i. producer a) Ozone
ii. Soil b) herbivore
iii. Goat c) abiotic
iv. UV radiations d) chlorophyll
v. vegetable peel e) pesticide
vi. DDT f) biodegradable
LONG ANSWER TYPE
1. Explain producers, consumers and decomposers of the biotic environment with
examples of each.
Q2. Define food chain. Write Significance of Food Chain.
Q3. Explain 10 percent law with the help of an example.
 198

CASE STUDY BASED

Q1. Read the passage and answer the given questions.

Q1.1 How is Ozone formed in the outer atmosphere?

Q1.2 Give any one damage caused to plants due to UV leakage.
Q1.3 Suggests some ways of protection from UV radiation when we are in outside
our house in open.

Q2. Read the following information and answer the questions

In Kunjpura village, located in Karnal district, Haryana, Aditya Aggarwal and his older
brother Amit Aggarwal run Tee Cee Industries, a steel plant set up by their ancestors
in 1984. Along with this, they also run a gaushala that houses 1,200 cows that can
no longer produce milk. The cow shelter was manageable but running the steel plant
was turning out to be expensive because they spent a whopping Rs 5 lakh every
month on electricity. The brothers struck upon an idea. Why not run the factory with
the biogas produced from cow dung from the shelter and other gaushalas, along with
bio and agri led Aditya and Amit to start Amrit Fertilizers, a biogas project, in 2014,
without any government support.
Q2.1 Name any two raw materials used in bio gas plant.
Q2.2 Which Type of microbes are involved in conversion of cow dung to bio gas?
Q2.3 Biogas is a better fuel than cow dung cake in terms of waste
management. Justify

Q3. Read the passage given below and answer the questions
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one
element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in
some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary
producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create
complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so
must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the
sun’s light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun
disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some forms of
life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from
chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not
require solar energy to thrive.
 199

3.1 If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what
percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?
3.2 If Ria is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake, which level in the food chain she
should be considered to be occupying?
3.3 What is actually limiting the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

REFERENCES

1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=13-13
6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1dxM5Hg5taXARjDbPKE6rtfXctFo1uFbk/edit#h
eading=h.gjdgxs
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1HjNasNYpKHpHaB8d1zrt2gZKAiVwrq18/edit

CHAPTER 13
OUR ENVIRONMENT
ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1. (b) Only rock and sunlight
Q2) (d) Only primary, secondary and tertiary consumers
Q3.(c)

Q4. (c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.

Q5. (d) Salamander feeds on pine borer to obtain energy
Q6.(d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts with ozone molecules
Q7. (b) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high
energy UV radiations
Q8.(b) polythene bags, plastic toys
Q9. (b)
Q10.(d)10:1
 200

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Q1. (d)
Q2. (c)
Q3. (a)
Q4. (c)
Q5. (b)
Q6. (b)
Q7. (a)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

Q1 biomagnification of toxic substances in higher trophic levels
Q2. No, living things cannot grow or survive without water. Water is essential for life
as it is needed for:(i) chemical reactions to take place in the body of living organisms.
(ii) Transport of materials in and out of a living body.
(iii) Water is a major component of cells and tissues and helps in
maintaining their shape and function.
Q3. Ozone is present in the stratosphere which extends from about 10 kilometers to
50 kilometers above Earth's surface.
Q4.(i)Through seafood that has ingested microplastics in the water.
(ii)We can inhale these tiny particles, which may then enter the bloodstream
through the lungs as some microplastics are air borne.
(iii)The microplastics present in certain personal care products or cosmetics can
get absorbed through the skin. (any valid response)
Q5. Refrigeration, fire extinguishers, aerosol products industries.
Q6. A- Primary consumer B- tertiary consumer
Q7. Paper sheet < Bone wastes< Plastic bottle
Q8. Lions sit at the top of the food chain in their ecosystem. They primarily prey on
herbivores and are not typically hunted by other predators for food. They die off old
age, starvation, diseases human hunting etc.
Q9. Being a secondary consumer, the frog should be placed at third trophic level in a
food chain.
Q10. Biomagnification/ biological magnification
SHORT ANSWER TYPE
Q1. Such a food chain is not likely to exist in nature. The food chain shown
has too many trophic levels. Due to the loss of energy at each level, there
will not be enough energy available at the higher trophic levels.
Q2.
Biotic Abiotic
plankton, Protozoans, Sunlight, air, land, water(on
Algae,Termites surface & under ground)
mounds,bacteria, rotten log
Q3. (i) Biotic (ii) Primary consumer
Q4. Aquariums are designed and built by humans. We select the plants, fish, and
other organisms that live in the tank, as well as control factors like water quality,
temperature, and lighting. So aquariums are artificially created and controlled by
man.
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Q5. Based on 10% law energy transfer reduces at each level and the amount of
usable energy for existence of an organism at higher level there by act as natural
limitations on the number of trophic levels in a food chain. So, most ecosystems can
typically support 4-5 trophic levels.
Q6. (i) Use bio pesticides. (ii) Encourage growth of more friendly microbes by
techniques of farming like composting, vermicomposting, organic farming, crop
rotation etc. (any valid answer)
Q7. Correct Matches
A B
i. producer d) chlorophyll
ii. Soil c) abiotic
iii.Goat b) herbivore
iv.UV radiations a) Ozone
v. vegetable f)
peel biodegradable
vi. DDT e) pesticide
LONG ANSWER TYPE
Q1. (i) Producers: Those organisms which produce food by
photosynthesis(autotrophs). Producers are considered as a source of energy for
those above it in a food chain and take up the first trophic level of the food chain.
Examples: All green plants also called autotrophs and certain blue-green algae.
(ii)Consumers: Those organisms which depend upon the producers for food, either
directly or indirectly by feeding on other consumers those below it in a food
chain(heterotrophs). These can further be classified into primary
consumers(herbivores) secondary consumers(carnivores), omnivores. e.g. cows,
humans. Examples of consumers: Herbivores are the animals that consume or eat
vegetation or plants, e.g. cows, horses. Carnivores are the animals that eat flesh of
other animals, e.g. tigers, wolves
(iii)Decomposers- Decomposers are the cleaning agents of the ecosystem. They
break down dead organic matter, recycle nutrients and keep the system functioning.
They are not a direct part of the food chain themselves, but form a vital link in the
food web, ensuring the continued flow of energy and nutrients.
Omnivores are the animals that eat both plants and animals, e.g. humans,
cockroaches.
Q2. The sequence of one organism consuming another organism to transfer food
energy, is called a food chain.
Significance of Food Chains
(i) Helps in understanding food relationships among the organisms in an ecosystem.
(ii) Helps in understanding type of interactions among the organisms in an
ecosystem.
(iii) Helps in understanding the direction and amount of transfer energy between
various components in an ecosystem.

(iv) Helps in analysing the movement of toxic substances like pesticides, weedicides,
etc. through food chains.

Q3. (i) The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of the energy of
sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.
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(ii) An average of 10% of the food eaten is turned into its own body and made
available for the next level of consumers. Therefore, 10% can be taken as the
average value for the amount of organic matter that is present at each step and
reaches the next level of consumers.
(iii) Around 90% of energy in the form of heat is lost to the surroundings at each
trophic level.
For example, suppose 1000 J of solar energy is received by green plants, then only
1% of solar energy available on earth is utilized by plants. So only 10 J (1% of 1000
J) is trapped by plants and the rest 990 J of energy is lost to the environment. So,
plants utilize only 10 J of energy. Next, only 10% of the 10 J energy of plant, that is,
1 J, is available to the herbivore animal while 9 J is lost to the environment. Again,
just 10% of the 1 J of energy of herbivore animals is utilized by carnivore animals.
Thus, carnivore animals have only 0.1 J of energy while 0.9 J is lost to the
environment.

Solar energy→ Plants→ Primary consumer→ Secondary consumer

1000J 10J 1J 0.1J

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

Q1.1 Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV

radiation acting on oxygen (O2) molecule. The higher energy UV
radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen (O)
atoms. These atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen to form
ozone as shown—
UV
O2 → O + O

O + O2 → O 3
(Ozone)
Q1.2 DNA Damage, reduced Photosynthesis, impaired growth and development,
suppress plant immune systems, changes in plant pigmentation (any valid response)
Q1.3 (i) Seek shade during peak sun hours (ii) Wear protective clothing, including
hats and long sleeves. (iii) Apply sunscreen with an SPF (iv) Wear UV-protective
sunglasses and clothing’s. (any two valid responses)

Q2.1 Animal dung, crop residue, Food waste (any two)

Q2.2 Anaerobic bacteria
Q2.3 (i) Burning of cow dung cakes releases harmful pollutants like smoke and
particulate matter into the air, contributing to respiratory problems and air pollution.
On the other hand, biogas plants convert a larger portion of the organic matter in
cow dung into usable biogas. This results in a more efficient use of the waste
material and generation of a cleaner burning fuel.
(ii) Cow Dung burning results in formation of ash as residue which is difficult to
manage, whereas on biogas production a smaller amount of residual solid waste
generated can be used as fertilizer.

Q3.1 1% of 10000J = 100 J

Q3.2 Third trophic level as she is consuming the animal product of second trophic
level animal.
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Q3.3 Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels because based on per 10% law
only 10 % of usable energy will be available to the next level and in longer food chain
as energy reduces, it may not be sufficient for the existence of an organism in
nature.

REFERENCES

1)
https://crispindia.net/assets/files/study/Class%2010_Bio_Structured%20LP%20Book
.pdf
2) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/Science_Grade10_V2.pdf

3) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/Manuals/CFPQ_Science10.pdf
4) https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/term/10science.pdf
5) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?jesc1=13-13
6)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1dxM5Hg5taXARjDbPKE6rtfXctFo1uFbk/edit#h
eading=h.gjdgxs
7)
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1HjNasNYpKHpHaB8d1zrt2gZKAiVwrq18/edit