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15.-Molecular-Basis-of-inheritance (1) 777

The document consists of multiple-choice questions related to the molecular basis of inheritance, covering topics such as the structure of nucleic acids, DNA and RNA characteristics, and historical experiments in genetics. It includes questions about nucleotide composition, DNA structure, and key experiments by scientists like Griffith and Avery. The content is designed to assess knowledge of molecular biology concepts and the role of DNA as genetic material.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
936 views18 pages

15.-Molecular-Basis-of-inheritance (1) 777

The document consists of multiple-choice questions related to the molecular basis of inheritance, covering topics such as the structure of nucleic acids, DNA and RNA characteristics, and historical experiments in genetics. It includes questions about nucleotide composition, DNA structure, and key experiments by scientists like Griffith and Avery. The content is designed to assess knowledge of molecular biology concepts and the role of DNA as genetic material.

Uploaded by

arshadumerkhan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Molecular Basis of

15 Chapter
Inheritance
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Monomer of nucleic acids are –
Topic Structure of Polynucleotides
(a) Peptides
2 Chain
(b) Nucleosides
(c) Ribonucleosides 5. A nucleotides contains –
(d) None of these (a) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate
2. DNA and RNA are types of – group
(a) Nucleotides (b) Nucleosides (b) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate
(c) Nucleic acids (d) Nucleamides group
(c) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + sulphate
Topic The DNA group
1 (d) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + sulphate
group
3. Length of DNA is usually defined as-
(a) Number of nucleotides present in it 6. Which of these is a purine –
(b) Number of pair of nucleotides present in it (a) Cytosine (b) Adenine
(c) Number of base pairs present in it (c) Thiamine (d) More than one is correct
(d) All of these 7. Which of these is a pyrimidine –
4. Match the length of DNA with the correctorganisms (a) Adenine (b) Thymine
– (c) Guanine (d) None of these

A B 8. Which of these is a correct combination for a


I Φ×174 1 4.6×106 bp (base DNA nucleotides
pairs) (a) Oxyribose + Phosphate + Uracil
(b) Oxyribose + Phosphate + Thymine
II Bacteriophage γ 2 3.3×109 bp
(c) Deoxyribose + Phosphate + Uracil
III E. coli 3 48502 bp (d) Deoxyribose + Phosphate + Thymine
IV Human DNA 4 5386 nucleotides
(haploid) 9. All the given nucleotides exists, except
(a) Deoxy uridine (b) Thymine
I II III IV (c) Both A & B (d) None of these
(a) 4 3 1 2 10. Nitrogenous base is linked to which carbon of
(b) 3 4 2 1 pentose sugar
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1’C (b) 2’C
(d) 3 4 1 2 (c) 3’C (d) 5’C
176 Botany
11. Nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar by (b) Erwin Chargaff
which bond – (c) Friedrich Meischer
(a) N – Glycosidic bond (d) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Phosphoester bond
18. Double Helix for structure of DNA model was
(c) Phosphodiester bond
proposed by –
(d) Peptide bond
(a) Wilkins and Franklin based on their
12. Phosphate group is linked to which carbon of Xraydiffraction date
pentose sugar (b) Watson and Crick based on their X-ray
(a) 1’C (b) 2’C diffraction date
(c) 3’C (d) 5’C (c) Chargaff based on their X-ray diffraction
data
13. Identify the free ends of given polynucleotides (d) None of these
chain –
19. The proposition of base pairing between the two
stands of polynucleotide chain in double Helix
model of DNA was based on observation of –
(a) Maurice Wilkins
(b) Rosalind Franklin
(c) Erwin Chargaff
I II (d) Both A & B
(a) 3’ phosphate 5’ hydroxyl 20. The two chains of double Helix DNA have –
(b) 5’ hydroxyl 3’ phosphate (a) Parallel polarity
(c) 5’ phosphate 3’ hydroxyl (b) Anti-parallel polarity
(d) 3’ hydroxyl 5’ phosphate (c) No polarity
(d) Depends on organism
14. Backbone of polynucleotide chain is formed due
21. The bases in two stands of DNA are paired
to –
through
(a) Sugar and N-base
(a) Hydrogen bond (b) Peptide bond
(b) Sugar and phosphate
(c) Glycosidic bond (d) Sulfide bond
(c) Phosphate and N – Base
(d) All of these 22. Which of the following is true about base pairing
in DNA –
15. Which is correct about thymine & uracil –
(a) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with
(a) Uracil is 5-methyl thymine
Guanine
(b) Thymine is 5-methyl uracil
(b) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with
(c) Uracil is 5-ethyl thymine
Guanine
(d) Thymine in 5-ethyl uracil
(c) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with
16. DNA is – Thymine
(a) Acidic and positively charged (d) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with
(b) Basic and positively charged Thymine
(c) Acidic and negatively charged
(d) Basic and negatively charged 23. Which of the following is true about base pairing
in DNA –
17. Name of DNA as ‘Nuclein’ was given by – (a) Guanine forms two H-bond with Cytosine
(a) Francis crick (b) Guanine forms three H-bond with Cytosine
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 177
(c) Guanine forms two H-bond with Adenine between consecutive base pairs is 0.34 × 10-9
(d) Guanine forms three H-bond with Adenine m. –
(a) 4 × 106 (b) 4 × 109
24. Uniform distance between two stands of Helix
(c) 4 × 10-6 (d) 4 × 1012
is due to –
(a) Double and triple bond formed between base 30. Assertion : In E. coli, DNA is scattered
pairs throughout the cell
(b) Sugar – phosphate backbone
Reason: In E. coli, there is no defined nucleus
(c) Purine – pyrimidine base pairing
(a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct &
(d) None of these
Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
25. How many of the following statements about (b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
Double – helix structure of DNA is correct – Reason is not correct explanation for
i) Two chains are coiled in right – handed fashion Assertion
ii) Pitch of helix is 3.6 nm (c) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
iii) There are roughly 10 bp in each turn (d) Reason is correct and Assertion is incorrect
iv) Plane of one base pair stacks over the other
31. Histones are –
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Positive and acidic in eukaryotes
(c) 3 (d) 4
(b) Positive and acidic in prokaryotes
26. Pitch of helix in double helix DNA is – (c) Positive and basic in eukaryotes
(a) 3.6 nm (b) 3.4 nm (d) Positive and basic in prokaryotes
(c) 3.2 nm (d) 3.8 nm
32. Assertion – Histones are positively charged
27. Central dogma in molecular biology was Reason – Histones are rich in basic amino acid
proposed by –– residues lysine and arginine
(a) Crick (b) Watson (a) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason
(c) F. Meischar (d) Chragaff is correct explanation for Assertion
(b) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason
28. Identify correct labels –– is not the correct explanation for Assertion
(c) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong

33. Histones are organized into –


(a) Hexamer (b) Octamer
(i) (ii) (iii) (c) Tetramer (d) Dimer
(a) Replication Translation Transcription
34. A typical nucleosome contain _____ bp of DNA
(b) Replication Transcription Translation
has
(c) Transcription Replication Translation (a) 200 (b) 400
(c) 600 (d) 800
(d) Translation Replication Transcription
35. Repeating unit of chromatin –
Topic Packaging of DNA Helix (a) Are nucleosomes
3 (b) Are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ under electron
microscope
29. If length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, calculate (c) Are packed to form fibres
number of base pair in E. coli? Given – distance (d) All of these
178 Botany
36. The figure show – (iv) Dark stain
(v) Inactive chromatin
(vi) Active chromatin
(a) i, iii, v (b) ii, iv, vi
(c) i, iii, vi (d) ii, iv, v

40. Choose correct set of characters for euchromatin


(i) Loosely packed
(ii) Densely packed
(iii) Light stain
(iv) Dark stain
(v) Inactive chromatin
(a) Beads-on-string (vi) Active chromatin
(b) A nucleosome (a) i, iii, v (b) ii, iv, vi
(c) Chromatin (c) i, iii, vi (d) ii, iv, v
(d) More than one option is correct
Topic The Search for Genetic Material
37. Identify the correct label for given figure
4
41. Griffith’s experiments were conducted in-
(a) 1928 (b) 1958
(c) 1978 (d) 1968

42. The experiment of Griffith was performed in-


(i) (ii) (iii) (a) Diplococcus pneumoniae, bacteria
(a) H2 histone DNA Histone octamer (b) Haemophilus influenzas, fungi
(b) H1 histone Histone octamer DNA (c) Streptococcus pneumoniae, fungi
(d) None of these
(c) H2 histone Histon octamer DNA
(d) H1 histone DNA Histone octamer 43. Match the given columns- (Pg. 100, M)

38. Chromosomes are connected chromatin fibres I II III


present – i. R-strain (a) Smooth (1) Mucous coat
(a) At all times in cell ii. S-strain (b) Rough (2) No mucous coat
(b) Only during cell division – formed at colonies
prophase (a) (i)-(a)-(1) (b) (i)-(b)-(1)
(c) Only during cell division – formed at (c) (ii)-(a)-(1) (d) (ii)-(a)-(2)
metaphase
44. Which strain of the microbe used Griffith is
(d) Only during cell division – formed at
virulent-
Interphase
(a) S-strain (b) R-strain
39. In a typical nucleus, euchromatin & hetero (c) Both (d) None
chromatin are present. Choose the correct set
45. Griffith observed that the mice died surprisingly
of characters for heterochromatin –
the following combination of strains was used,
(i) Loosely packed
which was unusual-
(ii) Densely packed
(a) S-strain heat killed
(iii) Light stain
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 179
(b) Heat killed S-strain 52. The scientists of Q-11 worked with-
(c) Heat killed R-strain + Live S-strain (a) a virus (b) a bacteria
(d) Heat killed S-strain + Live R-strain (c) a fungi (d) a nematode
46. In Griffith experiment
53. In the experiment performed for proving DNA
(a) R-strain transformed to S-strain and became
as genetic material, the bacteriophages were
virulent
grown on medium containing-
(b) R-strain transformed to S-strain and lost
(a) radioactive sulfur
virulence
(b) radioactive nitrogen
(c) S-strain transformed to R-strain and became (c) radioactive phosphorous
virulent (d) More than one option
(d) S-strain transformed to R-strain and lost
virulence 54. The bacteriophages growing in presence of
radioactive phosphorous __(i)__ contained
47. Griffith claimed that- radioactive __(ii)__.
(a) Some protein was transferred among bacteria (i) (ii)
(b) Some DNA was transferred among bacteria (a) P32 DNA
(c) Some carbohydrates was transferred among (b) P35 Protein
bacteria (c) P32 Protein
(d) None of these Biochemical Characterization (d) P35 DNA
of Transforming Principle
55. Bacteriophages grown on radioactive Sulphur
48. Prior to work of Avery, Macleod and McCarty, __(i)__ contained radioactive __(ii)__.
genetic material was thought to be (i) (ii)
(a) Protein (b) DNA (a) S32 DNA
(c) RNA (d) None (b) S32 Protein
(c) S35 DNA
49. Avery, Macleod & McCarty discovered that-
(d) S35 Protein
(a) DNA caused transformation
(b) RNA caused transformation 56. The bacteria involved in Hershey & chase
(c) Protein caused transformation experiment of 1952 was-
(d) Lipid caused transformation (a) Bacteriophage
50. Which enzyme inhibited the transformation- (b) E. coli
(a) Protease (b) RNase (c) S. pneumoniae
(c) DNase (d) All (d) C. butyliwm

Topic The Genetic Material is DNA 57. Bacteria infected with virus that showed
radioactivity had-
5
(a) radioactive DNA (S32)
51. Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material (b) radioactive DNA (S35)
came from experiments of- (c) radioactive DNA (P32)
(a) Avery, Macleod & McCarty (d) radioactive DNA (P35)
(b) Hershey and Chase
(c) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
(d) Sutton and Boveri
180 Botany
58. destroy the properties of genetic material (Pg.
103, M)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
explanation for R
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false

62. Which is more structurally and chemically


stable?
(a) DNA (b) RNA
(c) Protein (d) All

63. RNA viruses show-


(a) Less mutation
(b) Faster evolution
Identify the correct label. (c) Slower evolution
1 2 3 (d) More than one option is correct
(a) Blending Infection Centrifugati 64. DNA is preferred by nature over RNA for-
on (a) Storage of genetic information
(b) Infection Blending Centrifugati (b) Transmission of genetic information
on (c) Expression of genetic information
(c) Centrifugati Infection Blending (d) More than one
on 65. Choose incorrect statement RNA-
(d) Blending Centrifugati Infection (a) was first genetic material
on (b) acts as catalyst too
(c) is more stable than DNA
Topic Properties of Genetic (d) has protein synthesizing mechanism built
6 around it
59. RNA is genetic material in- Topic Replication
(a) TMV 7
(b) QB Bacteriophage
(c) Both A and B 66. Scheme for replication of DNA was proposed
(d) None of these by-
(a) Watson & Crick
60. Properties of genetic material include- (b) Meselson & Stahl
(a) Stable (b) Mutable (c) Taylor
(c) Replicable (d) All of these (d) Hershey & Chase
61. A - Stability as a property of genetic material 67. The replication of DNA is-
was very evident in Griffith’s transforming (a) Conservative
principle. (b) Non-conservative
R - Heat can kill the bacteria and completely (c) Semi-conservative
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 181
(d) All of these depending on organism 73. In Meselson & Stahl experiment, first they-
(a) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N medium
68.
followed by normal one
(b) grew bacteria on normal isotope of N medium
followed by heavy one
(c) grew bacteria on radioactive N followed by
Keavy one
(d) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N followed
by radioactive one
74.

The figure shows- Identify the correct label


(a) Conservative DNA replication model
(i) (i) (iii)
(b) Semi-conservative DNA replication model
(c) Non-conservative DNA replication model (a) Light Heavy Hybrid
(d) Can’t say (b) Heavy Hybrid Light
(c) Light Hybrid Light
69. The DNA replication model experimental proof
(d) Heavy Hybrid Heavy
was first shown in-
(a) Human cells (b) E. coli 75. In Meselson & Stahl expt a bacteria after
(c) Plant cell (d) Vicia faba dividing in 20 minutes had a hybrid DNA.
What will be the ratio of Hybrid to Light after
70. Meselson and stahl performed experiment for
80 minutes?
proving DNA replication scheme in-
(a) 2 : 14 (b) 14 : 2
(a) 1952 (b) 1953
(c) 16 : 2 (d) 2 : 16
(c) 1958 (d) 1961
76. Similar experiment on Vicia faba was conducted
71. The bacteria were grown in medium containing-
by ____ to detect distribution of newly
(a) 15NH4Cl – 15N is heavy isotope of nitrogen
synthesized DNA in chromosomes
(b) 14NH4Cl – 14N is heavy isotope of nitrogen
(a) Taylor (b) Stahl
(c) 15NH4Cl – 15N is normal isotope of nitrogen
(c) Gamow (d) Nirenberg
(d) 14NH4Cl – 14N is normal isotope of nitrogen
77. Experiment on Vicia faba involved use of-
72. The heavy DNA molecule containing heavy
(a) Radioactive uridine
isotope of N is distinguished from normal DNA
(b) Radioactive thymidine
by-
(c) Radioactive adenosine
(a) UV rays
(d) Radioactive cytidine
(b) Ethidium bromide solution
(c) Centrifugation is CsCl density gradient
(d) PCR technique
182 Botany
(b) continuous, discontinuous
Topic The Machinery and the Enzymes
(c) discontinuous, continuous
8 (d) discontinuous, discontinuous
78. The main enzyme of replication is-
84. DNA ligase act on-
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(a) 5’ → 3’ template strand
(b) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(b) 3’ → 5’ template strand
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(c) Both A and B
(d) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(d) Ligate RNA with vector of 3’ → 5’ polarity
79. Choose correct statement with regard with
85. The replication is eukaryotes take place in-
efficiency of DNA polymerase.
(a) M-phase (b) G1 phase
(a) 4.6 × 106 bp of E. coli replicate within 46
(c) S-phase (d) G2 phase
minutes
(b) The average rate of polymerization of DNA 86. Polyploidy resulted by-
polymerase has to be approximately 2000 (a) A failure in cell division after DNA
bp/minute replication
(c) The polymerization accuracy is very high (b) A failure in DNA replication after cell
and very fast division
(d) All of these (c) A failure in cell division before DNA
replication
80. What is function of deoxyribonucleoside (d) A and C both
triphosphate-
(a) It act as substrate 87.
(b) Provide energy for polymerization
(c) A and B both
d) It is product formed after polymerization

81. Assertion: The two strands of DNA cannot be


separated in their length.

Reason: Separation required very high energy.


(a) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and
reason is correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and
reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is false
(d) Assertion & Reason are false

82. Polymerization by DNA polymerase is in-


(a) 3’ → 5’ direction only
Correct label of A, B, C, D is-
(b) 5’ → 3’ direction only
(i) A = Template parental strand
(c) A and B both
(ii) B = Newly synthesized strand
(d) Random
(iii) D = Continuous strand
83. The template of replication fork with polarity (iv) C = Discontinuous strand
5’ → 3’ is ____ while 3’ → 5’ is ____. (a) i, ii only (b) iii, iv only
(a) continuous, continuous (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) None of these
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 183
8.1 Transcription (a) 5’ → 3’ strand of DNA
(b) 3’ → 5’ strand of DNA
88. Transcription is-
(c) Site of catalysis of enzyme required for
(a) The process of copying genetic information
transcription
from both strand of DNA into RNA
(d) B and C both
(b) The process of copying genetic information
from one strand of DNA into RNA 95. What is coding strand of given template strand
(c) The process of copying genetic information 3’ – AGCATGCA – 5’
from RNA into DNA (a) 5’ – TACGTACGT – 3’
(d) A and B both (b) 5’ – UACGUACGU – 3’
(c) 3’ – UACGUACGU – 5’
89. In transcription, adenosine bind with
(d) 3’ – TACGTACGT – 5
(a) Thymine (b) Uracil
(c) Cytosine (d) A and B both 96. Label A, B, C, D, E of given diagram.

90. Why both the strand of DNA are not copied


during transcription-
(a) If both strands act a template, they would
code for RNA molecules with same
sequence
(b) RNA formed by transcription of both strand,
when code for protein, the sequence of
amino acid in protein are same
(c) The two RNA molecules if produced
simultaneously would be complementary
to each other
(d) All of these

91. Translation of RNA would be prevented if-


(a) RNA is single strand
(b) RNA is double-stranded
(c) RNA is produced by both strand of DNA
(d) B and C both

8.1.1 Transcription Unit


92. Transcription unit primarily consist of-
97. Promoter is located-
(a) 1 region (b) 2 regions
(i) 3’ end
(c) 3 regions (d) None of these
(ii) 5’ end
93. Transcription primarily required- (iii) upstream of structural gene
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (iv) downstream of structural gene
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (a) i, iii (b) ii, iii
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (c) i, iv (d) ii, iv
(d) RNA dependents DNA polymerase 98. Terminator is located at
(i) 3’ end
94. Template strand of transcription unit is/are-
(ii) 5’ end
184 Botany
(iii) upstream of structural gene (a) r-RNA (b) t-RNA
(iv) downstream of structural gene (c) m-RNA (d) All of these
(a) i, iii (b) ii, iii
105. The function of some RNA are given below
(c) i, iv (d) ii, iv
choose the incorrect one.
8.1.2 Transcription unit and the gene (a) mRNA provide template strand
(b) mRNA provide non-template strand
99. A gene is defined as- (c) tRNA bring amino acid
(a) Functional unit of inheritance (d) rRNA play structural & catalytic role
(b) Non-functional region of DNA that haven’t
any information 106. How many polymerase required is bacteria for
(c) A and B both transcription of all type of RNA?
(d) None of these (a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Five
100. Cistron is-
(a) Segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide 107. Choose incorrect step about transcription.
(b) Segment of RNA coding for a polypeptide (a) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
(c) Segment of DNA that are non-coding initiate transcription.
sequence (b) Nucleotide triphosphate act as substrate and
(d) Segment of RNA have not any coding polymerization in a template.
sequence (c) A short stretch of RNA remains bound to
enzyme.
101. Choose the correct statement. (d) Last step is termination.
(a) Monocistronic eukaryotic structural gene
have interrupted coding sequence. 108. Initiation factor and termination factor are-
(b) Polycistronic prokaryotic structural gene (a) Sigma and Rho factor respectively.
have interrupted coding sequence. (b) Rho and Sigma factor respectively.
(c) Monocistronic prokaryotic structural gene (c) Rho and Rho factor respectively.
have interrupted coding sequence. (d) Sigma and Sigma factor respectively.
(d) A and B both 109. Translation & transcription in eukaryote occur
102. Exons are- in
(a) Coding sequence (a) Cytoplasm & nucleus respectively
(b) Non-coding sequence (b) Nucleus & cytoplasm respectively
(c) Expressed sequence (c) Cytosol
(d) A and C both (d) Nucleus
103. Intron- 110. Which of following can be coupled in bacteria?
(a) appear is mature or processed RNA (a) Replication & transcription
(b) do not appear in mature or processed RNA (b) Transcription & translation
(c) appear is prokaryotes (c) Replication & translation
(d) B and C both (d) None of these
Topic Transpiration 111. Transcription of 18 s rRNA is done by ____ in
9 eukaryote.
(a) RNA pol. I (b) RNA pol. II
104. Which of following play role is protein synthesis
(c) RNA pol. III (d) All of these
of prokaryote?
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 185
112. Choose incorrect statement. 118. Which of following is/are showing dual function-
(a) 5.8 s r-RNA and 5 s-RNA transcribes by (a) UUU (b) AUG
same RNA polymerase in eukaryote. (c) UGA (d) GUA
(b) hnRNA & mRNA transcribe by same RNA
119. Least number of codon is for-
polymerase in eukaryote.
(a) Met (b) Phe
(c) tRNA & snRNA transcribes by sameRNA
(c) Gls (d) Gly
polymerase in eukaryote.
(d) None of these
Topic Mutations and Genetic Code
113. Splicing is required to- 11
(a) remove intron in eukaryote
(b) remove exon in eukaryote 120. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of-
(c) remove exon in prokaryote (a) point mutation
(d) remove intron in prokaryote (b) frameshift mutation
(c) deletion mutation
114. Capping is- (d) addition mutation
(a) Addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate
at 5’ end 121. In sickle cell anaemia, there are changes in gene
(b) addition of adenylate residue at 3’ end for-
(c) addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate (a) alpha globin chain
at 3’ end (b) beta globin chain
(d) addition of adenylate residue at 5’ end (c) gamma globin chain
(d) delta globin chain
115. The fully processed hnRNA is-
(a) tRNA (b) mRNA 122. In sickle cell anaemia, resultant effect of
(c) rRNA (d) None of these mutation is change of amino acid residue-

Topic Genetic Code (a) Valine to alanine


(b) Valine to glutamic acid
10
(c) Alanine to valine
116. George Gamow argued- (d) Glutamic acid to valine
(a) There are only 5 bases and if they have code
for 20 amino acid the code should constitute 123. The following is an example of- BIG RED
a combination of bases CAP - BIG REM DCA P
(b) There are only 4 bases and if they have (a) Deletion mutation
code for 20 amino acid the code should (b) Point mutation
constitute a combination of bases (c) Addition mutation
(c) Genetic code is triplet (d) More than one option
(d) B and C 124. RAM HAS CAP - RAM HAS BIG CAP
117. Which of following have maximum codon in The given example shows-
genetic code- (a) Addition mutation
(a) Leu (b) Met (b) Deletion mutation
(c) Cal (d) Phe (c) Substitution mutation
(d) More than one option
186 Botany
131.
Topic tRNA - The Adapter Molecule
12
125. tRNA has-
(a) Codon loop (b) Anticodon loop
(c) Both (d) Neither

126. The presence of adapter molecule to read the


code on DNA and bind to amino acids was
postulated by- The given figure shows-
(a) James Watson (a) Secondary structure of tRNA – Cloverleaf
(b) Francis Crick (b) Primary structure of tRNA – clover-leaf
(c) Friedrich Meisher (c) Secondary structure of tRNA – inverted-L
(d) Both A and B (d) Primary structure of tRNA – inverted-L

127. tRNA was also called- Topic Translation


(a) s RNA (soluble RNa) 13
(b) s RNA (single RNa)
(c) s RNA (smart RNa) 132. Translation refers to process of-
(d) s RNA (simple RNa) (a) Making RNA from DNA
(b) Making DNA from RNA
128. The amino acid acceptor end of tRNA is- (c) Polymerization of nucleotide to form a DNA
(a) 5’ (d) Polymerization of amino acid to form a
(b) 3’ polypeptide
(c) Can be any of these
(d) Free end 133. The order and sequence of amino acid during
translation are defined by-
129. For initiation translation, (a) The sequences of bases in r-RNA
(a) Only tRNA carries initiator amino acid to (b) The sequences of bases in t-RNA
the site. (c) The sequences of bases in m-RNA
(b) Specific rRNA carries initiator amino acid (d) All of these
to the site.
(c) Any rRNA carries initiator amino acid to 134. Which of following bond is formed during
the site. translation?
(d) Specific tRNA carries initiator amino acid (a) Glycosidic bond
to the site. (b) Phosphodiester bond
(c) Peptide bond
130. For stop codon- (d) All of these
(a) There are specific tRNAs with aminoacids.
(b) There are specific tRNAs which do not bind 135. First phase of translation does not involve-
to any amino acids. (a) Charging of RNA
(c) There are no tRNA. (b) Amino acids are activated in presence of
(d) There are tRNAs which may or may not ATP
bind to amino acids. (c) Activated amino acid are linked to their
cognate tRNA
(d) None of these
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 187
136. Initiation or first phase of translation is- stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
(a) Amino acylation of tRNA (b) A translational unit is sequence of DNA
(b) Amino acylation of mRNA that is flanked by start codon & codes for
(c) Both A and B polypeptide.
(d) Deamino acylation of mRNA (c) A transcriptional unit in tRNA is the
sequence of RNA that is flanked by start
137. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing codon and stop codon and codes for
protein is- polypeptide.
(a) Ribosome (b) Lysosome (d) A transcriptional unit in rRNA is the
(c) Peroxisome (d) None of these sequence of RNA that is flanked by start
138. In inactive state, protein factory of cell exist in codon (AUG) and stop codon and codes
(a) Two state for polypeptide.
(b) 4 state in prokaryote 143. UTR is/are-
(c) 6 state in eukaryote (i) Untranslated region of mRNA
(d) B and C both (ii) It present at both 5’ end (start codon) cand
139. Which of following is sign as beginning of 3’ end (before stop codon)
translation? (iii) They are required for efficient translation
(a) When the large subunit of protein factory process
of cell encounters an mRNA. (iv) It present at both 3’ end (before start codon)
(b) When the small subunit of protein factory and 3’ end (after stop codon)
of cell encounters an mRNA. (a) i, ii, iii are correct
(c) When the small subunit of protein factory (b) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
of cell encounter a tRNA. (c) i, iii, iv are correct
(d) When the large subunit of protein factory (d) i, iii are correct
of cell encounters a tRNA.
144. Initiator tRNA binds with -
140. The bond formation (peptide) between charged (a) AUG codon of mRNA
tRNA is accomplished due to- (b) at initiation of protein synthesis
(a) Presence of ATP and catalyst (c) ATG codon of dsDNA
(b) Two such charged tRNA are brought close (d) A and B both
by two site in large subunit of ribosome
145. Choose the correct about elongation of
(c) Two charged tRNA are brought close by
two site in small subunit of ribosome & translation-
presence of ATP along with catalyst (a) Complexes composed of an amino acid
(d) A and B both linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
appropriate codon in mRNA by forming
141. The ribosome act as catalyst during bond complementary base pairs with the tRNA
formation (peptide) as in- anticodon
(a) 28 s rRNA in bacteria (b) The ribosome moves from codon to codon
(b) 23 s rRNA in bacteria along the mRNA in (3’ → 5’).
(c) 23 s rRNA in eukaryote (c) Complexes composed of an amino acid
(d) 28 s tRNA in bacteria linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
142. Choose the correct statement- appropriate anticodon in mRNA by forming
(a) A translational unit in mRNA is sequence complementary base pair with tRNA codon.
of RNA that is flanked by start codon and (d) A and B both
188 Botany
146. Termination of translation complex is done (b) Regulatory proteins act positively in activator.
when- (c) In a transcriptional unit the activity of RNA
(a) Release factor binds with stop codon (AUG) polymerase at a given promoter is in turn
(b) Release factor binds with UGA like codon regulated by interaction with accessory
(c) Complete translation of DNA including UTR protein.
occurs in eukaryotes (d) None of these
(d) B and C both
152. Operator-
Topic Regulation of Gene Expression (a) Region adjacent to sequence by which
14 repressor mRNA formed
(b) Bind with repressor protein
147. Gene regulation is eukaryote exerted at- (c) Bind with inducer
(a) Formation of primary transcript (d) A and B both
(b) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
153. Each operon has-
cytoplasm
(a) Same operator and same repressor
(c) A and B both
(b) Same operator but specific repressor
(d) Regulation of splicing of tRNA
(c) Specific operator but same repressor
148. B-glactosidase is used to catalyze the hydrosis (d) Specific operator and specific repressor
of
154. Lac operon was studied first by-
(a) Lactose into galactose and glucose
(a) Francois Jacob
(b) Lactose into fructose & glucose
(b) Jacque Monod
(c) Lactose into fructose & fructose
(c) Geneticist and Biochemist
(d) None of these
(d) both a and b
149. E.coli do not have lactose around them to utilized
155. Lac operon is/are-
for energy source, they would-
(a) Monocistronic structural gene is regulated
(a) No longer require the synthesis of enzyme
by a common promoter & regulators genes
α-galactosidase
(b) Polycistronic structural gene is regulated by
(b) Synthesized enzyme β-galactosidase
a common promoter & regulatory genes.
(c) Die due to lack of carbon source and energy
(c) Consist of one regulatory gene, monocistronic
source
structural gene having five gene along with
(d) None of these
promotor & operator.
150. In prokaryote, predominant site for control of (d) A and C both
gene expression is-
156. Regulatory gene of lac-operon is-
(a) Control of rate of transcriptionalc initiation
(a) p-gene (b) i-gene
(b) Control of rate of translational
(c) o-gene (d) z-gene
(c) Control of rate of transcriptional elongation
(d) B and C both 157. i in i-gene stand for-
(a) inducer
151. Given below are statement. Choose the incorrect (b) inhibitor
statement. (c) A and B both
(a) The development and differentiation of (d) Inactive repressor
embryo into adult organisms are result of
coordinated regulation of expression of
several sets of genes.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 189
158. Match Column-I & Column-II. 165.
Column-I (Gene) Column-II (Product)
(a) Z-gene (i) Repressor mRNA
(b) a-gene (ii) β-gal
(c) Y-gene (iii) Permease
(d) i-gene (iv) Transacetylase

a b c d (a) The given diagram is in presence of lactose


(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (b) The given diagram is in absence of lactose
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (c) The given diagram is of gene off
(d) D and H is same process
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Topic Human Genome Project (HGP)
159. The monomeric product of lactose is chiefly
15
hydrolyzed by- 166. HGP was launched in-
(a) i-gene (b) z-gene (a) 1980 (b) 1970
(c) a-gene (d) y-gene. (c) 1990 (d) 2000
160. Lac in lac-operon is for - 167. HGP was called a-
(a) Monosaccharide (b) Disaccharide (a) Minor project
(c) Polysaccharide (d) Insect (b) Hexagonal project
(c) Mega project
161. In absence of preferred carbon source, if lactose
(d) None of these
is provided in growth medium of bacteria, the
lactose is transported into cell through by action 168. Human genome has approx. ______ bp.
of product formed by- (a) 3 × 109 (b) 3 × 106
(a) i-gene (b) z-gene (c) 6 × 109 (d) 6 × 106
(c) a-gene (d) y-gene
169. If cost of sequencing required is US $ 3 per bp,
162. Allolactose is- then total cost of sequencing human genome as
(a) Inducer of lac-operon per 8-3 will be:
(b) Inductive repressor (a) US $ 18 billion
(c) Form of lactose that bind with product of (b) US $ 9 billion
repressor mRNA and inhibit transcription (c) US $ 18 million
of structural gene (d) US $ 9 million
(d) All of these
170. There were approx. ____ genes in human DNA,
163. Lac operon is- as per the goals of HGP
(a) Negative regulation operon (a) 20,000 – 25,000
(b) Positive regulation operon (b) 40,000 – 45,000
(c) A and B both (c) 10,000 – 15,000
(d) None of these (d) 50,000 – 60,000
164. Inducer of lac-operon is-
(a) Glucose (b) Galactose 171. HGP was a ____ year project -
(c) Lactose (d) Fructose (a) 15 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
190 Botany
172. HGP was coordination by- (a) Partially extracted from cell
(a) US department of engineering & national (b) Totally isolated from cell
institute of health (c) Not needed to isolated from cell
(b) US department of engineering and national (d) None of these
institute of biotechnology
181. The DNA for sequencing is converted to
(c) US department of energy and national
fragments of small size. The fragments are made-
institute of biotechnology
(a) On a pre – decided basis
(d) US department energy and National Institute
(b) On a pre – defined basis
of Health
(c) Randomly
173. The ____ of U.K was a major partner of HGP
(d) Depending upon organism
(a) Wellcome trust (b) Health trust
(c) Social trust (d) Welcome trust 182. The step in DNA sequencing after fragmentation
of DNA is-
174. Project was completed in- (a) Cloning in host using vectors
(a) 2005 (b) 2004 (b) Cloning in vectors using host
(c) 2003 (d) 2002 (c) Amplification of DNA fragments
175. Additional contributes to HGP was- (d) More than one option
(a) Japan (b) China 183. Commonly used hosts for DNA cloning include-
(c) Germany (d) All of these (a) Bacteria (b) BAC
(c) YAC (d) Both A and C
176. Caenorhabditis elegans is a-
(a) Fungi (b) Nematode 184. BAC stands for-
(c) Bacteria (d) Virus (a) Bacterial artificial colour
(b) Binominal artificial characterization
177. Caenorhabditis elegans is - (c) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(a) Free living , non-pathogenic (d) Bacterial articular chromosome
(b) Parasitic , pathogenic
(c) Free living , pathogenic 185. Fragments were sequenced using automated
(d) Parasitic , non-pathogenic DNA sequence that worked on principle of a
method developed by-
178. Methods / approaches of HGP include- (a) Erwin Chargaff
(a) Excess sequence tags (b) Marshal Nirenberg
(b) Expressed sequence tags (c) Frederick Sanger
(c) Exercise sequence tags (d) George Gamow
(d) Exerted sequence tags
186. Method for determination of amines acid
179. Sequence annotations refer to- sequence in protein was developed by-
(a) Identifying all genes expressed as RNA and (a) Erwin Chargaff
then sequencing then (b) Marshal Nirenberg
(b) Sequencing the whole set of genome and then (c) Frederick Sanger
assigning different regions with functions (d) George Gamow
(c) Identifying and sequencing the genome 187. The last of the 24 human chromosomes to be
simultaneously sequenced was-
(d) More than one option is correct (a) Chromosome 1 (b) Chromosome X
180. For sequencing, the DNA is- (c) Chromosome 22 (d) Chromosome Y
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 191
(d) All of these
Topic Features of Human Genome
16 195. DNA polymorphism is observed more in-
(a) non-coding DNA sequence as its mutation
188. According to HGP, human genome contains-
affects reproduction
(a) ~ 3000 million bp
(b) coding DNA sequence as its mutation affects
(b) ~ 6000 million bp
reproduction
(c) ~ 9000 million bp
(c) non-coding DNA sequence as it mutation
(d) ~ 1000 million bp
may not affect reproduction ability
189. Dystrophin was found to be- (d) Coding DNA sequence as its mutation may
(a) Largest known human gene with 2.4 million not affect reproduction ability
bases
196. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially
(b) Smallest known human gene with 2.4 million
developed by-
bases
(a) James Watson (b) Jansley
(c) Largest known human gene with 4.8 million
bases (c) Alec Jeffreys (d) Maheshwari
(d) Smallest known human gene with 4.8 million 197. VNTR stands for -
bases (a) Various number of Tendon Repeats
190. Which chromosome was found to have most (b) Variable Number of Tendon Repeats
genes- (c) Various Number of Tandem Repeats
(a) Chr 22 (b) Chr 1 (d) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
(c) Chr 5 (d) Chr Y 198. VNTR belongs to-
191. Which chromosome was found to have fewest (a) Micro-satellite
genes- (b) Macro-satellite
(a) Chr X (b) Chr Y (c) Mini-satellite
(c) Chr 1 (d) Chr 5 (d) All of these

Topic DNA Finger Printing 199.


17
192. The DNA sequence in which small stretch of
DNA is repeated many times is called-
(a) SNP (b) Repetitive DNA
(c) Polymorphic DNA (d) More than one
option

193. Satellite DNA classified into different categories


like micro - satellite , mini - satellite , etc based
on-
(a) Length of segment (b) Number of repetitive
(c) Base composition (d) All of these In the given figure if ‘C’ is the DNA collected
from crime site and ‘A’ & ‘B’ are samples from
194. Polymorphism arises due to- suspects, than who is the criminal?
(a) Mutation – inheritable (a) B (b) A
(b) Stability of genetic material (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
(c) Mutation - non-heritable
192 Botany

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (d) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (c)
131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (d) 136. (a) 137. (a) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (a) 143. (d) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (a)
151. (d) 152. (b) 153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (b) 156. (b) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (b)
161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (c) 165. (a) 166. (c) 167. (c) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (c)
171. (d) 172. (d) 173. (a) 174. (c) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (d) 183. (d) 184. (c) 185. (c) 186. (c) 187. (a) 188. (a) 189. (a) 190. (b)
191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (a) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (d) 198. (c) 199. (a)

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