Answers

The answers to the practice questions below are as given to the IB examiners.
The following notes may help you to interpret these and make full use of the guidance given.
• There are no half marks awarded. Each mark is shown by the number in brackets (1).
• Points worth single marks are separated from each other by a semicolon (;).
• Alternative possible answers are separated from each other by a dash (/).
• Any answer given in bold or underlined must be present to score the mark.
• Information in brackets ( ) is not needed to score the mark.
• Notes given in italics are to guide the examiner on what to accept/reject in their marking.
• OWTTE means ‘or words to that effect’, so alternative wording that conveys the same meaning can be equally rewarded.
• ECF means ‘error carried forward’, so examiners must award marks for an incorrect answer from an earlier part of a
question used correctly in a subsequent step.
• MP1, MP2 etc. represent method marks to be awarded by an examiner for answers showing the appropriate steps of
the working (method) necessary for answering the question.
You may notice occasional differences between the calculations or wordings given in the answers and those in the worked
solutions. This is because the answers give the final solution with the minimum of working, and the worked solutions
provide the extra reasoning and working needed to understand how the answers are attained.

14 1.12 ± 0.01 s
Skills 15 (a) 5.2 cm (b) 4.8 cm
1 (a) 4.8 × 104 (b) 3.6 × 10–5 (c) 3 cm (d) 8.8 cm
(c) 1.45 × 104 (d) 4.8 × 10–7 16 (a) 5 cm (b) 5.66 cm
2 (a) 5.59 × 10 m 6
(b) 1.75 m (c) 6.32 cm (d) 3.61 cm
(c) 2.54 × 10–5 m (d) 1026 m 17 8.94 km, 63.4° north-west
3 (a) 2.68 × 109 s (b) 2.5 × 10–3 s 18 112 km, 26.6° north-east
(c) 3.46 × 105 s (d) 1.04 × 104 s 19 8.66 km
4 –1
(a) 2 × 10 kg –8
(b) 1 × 10 kg 20 7.52 km
(c) 2 × 103 kg 21 433 m
5 150 m3
6 (a) 1.0 × 10–10 m3 (b) 1.09 × 1021 m3
Challenge yourself
7 180 kg 1 8 ± 4 m s−2
8 86.85 kg
9 5.48 × 103 kg m–3
A.1
10 (a) There is some variation in the mass of the apples,
but the number of apples is proportional to the
mass of the apples.
Exercises
(b) There is a larger variation in the mass of the apples. 1 (a) 27.8 m s–1 (b) 5.6 m s–1
(c) The mass of the apples appears to be linearly 2 (a) 4.2 m s–1 (b) 0 m s–1
related to the number of apples but there –1
(c) –4.2 m s (minus sign indicates traveling in
might be a large systematic error in the mass opposite direction to initial direction)
measurement, or the apples were counted
(d) 90 m
incorrectly.
3 22.4 m s–1, 26.6°
11 A = 4B2
4 4.1 m s–1 , direction is 14° W of S
12 9056 ± 560 kg m−3
5 31.6 m s–1
13 1600 ± 4 m

1
 4 4.1 m s–1 , direction is 14° W of S s
12 15 m
5 31.6 m s–1 Answers 15 A B Cvelocity
D = zero time
13

s, v, a
6 49 m s–1 displacement
A
7 –30 m s–1
6 49 m s–1 16
16 S
8 40 m –1 s C
negative gradient
7 –30 m s constant gradient
98 3.6
40 mm s–1 v
B D time
109
–1
43.6
s ms
10 4s velocity
a
11 125 m, 2.5 m s–2 t
11 125 m, 2.5 m s–2
t t
1212 15
15 m
m
The displacement graph is quadratic in the first A B C D time
1313 and last sections, and linear in between.
s, v, a

16 S V
s
17 78
17 78 m
constant gradient
18 (a) 30° (b) 17.3 m
v 18 (a) 30° (b) 17.3 m
19 5m
19 5m
20 39.6 m
a t 1
t
Challenge yourself t
The displacement
The displacement graph
graphisisquadratic
quadraticin the firstfirst
in the and 1 53 m
2_IBPH_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 1 16/07/2014 09:38
last sections, and linear in between.
and last sections, and linear in between.
Practice questions
14
14
s, v, a

1 (a) ​​​​s​ S​​  = 18 × t​ (1)

V
(b) 81 m (1)
17 78 m(c) 27 m s (1) –1
a
18 (a) 30°x = 27 ​ t – 6.0 ​​ (b) 17.3 m
(d) ​ (1)
( )
(e) ​ t = 9.0​s (2)
19 25 m(a) (i) 4 m (1)
t
(ii) 2.1 s 1 (3)
(iii) 15 m (2)
v
(b) On the way up, air resistance is in the same
H_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 1 direction as weight. On the way down,16/07/2014
air 09:38

resistance is in the opposite direction to weight.

s The magnitude of acceleration is greater on the
way up than down so the time to reach the highest
15
15 velocity = zero point is smaller than the time back to the ground. (3)
displacement
A
3 (a)  (2)

negative gradient C

B D time
(b) The boy at the top of the hill will kick the ball
velocity
with a smaller magnitude of velocity than the
boy at the bottom. The direction of the shot
from the boy at the top will be at an angle closer
A B C D time to the horizontal; the angle of the shot from the
boy at the bottom will be closer to the vertical. (2)

16 S
2
 Answers

4 C(1) 14 2 m s–2
5 A(1) 15 682.5 N
6 (a) 0.19 s (2) 16 (a) 40 N (b) 150 m s–2
(b) Now we will use this time (to reach the net) in 17 (a) force on gas = –force on rocket
a vertical component calculation to find out (b) force on water = –force on boat
the height of the ball when in line with the net.
(c) force on body = –force on board
Listing the variables taking downwards to be
positive: u​ = 64 sin 7.0°​ a
​ = 9.81​ t​ = 0.19​; (d) water exerts unbalanced force on ball, so ball
exerts force on water; reading increases
​s = ut + ​_12 ​  a ​t​​  2​
18 (a) 31.4 m (b) 0 m
= 64 sin 7.0 × 0.19 + ​_12 ​ × 9.81 × 0. ​19​​  2​
= 1.66​m; (c) 15.7 s (d) 6.4 × 10–2 Hz
(e) 0.4 rad s–1 (f) 0.8 m s–2
This is vertical distance fallen. The height of the
ball is ​2.8 − 1.66 = 1.1​m, which means the ball 19 1389 N
passes over the net (height of 0.91 m). (3) 20 15.8 m s–1
(c) 64.4 m s−1(2) 21 14 m s–1
7 5560 m (2) 22 (a) 9 m s–1 (b) 30 N
l cos θ _l
8 (a) ​ t = ​_
u cos θ u
​= ​ ​​ (2)
u​​  2​  sin θ
​_
Challenge yourself
(b) ​​​l = 4 ​ g ​​ (3)
1 72 km h–1, 241 km h–1

Practice questions
A.2
1 (a) the direction of the car is changing; hence the
velocity of the car is changing
Exercises OR
1 (a) 10 N to the right since the direction of the car is changing; a force
(b) 5.8 N, 31° above the horizontal, to the right must be acting on it, hence it is accelerating (2)
2 (a) 40 N (b) 69 N (b) (i) arrow pointing vertically downwards (1)
(ii) weight
3 (a) –74 N to the left
Do not penalize candidates if they state ‘gravity’.
(b) 45 N, 63.4° above the horizontal, to the right
normal reaction; (2)
4 (a) 4N down slope (b) 4 N, 37.6° relative to the Do not penalize candidates if they state ‘push of the
dashed line track on the marble’.
5 (a) F1 = 8.49 N F2 = 17.3 N,
(b)  (iii) loss in EP = 0.05 × 10 × (0.8 – 0.35); =
F3 = 50 N ​12 ​  m​v​​  2​​; to give v = 3.0 m s–1
gain in ​​EK​  ​= _
6 (a) F = T sin 30° (b) 10 = T cos 30° OR
(c) 11.5 N (d) 5.8 N use of v = 2gh to give v = _ 4.0 m s–1 at point B;
7 (a) F = 50 sin 30° (b) 50 cos 30° = N and then use of ​​v​​  ​ − ​u​​  ​ = √​ 2gh ​ ​with v = 4.0 m s–1
2 2

and h = 0.35 m; to get u = 3.0 m s–1(3)

(c) F = 25 N, N = 43.3 N
Do not penalize the candidate if g = 9.8 m s–2
8 (a) 2 T cos 80° = 600 N is used.
(b) T sin 80° = T sin 80° m ​v​​  ​ 2
(iv) recognize that resultant force ​= ​_r ​​​
(c) 1728 N
 ​​ 0.05 × 9.0 ​
( )
=_ 0.175
​ = 2.6 N​
9 –3 N s
​m​rv​​  ​​  − mg​= 2.6 – 0.5 = 2.1 N
2
​N = _ (4)
10 –4.02 N s
2 (a) ratio between (maximum) friction and normal
11 6.7 m s–2
reaction / OWTTE(1)
12 997.5 N Don’t accept equation without definitions of symbols.
13 (a) 3.3 m s–2 (b) 33 N

3
 r
= 2.6 – 0.5 = 2.1 N; [4]
[Total 10 marks]

Answers
[Total 12 marks]
3 (a) The work done per unit mass;
2 (a) ratio between (maximum) friction and in bringing a (small test) mass from infinity to
normal reaction / OWTTE; [1] the point; [2]
Don’t accept equation without definitions Idea of ratio crucial for first mark.
of symbols.
(b) (i) g = GM2 p – GM2 m ;
r
(b) (b)(i)(i) static; (Award
static; (Award thisthis
markmark
for baldfor bald statement even 1
5r (a) (i) 4.5 m s−1(1)
2

statement even if the reason is wrong.) 0 = M – M ; p m

if the reason is wrong.) since person is not 0.8 0.22 2
(ii) 4.5 m s−1(1)
since person is not moving vertically /
moving
OWTTE;
vertically / OWTTE(2) [2]
M = 16;
p
(iii) 31.8 N[3] (3)
M m

(ii)(ii) Award [1] for each force labeled

Award [1] for each force labelled to to show (ii) KE = mΔV; (b) (i) The horizontal component of velocity
understanding.
show understanding. [3] KE(3)
= 1500 × (4.6 – 0.20) × 107;
changes, so there is an unbalanced force on
friction KE = 6.6 × 1010 J; [3]
the sand. According to Newton’s third law,
Award [2] if attempted use of ΔV
but value used is wrong and an [1] ifequal
an and opposite force is exerted on
thethan
individual potential value rather truck.
a In turn, there must be a frictional
(normal) reaction
difference is used.) force opposing this in order for the truck to
remain
[Total 8 marks]stationary. (3)
(ii)J kg22.5 N[1]
4 (a) (i) Vsurface = –6.3 (± 0.3) × 10 7 –1
(2)
(ii) Vh is at R = 42 × 106 m;
floor
6 C(1)
= –1.0 (±0.2) × 107 J kg–1; [2]
weight Watch for R7= 3.6D(1)
× 107 m being used.
If so award [1] and use ECF.
Use
Use benefit
benefit ofofthe
thedoubt
doubtandand accept, e.g, mg or W for
accept 8 D(1)
things like mg or W for weight etc. (b) ΔV = 5.3 (± 0.5) × 107 J kg–1;
weight etc. Energy = mΔV;9 (a) 0 N (1)
Note: ‘centripetal force’ is not a correct
Note: ‘centripetal
label for the reactionforce’
force.is not a[2]correct label for=the
Award 5.3 (±0.5) × 1011 J;
(b) The blades exert[3]
a downward force on the air.
reaction
for correctforce. with no[2]
forcesAward for correct forces withAward
labels. no [2] if student calculates
ThetheairPEexerts
of the
an equal and opposite force on the
(c) (i) labels.
friction, F = mg = 800 N; satellite (1011 J).
800 = 2000 N;
blades to form a Newton’s third law pair. (2)
R = F or R F
(c) (i) friction, == mg = 800 N; [2] (c) Any two of the following ([1] each):
−1
μ 0.4
mv
(c) 8.1 m s (3)
the satellite has to be given a horizontal
​Fμ​  ORuseRof= ​_
2
800= answer to c (i)
​R = _
(ii) attempted
r ​ = 2000 N​
0.4
velocity(2) (d)KE)4.6
(or has to have to go s−2orbit;
minto (2)
i.e. 2000;
rocket motors lifting rocket not 100%
mv 2
_m​ v ​​  2
​
(ii) attempted
Award [0] for use=of
r
800 ​​ ror ​​equivalent.
= answer to (c) (i) i.e.effi2000
cient; 10 (a) FF  (2)
_ m​v​​  2​
Note: Watch for ECF. air resistance in initial stages of launch; [2]
Award [0] for ​ r ​​ = 800 or equivalent.
Recall of F = mv not sufficient without
2
FN[Total 8 marks]
Note: Watch
link to c (i).
r for ECF.

​=m​r150
v​​  ​
2
Recall of80x​F6.0= _
v2 = 2000 ​​ not sufficient without link to (c) (i).
​200080× 6.0 ​= 150​; to give correct answer:
​​v​​  2​= _
W
2 v =12.247 ≈ 12 m s–1(2)
(b) Horizontally, ​​FN​  ​​ = ​mRω​​ 2​​. Vertically, ​​Ff​  ​​ = mg​
Accept calculation of angular velocity =
​​F​ f​​= μ ​FN​  ​​= μ ​mRω​​  2​​
2.0 radians s–1.
M04_IBPH_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 2 22/07/2014 16:25
​μ ​mRω​​ 
_
2
​ = mg​
3 (a) 31.6 kN (3)
√
g
​ ω = ​_
​  μR ​  ​​ (2)
(b) On sliding, μ​  ​​ d​​ ​FN​  ​​ = 100 sin 18.4°​ kN
(c) Using (b), the minimum required angular
Components perpendicular to slope: _
​​FN​  ​= 100 cos 18.4°​kN
​​μd​  ​​ ​FN​  ​​ × 100 cos 18.4° = 100 sin 18.4°​
velocity ​= ​ _
0.4 × 3.5 √
​  9.81  ​  ​ = 2.6​rad s−1
28
The actual angular velocity ​= 2πf = 2π × ​_
60
​
​​μd​  ​= _​100 sin 18.4°
100 cos 18.4°
​  = tan 18.4° ⇒ ​μd​  ​​= 0.33​ (3) = 2.9​rad s −1

−2
(c) (i) 1.26 m s (2) The actual angular velocity is greater than the
(ii) 48.9 m s−1(2) minimum, so the person does not slide. (3)
(d) (i) 20 kN (1) 11 C(1)
(ii) 597.8 m (2)
12 D(1)
4 (a) (i) 600 N (1) ____________

(ii) 8 kg
(iii) 300 N
(2)
(2)
v = ​ 2 ​ _
13 (a) ​

2 ​ _
√ 1
( ​m​  ​​  − ​m​  ​​  ) g
​​ h ​​
​m​  ​​  + ​m​   ​ 
2

2
( ​m​  ​​  − ​m​  ​​  ) g
1
(2)

​​ h _
​m2​  ​​  + ​m​ 1 ​ 
2 1

(b) If the rope jerks, the acceleration would be large. _ ( ​m​  ​​  − ​m​  ​​  )
s = ​ 2g
(b) ​ ​= ​ ​m​  2​​  + ​m​  1​​ ​  h​ (2)
This means the tension would increase and, in 2 1

turn, that the horizontal component of tension

would increase. A greater frictional force would
be needed to remain stationary. (2)

4
 Answers

(iii) 1740 J (1)

A.3 (b) To reach the other side, the initial kinetic energy
40 97.7 m must be equal to or greater than the change in
41Exercises
potential energy. ​Δ ​Ep​  ​​ = mgΔh
(a) –1300 J (b) dog = 180 × 10 × 1 = 1800​J
1 (a) –1300 J (b) dog The kinetic energy is slightly less than this, so the
42 0 J
2 0J competitor will not reach the far end of the wire. (2)
43 –300 J 2 (a) (i) 320 J (1)
3 –300 J
444 (a) 2 cm
cm (b)(b)4 N4 N (ii) 137 J (1)
(c) F (iii) The masses also gain kinetic energy and,
(c)
due to conservation of energy, this subtracts
8N from the total energy input.
(b) 34% (2)

4N 3 (a) 14 m s−1(2)
(b) 2.3 m s−1(2)
(c) 794 N m−1(2)
2 cm 4 cm x 4 B(1)
5 A(1)
(d) 44 JJ
(d) (e)(e)1212
J J
6 C(1)
455 1950 JJ
1950
7 C(1)
6 32 m s–1
46 32 m s–1 8 D(1)
7 (a) 12.5 J (b) 12.5 J
47 (c) 12.5
(a) 1 cmJ (b) 12.5 J 9 D(1)
8 (a) 10.75
(c) cmJ (b) 0.75 m 10 C(1)
​ _1 ​  m ​v​​  2​
489 (a)
(a) 0.2 mJ
0.75 (b)(b)0.75
0.8mm 11 (a) Using conservation of energy, ​​_
2
mgh
​= 0.24​
10 (a) 1.96 kJ (b) 4.36 kJ
49 (a) 0.2 m 5 (b) 0.8 m v​ = 11.9​m s–1(2)
11 (a) 3.86 × 10 J (b) 6.43 × 105 J Award GPE lost = 65 × 9.81 × 30 = 19 130 J
50 (c)
(a) 10–2 l
1.8 ×kJ
1.96 (b) 4.36 kJ Must see the 11.9 value for MP2, not simply 12.
12 (a) 1.25 × 10–45 J (b) 6.25 × 10–5 J Allow g = 9.8 ms−2.
51 (a) 3.86 × –1 10 J (b) 6.43 × 105 J
(c) 0.1 m s (b)  (2)
(c) 1.8 × 10–2 l Ff
13 (a) –10.83 m s –1 (b) 521.3 J
5214 (a) 1.25 ×
velocities 10–4 J
swap (b) 6.25 × 10–5 J
15 (c) 0.1 m s –1
800 W
5316 1000–10.83
(a) W m s –1 (b) 521.3 J W
17 20 kW arrow vertically downwards from dot labeled
54 velocities swap weight/​W​/​mg​/gravitational force/​​Fg​  ​​​ AND arrow
18 50%
800 vertically upwards from dot labeled reaction
5519 42 kJW
force/​R​/normal contact force/​N​/​​FN​  ​​​;
5620 1000
(a) 6.67
W kW (b) 11.1 kW ​W > R​ (2)
57Challenge Do not allow gravity.
20 kW yourself Do not award MP1 if additional ‘centripetal’ force arrow
581 1.7 m s–1
50% is added.
Arrows must connect to dot.
59Practice
42 kJ questions Ignore any horizontal arrow labeled friction.
Judge by eye for MP2. Arrows do not have to be correctly
601 (a) 6.67
(i) 440
kWN s (b) 11.1 kW (2)
labeled or connect to dot for MP2
(ii) −440 N s (1)

5
 Answers

(c) For the skier to remain in contact with the (b) Although equal and opposite forces act between
circular slope, a centripetal force is required the car and the magnet, they are connected and
(allow centripetal acceleration). cancel. Alternatively, no overall work is done
​​ m ​rv​​  ​​= _
_ 2
​65 20
× ​12​​  2​
​ = 468 ​N and therefore no kinetic energy is produced. (1)
The centripetal force is weight − normal 14 (a) ​​_23 ​​ (2)
reaction force​.​Since the weight is larger than the (b) 89% (2)
centripetal force, he skier does not lose contact (c) 10 (2)
with the ground. (3)
There are several alternative ways of reaching the
conclusion, but do not award a mark for the bald
statement that the skier does not lose contact with the B.1
ground.
(d) 0.14 (3) Exercises
(e) 730 N s (2) 1 (a) 3.92 × 103 J (b) 3.92 × 103 J
(f ) The change in momentum is the same with or
without a flexible net, because the skier goes 2 1.8 × 106 J
from having a speed to having zero speed. The 3 3.7 × 104 J
net increases the stopping time. 4 67.6 J, 13.5 N
Δp
​ = ​_ ​​, ​F​is smaller, which means that the
Since F 5 10 °C
Δt
body experiences less force (and harm).
6 (a) 6 × 10–21 J (b) 4.8 × 10–26 kg
(2)
(c) 500 m s–1
12 (a) (i) Using conservation of energy between the
7 (a) 5.8 × 10–6 m
compressed spring and the top of the ramp, ​​
(b) 3.54 × 103 W m–2
​12 ​  m​v​​  2​  + mgh​
E​ p, elastic​= _
(c) 18 W
​12 ​ × 55 × 0. ​90​​  2​ + 55 × 9.81 × 1.2
​​Ep,​  elastic​= _ (d) 1.4 W m–2
= 669​J (2) 8 420 kJ
Award [1 max.] for use of g=10 N kg , −1
9 (a) 3.6 × 106 J (b) 3.6 × 105 J °C–1
gives 682 J. (c) Some heat is lost to the outside.
(ii) 4.9 m s−1(2)
10 1.33 × 104 J
(b) (i) no force/friction on the block, hence
constant motion/velocity/speed. (1) 11 (a) 1 kg (b) 3.36 × 105 J
(ii) force acts on block OR gravity/component (c) 336 s
of weight pulls down slope; 12 (a) 3 × 105 J (b) 686.7 °C
velocity/speed decreases OR it is slowing
13 (a) 3 × 10 J 5
(b) 2.25 × 105 J
down OR it decelerates (2)
(c) 51 °C
(c) straight line through origin for at least one-third
of the total length of time axis; 14 (a) 80 kg (b) 1.34 × 107 J
followed by curve with decreasing positive 15 3.35 × 1011 J
gradient
16 1.135 × 103 s
 (2)
displacement

17 (a) 1.84 × 104 kg (b) 6.16 × 109 J

(c) 3.42 × 105 W (d) 342 W m–2

Practice questions
0
0 time 1 (a) (i) work is done against friction; which means
(d) 640 N (2) that energy is transferred to the atoms in
(e) 0.55 OR 0.547 OR 55% OR 54.7% (2) the bar; temperature is linked to the average
kinetic energy of the atoms (3)
13 (a) C (1) (ii) 0.063 kg (2)

6
 Answers

(iii) 8.7 N (3) (ii) use of ​Q = mcΔθ​;

​ 2.2 × ​10​​  ​) ​ = 7.5 K​
6
(b) (i) 31 s (2) ​ θ =_
to get Δ (3)
( ​ 4200 × 70 ​
(ii) 1000 J (1)
(c) [1] naming each process up to [3].
(c) (i) convection currents carry hot, less dense fluid
convection; conduction; radiation;
upwards; if the element were at the top, only
[1] for an appropriate (matching) piece of information /
very small currents at the top could form;
outline for each process up to [3].
the boiler does not need to be filled to the top
e.g. convection is the transfer of thermal energy
because water will leave from near the bottom (2)
via bulk movement of a gas due to a change
(ii) If no water is present then the heat loss from
of density; conduction is transfer of thermal
the element will be reduced.
energy a intermolecular collisions; radiation is
The element will reach a higher temperature. (2) the transfer of thermal energy via electromagnetic
2 (a) 2773 K (4 s.f.) (2) waves; (IR part of the electromagnetic spectrum
(b) conduction and convection require particles; in this situation) / OWTTE(6)
radiation is the only mechanism of heat loss in a (d) (i) [1] for each valid and relevant point e.g. in
vacuum(2) evaporation the faster moving molecules
(c) ​1.4 × ​10​​  −4​​ m (3) escape; this means the average Ek of the
sample left has fallen; a fall in average Ek is
3 (a) (165, 0) (1) the same as a fall in temperature (3)
(b) Look for these points: (ii) energy lost by evaporation
to change phase, the separation of the molecules = 50% × 2.2 × 106 J;
must increase;
= 1.1 × 106 J;
Some recognition that the ice is changing phase is needed.
correct substitution into E = ml
so all the energy input goes to increasing the Ep of 1.1 × 106 J    
to give mass lost ​=  ​ ____________
   −1 ​​
the molecules; 2.26 × ​10​​  ​  J ​kg​​  ​
6

Accept something like ‘breaking the molecular bonds’. = 0.487 kg = 487 g (3)
Ek of the molecules remains constant, hence (iii) [1] for any valid and relevant factors up to [2] e.g.
temperature remains constant (3) area of skin exposed; presence or absence of
If Ek mentioned but not temperature then assume wind; temperature of air; humidity of air etc.;
students know that temperature is a measure of Ek. [1] for appropriate and matching explanations up
(c) (i) time for water to go from 0 to 15°C = 30 s; to [2] e.g. increased area means greater total
energy required = ​mcΔθ​= 0.25 × 15 × 4 200 = evaporation rate; presence of wind means
15 750 J; greater total evaporation rate; evaporation rate
energy depends on temperature difference; increased
​power = _
​ time ​= 525 W ≈ 530 W​ (3) humidity decreases total evaporation rate (4)
(ii) ice takes 15 s to go from –15°C to 0; 5 D(1)
energy supplied = 15 × 530 J;
​(530 × 15)​ 6 A(1)
​specific heat = _
​(​ 15 × 0.25)​​ = 2100 J ​kg​​  −1​ ​K​​  −1​​ (3)
7 A(1)
(iii) time to melt ice = 150 s;
8 B(1)
​​ 1500.25
× 530 ​
( )
​L = _ ​ = 320 kJ ​kg​​  −1​​ (2)
9 ​ L 2 ​​
(a) Substitution of ​L = σA ​T​​  4​​ into ​b = _
4 (a) [1] for each appropriate and valid point e.g. thermal energy 4π ​d​​  ​
σA ​T​​  4​
_
is the Ek of the component particles of an object; thus b​ = ​ 2 ​​ and ​σ​ and ​4π​are constants. (1)
4π ​d​​  ​
measured in joules; the temperature of an object is a (b) Sirius is a star and is therefore luminous.
measure of how hot something is (it can be used to Venus is a planet; it is bright in the night sky
work out the direction of the natural flow of thermal because it reflects the Sun’s light. (2)
energy between two objects in thermal contact) /
measure of the average Ek of molecules; it is 10 D(1)
measured on a defined scale (Celsius, kelvin, etc.) (4) 11 Cu/Al junction: ​17.9° C​; Fe/Cu junction: ​28.6° C.​ (5)
(b) (i) correct substitution: energy = power × time;
= 1200 W × (30 × 60) s;
= 2.2 × 106 J (2)

7
 Answers

OR
B.2 the Earth radiates photons of infrared
frequency; the greenhouse gas molecules
Exercises oscillate / vibrate with frequencies in the
infrared region; and so because of resonance
1 (a) 531 W m–2 the photons are absorbed (3)
(b) 31 W m–2 (ii) most incoming radiation consists of photons
(c) 0.31 in the visible / ultraviolet region /
(d) 531 W m–2 photons of much shorter wavelength than
(e) 10.3% those radiated by the Earth / photons of
different wavelength from that radiated by Earth;
Challenge yourself and so these cannot be absorbed (2)
(iii) Source: emissions from volcanoes / burning
1 T = 276 K
of fossil fuels in power plants / cars / breathing;
Practice questions Sink: oceans / rivers / lakes / seas / trees (2)

1 (a) (natural process of ) production takes thousands / 4 (a) energy emitted per unit time / power per unit
millions of years; fossil fuels used much faster area; proportional to [absolute temperature /
than being produced / OWTTE(2) temperature in K]4(2)
(b) Any two sensible suggestions e.g. storage Must define symbols if used.
of radioactive waste; increased cost; risk of (b) (i) ​power
radioactive contamination etc. (2) = 5.67 × ​10​​  –8​ × 4π × ​​[7.0 × ​10​​  8]​ ​​​  2​  × ​5800​​  4​​;
To achieve full marks the differences must be distinct. ​≈ 4.0 × ​10​​  26​  W​ (1)
incident energy 3.96 × ​10​​  26​
2 (a) solar panel: solar energy ➞ thermal energy (heat); (ii) ​​___________
area ​ = ​____________
[ 11] 2 ;​​
4π ​​ 1.5 × ​10​​  ​ ​​​  ​
solar cell: solar energy ➞ electrical energy; (2) = 1400 W m−2(2)
(b) (i) input power required = 720 W (± 5 W); (iii) two of:
720
​area = ​_
800
​= 0.90 ​m​​  2​​; (2) (albedo of Earth means) some radiation is
reflected; Earth’s surface is not always normal
(ii) power extracted ≈ 150 W (± 20 W);
power out
to incident radiation; some energy lost as
150
e​ fficiency = _
​power in ​  OR  ​_
500
​​ = 30%; (allow ECF) radiation travels to Earth (2)
(3) (iv) power absorbed = power radiated; uses
_
3
√
4
(a) the solar radiation is captured by a disk of area ​  240
5.67 × 10–8 × 2554 = 240 / evaluates ​​ _ σ ​  ​​ (2)
πR2 where R is the radius of the Earth; but is
(c) radiation from the Sun is re-emitted at longer
distributed (when averaged) over the entire Earth’s
wavelengths; (longer radiation) wavelengths are
surface, which has an area four times as large; (2)
absorbed by greenhouse gases; some radiation
Award [1] for reference to absorption/reflection. re-emitted back to Earth (3)
(b) (i) 0.700; (1) (d) more CO2 / named greenhouse gas released
(ii) ​ I​(= eσ ​​TA​  ​​​​  4​)​​; into atmosphere; enhanced greenhouse effect;
​= 0.700 × 5.67 × ​10​​  −8​ × ​242​​  4​ = 136 W ​m​​  −2​​ (1) because more reradiation of energy toward
(iii) ​σ ​​TE​  ​​​​  4​ = 136 + 245 W ​m​​  −2​​ surface(3)
_
hence ​​TE​  ​= ( ​  381 −8 ​ ​)​ = 286 K​
√ 5 (a) (i) the black pattern will be a better radiator;
4
​ = ​ _ (2)
5.67 × ​10​​  ​ because the emissivity is higher (2)
(c) (i) the Earth emits radiation in the infrared region of (ii) black surface (1)
the spectrum; the greenhouse gases have energy
(iii) white surface (1)
level differences (in their molecular energy levels)
corresponding to infrared energies; and so the (b) white roofs would reflect more radiation;
infrared photons are absorbed the temperature of the Earth would not have to
be so great; to achieve equilibrium with power in
equal to power out (3)

8
 Answers

(c) (i) all infrared radiation is already absorbed on Making kinetic energy the subject of the equation:
‾
entry; which means increased proportions _ 1 3
of greenhouse gases could not absorb and ​​​Ek​  ​​​ = ​_
​  2 ​  m ​v​​  2​​ = ​_2 ​  kT​
re-emit any more (2)
(ii) there is no UV filter; UV radiation is harmful
to DNA (2) Practice questions
(iii) clouds reflect some wavelengths of radiation; 1 (a) (i) 0.83 m3(2)
which increases the albedo (2) ​m
(ii) 1.06 m3; ​ρ = _ 1
​= ​_ ​ = 0.95​kg m−3(3)
V 1.566
6 (a) (i) 228 W (2) (iii) 2380 kg (1)
−2
(ii) 4.5 W m (2) (iv) 3030 kg (1)
(b) (i) 0.14 J (2) (v) Upthrust (30 300 N) > weight (23 800 N) so
(ii) all radiation is absorbed; the sensor area is the balloon will rise. (2)
perpendicular to the radius (2) (b) (i) 570 m s−1(2)
7 A(1) (ii) ​7.96 × ​10​​  4​​ moles (2)
8 B(1) (iii) ​3.45 × ​10​​  8​​ J (2)
9 C(1) 2 (a) (i) random motion; no gravitational effect;
no forces of attraction between molecules/
10 D(1)
atoms; time of collision much less than time
11 D(1) between collisions; Newton’s laws apply (2)
12 A(1) (ii) potential energy not used/irrelevant;
(because) there are no forces between
13 D(1)
molecules in an ideal gas; gas speeds vary so
need to take an average (3)
(b) (i) ​n=_​PV ​;= 0.18 mol​ (2)
B.3 RT
Award [2] for bald correct answer.
(ii) show use of PV = constant; 1.9 × 106 Pa (2)
Exercises Award [2] for bald correct answer.
1 (a) 7.12 × 10–6 m3 ​420 ×290
19 × ​10​​  ​
(iii) ​pressure = ___________
5
​​
(b) 6.022 × 1023 atoms
= 2.8 × 106 Pa (1)
(c) 1.2 × 10–29 m3
OR
​pressure = ​(_
​  V ​=)​ ​______________
2 27 g nRT 0.18 × 8.31 × 420
   2.3 × ​10​​  −4​
​​
3 292 kPa = 2.8 × 106 Pa
4 (ii) KE = ( 12(b)
(a) 6 kPa mv2)3=kPa
(480 × 81) = 3.9 × 104 J; (c)
(c)
P
5 312.5 cm 3
[1]
6 kPaKE = Fs;
400(b)
(b)(iii)
7 9.4 kJ to give F = 2.6 × 103 N; [2] (c)
AwardJ [1] if v = 2as is used.
2
8 8.28 × 10–21

(c) recognize that KE = mass × specific heat

Challenge
× riseyourself
in temperature;
(b)(ii)
A
1 3.9 × 104 ;
P = 114.3 kPa
2 × 900 × 5.2
1
_​  ρ ​v​​  2​​and the ideal gas
2 We know thatK;pressure, ​P = ​
= 4.2 3
V
law states P
​ V = NkT​ .
Award full marks for bald correct answer. smooth curve,
smooth curving
curve, correct
curving way for
correct way(b)for
(ii);
Substituting pressure into the ideal gas law gives vertical straight line for (b) (iii); smooth curve,
no energy / heat loss to the surroundings / b (ii);
1
​​_3 ​  ρ ​v​​  2​  V = NkT​. Since the mass of all molecules is steeper than (b) (ii) for (c) (3)
‾
energy distributed evenly inρV each brake; [4] vertical straight line for b (iii);
1 Labeled curves are not needed as such but direction must
​ρV​, the mass of one molecule, ​m = ​_ so ​​_
N ​​,[Total​  3 ​  m ​v​​  2​​  = kT​ smooth curve, steeper than b (ii) for c;
be clear.
9 marks]
[3]
5 (a) (i) random motion; Labelled curves are not needed as
no gravitational effect; such but direction must be clear. 9
 Answers

3 (a) in order to keep the temperature constant OR 6 100 Ω, 100 Ω, 25 Ω

in order to allow the system to reach thermal 7 1Ω
equilibrium with the surroundings. (1)
Accept answers in terms of pressure or volume changes 8 11.5 V
only if clearly related to reaching thermal equilibrium with 9 (a) 500 J
the surroundings. (b) 3 × 104 J
(b) 0.5 Pa m (3) 10 0.031 W
recognizes b as gradient; calculates b in range
11 0.5 W
4.7 × 104 to 5.3 × 104
Award [2 max] if POT error in b. 12 (a) 450 kJ
Allow any correct SI unit, e.g. kg​ ​s−2 (b) 37.5 kW
​ ∝_
(c) ​V ∝ H​so p 1
​H ​​. (c) 125 A
so graph should be a straight line through origin, 13 no energy is lost, no heat produced, motor is 100%
as observed (2) efficient, no friction / no other losses
(d) 0.03 (2) 14 (a) 0.45 A
Answer must be to 1 or 2 s.f. (b) 20 J
1
(e) Very large ​​ _
H
​​means very small volumes / very 15 (a) 4.5 A
high pressures; at very small volumes the ideal (b) 1.8 × 107 J
gas law does not apply (2) 16
16 (a) ​​__
3 ​​ Ω
4 A(1)
(b) 8 Ω
5 D(1)
(c) 28 Ω
6 B(1) 16
(d) ​​__
7 ​​ Ω
7 B(1)
17 0.44 V
8 B(1)
18 0.49 V
9 C(1)
10 B(1) Practice questions
11 (a) 48 kPa (1) 1 (a) v  (1)
(b) 0.012 kg (1)
(c) ​6.5 × ​10​​  ​  J​
−21
(1)
(d) larger temperature implies larger (average) speed/
larger (average) kinetic energy of molecules/particles/ E
atoms;
(b) (i) when electrons collide with the lattice atoms;
increased force/momentum transferred to walls
they lose energy (2)
(per collision) / more frequent collisions with walls;
(ii) when electrons collide with the lattice
increased force leads to increased pressure
atoms, the lattice atoms gain kinetic energy;
because P=F/A (as area remains constant) (3)
increased kinetic energy means increased
Ignore any mention of PV = nRT.
temperature(2)
(iii) the more the lattice atoms vibrate due to
increased kinetic energy, the more the
B.5 electrons will collide with them;
the resistance increases after being
Exercises switched on (2)
15q
1 3.7 × 10–4 m I=_
(c) ​ ​ t ​​
the time taken by the right-most charge carrier to
2 10.8 Ω
L ​​
pass through the left is ​​_
3 3 kΩ v
15q 15vq
4 0.3 V substituting ​I = _
​ _L ​= ​_
L
​​ (3)
​  v ​
5 0.02 A
10
 Answers

2 (a) (i) 140 ​Ω​ (2) (g) 0.62 Ω(2)

(ii) 0.06 A (2) V dropped across battery OR Rcircuit = 1.85 Ω;
(iii) 0.5 W (2) For MP1 allow use of internal resistance equations that
(iv) 726 K (2) lead to 16 − 12 = 4 V.
(b) The wire is not a perfect black body. (1) (h) 3.2 V (1)
P = ​I​​  2​  R = 0. ​06​​  2​ × 1 = 0.0036 W​
(c) ​ (i) 0.25 Ω(2)
​E = Pt = 0.0036 × 60 = 0.216​J 10 (a) 0.32 m (1)
Q 0.216 (b) 0.068 A (2)
​ = CΔT​so ​ΔT = _
Q ​C ​=_
​ 10 ​= 0.0022 K​
This increase in temperature is insufficient to Award [1] for 4.3 A where candidate has not calculated area
damage the cell. (3) (c) Quantities such as resistivity depend on the
material OR they allow the selection of the
3 A(1) correct material OR they allow scientists to
4 D(1) compare properties of materials. (1)
5 A(1) (d) as area is larger and length is smaller;
6 B(1) resistance is very much smaller (2)
Award [1 max.] for answers that involve a calculation
7 C(1)
(e) complete functional circuit with ammeter in
8 (a) emf is defined as the terminal potential difference series with resistor and voltmeter across it;
when no current flows; in this instance, a current potential divider arrangement correct
is present and so the potential difference will be
less than the emf due to ‘lost volts’ in the internal  (2)
resistance;(2)
A
(b) ​7.2 Ω​ (3)
multiple solutions are possible V
Award [3] marks for a bald correct answer
(c) 0.12 OR 12% (3)
(d) energy from Sun/photovoltaic cells is renewable
OR non-renewable are running out;
non-polluting/clean; no greenhouse gases OR C.1
does not contribute to global warming/climate
change (max. 2) Exercises
​​2.0 7× ​10​​  ​​= 2857 ≈ 3000 s​
4
9 (a) time taken = _ (1) 1 Only (b) is an example of simple harmonic motion.
Must see at least 2 s.f.
2 (a) 1.67 Hz (b) 10.5 rad s–1
(b) Electrical energy = ​qV​= 43 × 103 × 16
= 6.88 × 105 J 3 1.67 s
​​Et ​= _
Power = _ ​6.88 ×  ​10​​  5​ 
2857
​= 241 ≈ 240 W​ (2) Challenge yourself
Must see at least 3 s.f.
1 T = 0.6 s
(c) use of power = force × speed OR
force × distance = power × time; 34 N (2) Practice questions
(d) 34 N (1)
(e) −1
3.5 m s (2) 1 D(1)
Award [0] for solutions involving use of kinetic energy. 2 A(1)
Award [0] for v = 7 m s –1. 3 C(1)
Award [2] for a bald correct answer.
4 D(1)
(f ) the maximum distance will decrease;
5 B(1)
because opposing/resistive force has increased
OR because more energy is transferred to 6 (a) force/acceleration proportional to the
gravitational potential energy OR because displacement/distance from a (fixed/equilibrium)
velocity has decreased OR increased mass means point/mean position;
more work required to move up the hill (2)
11
 Answers

directed toward this (equilibrium) point / in Your report on waves being used in technology to
opposite direction to displacement/ distance; improve society is inherently connected to TOK
Allow algebra only if symbols are fully explained.(2) because technology is one of the themes on which
(b) 0.73 N (1) your exhibition can be based – provided that you have
allow answer in range of 0.71 to 0.75 N connected your response in some way to knowledge.
Examples might include:
​ = − ​ω​​  2​  x​
(c) Use of a
• radio waves for communications and how this
2π _
​ω = ​_
T 7.9
​​π4 ​  rad ​s​​  −1​​
​= ​ 2π​= 0.795​or _ relates to the ownership of knowledge through the
​​x0​  ​​= 4.1 m​; (allow answers in the range of 4.0 to 4.25 m) editing of radio station content.
two significant figures in final answer whatever • ultrasound for medical imaging and the reasons
the value (4) that we seek knowledge (e.g. about our body).
7 (a) acceleration/restoring force is proportional to • gamma waves for sterilisation or radiotherapy, how
displacement; they are detected alternatively as photons under
and in the opposite direction/directed toward certain conditions, and constraints on knowledge.
equilibrium;(2)
(b) 0.38 kg / 0.39 kg(2)
Practice questions
​T​  ​  ​ ​m​  ​​ _
2
1 (a) longitudinal (1)
Use of either _
​​ ​= _
​​m1​  ​​ ​​ OR ​T = 2π ​
T
1
​ ​  ​  ​
2
2 2
 ​  m
_
k √
​  ​​
(b) (i) wavelength = 0.5 m (1)
8 (a) the restoring force/acceleration is proportional to
(ii) amplitude = 0.5 mm (1)
displacement(1)
(iii) correct substitution into
Allow use of symbols i.e. ​F ∝ − x​or a
​ ∝ − x​ (1)
speed = frequency × wavelength;
(b) ​4.43 rad ​s​​  ​​
−1
to give v = 660 × 0.5 = 330 m s−1;(2)
evidence of equating ​m ​ω​​  2​  x = ρAgx​ to obtain 2 (a)  (1)
_ ρAg
​​ m ​= ​ω​​  2​​ (2) land

Answer to at least ​3​s.f. Q

P

C.2 deep water channel

(b) The waves from the shallow water and the

channel superpose. They interfere constructively.(1)
Exercises (c) The wavelength decreases. This is because the
1 280 m s–1 speed of the wave decreases but the frequency is
constant.(1)
2 (a) 0.2 m (b) inverted
(d)
(c) Some of wave is reflected so energy in
transmitted wave is less.
3 1.2 m s–1 Energy is conserved, and so all must remain
contained within the same, shorter, crest. (1)
Challenge yourself 3 v = 0.5 × 14 = 7 ​cm s (3)
(a) (i) ​ −1

2π
1 Your report on X-rays is likely to include ideas about (ii) ​​_8
​​ OR 0.79 rad. (2)
William Conrad Röntgen in 1895, cathode rays (beams (b) (i) 14 cm (1)
of electrons), a fluorescent detector and the idea of the
(ii) 0.71 Hz (1)
discovery being by accident. You should also have included
the references that you made use of in formulating a (iii) 9.9 cm s−1(1)
response. Connections to TOK include Röntgen’s scope 4 (a) (i) distance traveled per unit time; by the energy
of work being related to the scientific concepts of matter, of the wave / by a wavefront; (2)
waves and energy, atypical method (i.e. not following (ii) velocity has direction; but light travels in all
a scientific method), typical use of tools (i.e. apparatus directions;(2)
for measuring), perspective in the sense of convincing (b) (i) distance in a particular direction; (accept in
others of his work’s significance and verifiability, and terms of energy transfer) (of a particle) from
ethics in unknowingly making the first published step into its mean position; (2)
understanding ionizing radiation and its uses and risks.
12
 Answers

(ii) longitudinal: displacement along; ​T1 ​​)

(ii) 213 Hz ( v = f λ) OR 210 Hz (​F = _ (2)
transverse: displacement normal to; (c) (i) the displacement of the particle decreases
direction of transfer of wave energy / OR on the graph displacement is going in
propagation, not motion; (3) a negative direction OR on the graph the
Award [0] for left / right and up / down for particle goes down;
longitudinal / transverse. to the left; (2)
(c) (i) ​​(_ 125 )
​  1200
 ​ ​ = 9.6 km ​s​​  −1​ (​ ± 0.1)​​ (1) Do not allow “moving downwards” unless
accompanied by reference to graph.
(ii) ​​(​  206 ​)​ = 5.8 km ​s​​  ​ ​ ± 0.1)​​(1)
_1200 −1 (
(ii) molecules to the left of the particle have
Award [1] if the answers to (i) and (ii) are given in moved left and those to the right have
reversed order. moved right;
(d) (i) P shown as the earlier (in-between) pulse (1) hence the particle is at the center of a
(ii) laboratory L3(1) rarefaction;(2)
(iii) e.g. pulses arrive sooner; smaller S–P D = 6052​km
17 (a) (i) ​ (2)
interval; larger amplitude of pulses; (3) D ​= _
T=_
(ii) ​ ​speed ​6052 ​​ hours
Allow any feasible piece of evidence, award [1] for 800
each up to [3]. This is 7 hours 34 minutes. (2)
(iv) distance from L1 = 1060 km (± 20) (b) After arrival of the S wave, the time delay
distance from L2 = 650 km (± 20) between the P and S waves can be determined
distance from L3 = 420 km (± 20) and D can be calculated. The time before the
Accept 3 significant figures in all three estimates. arrival of the tsunami (i.e. the warning time) is:
some explanation of working; (4) ​  ​= (
t​​ W ​_
​  800 3.00 × 60 × 60 )
D  ​  − ​ ___________
D  ​ ​​ hours for D measured
(v) position marked, consistent with answers to in km OR ​​tW ​  ​= 1.16 × ​10​​  −3​  D​ hours. (2)
(iv); to the right of line L2L3, closer to L3(1)
If the answers given in (iv) mean that the point
cannot be plotted, then only allow the mark if the C.3
candidate states that the position cannot be plotted /
does not make sense.
Exercises
5 B(1)
1 (a) 1.7 Hz (b) 0.24 m
6 A(1)
(c) 24°
7 C(1)
2 35°
8 C(1) π
3 (a) ​​ __5 ​​ (b) π
9 C(1) 3π
(c) ​​__
2 ​​
10 C(1)
4 29°
11 D (1)
5 15°
12 B(1)
6 2 × 108 m s–1
13 D(1)
7 42°
14 C(1)
8 27°
15 A(1)
9 (a) 38.8° (b) 51.2°
16 (a) a wave where the displacement of particles/
oscillations of particles/movement of particles/ (c) 41.8° (d) yes
vibrations of particles is parallel to the direction of (e) 62.2 μm
energy transfer/wave travel/wave movement. 10 9 cm
Do not allow “direction of wave”.(1) 11 6 cm
(b) (i) 340 m s−1(2)
Either v = f λ OR distance traveled ÷ time

13
 multiple / (submultiple if ECF ); [3] general shape with minimum about half
multiple / (submultiple if ECF ); [3] way between O and P; [2]
way between O and P; [2]
[Total 25 marks]
Answers
4 (a) the net displacement of the medium/
[Total 25 marks] (e) fringe spacing = 2.5 × 10–4
(e) fringe spacing = 2.5 × 10 m;
λ = (2.5 × 10–4
–4

× 3.00 × 10–3
m;
) 5.0 × 10–7 m;
× 3.00 × 10–3) =
λ = (2.5 × 10 1.50
–4
4 (a) the net displacement of the medium/ = 5.0 × 10–7 m;
particles (through which waves travel); 1.50 [2]
particles (through which waves travel); [2]
is equal to the sum of individual [Total 14 marks]
is equal to the sum of individual [Total 14 marks]
displacements (produced by each wave); [2]
displacements (produced by each wave); [2]
Practice questions
figures in all three (c) (i) the Award
phase [2] for a good
difference understanding
between light
Award [2] for a good understanding and [1] 3
and [1] 5 Wave properties
5 Wave properties
(a) (a)(i)(i) (1)
for aSreasonable
leaving and S is one.
constant; [1] [1]
for a reasonable
1 2 one. (a) (i) [1]
working;
1 (a) [4]
(i) the phase difference
Do Wave
(b) Xbetween
and wave
not penalize
light leaving
Y should
candidates
S1
be state
if they identical.
(b) Wave X and wave Y should be identical.
and S2 is constant
‘has the same phase’. (1)
nsistent with X and Y (b) λ
Do not penalize candidates X andstate
if they Y ‘has the
(ii) to produce sufficient diffraction;
L3, closer to L3; [1] same phase’. for the beams to overlap;
A
in (iv) mean that (ii) to produce sufficient
OWTTE;
A diffraction; for the [2] BB
A
plotted, then only beams (d)to(i)overlap; OWTTE(2)
path difference between S1 and S2 is an M
(ii) [1]
(b) (i) path difference between Sof1 and
candidate states integral number wavelengths;
S2 is an [1] (ii)(ii) (1)
[1]
nnot be plotted / Accept ‘waves
integral number of wavelengths arrive at P in phase’. (1) (b)
(b) λ
e.
Accept ‘waves (ii) arrive at Pphase
correct in phase’.
for wave X;
node at centre, correct phase for wave X;
d;
(ii) intensity
[1]
correct phase for wave Y;
correct phase for wave Y;
amplitudes the same for each wave;
A
amplitudes the same for each wave; N
ing wave = amplitude for each wave is two divisions; [4]
(ECF ) amplitude for each wave is two divisions; [4] M
(i) downwards; [1]
(ii) correct marking of A; 33 [1]
(iii) correct marking of λ; [1] (
03) ≈ 6 Hz
M05_IBPH_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 3
O distance along the screen
(iv) positive sine curve; 16/07/2014 09:38
cy is natural M05_IBPH_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 3 P 16/07/2014 09:38
correct position of N; [2]
n of maximum atmaximum O and P; at O and P; shape with
general N
f resonance / minimum about half
general shape way between
with minimumOabout and half
P (2) Watch for ECF from (i).
(i) downwards (1)
le if ECF ); (c) [3]
fringe spacing = way –4
10 m;
2.5 ×between O and P; [2] (i) (c)downwards;
(i) f = v = to give 2.0 Hz; [1][1]
(ii) correct marking λ of A (1)
[Total 25 marks] ___________________
(​ 2.5 × ​10​​ 
(e)−4​ × × ​10​​  −3)​ ​= 2.5 × 10–4 m;
3.00spacing
fringe correct
(ii) correct marking ofλ(1)
A; [1]
​λ = ​  
1.50 ​ = 5.0 × ​1–3 0​​  ​  m​ −7
(2) (iii) (ii) T marking
= 0.5 s; of
λ = (2.5 × 10 × 3.00 × 10 ) = 5.0 × 10–7 m;
–4
f the medium/
1.50 (energy) is traveling; correct
(iii) positive
(iv) vT curve;
s =marking
sine = 1.25 λ; cm;position of N;
of correct
(1.3) [1] (2)
waves 2 (a) ray: direction in which wave
travel); [2] 4
dividual wavefront: line joining (neighboring)[Total points that
14 marks]
(iv) Watch
or for sine
positive ECF from (i).
curve;
have the same phase / displacement; or suitable
d by each wave); [2] (c) (i) ​ = _​λv ​​toingive
fcorrect T 2.0
position Hz
of N; forward 1 λ;
wave moves [2] (1)
5 Wave properties 4 _ 4
reference to Huygens’ principle; ray is normal to a
derstanding and [1]
(ii) TWatch ​vT (
(a) (i) [1]
= 0.5 s; for​s =ECF
= 5 = 1.25
​​= 1.25 (i).
4 from
(1.3) cm
(1.3) cm; [2] 6
wavefront(3) 4
uld be identical.
(b) (i) wavefront parallel to D (1) (c) (i) (d)OR v = to
f =Principle give
of 2.0 Hz;
superposition: [1]
T λ
in ​​  4 ​​ wave moves forward _
_ ​​  14 ​  λ​;
(ii) frequency is constant; since v = f λ, (ii) T _5= when two or more waves overlap; the
0.5 s;
v ∝ λ; wavelength longer in medium I, ​= ​4resultant
​= 1.25 (1.3)
vT = 1.25
cm​;
displacement at any point (2)
hence higher speed in medium I; (3) s =is the (1.3)
sum of the when cm;
displacements due to
(d) Principle of4superposition: two or more waves
B
Allow solution based on angles marked on diagram or
overlap; each the wave
resultant separately / OWTTE;
displacement at any point
or speed of(ii)wavefronts. [1] is theinsum T wave
Award of the displacements
for
[2]moves an answer
forward that 1 λ;
due to each
shows wave
a clear
​VI​  ​​ ​λI​  ​​ separately 4 / OWTTE; 4
(iii) ratio = _ _
​ R​  ​​ ​= ​​λR​  ​​ ​​(or based on Snell’s law);
​​V understanding of the principle, [1] for a
5 =
Award= [2] for1.25
reasonable an answer
(1.3) that
cm;shows aand
understanding clear[0] for a [2] 6 (
3.0 4
X;
​= ​_
2.5 ​ = 2.0​ allow ± 0.5(2)
understanding
weak of the principle, [1] for a reasonable
Y; (d) Principle of answer.
superposition:
understanding and [0] for a weak answer.
each wave; (c) (i) velocity / displacement / direction in (+) and when two Explanation:
or more waves overlap; the
is two divisions; [4] (–) directions; idea of periodicity (2) Explanation:
resultant displacement at any point
1
(ii) period = 3.0 ms; frequency = ​​_
T
​​= 330 Hz (2) is the sum of the displacements due to
(iii) Accept any one of the following. 3 =
each wave separately / OWTTE;
at time t = 0, 1.5 ms, 3.0 ms, 4.5 ms, etc.(1) (
Award [2]
suitable for an answer that shows a clear
diagram;
(iv) area of half-loop = 140 ± 10 squares / mean 16/07/2014 09:38 suitable diagram;
understanding
when two twoof
positive the
pulsesprinciple,
(or two (or[1]
wave forwave
a
crests)
v = 4.0 m s accept ± 0.2;
–1 when positive pulses two
overlap,
reasonable they reinforce
understanding / OWTTE and
crests) overlap, they reinforce / OWTTE; [0] for a [4] (4)
= 140 × 0.4 × 0.1 × 10–3
Any situation
weak answer. where resultant displacement looks as
= 5.6 × 10–3 m (2)
though it is the sum of the individual displacements.
Award [1] for area of triangle. Explanation:
Mark the description of the principle and the description
(v) (twice) the amplitude; (1) of constructive interference together.
Allow distance moved in 1.5 ms. (e)4 (i) S2X = nλ;
where n = 0, 1, 2; (Accept = ‘n is an integer’)(2) (

M05_IBPH_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 4
suitable diagram;
14
 Answers

​S​  ​​  X
(ii) ​sin θ ≈ θ​; therefore ​θ = _
​ 2d ​​ (2) I/I0
6
y​ n​  ​​
(iii) ​ϕ = ​_
D
​​ (1) 5

4
Award the small angle approximation mark
3
anywhere in (i) or (ii).
2
​S2​  ​​  X _
​= ​nλ ​dθ
1
θ = ​_
(f ) (i) ​ d d
​  so λ = _n ​​;
−4 −2 0 2 4 x/cm
substitute to get λ = 4.73 × 10–7 m (2)
(c) As the slit separation increases, the fringe
θ​and ​ϕ​are small;
(ii) ​
​y​  ​​ spacing decreases. (1)
​​ dλ ​= _
therefore _ Dλ
​Dn ​  so y = ​_d
​ = 0.51 mm​ (3)
14 Path c (1)
4 C(1) The lifeguard can run faster on the beach than
5 D(1) swimming in water. Of the three options, path c has
6 C(1) the shortest distance in the water and so will take the
least time. (1)
7 A(1)
15 A(1)
8 D(1)
16 The resultant wave form is the sum of the two
9 D(1) wave forms.
10 C(1) (4)
11 B(1)
C B OA C B AO
sin i _____________
​3 × ​10​​  ​ × sin​33° ​ 8 ( )
v = c ​_
12 (a) ​ sin r
​=    ​​= 2.3 × 108 m s–1(2)
( ) sin​ 46° ​
(b) ALTERNATIVE 1
light strikes AB at an angle of 57°;
critical angle = 50.1°; C B A C B A
O O
49.2° from unrounded value
angle of incidence is greater than critical angle so
total internal reflection (3)
ALTERNATIVE 2 C B A C B A
O O
light strikes AB at an angle of 57°;
calculation showing sin of “refracted angle” = 1.1;
statement that since 1.1 > 1 the angle does not
exist and the light does not emerge (3)
C.4
(c) total internal reflection shown;
ray emerges at opposite face to incidence (2) Exercises
Judge angle of incidence=angle of reflection by eye or 1 (a) 182.6 m s–1 (b) 143.8 Hz
accept correctly labeled angles
2 54 N
With sensible refraction in correct direction
3 812.5 Hz
13 (a) There is no diffraction at either lamp because there
are no slits. Therefore, the intensity has no pattern. (1) 4 170 Hz
I/I0 5 (a) 33.2 cm (b) 2
6
6 (a) D is same length as A so resonance – this implies
4
a ​​ _π2 ​​ phase difference.
2
B is much shorter so driver has lower frequency –
it will be in phase.
0 x
F is much longer so driver has higher frequency –
(b) This is the standard two-slit pattern. it will have a π phase difference.
The maximum intensity is four times the C and E will be somewhere in between.
separate intensities because the amplitudes
(b) D has highest amplitude as it resonates with the
sum vectorially. The fringe spacing is calculated
driver.
using _​​ λD
d
​​ to be 2.0 cm. (3)
15
 (e) (i) illustration showing node at centre,
intensity
antinode at each end; [1]
(ii) wavelength of standing wave = Answers
(2 × 280) = 560 m / (ECF )
or
3.4 × 103 = 570 m;
6
frequency = (3.4 × 10 ) ≈ 6 Hz
Challenge yourself
3

560
(ii) correct marking of A and N for pipe A;
O distance along marking
the screen
earthquake frequency is natural P correct of A and N for pipe B (2)
2πx λ 3λ
1 cos ​_
y = 2A frequency
λ /​  sin (ωt)​ zero when x = _​​ ​​, _
of vibration of
​​ ​​ etc. maximum at (i) P;for pipe A, λ = 2L, where L is length of the pipe;
(b)O and
building mention of resonance / 4 4 c
half​L = ​_
​ c = f λabout
general shape with minimum to give ​​ ;
Practicemultiple
questions
/ (submultiple if ECF ); [3] way between O and P; [2]
substitute to get L = 0.317 m;
2f
(3)
[Total 25 marks] (e) fringe spacing = 2.5 × 10 m; –4

1 (a) the net displacement of the medium/ particles (ii) –3for 32 Hz, the open pipe will have a length
(2.5 × 10 × 3.00 × 10 ) = 5.0 × 10–7 m;
–4
4 (a) the net displacement of the medium/
(through which waves travel); is equal to the sumλ =
particles (through which waves travel);
1.50 of about 5 m;[2]whereas the closed pipe will
of individual
is equal to the sum displacements
of individual (produced by each have half this length, so will not take up as
[Total 14 marks]
wave)(2)
displacements (produced by each wave); [2] much space as the open pipe / OWTTE(2)
Award [2]forfora agood
Award [2] goodunderstanding
understanding and
and 5 a Wave properties
[1][1] for The argument does not have to be quantitative.
reasonable one. one.
for a reasonable (a) (i) [1]
Award [1] for recognition that low frequencies mean
(b) Wave X
(b) Xand
andwave
waveYYshould
shouldbebeidentical.
identical. longer pipes and [1] that for the same frequency,
X and Y closed pipes will be half the length of open pipes. The
fact they need less space can be implicit.
4 (a) (i) the motion corresponds approximately to the
A B
horizontal displacement of the joint;
(ii) this is sinusoidal,
[1] which is analogous to SHM(2)
(ii) because of the angle of the connecting rod;
this is reduced by the connecting rod
correct phase
correct phase forfor wave
wave X; X; correct phase for wave
being long (so approximately horizontal
correct
Y; phase for the
amplitudes wavesame
Y; for each wave; amplitude
throughout)(2)
amplitudes
for the same
each wave for each
is two wave;
divisions (4)
amplitude for each wave is two divisions; [4] (iii) 1 cm (1)
2 (a) illustration showing node at center, antinode at
each end (1)
3
(b) wavelength of standing wave = (2 × 280)
= 560 m / (ECF )
05_IBPH_SB_IBGLB_9021_ANS.indd 3 16/07/2014 09:38
OR 2 cm

​​ 3.4 6× ​10​​  ​​ = 570 m​;

3
_
(iv) 2 Hz (1)
​3.4560
× ​10​​  ​ 3
​frequency = _ ​≈ 6 Hz​ (b) (i) 2 m (1)
earthquake frequency is natural frequency of (ii) −1
4 m s (1)
vibration of building / mention of resonance / (iii) the wave reflects;
multiple / (submultiple if ECF) (3)
with no phase change (2)
7
3 A A 8 (a) (i) diffraction at the lens; [1]
(iv) At the point when the wave reaches the end,
(ii) circular patch – bright;
a standing wave has not yet been formed;
circular bright
only ring/darkness between
one cycle has passed.
patch andAfter
ring;reflection, a standing wave
[2] will form
(b) (i) a= 4.0 × 10
with–6
; both ends as antinodes if the length of
17 × spring
10–3 is equal to a whole number of half
10–4 rad;
= 2.4 ×wavelengths. [2]
N λ
(ii) 1.22 = 2.4 × 10 therefore
–4
(3)
d λ = 2l
d = 1.22 × 550 ×–410 ;
–9

2.4 × 10
d = 2.8 mm; [2]
λ=l
Award [2] even if factor 1.22 is missing.
(c) From
Part error. law we know that ​​Ft​  ​​= kx​
Hooke’s
(iii) is an
A N ​M
and assuming that ​μ = _x ​​
_ _ _ [Total 7 marks]

√​  kx √ √
​  k ​Mx​​  ​​  ​= ​ _ k
2
pipe A pipe B ​v = ​ _ M
_
 ​  ​= ​ _ ​  M ​  ​  x​, which means that velocity
​  x ​
(a) (i)(i) correct
(a) correctwave
waveshape
shapefor
forpipe
pipeA;
A; correct wave
and length are proportional. (3)
shape for pipe B
correct wave shape for pipe B; [2] (2)
Challenge yourself
(ii) correct marking of A and N for pipe A;
correct marking of A and N for pipe B; 16
1 T = 0.6 s
 Answers

(d) Assuming SHM with maximum acceleration and (b) sound wave travels down tube and is reflected;
acceleration equal to g: ​a = ​ω​​  2​ ​x0​  ​​​ incident and reflected wave superpose/combine/
9.81 interfere(2)
​​ω​​  2​= _
​0.01 ​ = 981​;
Do not award MP1 if the reflection is quoted at the walls/
ω
​ = 31.3 = 2πf​;
container
​f = 5.0​Hz (3)
(c) nodes shown at water surface AND ​_23 ​​ way up
5 (a) if an alternating current is applied to the circuit, tube (by eye) (1)
it will be forced to oscillate; if the frequency is the
Accept drawing of displacement diagram for correct
same as the first harmonic; then resonance will
harmonic without nodes specifically identified.
occur; which leads to a large current (4)
1 1 Award [0] if waveform is shown below the water surface.(1)
(b) Using ​ω = ​_ _ ​= ____________________
​  
_______________________ ​
​√LC ​ ​√4.00
   × ​10​​  −3​ × 2.00 × ​10​​  −12​ ​ λ = 0.74 m​;
(d) ​
​f = ​_λc ​= _320
​0.74 ​= 430 Hz​ (2)
= 1.1 × ​10​​  7​​ Hz
11 (a) (i) Amplitude is increasing as energy is added. (1)
​ω ​= _
​1.12π
× ​10​​  ​
7
​f = _
2π
​= 1.8 × ​10​​  6​​ Hz (2) (ii) energy input = energy lost due to damping (1)
(c) increases to a maximum; then falls (b) curve from time tB reaching zero displacement;
I (2) in no more than one cycle
 (2)

vertical
displacement
tA tB

0
f time

6 A(1)
7 C(1)
25
8 (a) traveling wave moves along the length of the 12 (a) T = _
​10 ​​ = 2.5 s AND f = _ ​10
​T1 ​​ OR evidence of f = _25
​​ (1)
string and reflects at fixed end; superposition/ (b) 30 m s–1 corresponds to f = 1.2 Hz;
interference of incident and reflected waves; the the amplitude of vibration is a maximum for this
superposition of the reflections is reinforced only speed OR corresponds to the resonant frequency(2)
for certain wavelengths (max. 2) (c) similar shape with lower amplitude;
λ = 2l = 2 × 0.62 = 1.24 m​;
(b) ​ maximum shifted slightly to left of the original
​v = f λ = 195 × 1.24 = 242 ​m s​​ −1​​ (2) curve(2)
Answer must be to 3 or more s.f. or working shown for Amplitude must be lower than the original, but allow the
MP2. amplitude to be equal at the extremes
(c) straight line through origin with negative
13 A(1)
gradient(1)
62 14 D(1)
(d) ​​_
3
​ = 21 cm​ (1)
15 B The trick is to push the rolling ball at the right times
9 (a) A horizontal line shown in center of pipe. (1)
and in the right direction. The mouse would need to
(b) air molecule moves to the right and then back to match the natural rhythm of the back-and-forth of
the left; returns to X/original position (2) the ball. (2)
(c) wavelength = 2 × 1.4 = 2.8 m;
16 (a) when the pan is moving upwards with a
c = f λ = 120 × 2.8 = 340 m s−1;
retardation when approaching its amplitude,
K = ρc2 = 1.3 × 3402 = 1.5 × 105; kg m–1 s–2(4) the mass will leave the pan if the retarding
10 (a) energy is not propagated by standing waves; acceleration is less than g;
amplitude constant for traveling waves OR for displacement x, using F ​ = kx = ma​, the
amplitude varies with position for standing waves kx
retarding acceleration is ​− ​_
m ​​ where k is the spring
OR standing waves have nodes/antinodes; constant;
phase varies with position for traveling waves OR kx
​​4 ​π​​  2​  x ​ > g​
2
when ​− ​_
m ​< − _g​, i.e. when _
phase constant inter-node for standing waves; ​T​​  ​
traveling waves can have any wavelength OR (since ​T = 2π ​
 ​  m
_
k
​ 
√)
​​ the mass leaves the pan; (3)
standing waves have discrete wavelengths (2)

17
 Answers

(b) As the amplitude varies, this will occur first ALTERNATIVE 2

​ ​​  2​  g
T the reflected radar appears to come from a
​​ 4 ​π​​  2​  A ​ = g​i.e. ​A = _
2
when _ ​ 2 ​​ “virtual image” of the device; traveling at 2v
​T​​  ​ 4 ​π​​  ​
Substituting the data provided, toward the device (2)
​0. ​50​​  ​ ×2 9.81 ​= 0.062 m = 6.2​ cm (c) For both alternatives, allow ecf to conclusion if v OR Δf
2
​A = _ (3)
4 ​π​​  ​
are incorrectly calculated.
ALTERNATIVE 1
( ​ ​ × ​(9.5 × ​10​​  3​)​
8)

C.5   ​​​ 3 × ​10​​ 

v = ________________
  
( 9)
​ =​36 m s–1;
​ 40 × ​10​​  ​ ​ × 2
36 > 28 so car exceeded limit (2)
Exercises There must be a sense of a conclusion even if numbers are
not quoted.
1 0.06 c ALTERNATIVE 2
2 4.38 nm reverse argument using speed limit.
​​ 2 × 40 × ​10​​ 8 ​ × 28​  =​ 7500 Hz;
9
3 3.17 × 107 m s–1 ​Δf =​ ____________
  
3 × ​10​​  ​
4 3.25 × 107 m s–1; it is further away since it is moving fast 9500 > 7500 so car exceeded limit (2)
5 2.1 Mpc There must be a sense of a conclusion even if numbers are
not quoted.
6 1440 km s–1
(d) speed of sound relative to the microphone is less;
Practice questions wavelength unchanged so frequency is lower OR
fewer waves recorded in unit time/per second so
1 (a) circular wavefronts originating from four
frequency is lower (2)
successive source positions; bunching of
340 − v
wavefronts in front, spreading out at back; (e) ​845 = 850 × ​_ 340
​​;
approximately, correct spacing of wavefronts in ​v = 2.00 m ​s​​  ​​
−1
(2)
front, and behind source (3)
8 (a) A; because it is the point nearest the Earth (2)
(b) λʹ = λ(V − v);
V (b) C; because it is the point moving fastest toward
5999.996 = 600 × (3 × 10
8
− v) ;
8
3 × 10 the Earth (2)
v = 2000 m s−1(3)
Allow alternative version for red shift.
2 B(1) D.1
3 D(1)
4 D(1) Exercises
5 A(1) 1 1.61 m s–2
6 C(1) 2 24.7 N kg–1
7 (a) mention of Doppler effect OR relative motion 3 7.34 N kg–1
between source and observer produces frequency/ 4 6.69 × 10–8 N kg–1
wavelength change;
5 0 N kg–1
Accept answers which refer to a double frequency shift.
Award [0] if there is any suggestion that the wave speed is 6 graph of T 2 vs. r 3
changed in the process. 7 4.2 × 107 m
the reflected waves come from an approaching 8 1.5 hours
“source” OR the incident waves strike an
approaching “observer”; Practice questions
increased frequency received by the device or by
the car (2) 1 A(1)
(b) ALTERNATIVE 1 2 D(1)
the car is a moving “observer” and then a moving 3 C(1)
“source”; so the Doppler effect occurs twice (2)

18
 Answers

4 (a) circular motion involves a changing velocity;

Tangential velocity is always perpendicular to D.2
centripetal force/acceleration; there must be a
force/acceleration toward center/star; without a Exercises
centripetal force the planet will move in a straight
line(2) 1 2 × 10–4 N
(b) gravitational force/force of gravity (1) 2 20 N C–1, south
​GM2 ​​;
(c) use of ​g = _ 3 5.7 × 10–10 N C–1
​R​​  ​
6.4 N kg−1 OR m s−2 (2) 4 (a) 1.8 × 106 N C–1
5 (a) the force/field and the velocity/displacement are at (b) 4.5 × 105 N C–1
90° to each other OR there is no change in GPE of (c) 0.045 N
the moon/Phobos (1) (d) 0.01 N
(b) ALTERNATIVE 1
5 (a) 1 × 10–7 N
use of universal gravitational force/acceleration/
(b) 1 × 10–5 m s–2
orbital velocity equations; equating to centripetal
G
force or acceleration; rearranges to get ​k = ​_ 6 2V
2 ​​ (3)
E 4 ​π​​  ​
ALTERNATIVE 2 7 5V
substitution of proper equation for ​T​from orbital 8 15 J
motion equations; substitution of proper equation 9 4J
for M
​ ​ OR ​R​from orbital motion equations;
10 –8 J
​ G 2 ​​
rearranges to get ​k = _ (3)
4 ​π​​  ​ 11 (a) It accelerates downwards.
​ ​ ​R​   ​​​ )​​​  ​ ​(
(c) ​​M​ Mars​= ( ​ ​  ​T​   ​​​ )​​​  ​ ​MEarth
​_ ​  ​​ 3 _
RMars ​  ​​ 2
​TEarth
​  ​​​ (b) 12 J
Earth Mars

or other consistent re-arrangement 12 4 eV

​= 6.4 ×  ​10​​  23​ ​kg (2) 13 3 eV

6 (a) B (1) Challenge yourself

(b) Beneath the surface, some of the Earth’s mass is
above you, which cancels out that between you 1 3 cm
and the center. Consider one of the spheres.
x
(1) 2
Gravity

Distance
Earth 50 cm
θ
T
7 (a) B (1)
(b) The force between the Moon and the Earth (in FE
this example) remains attractive. (1)
mg
4 ​π​​  ​ 3 2
8 (a) ​​T​​  2​= _
​G ​M​  ​​
​ ​r​​  ​​ (1) For reduced ‘challenge’, let is assume that x = 3 cm (the
g

(b) ​​M​ g​= 3.4 × ​10​​  ​  kg​ 41

(1) distance of separation), as given in the question.
(c) The number of stars like the Sun ​≈ 2 × ​10​​  11​​ (1) Using trigonometry,
sin ​θ​= ____
1.5 cm
In case of interest, the low marks allocation emerges from ​​50 cm ​​ = 0.03
this question being on an Olympiad paper. Resolving forces:
T sin θ = FE
T cos θ = mg

19
 Answers

Dividing (b) ​4.3 × ​10​​  5​ ​ N C​​  −1​​ (1)

k ​q​​  ​
2

​FE​  ​​ ​ _  ​ 9 (a) B (1)

​r​​  2​
​tan θ = _
​mg ​= ​mg ​ _
(b) The charge of the electrons that move is equal in
8 . 99 × ​10​​  9​  × ​(5 . 5 × ​10​​  −10​  )​​  2​ terms of both surplus and deficit. (1)
= ​___________________
     ​
2
0. ​03​​  ​  × 10 × ​10​​  ​  × 9 . 81
−6
10 (a) B (1)
= 𝟎.𝟎𝟑 (1 s.f.)​ (b) The entirety of the bird is at the same potential
tan 0.0300 = 0.03 (1 s.f.) and so no current flows through it. (1)
Therefore, the solutions verify one another.
11 (a) Electric force = ​E ​n1​  ​​  e​;
For extra challenge, use simultaneous equations to
​E ​n1​  ​​  e = mg + 6πηa ​u1​  ​​​
solve for x.
​E ​n2​  ​​  e = mg + 6πηa ​u2​  ​​​;
Practice questions Subtracting: ​Ee​(​n2​  ​​  − ​n​ 1​​)​= 6πηa( ​u2​  ​​ − ​u1​  ​​ )​;
6πηa
1 C(1) ​​n2​  ​​ − ​n1​  ​= _
​ Ee ​ ( ​u2​  ​​ − ​u1​  ​​ )​;
V _
2 C(1) Since ​E = ​_
d
​= ​ 5000 −2 ​​ and ​u = _
​distance
time
​​ ;
1.5 × ​10​​  ​
3 A(1) ​6π ​ ​(​  ​142
× 1.82 × ​10​​  ​ × 2.76 × ​10​​  ​ _ 0​​  ​ _
 ​  − ​  ​178  ​)​​
0​​  ​
−5 −6 −2 −2
​​n​  2​​ − ​n​  1​= ______________________
     
​(_
1.5 × ​10​​  −2​)
5000
​   ​ ​ × 1.6 × ​10​​  −19​
4 C(1)
​​n2​  ​​ − ​n1​  ​​= 1.95​;
5 C(1)
The change in the number of electrons is a
6 B(1) decrease of 2. (8)
k×q (b) ​ QE = m ​ 1​  ​​  g + 6πη ​r1​  ​​ ​u1​  ​​​ and ​QE = m ​ 2​  ​​  g + 6πη ​r2​  ​​ ​u2​  ​​​;
7 E =_
(a) ​ ​ 2 ​​;
​r​​  ​
​2QE = ​(​m1​  ​​  + ​m​ 2)​​ ​g + 6πη( ​r1​  ​​ ​u1​  ​​ + ​r2​  ​​ ​u2​  ​​ )​
​8.99 × ​10​​  ​ ×2 6.0 × ​10​​  ​​​
9 −3
​E = _________________
   Considering the combined drop: ​
0. ​4​​  ​
OR ​E = 3.37 × ​10​​  8​ N ​C​​  −1​​ (2) 2QE = m ​ 3​  ​​ g + 6πη ​r3​  ​​ ​u3​  ​​​
Ignore any negative sign. Now, ​​m3​  ​​ = ​m1​  ​​  + ​m​ 2​​​ so ​​r3​  ​​ ​u3​  ​​ = ​r1​  ​​ ​u1​  ​​  + ​r​ 2​​ ​u2​  ​​​
F = q × E = 1.6 × ​10​​  −19​  × 3.4 × ​10​​  8​
(b) ​ Volume is conserved, so ​​_43 ​  π ​​r3​  ​​​​  3​= _
​43 ​  π ​​r1​  ​​​​  3​ + ​_43 ​  π ​​r2​  ​​​​  3​​
= 5.4 × ​10​​  −11​  N​; 3_

​a = _F ​= _
​m ​5.4 × ​10​​ −31 ​ ​ = 5.9 × ​10​​  19​ m ​s​​  −2​​
−11
(2) √
and ​​r3​  ​= ​ ​​r1​  ​​​​  3​  + ​​r2​  ​​​​  3​  ​​
9.1 × ​10​​  ​ ​r​  ​​ ​u​  ​​  + ​r​  ​​ ​u​  ​​
Ignore any negative sign. Hence, ​​u3​  ​= _
​ 31_
1 2 2
​​ (5)
Award [1] for a calculation leading to a
​ = < < m ​s​​  −2​> >​ √
​ ​​r1​  ​​​​  3​  + ​​r2​  ​​​​  3​ ​

Award [2] for bald correct answer

(c) the electron moves away from the point charge/ D.3
to the right along the line joining them;
decreasing acceleration; Exercises
increasing speed (3)
Allow ECF from MP1 if a candidate mistakenly evaluates 1 (a) 2 × 10–5 N
the force as attractive so concludes that the acceleration (b) east
will increase 2 (a) 5 × 10–6 N
8 (a) minimum of three lines equally (b) west
spaced and distributed, perpendicular 3 (a) up
to the plates and downwards; e.g.
(b) right
(c) up
E 4 4 × 10–19 N
5 (a) 8.0 × 10–17 J
(b) 1.3 × 107 m s–1
(c) 7.4 × 10–4 T
edge effect shown (2)
Condone lines that do not touch plates 6 4 × 10–20 N

20
 Answers

Practice questions 10 (a) out of the page plane / ⊙(1)

Do not accept just “up” or “outwards”
1 C(1)
(b) 8.5 × 1.60 × 10–19 × 6.8 × 105 = 9.2 × 10–13 N(1)
2 D(1) (c) the magnetic force does not do work on the
3 D(1) electron hence does not change the electron’s
kinetic energy OR the magnetic force/
4 A(1)
acceleration is at right angles to velocity (1)
5 A(1) (d) the velocity of the electron is at right angles to
6 A(1) the magnetic field;
7 A(1) (therefore) there is a centripetal acceleration /
force acting on the charge (2)
8 (a) force per unit charge;
11 (a) ALTERNATIVE 1
acting on a small/test positive charge (2)
magnetic field due to upper wire on lower wire
(b) horizontally to the left (1)
horizontal and into page;
Arrow does not need to touch X
shows force is downwards by any valid rule;
(c) proton moves to the right/they move in opposite
reading of balance increases (3)
directions;
Allow ECF from “out of page”
force on each is initially the same;
ALTERNATIVE 2
proton accelerates less than electron initially
because mass is greater; currents are antiparallel / in opposite directions;
field is stronger on right than left as lines closer; so wires repelled (by any argument giving force
direction);
proton acceleration increases as it is moving into
stronger field OR electron acceleration decreases reading of balance increases (3)
as it is moving into weaker field (max. 4) (b) ​2.6 × ​10​​  −5​ ​ N m​​  −1​​ (1)
Allow ECF from (b) (c) volume of the wire (a cylinder) ​= π ​r​​  2​  l
= π × ​​(_ )​​​  ​ × 0.15 = 7.36 × ​10​​  ​ ​m​​  ​​;
2
​  2.5 × ​10​​  ​
−3
Accept converse argument for electron  ​ −7 3
2
9 (a) magnetic force is to the left at the instant shown charge in the wire
OR explains a rule to determine the direction ​= 8.5 × ​10​​  28​ × 7.36 × ​10​​  −7​ × 1.6 × ​10​​  −19​
of the magnetic force; force is perpendicular to = 10 × ​10​​  3​  C​;
velocity/direction of motion OR force is constant
​BIl ​2.6 × ​10​​ −4 ​  × 0.15
−5
​v = _Bq
​= ______________
  
   4 ​  ;
in magnitude; force is centripetal/toward the 1.3 × ​10​​  ​  × ​10​​  ​
center (max. 2) = 3.0 μm ​s​​  −1​​ (4)
NOTE: Accept reference to acceleration instead of force (d) parts of the wire will experience a smaller
​m ​Rv​​  ​​​;
qvB = _
(b) ​
2
magnetic field; and hence a smaller force; so the
reading of the balance will decrease (3)
​1.67 × ​10​​  ​ × 2.0 × ​10​​  ​
−27 6
​R = __________________
      ​​ OR 0.060 m (2)
1.6 × ​10​​  ​ × 0.35
−19
12 (a) B (1)
NOTE: Award MP2 for full replacement or correct (b) Currents flowing in the same direction ‘pinch’
answer to at least 2 significant figures together, because the magnetic fields between
(c) ​ ​2πR
T=_ v ​  ; them are in opposite directions. (1)
​2π × 0.06​ = 1.9 × ​10​​  −7​  s​
T =_ (2)
2.0 × ​10​​  6​
(d) ALTERNATIVE 1
work done by force is change in kinetic energy; E.1
work done is zero/force perpendicular to velocity(2)
NOTE: Award [2] for a reference to work done is zero Exercises
hence Ek remains constant
1 (a) 17 p, 18 n
ALTERNATIVE 2
(b) 28 p, 30 n
proton moves at constant speed;
kinetic energy depends on speed (2) (c) 82 p, 122 n
NOTE: Accept mention of speed or velocity indistinctly 2 4.16 × 10–18 C, 9.04 × 10–26 kg
in MP2

21
 Answers

3 235
92U E=_
(b) (i) ​ ​hc
λ
​
4 92 protons, 146 neutrons  ​6.63   
× ​10​​  −34​  × 3 × ​10​​  8​
= ________________
   ​;
658 × ​10​​  ​
−9

5 10 = 1.89 eV​ (2)

6 13.06 eV, 3.15 × 1015 Hz (ii) electrons absorb photons (of energy 1.89
eV) to make a transition from n = 2 to
7 0.31 eV, 7.44 × 1013 Hz
n = 3; on de-excitation, photons of energy
8 13.6 eV, 3.28 × 1015 Hz 1.89 eV, i.e. wavelength 658 nm are emitted;
in all directions, however, and not just
Practice questions along the initial direction, hence intensity is
1 (a) (i) Answer to include: reduced(3)
missing frequencies / wavelengths; 3 D(1)
in otherwise continuous spectrum (2) 4 C(1)
(ii) Answer to include:
5 B(1)
light from Sun is split into its component
wavelengths; using prism / grating (2) 6 (a) most undeflected/pass straight through;
(b) (i) correct substitution into E = hf and hence mostly empty space;
​hc
c = f λ to give ​E = _ ​​; few deflected (allow “bent”, “reflect”, “bounce back” etc);
λ hence small dense nucleus
​6.63  
× ​10​​  ​  × 3 × ​10​​  ​
–34 8
​E = ________________
   ​ = 3.38 × ​10​​  –19​  J​ (2) positive / positively charged; (max. 4)
5.88 × ​10​​  ​
–7

(ii) transition is an absorption so involves (b) electron accelerated / mention of centripetal force;
electron being ‘promoted’ up between two should radiate EM waves/energy;
levels; energy of gap must be exactly = 3.38 and spiral into the nucleus (3)
× 10–19 J; this is between
(–5.80 × 10–19 J) and (–2.42 × 10–19 J) levels; (3) 7 (a) identifies λ = 435 nm;
​hc ​6.63  
× ​10​​  ​  × 3 × ​10​​  ​
−34 8
[2] can be given for other relevant information ​E = _λ
​= ________________
   ​​ ;
4.35 × ​10​​  ​
−7

concerning, for example, the existence of photons 4.6 ×10−19 J (3)

with different energies in sunlight / the immediate (b) −0.605 OR −0.870 OR −1.36 to −5.44 AND
reradiation in random directions. The final mark is arrow pointing downwards (1)
for identifying
This the energy
can also just be shownlevelsonconcerned.
a = 0.001 297 5 × 10–26 kg ;
Arrow MUST match calculation in (a)
diagram.
This can also just be shown on a diagram. correct substitution into E = mc2;
(c) Difference in energy levels is equal to the energy
energy/10–19 J
energy released
of the photon;
0 = 0.001 297 5 × 10–26 × 9.00 × 1016 J
Downward arrow as energy[3]
= 1.17 × 10–12 J;
is lost by hydrogen/
energy is given out in the photon/the electron falls
(f) (i) an (electron) antineutrino;
–1.59 from a higher energy level to[1]a lower one (2)
–2.42 Reject ‘neutrino’.
–3.00 (ii) idea that there is a fixed total energy of
E.3
decay;
total energy shared between the (three)
resulting particles / OWTTE; [2]
–5.80 Exercises
(iii) correct calculation of decay constant λ;
1 λ =(a)ln 292=p, 141 n
0.845
–7.64 0.82
(b) substitution
correct 234.9405 u into N = N e–λt;
0

2 Mark (i)
(c) Mark
(a) and
both (ii) together.
processes, 1 and[1]2,for each
together. (c) N1.901
to give = N0eu–8.45 therefore N = e–8.45
relevant point e.g. (d) 1771 N0
Award [1] for any two of the following: = 0.000 213 =MeV
0.02%; [3]
Bohr assumed electrons were in circular (e) 7.60 MeV
collisions with (external) particles; heating the gas N.B. Award attempts without full
orbits around nucleus;
to a high temperature; absorption of photons (2) equation [1].
of fixed angular momentum;
that were stable (did not radiate) and thus (iv) a down quark changes into an up
the energy could be calculated; quark;
Schrödinger considers electron ‘probability’ any other relevant detail; [2]
waves; E.g. this involves the weak interaction
only some standing waves fit the boundary / statement of quark content of proton
conditions; (uud) or neutron (udd).
22
 (c) 1.901u
(d) 1771 MeV Answers
(e) 7.60 MeV

22
2 10 (b) (i) ​​42​  He / ​​​ ​42​  α​​​​
binding energy per nucleon (MeV)

​​222
86
​ ​Rn; ​​  (2)
8 (ii) mass defect = 5.2 × 10–3 u; energy = mc2
 ​5.2 × ​10​​  ​ × 1.6611u
× ​10​​  ​ × 9.00 × ​10​​  ​
−3 −27 16
​= _____________________________
       ​​
6 = 930 MeV;
= 4.86 MeV = 7.78 × 10–13 J (3)
(c) (i) (linear) momentum must be conserved;
4
momentum before reaction is zero;
so equal and opposite after (to maintain zero
2 total)(3)
(ii) 0 = mαvα + mRnvRn;
​​ ​V​  α ​​ ​= − ​(​ _​mα​   ​​​ )​; = − ​ 4 ​ = − 55.5​
_ ​V​  ​​ ​mRn
​  ​​ _222
0 (3)
0 50 100 150 200 250 Rn

A Ignore absence of minus sign.

3 8.95 MeV (iii) kinetic energy of α particle ​= ​_12 ​ ​mα​  ​​ ​​vα​  ​​​​  2​​;
23 8.95 MeV
4 Mass of At is bigger than Po so no energy released.
kinetic energy of radon nucleus ​= ​_12 ( 4 )
​  222
​​ _  ​ ​ ​
5 24 Mass of At is bigger than Po so no energy
2.32 MeV ​v​  ​​
m​ α​​ ​​(_  ​)​​​  ​​
2
α
released. ​  55.5
6 19
1.0 × 10 Hz
1
this is ​​_ ​​ of kinetic energy of α particle; (3)
7 12.5 g2.32 MeV
25 55.5
Accept alternative approaches.
8 –1 × 1019 Hz
12.5 s1.0
26
2 B (1)
9 24 000
27 years
12.5 g
3 C(1)
10 7.45 Bq
28 12.5 s–1 4 A(1)
11 28.6 years
29 24 000 years 5 A(1)
12 (a) 1.66 × 108 s
30
(b) 7.45×Bq
4.17 10–9 s –1 6 B(1)
(c) 1.0 × 1022 7 A(1)
(d) 4.17 × 1013 s –1
1
8 A(1)
(e) 1.2 × 10–12 g
9 C(1)
22/07/2014 16:29
Challenge yourself 10 A(1)

1 2.5 × 1012 J 11 D(1)

2 1.82 MeV 12 C(1)

13 (a) X: 26 and Y: 12;
Practice questions Z: v/neutrino(2)
1 (a) Deduct [1] for each error or omission, stop at zero. Do not allow the antineutrino.
Property Effect on rate of decay  (2) (b) total energy released is fixed;
Increase Decrease Stays the neutrino carries some of this energy (leaving the
same beta particle with a range of energies) (2)
Temperature of
(c) the time taken for half the radioactive nuclides to
✓ decay / the time taken for the activity to decrease
sample
to half its initial value (1)
Pressure on
✓ Do not allow reference to change in weight.
sample
Amount of
sample ✓

23
 Answers

14 (a) energy/mass difference = 8.450 – 8.398 6 (a) 3.6 × 1010 J

= 0.052 MeV; (b) 13 g
Q = 1.7 OR 1.66 OR 1.664 MeV
OR 2.66 × 10−13 J (2) Practice questions
(b) 11–12 days (1) 1 (a) (i) fission:
15 (a) B (1) nucleus splits; into two parts of similar mass
(b) Suppose Supply 2 starts with a power of ‘1’. The radioactive decay:
amount of power will half each year as shown nucleus emits;
below. Supply 1 starts with twice as much power: a particle of small mass or a photon,
‘2’. Its power halves twice per year as shown below. or both (4)
From the beginning of Year 2 onwards, you are
(ii) ​​  92​ ​U​​​  + ​0​  n;​​​ → 38
235 1
​ ​  Sr​​​  + ​  54​ ​Xe​​​  + 4 ​0​  n​​​​;
90 142 1
(2)
better off with Supply 2.
Allow ECF for RHS if LHS is incorrect.
Year 0 1 2 3 (iii) mass number unchanged; atomic number
​   ​​ ​  ​​ ​   ​​
increases by +1 (2)
Supply 1 2 _ ​1 _ ​1 1
​_
2 8 32 ​p​​  2​
​   ​​ ​   ​​ ​   ​​ (b) (i) use of kinetic energy = _
​​2m ​​ / equivalent;
Supply 2 1 ​_1 _ ​1 _ ​1 correct conversion of MeV to joule
2 4 8
(1.63 × 10–11 J);
16 (a) C (1) correct conversion of mass to kilogram (1.50
(b) The ‘mortality’ of people and radioactive nuclei × 10–25 kg);
are very different over time. The probability of momentum = 2.2 × 10–18 N s (4)
a human surviving from one year to the next (ii) total momentum after fission must be zero;
decreases, whereas the probability of a nucleus must consider momentum of neutrons (and
remaining undecayed remains constant. (1) photons)(2)
people (iii) xenon not opposite to strontium but
1000 deviation < 30°);
radioactive
nuclei
arrow shorter / longer (2)
500
(c) (i) energy = 0.25 × 198 × 1.6 × 10–13;
= 7.9 × 10–12 J (2)
0
0 68 years 136 years (ii) use of ΔQ = mcΔT;
energy = 0.25 × 4200 × 80; = 8.4 × 104 J (3)
( 4)
(iii) number of fissions = _ ​​ ​ 8.4 × ​10​​ –12)​ ​​​ ;= 1.1 × 1016
E.4 ( ​ 7.9 × ​10​​  ​ ​
mass = 1.1 × 1016 × 3.9 × 10–25; = 4.1 × 10–9 kg (4)

Exercises 2 (a) (i) fission (1)

(ii) kinetic energy (1)
1 10, 133.9 MeV (b) the two neutrons can cause fission in two more
2 135.8 MeV uranium nuclei producing four neutrons so
3 (a) ​​ 142 ​​  57​ ​La​​​​ + β– +ν¯
​ ​Ba​​​​ ➞ 142 producing eight etc.; OWTTE(1)
56
(c) (i) the fuel rods contain a lot more 238U than 235U;
(b) 9 years
neutron capture is more likely in 238U than
4 (a) 7 235
U with high-energy neutrons; but if the
(b) ​​ 239
94
​ ​Pu​​​​ ➞ 136 ​​ ​  Zr​​​​ + 7n0
​​  54​ ​Xe​​​​ + 96
40 neutrons are slowed they are more likely to
(c) 164 MeV produce fission in 235U than neutron capture
(d) 239 g in 238U(3)
(e) 2.5 × 1024 atoms The argument is a little tricky so be generous. The
(f) 4.13 × 1026 MeV candidate needs to know about there being two
(g) 6.6 × 1013 J isotopes present in the fuel and something about
the dependence of the fission and capture in the two
5 2.7 × 1012 J isotopes on neutron energy.

24
 Answers

(ii) control the rate at which the reactions take

place; by absorbing neutrons (2) E.5
(d) Look for four of the following main points and award
[1] each. Exercises
energy lost by the slowing of the neutrons and
fission elements heats the pile; this heat extracted 1 (a) 3.27 MeV
by the molten sodium / pressurized water / other (b) 4.03 MeV
suitable substance; which is pumped to a heat (c) 18.4 MeV
exchanger; water is pumped through the heat 2 4.2 light years
exchanger and turned to steam; the steam drives a
turbine; which is used to rotate coils (or magnets) 3 8 min 20 s
placed in a magnetic field (or close to coils) which 4 1.5 × 105 years
produces electrical energy (4) 5 1.3 pc, 1.56 arcsec
Alternatively, award [4] for a good answer, [2] for a fair
answer and [1] for a weak answer. 6 40 pc

3 A(1) 7 3.18 μm; too small to measure on photograph

4 B(1) 8 Betelgeuse 1 (0.4)

Meissa 4 (3.5)
5 B(1)
Bellatrix 2 (1.64)
6 D(1) Alnilam 3 (1.7)
7 B(1) Alnitak 3 (2)
8 (a) energy required to completely separate the Mintaka 3 (2.23)
nucleons OR energy released when a nucleus is Saiph 2 (2.09)
formed from its constituent nucleons (1) (actual magnitudes in brackets)
Allow protons AND neutrons. 9 (a) 1.36 × 103 W m–2
(b) the values in SI units would be very small (1) (b) 3.2 × 10–10 W m–2
(c) ​140 × 8.29 + 94 × 8.59 − 235 × 7.59​OR ​184 MeV​ (1)
10 (a) 1.2 × 10–7 W m–2
(d) see ​energy = 180 × ​10​​  6​  × 1.60 × ​10​​  −19​​
(b) 7.9 × 10–9 W m–2
AND ​mass = 235 × 1.66 × ​10​​ −27​​;
​7.4 × ​10​​  13​  J ​kg​​  −1​​ (2) 11 5.6 × 103 light years
1.2 × ​10​​  9​ × 24 × 3600
________________ 12 4.2 × 1030 W
(e) energy produced in one day​ =     ​ 0.36
​
= 2.9 × ​10​​  14​  J​; 13 (a) 7.25 × 103 K
 ​ 2.9 × ​10​​ 13 ​ ​ = 3.9 kg​
mass​  = _
14
(2) (b) 1.6 × 108 W m–2
7.4 × ​10​​  ​
(f ) specific energy of uranium is much greater than
that of coal, hence more energy can be produced
Practice questions
from the same mass of fuel / per ​kg​OR less fuel 1 (a) a fusion reaction; since hydrogen nuclei are
can be used to create the same amount of energy (1) joining to create helium / any other relevant
(g) ​39​ (1) further detail / explanation (2)
(h) 75 s (1) (b) (i) atomic number: 6; mass number: 12 (2)
(i) ALTERNATIVE 1 N.B. if 6 and 12 are reversed, [1].
​10 min = 8 ​t1/2
​  ​​​ (ii) mass before = 3 × (6.648 325 × 10–27 kg)
= 1.994 497 5 × 10–26 kg
mass remaining​= 1.0 × ​​(_
​  12 ​)​​​  ​= 3.9 × ​10​​  −3​  kg​
8
(2) mass of carbon = 1.993 200 0 × 10–26 kg
ALTERNATIVE 2 so mass defect
ln2
decay constant​  = ​ _75
 ​ = 9.24 × ​10​​  −3​ ​s​​  −1​​; = 1.994 497 5 × 10–26 – 1.993 200 0 × 10–26 kg
mass remaining​ = 1.0 × ​e​​  −9.24×​10​​ 
−3
​
​×600 = 0.001 297 5 × 10–26 kg ;
= 3.9 × ​10​​  −3​  kg​ (2) correct substitution into E = mc2;
energy released
= 0.001 297 5 × 10–26 × 9.00 × 1016 J
= 1.17 × 10–12 J (3)

25
 Answers

2 (a) (i) two (light) nuclei; combine to form a more 6 (a) the star is (much) closer than the other star (and
massive nucleus; with the release of energy / close enough to Earth) / parallax effect has been
with greater total binding energy (3) observed(1)
(ii) high temperature means high kinetic energy (b) (1)
θ
for nuclei; so can overcome (electrostatic)
repulsion (between nuclei); to come close
together / collide; high pressure so that there D
are many nuclei (per unit volume); so that
chance of two nuclei coming close together
is greater (5) d
Award [1] if all three (d, D, ​θ​) are shown correctly.
3 (a) (i) a proton or a neutron (1)
Do not allow d shown as the radius.
Both needed to receive [1].
Accept D as a line from Earth to the star.
(ii) the difference between the mass of the
d d d
nucleus and the sum of the masses of its (c) ​sin ​_2θ ​= _
​2D ​​ OR ​tan ​_2θ ​= _
​2D ​​ OR ​θ = _
​D ​​;
individual nucleons / the energy required consistent explanation, eg: small angle of
to separate a nucleus into its component d
(b) approximation
If answers yields
just quote the ​θ = ​_
formula D
​​; the
from (2)
nucleons / OWTTE(1)
dataAllow
book then
ECF award [1] for
from (b)(i), eg:showing
if d shown at as radius.
(b) 9
E (MeV)

leastany
(d) students
angularrecognize which formula
unit quoted for ​θ​and any linear unit
F
U
8 relates to thefor
quoted hypothesis.
​D​ (1)
7 (b) (i) KE = Ve = 850 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
7 (a) d = 275 pc (1)
6 = 1.4 × 10–16 J; [1]
(b) because of2 the difficulty of measuring very small
5
(ii) use E = p to get p = 2mE;
angles(1)
2m
substitute
4 8 (a) pmade = 2of dust× and/or
× 9.1 gas×OR
10–31 × 1.4 formed from
10–16
3 supernova OR can form new stars OR some
= 1.6 × 10–23 N s; [2]
radiate
h
light from enclosed stars OR some absorb
2 (iii) λlight
= ;from distant stars (1)
p
substitute1 λ = 6.6 × 10
H –34
1
d=_
(b) ​ ​​ OR
​8.32 × ​10​​  −31.6
​
120
× 10–23
pc;
0 = 4.1 × 10–11 m; [2]
0 25 50 75 100 125 150 175 200 225 250 1​ 20 × 3.26 × 3x ​10​​  8​ × 365x24 × 3600
A 18 [Total 8 marks]
= 3.70 × ​10​​  ​  m​ (2)
Don’t expect Don’t
precision forprecision
expect any of these.
for any of these. 6 (a) MarkAnswer must be in meters, watch for POT.
both processes, 1 and 2, together.
(i) F: between 8 and 9
(i) F: between 8 and 9; [1] (1) (c)
Award distances aretwo
[1] for any so of
big/large OR to avoid using large
the following:
(ii) H: between 1 and 2
(ii) H: between 1 and 2; [1]
(1) powers
collisions withof 10 OR particles;
(external) they are based on convenient
(iii) U: between 7 and 8 (1) definitions(1)
heating the gas to a high temperature;
(iii) U: between 7 and 8; [1]

​ S​  =​​ λ(​  σ ​AS​  ​​ ​​[​TS​  ​​]​​​  4 ​ ​ =)​ ​ σ ​​[​r​ S​​]​​​  2​ ​​[​TS​  ​​]​​​  4​​​ ;
(c) general overall shape; max at F = 56, end point U (2) absorption of photons; [2]
(c) general overall shape; ​LV​  ​​
_​=hc​ _ σ ​AV​  ​​ ​​[​TV​  ​​]​​​  4​ σ ​​[​r​ V​​]​​​  2​ ​​[​TV​  ​​]​​​  4​
_
(d) mass of nucleons 9(b) (a) ​​
(i) EL
max at F = = (2
56,×end
1.00728)
point U; + 1.00867 [2]
= 3.02323 u; E_ = 6.63
1.54 × ​10​​ ×2810
​ _ ​​[​r​ V×​​]​​​  3​ × 10
–34 2
​9600​​ 
8
; 4​
(d) mass of nucleons
mass difference = 0.0072+u1.00867
= 6.7 MeV; ​​ 3.85 658
× ​10​​  26
​= ×​ ​  ​​ ​​​  2–9​​ × ​_
​ –19​​[​r10 5
​ 800​​  4 ​​ ;
​
= (2 × 1.00728) S ]
3.02 _______________
× 10

( =)​ 2.3 ​r​ S​​​
E= eV;
binding energy nucleon =_
per u; ​​6.7 ​​= 2.2 MeV (3) ×_
√
28
= 3.02323 1.54
10 × ​10​​  ​ _ ​5800​​  4​
​​r​ V​= 1.6
–19
3 ​ ​   ​    26 ​  × ​  ​9600​​  4 ​ ​ ​​ r​  S​​  (3)
mass difference = 0.0072 u = 6.7 MeV; = 1.89 eV 3.85 × ​10​​  ​ [2]
(e) (i) fusion (1)
= 6.7
Do not award
(ii) electrons third
absorb marking
photons (ofpoint if radius of the
energy
(ii) frombinding the positionenergyon perthe
nucleon graph, the
3 energy
= 2.2to MeV;
Sun is lost.
1.89 eV) to make a transition
required assemble two nuclei of 21​​ ​  H​​​​ is [3]
(b) from
obtainn =the
2 tospectrum
n = 3; of the star;
greater
(e) (i) than that to assemble one nucleus [1]
fusion;
of 32​​ ​  H(ii)
e​​;​​ hence if two nuclei measure
on the position
de-excitation, photonsofofthe wavelength
energy
on of the1​​ ​  H ​​ combine
2
from the position graph, the
to form one nucleus of ​​2to​  Hassemble
3
e​​​​energy two must be corresponding
1.89 to maximum
eV, i.e. wavelength 658 nm areintensity;
energy required nuclei
emitted;
use Wien’s law (to determine temperature) (allow
released /ofOWTTE(2) 2
H is greater than that to assemble
1
in all directions,
quotation however,
of Wien’s andifnot
equation just defined)(3)
symbols
one nucleus of 3He;
4 C(1)
2
along the initial direction,
hence if two nuclei of 1H combine to
2 Award [3 max.] for referring to identification of
hence intensity is reduced; [3]
5 B(1)
form one nucleus of 23He energy must temperature via different ionizations of different elements.
be released / OWTTE; [2] (iii) (the Schrödinger model unlike Bohr’s)
does not have well-defined orbits
[Total 13 marks]
for the electrons / does not treat the
5 (a) all particles have a wavelength associated electron as a localized particle / assigns 26
with them / OWTTE; to an electron a probability wave;
 Answers

10 (a) the letter S should be in the region of the (e) at ​​10​​  3​ ​L⊙​  ​​​, further to right than 5000 K and to the
shaded area left of 2500 K (see shaded region)
1 000 000
 (1) 106

10 000 105
(1)
104
luminosity/Lo

100
103

luminosity/Lo
1 102

1 10
100
1
1
10000 25 000 10 000 6000 3000 10−1
effective temperature/K
10−2
(b) the fusion of hydrogen in the core eventually 10−3
stops OR core contracts; the hydrogen in a layer
around the core will begin to fuse; Sun expands 20 000 10 000 5000 2500
temperature/K
AND the surface cools; helium fusion begins in
the core; Sun becomes more luminous/brighter (f ) ALTERNATIVE 1
 (max. 3) main sequence to red giant;
Ignore any mention of the evolution past the red giant stage planetary nebula; with mass reduction/loss OR
​L​  ​​ ​​[​r​  ​​]​​​  2​ planetary nebula; with mention of remnant mass;
​​10​​  4 ​​= ​_ ​3000​​  ​
−4 4
(c) ​​_ W
​L​  ​​
​= _ W _
2 ​ × ​ 4 ​​; white dwarf (3)
R ​10​​  ​ ​​[​rR​  ​​]​​​  ​ 10 ​000​​  ​
____________

√
​rW​  ​​ _ ​10​​  −4​ _ ​3000​​  4​ ALTERNATIVE 2
​​_​rR​  ​​ ​= ​ ​  ​10​​  4 ​ ​ × ​  10  ​000​​  4 ​ ​​= 9.0 × ​10​​  ​​
(2) −6
main sequence to red supergiant region;
11 (a) photon/fusion/radiation force/pressure balances supernova; with mass reduction/loss OR
gravitational force/pressure; gives both directions supernova; with mention of remnant mass;
correctly (outwards radiation, inwards gravity) (2)
neutron star OR black hole (3)
(b) ​​L​ Gacrux​​ = 5.67 × ​10​​  −8​ × 4π × ​​(58.5 × ​10​​  9)​ ​​​  2​  × ​3600​​  4​​;
12 (a) core: helium;
​​LGacrux
​  ​= 4.1 × ​10​​  −29​  W​;
​LGacrux
​  ​​ _ outer layer: hydrogen (2)
​= ​ 4.1 × ​10​​ 26 ​​ = 1.1 × ​10​​  3​​
29
​​_ ​L​  ​​
(3) (b) line to the right of X, possibly undulating, very
⊙ 3.85 × ​10​​  ​
(c) if the star is too far then the parallax angle is roughly horizontal (1)
too small to be measured OR stellar parallax is Ignore any paths beyond this as the star disappears from
limited to closer stars (1) diagram.
(d) line or area roughly inside shape shown – judge (c) ​L = AT ​ ​​  4​= 5.67 × ​10​​  −8​ × 4 × ​(​ 2.0 × ​10​​  4)​ ​​​  2​ × ​(​ ​10​​  6)​ ​​​  4​​;
by eye ​L = 3 × ​10​​  26​ W OR L = 2.85 × ​10​​  26​  W​; (2)
Accept straight line or straight area at roughly 45° Allow ECF for [1 max.] if ​π​r 2 used (gives 7 × 1026 W)
10 6 (1) Allow ECF for a POT error in MP1.
​2.9 × ​10​​  ​ −3
105 λ=_
(d) ​ ​= 2.9 × ​10​​  −9​​ m;
6
​10​​  ​
104 this is an X-ray wavelength (2)
103
13 (a) A (1)
luminosity/Lo

102
(b) The binding energy per nucleon of uranium
10
is less than that of nuclei smaller than iron.
1
Therefore, energy would overall have been
10 −1
transferred from the star to the uranium
10−2 nucleons.(1)
10−3

20 000 10 000 5000 2500

temperature/K

27