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Print Paper NEET 11 2

The document is an exam paper for Physics, specifically for the AV NEET CLS XI 2024-25, consisting of various questions related to mechanics, forces, and motion. It includes multiple-choice questions with options for answers, covering topics such as impulse, momentum, friction, and projectile motion. The exam is designed to assess students' understanding of fundamental physics concepts within a time limit of three hours.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
92 views35 pages

Print Paper NEET 11 2

The document is an exam paper for Physics, specifically for the AV NEET CLS XI 2024-25, consisting of various questions related to mechanics, forces, and motion. It includes multiple-choice questions with options for answers, covering topics such as impulse, momentum, friction, and projectile motion. The exam is designed to assess students' understanding of fundamental physics concepts within a time limit of three hours.

Uploaded by

ajay tej
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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12/6/24, 2:29 PM Print Paper

SECTION NAME
Date : 06/12/2024 AV NEET CLS XI 2024-25 WT-14
Time : 3 Hours 0 Minutes Marks : 720

Physics
1. The driver of three-wheeler moving with a speed of 36 km/h sees a child standing in the middle of the
road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 s just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding
force on the vehicle? The mass of the three-wheeler is 400 kg and the mass of the driver is 65 kg.

A) − 1162.5 N B) 116.25 N C) 1112 N D) None of these

2. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is now removed, then the
acceleration of the particle is
dy ra

A) B) C) D)
ya
3. A steel ball of volume 0.02 m3 is sinking at a speed of 10 m/s in a closed jar filled with a liquid of
density 2000 kg/m3. The momentum of the liquid is
Vi sha

A) 400 N/s B) 200 N/s C) 100 N/s D) 300 N/s


ala

4. The magnitude of the force (in N) acting on a body varies with time t (in μs) as shown. AB, BC and CD
are straight line segments. The magnitude of the total impulse of the force on the body form t = 4 μs to
t = 16 μs is
Ak

A) 5 × 10–3 N/s B) 5.8 × 10–3 N/s C) 5.8 × 103 N/s D) 5 × 103 N/s

5. A cricket ball of mass 0.5 kg strikes a bat normally with a velocity of 30 ms−1 and rebounds with a
velocity of 20 ms−1 in the opposite direction. The impulse of the force exerted by the ball on the bat is
:

A) 0.5 Ns B) 25 Ns C) 50 Ns D) 1.0 Ns

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6. Two small spheres of mass "m" each are tied at the ends of a light string of length "2a" The whose
system is kept on a frictionless horizontal surface with the string held tight so that each mass is at a
distance "a" from centre 'p' as shown. Now the mid point of the string is pulled vertically up with a
constant force 'F', as a result the particles more towards each other on the surface. The magnitude of
acceleration when the separation between them is "2x" is

A) B) C) D)

7. A body of mass 2 kg travels according to the law x(t) = pt + qt2 + rt3 where, q = 4 ms−2, p = 3 ms−1
and r = 5 ms−3. The force acting on the body at t = 2s is

A) 136 N B) 134 N C) 158 N D) 68 N


dy ra

8. A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force F for a brief interval of time T.
ya
It begins to move with a velocity u after the force stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a function of
time. The curve is a semicircle
Vi sha
ala
Ak

A) B) C) D)

9. When a body moves with some friction on a surface

A) It loses kinetic energy but momentum is constant

B) It loses kinetic energy but gains potential energy

C) Kinetic energy and momentum both decrease D) Mechanical energy is conserved

10. A machine-gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms−1. The man holding it can exert a
maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?

A) One B) Three C) Two D) Four

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11. A rope is stretched between two boats at rest. A sailor in the first boat pulls the rope with a constant
force of 100 N. First boat with the sailor has a mass of 250 kg whereas the mass of second boat is
double of this mass. If the initial distance between the boats was 100 m, the time taken for two boats to
meet each other is (neglect water resistance between boats and water)

A) 13.8 s B) 18.3 s C) 3.18 s D) 31.8 s

12. Following forces start acting on a particle at rest at the origin of the co-ordinate system simultaneously

then
the particle will move
dy ra

A) In x − y plane B) In y − z plane C) In x − z plane D) Along x - axis


ya
13. A stone weighing 1 kg and sliding on ice with a velocity of 2 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 sec. The
force of friction (assuming it to be constant) will be
Vi sha

A) −20 N B) −0.2 N C) 0.2 N D) 20 N


ala

14. A force of 19.6 N when applied parallel to the surface just moves a body of mass 10 kg kept on a
horizontal surface. If a 5 kg mass is kept on the first mass, the force applied parallel to the surface to
just move the combined body is

A) 29.4 N B) 39.2 N C) 18.6 N D) 42.6 N


Ak

15. Identify the correct statement

A) Static friction depends on the area of contact B) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact

C) Coefficient of kinetic friction does not depend on the surfaces in contact

D) Coefficient of static friction does not depend on the surfaces in contact

E) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction

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16. Consider the following two statements.


I. Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.
II. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero. Then,

A) I does not imply II and II does not imply I B) I implies II but II does not imply I

C) I does not imply II but II implies I D) I implies II and II implies I

17. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having same density and radii in the ratio 1 : 2. The
velocities are in the ratio

A) 2 : 1 B) 4 : 1 C) 6 : 1 D) 8 : 1

18. A gun fires a shell and recoils horizontally. If the shell travels along the barrel with speed v, the ratio of
speeds with which the gun recoils, if the barrel is (i) horizontal (ii) inclined at an angle of 30° with
horizontal, is

A) 1 B) C) D)

19. A 20 gm bullet moving with speed v gets embedded in a 10 kg block suspended from the ceiling by a
dy ra

massless rope. The block and the bullet swing to a height of 45 cm above the equilibrium position. The
initial speed of the bullet is (g = 10 ms–2)
ya
A) 1000 ms–1 B) 1100 ms–1 C) 1500 ms–1 D) 1503 ms–1
Vi sha

20. A body of mass 3 kg is acted on by a force which varies as shown in the graph below. The momentum
acquired is given by (given initial momentum = 0)
ala
Ak

A) Zero B) 5 N/s C) 30 N/s D) 50 N/s

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21. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60° with the wall. It gets
reflected with the same speed at 60° with the wall. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.2 s, the
average force exerted on the ball by the wall is

A) 300 N B) zero C) 150 N D) 150 N


dy ra

22.
A particle moves in the x-y plane under the action of force such that the value of its linear
ya
momentum at time t is Px = 2cost and Py = 2sint. The angle θ between and at time t will be

A) 90° B) 0° C) 180° D) 30°


Vi sha

23. A wooden block of mass 0.9 kg is suspended from the ceiling of a room by a long thin wire. A bullet of
ala

mass 0.1 kg moving horizontally with a speed of 100 m/s strikes the block and gets embedded in it.
The height to which the block rises will be (g = 10 m/s2)

A) 2.5 m B) 5.0 m C) 7.5 m D) 10.0 m


Ak

24. A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface vertically with a speed of 5 m/s and rebounds with the same
speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface for 0.01 s. The average force exerted by the surface
on the ball is

A) 100 N B) 10 N C) 1 N D) 0.1 N

25. A plate remains in equilibrium in air when n bullets are fired per second on it. The mass of each bullet
is m and it strikes the plate with speed v. The coefficient of restitution is e = 0.5. The mass of the plate
is

A) B) C) D)

26. A projectile of mass m is thrown with velocity v making an angle of 30° with vertical. Neglecting air
resistance the magnitude of change in momentum between the starting point and at the maximum
height is

A) B) C) mv D)

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27. A bullet weighing 50 gm leaves the gun with a velocity of 30 ms–1. If the recoil speed imparted to the
gun is 1 ms–1, the mass of the gun

A) 1.5 kg B) 15 kg C) 20 kg D) 30 kg

28. A particle moves in X-Y plane under the action of forces F such that the values of linear momentum 'p'
at any times is px = 2 cos t and py = 2 sin t. The angle between at the time t will be:

A) 0° B) 30° C) 90° D) 180°

29. A block of mass 2 kg is free to move along the x-axis. It is at rest and from t = 0 onwards. It is
subjected to a time-dependent force F(t) in the x-direction. The force F(t) varies with t as shown in the
following figure. The kinetic energy of the block after 4.5 seconds is
dy ra
ya
A) 4.50 J B) 7.50 J C) 5.06 J D) 14.06 J
Vi sha

30. A shell of mass 200 g is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is 80 m s−1,
ala

then the recoil speed of the gun is

A) 16 cm s−1 B) 8 cm s−1 C) 8 m s−1 D) 16 m s−1

31. There are four forces acting at a point P produced by strings as shown in figure, which is at rest. The
force F1 and F2 are
Ak

A) B) C) D)

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32. Two carts on horizontal straight rails are pushed apart by an explosion of a power charge Q placed
between the carts. Suppose the coefficients of frictions between the carts, rails are identical. If 200 kg
cart travels a distance of 36 m and stops, the distance covered by the cart weighing 300 kg is

A) 32 m B) 24 m C) 16 m D) 12 m

33. A 100 kg gun fires a ball of 1 kg horizontally from a cliff of height 500 m. It falls on the ground at a
distance of 400 m from the bottom of the cliff. The recoil velocity of the gun is (Take g = 10 m s−2)

A) 0.2 m s−1 B) 0.4 m s−1 C) 0.6 m s−1 D) 0.8 m s−1

34. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with 300 m/s hits a block of ice of mass 5 kg and drops dead. The
velocity of ice is

A) 50 cm/s B) 60 cm/s C) 40 cm/s D) 30 cm/s

35. A monkey of mass m kg slides down a light rope attached to a fixed spring balance, with an
acceleration a. The reading of this balance is w kg, then (g = acceleration due to gravity)

A) B)
dy ra
ya
C) the force of friction exerted by the rope on the monkey is m(g − a), newton

D) the tension in the rope is wg newton


Vi sha

36. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is moving with a velocity v of 2 ms−1. It is subjected to a force of x newton in 2
ala

s. Because of this force, the ball moves with a velocity of 3 ms−1. The value of x is

A) 5 N B) 8.25 N C) 0.25 N D) 1 N

37. The average force necessary to stop a bullet of mass 20 g moving with a speed of 250 m/s, as it
Ak

penetrates into the wood for a distance of 12 cm is

A) 2.2 × 103 N B) 3.2 × 103 N C) 4.2 × 103 N D) 5.2 × 103 N

38. A force of 50 dynes is acted on a body of mass 5 g which is at rest for an interval of 3 seconds, then
impulse is

A) 0.15 × 10−3 N-s B) 0.98 × 10−3 N-s C) 1.5 × 10−3 N-s D) 2.5 × 10−3 N-s

39. Three equal masses of 1kg each are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle PQR and a mass of
2kg is placed at the centroid O of the triangle which is at a distance of from each of the vertices
of the triangle. The force, in newton, acting on the, mass of 2kg is

A) 2 B) C) 1 D) Zero

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40. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now a force of is applied on the object then
velocity of object at t = 3 sec. is

A) B) C) D)

41. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two
are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12ms−1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8
ms−1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms−1, its mass would be

A) 5 kg B) 7 kg C) 17 kg D) 3 kg

42. A batsman hits back a ball of mass 0.15 kg straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its
initial speed of 10 ms−1. If the ball moves linearly, then the impulse imparted on it (in Ns) is

A) 3.0 B) 2.0 C) 1.5 D) 1.9

43. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces, two of which of mass M/4 each are thrown off in
perpendicular directions with velocities of 3 m/s and 4 m/s respectively. The third piece will be thrown
off with a velocity of
dy ra

A) 1.5 m/s B) 2.0 m/s C) 2.5 m/s D) 3.0 m/s


ya
44. The linear momentum of a particle varies with time t as p = a + bt + ct2. Then, which of the following
is correct?
Vi sha

A) Velocity of particle is inversely proportional to time


ala

B) Displacement of the particle is independent of time

C) Force varies with time in a quadratic manner D) Force is dependent linearly on time
Ak

45. The square of resultant of two equal forces is three times their product. Angle between the forces is

A) π B) C) D)

46. If coefficient of static friction is μs and coefficient of kinetic friction is μk, which is correct?

A) μs = μk B) μs > μk C) μs < μk D) Cannot predict

47. An object is moving on a plane surface with uniform velocity 10 ms−1 in presence of a force 10 N. The
frictional force between the object and the surface is

A) 1 N B) − 10 N C) 10 N D) 100 N

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48. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is

A) 24 N s B) 20 N s C) 12 N s D) 6 N s

49. A machine gun fires bullets per second and the mass of each bullet is . If the speed of the bullet is
then, the force exerted on the machine gun is:

A) B) C) D)
dy ra

50. If nucleus at rest decays by emitting an alphaparticle with a speed of . The recoil speed of
residual nucleus in is :
ya
A) B) C) D) .
Vi sha

Chemistry
51. Which of the following species is carbene?
ala

A) B) : CCl2 C) CH2 = C = O

D)
Ak

52. Most stable carbonium ion is

+ + +
A) p – NO2 – C6H4 – CH2 B) C6H5CH2 C) p – Cl – C6H4 – CH2

D) p – CH3O – C6H4 – CH2+

53. Mark out the correct nucleophilicity order in DMF.

A) B)

C) D)

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54. Consider the following nucleophiles:


I – H2O,
II – CH3COO–,
III – ,
IV – CH3O–
The correct order of decreasing nucleophilicity is,

A) I > II > III > IV B) IV > III > II > I C) IV > I > II > III D) IV > II > III > I

55. Choose the correct order of acidic strength of the following


dy ra
ya
A) I < II < III < IV B) I < II < IV < III C) I < II < IV < III D) I < II > III < IV

56. Arrange these compounds in order of increasing SN1 reaction rate


Vi sha
ala
Ak

A) IV < II < III < I B) I < II < III < IV C) IV < I < III < II D) IV < I < II < III

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57. Consider the following compounds:

Identify Ha and Hb hydrogens in the above compounds.


I II III I II III
(a) Diastereotopic Enantiotopic Homotopic (b) Enantiotopic Diastereotopic Homotopic
A) B)
I II III
(c) Homotopic Diastereotopic Diastereotopic
C)
I II III
dy ra

(d) Homotopic Diastereotopic Enantiotopic


D)
ya
Vi sha
ala
Ak

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58. In the following reaction, most stable intermediate is

A) B)
dy ra
ya
C)
Vi sha
ala

D)
Ak

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59. Major and minor product of E2 reaction of

are

A)
dy ra
ya
Vi sha

B)
ala
Ak

C)

D)

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60. Relative stabilities of the following carbocation will be in order

A) I < II < III < IV B) IV < III < II < I C) IV < II < III < I D) II < IV < III < I

61. Which is dehydrated to a maximum extent using conc. H2SO4?


dy ra
ya
Vi sha

A) C)
ala

B)
Ak

D)

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62. Maximum hyperconjugation is observed in

A) B)

C)

D)

63. The correct order of acidity of the following compound is


dy ra

A) RCOOH > C2H2 > H2O > ROH B) RCOOH > ROH > H2O > C2H2
ya
C) RCOOH > ROH > C2H2 > H2O D) RCOOH > H2O > ROH > C2H2
Vi sha

64. Increasing values of dissociation constant Ka of CH3COOH (I), HCOOH (II) and C6H5COOH (III) are
ala

A) I < II < III B) III < II < I C) I < III < II D) II < III < I

65. Assertion A compound with delocalised electron is more stable than that compound would be if all its
electrons were localised.
Reason The extra stability, a compound gains as a result of having delocalised electrons, is called
Ak

delocalisation energy.

A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C) Assertion is true but Reason is false. D) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

66. Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This can be explained using

A) + M effect B) − I effect C) + I effect D) − M effect

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67. Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms free radicals CH3 — CH3, CH3 — CH2 — CH3,
(CH3)2CH — CH3, CH3 — CH2 — CH(CH3)2. Increasing order of stability of the radicals is

A)

B)
dy ra

C)
ya
Vi sha
ala

D)
68. The reaction (CH ) C — Br → (CH ) C+ + Br− is an example of
3 3 3 3

A) Homolytic fission B) Heterolytic fission C) cracking D) None of the above


Ak

69. Which of the following carbo cations is least stable

A) B)

C)

D)

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70. With a change in hybridization of the carbon bearing the charge, the stability of a carbanion increase in
the order.

2 3 3 2 3 2 2 3
A) sp < sp < sp B) sp < sp < sp C) sp < sp < sp D) sp < sp < sp

71. Carbocations are stablized by three main structural factors. Such factors are neighboring carbon atoms,
neighboring carbon-carbon multiple bonds and neighboring atoms with lone pairs. Most stable among
the following carbocations is

B)

A)
C)
dy ra

D)
ya
72. Consider the following four carbonyl compounds:
Vi sha
ala
Ak

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of reactivity towards
nucleophilic addition reaction of the above compounds?

A) III > I > II > IV B) IV > II > I > III C) II > IV > I > III D) IV > III > II > I

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73. Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

A)

B) C)

D)

74. Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take
dy ra

place?
ya
Vi sha

A) B)
ala

C)
D)
Ak

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75. Carbanion (A) loses a leaving group to form alkene. Which is/are correct statement(s)?

A) It is E1-CB type B) It is E2 type C) It is E1 type D) None of these

76. Consider the following compounds:


dy ra
ya
Vi sha

What is the correct sequence of the compounds given above in decreasing order of their SN1
ala

reactivity?

A) I > II > III B) I > III > II C) II > III > I D) III > I > II

77. The addition of HBr in the presence of peroxides is called


Ak

A) radical addition reaction B) carbocation addition reaction C) nucleophilic addition reaction

D) electrophilic addition reaction

78. Nucleophilic addition will be maximum in

A) HCHO B) C6H5CHO C) CH3CHO D) CH3COCH3

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79. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism

A) Both I and II B) Both II and III C) III only D) Both I and III

80. Which of the following free radicals is the most stable

A) B) C) D)

81. Which of the following compounds will produce a precipitate with AgNO3?
dy ra
ya
A)
Vi sha

B) C)
D)
ala

82. In which of the compounds given below is there more than one kind of hybridisation
for carbon
(i)
(ii) |
(iii)
Ak

(iv)

A) (ii) and (iv) B) (i) and (iv) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (ii)

83. Which of the following is the most stable compound

A) B) C) D)

84. Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction of (I) (II) , (III)


is

A) B) C) D)

85. In the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is

A) B) C) D)

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86. Which is the most stable carbocation

A) iso-propyl B) Triphenylmethyl cation C) Ethyl cation D) -propyl cation

87. Formation of ethylene from acetylene is an example of

A) Elimination reaction B) Substitution reaction C) Addition reaction

D) Condensation reaction

88. Conversion of to is an example of which of the following reaction

A) Electrophilic substitution B) Free radical addition C) Nucleophilic substitution

D) Free radical substituion

89. Following reaction, is an example of

A) Elimination reaction B) Free radical substitution C) Nucleophilic substitution


dy ra

D) Electrophilic substitution
ya
90. Bromination of alkanes involves
Vi sha

A) Carbanions B) Carbocations C) Carbenes D) Free radicals


ala

91. Number of optical isomers of lactic acid are

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

92. Which one is electrophilic addition


Ak

A) B)

C) D)

93. Which of the following compounds are not arranged in order of decreasing reactivity towards
electrophilic substitution

A) Fluoro benzene chloro benzene bromo benzene

B) Phenol -propyl benzene benzoic acid

C) Chloro toluene para-nitro toluene -chloro- 4 -nitro toluene

D) Benzoic acid > phenol > n-propyl benzene

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94. In electrophilic substitution reaction nitrobenzene is

A) Meta-directing B) Ortho-directing C) Para-directing

D) Not reactive and does not undergo any substitution

95. Following reaction, is an example of

A) Elimination reaction B) Free radical substitution C) Nucleophilic substitution

D) Electrophilic substitution

96. Most stable carbonium ion is

A) B) C) D)

97. Which one of the following species is most stable


dy ra

A) B) C)
ya
D)
Vi sha

98. Which of the following orders regarding relative stability of free radicals is correct
ala

A) B) C) D)

99. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity

A) B) C) D)
Ak

100. The shape of carbonium is

A) Planar B) Pyramidal C) Linear D) None of these

Botany
101. Casparian bands are found in

A) Endodermis B) Pericycle C) Periderm D) Cortex

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102. Mark the correct statement given below which depicts the characteristic anatomy of monocot stem.

A) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, vascular bundles are closed, phloem parenchyma is present.

B) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, vascular bundles are closed, phloem parenchyma is absent.

C) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous, vascular bundles are open, phloem parenchyma is absent.

D) Hypodermis is collenchymatous, vascular bundles are closed, phloem parenchyma is present.

103. Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in

A) central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.

B) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.

C) phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
dy ra

D) testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
ya
104. The layer of cells outside the phloem meant for giving rise to the root branches is called
Vi sha

A) cambium B) pericycle C) endodermis D) radicle


ala

105. Which of the statement given below is not correct?

A) Motor cells or bulliform cells are found in epidermis of dicot leaf.

B) In dicot leaf, mesophyll tissue is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
Ak

C) The roots are produced endogenously form the pericycle.

D)

The stele composed of two or more than two concentric rings of vascular bundles is called
polycyclic.

106. Casparian strip is made up of

A) chitin B) pectin C) suberin D) cellulose

107. In the leaf vascular bundles are found in the

A) veins B) palisade parenchyma C) spongy parenchyma D) All of these

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108. Why are vascular bundles closed in monocots?

A) Xylem and phloem are present B) Xylem and phloem occur in separate bundles

C) Vascular cambium is present between xylem and phloem D) Vascular cambium is not present

109. Mark the odd one w.r.t T.s of a plant's part


dy ra
ya
A) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring B) Epidermis is covered by a thin layer of cuticle
Vi sha

C) The cells of the endodermis have a deposition of water - impermeable, waxy material
ala

D) Pericycle contains both sclerenchyma and parenchyma

110. Triarch vascular bundles may be found in

A) monocots B) dicot roots C) dicots D) monocot roots


Ak

111. In an isobilateral (monocot) leaf, the stomata are

A) usually absent or less abundant in upper epidermis

B) usually absent or less abundant in lower epidermis

C) almost equally distributed in upper and lower epidermis D) numerous in lower epidermis

112. The guard cells of the stomata present in the epidermis of monocot stems are

A) rounded B) dumb bell-shaped C) kidney-shaped D) None of these

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113. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root.Which of the following anatomical
structures will you use to distinguish between the two?

A) Secondary xylem B) Secondary phloem C) Protoxylem D) Cortical cells

114. Pith and cortex do not differentiate in

A) monocot stem B) dicot stem C) monocot root D) dicot root

115. The alternate name of bulliform cells is

A) guard cells B) sheath cells C) myrosin cells D) motor cells

116. Piliferous layer refers to

A) epiblema B) exodermis C) epidermis D) pericycle

117. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of

A) mustard B) soyabean C) gram D) sorghum


dy ra

118. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cell of


ya
A) endodermis B) pericycle C) medullary rays D) xylem parenchyma

119. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is found in


Vi sha

A) monocot roots B) dicot roots C) dicot stems D) monocot stems


ala

120. The epidermis of a young dicot stem is covered by a waxy coating is called

A) waxylene B) suberin C) waxogen D) cuticle

121. Polyarch condition is found in


Ak

A) monocot root B) dicot root C) monocot stem D) dicot stem

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122. Identify the vascular bundles given in the following figures.

A) A-Closed vascular bundle, B-Open vascular bundle

B) A-Radial vascular bundle, B-Open vascular bundle

C) A-Amphivasal vascular bundle, B-Amphicribral vascular bundle

D) A-Amphicribral vascular bundle, B-Amphivasal vascular bundle


dy ra

123. The stele is composed of


ya
A) vascular bundle B) pith and vascular bundle C) cortex and endodermis D) pith and cortex

124. Which of the following composes the hypodermis of a dicot stem?


Vi sha

A) Parenchyma B) Collenchyma C) Sclerenchyma D) Aerenchyma


ala

125. Number of vascular bundles in a leaf-vein of dicot

A) increases towards the margin B) decreases towards the margin


Ak

C) is same towards the base and the margin D) All of the above

126. Interfascicular cambium is found

A) between pith and vascular bundle B) between two vascular bundles C) in the vascular bundle

D) outside the bundle

127. Radial conduction of water takes place by

A) vessels B) vessels and tracheids C) phloem D) ray parenchymatous cells

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128. Two cross-sections of stem and root appear simple, when viewed by naked eye. But under microscope,
they can be differentiated by

A) exarch condition of root and stem B) endarch condition of stem and root

C) endarch condition of root and exarch condition of stem

D) endarch condition of stem and exarch condition of root

129. Which of the following plant shows multiple epidermis?

A) Croton B) Allium C) Nerium D) Cucurbita

130. Most of the dicot leaves are

A) unifacial B) equifacial C) Both (a) and (b) D) bifacial

131. Which of the following lack stomata in their epidermis (epiblema)?

A) Dicot roots B) Dicot stems C) Monocot stems D) Both (a) and (c)
dy ra
ya
132. The lower surface of leaf will have more number of stomata in a

A) dorsiventral leaf B) isobilateral leaf C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of these
Vi sha

133. The type of cells that are predominant in potato tubers are
ala

A) phloem cells B) spongy cells C) parenchyma cells D) parenchyma and collenchyma cells.

134. Select the odd one w.r.t function of epidermal tissue system

A) Preventing water loss B) Protection C) Absorption of water and minerals


Ak

D) Translocation of sugar

135. Hypodermis of monocot stem consists of

A) parenchyma B) chlorenchyma C) sclerenchyma D) collenchyma

136. All given tissues are formed as a result of redifferentiation process, except

A) Phellem B) Phelloderm C) Secondary xylem D) Interfascicular cambium

137. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes, because they lack

A) Thick-walled tracheids B) Xylem fibres C) Cambium D) Phloem fibres

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138. Which of following tissue systems constitute bulk of plant body?

A) Epidermal tissue system B) Ground tissue system C) Vascular tissue system

D) Both (a) and (c)

139. Identify the plants (from the list i-vi) which possess the given type of guard cells (as shown in the
diagram) in their leaves.
dy ra
ya
(i) Grass (ii) Tomato (iii) Banana
(iv) Brinjal (v) Soybean (vi) Lily
Vi sha

A) (i), (ii) and (v) B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) C) (i), (iii) and (vi) D) (iv), (v) and (vi)
ala

140. Ground tissue includes

A) All tissues internal to endodermis B) All tissues external to endodermis


Ak

C) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles D) Epidermis and cortex

141. Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of

A) Hydrophytes B) Xerophytes C) Mesophytes D) Epiphytes

142. In a dorsiventral leaf, what is true regarding the position of xylem?

A) Xylem is towards adaxial epidermis B) Xylem towards abaxial epidermis

C) Xylem surrounds phloem D) Xylem is surrounded by phloem

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143. A typical monocotyledonous root is characterized by

A) usually more than six xylem bundles B) large and well developed pith

C) no secondary growth D) all of these

144. Which type of arrangement of vascular bundles occurs in the roots of monocots?

A) Conjoint open B) Radial C) Conjoint closed D) Bicollateral

145. The casparian strips are present on the plant cells of root which are

A) Bean-shaped B) Dumb-bell shaped C) Barrel-shaped D) Lens-shaped

146. The central most portion of stem of dicotyledonous plants is occupied by

A) Vascular bundles B) Pericycle C) Pith D) Cortex

147. The size of vascular bundles in a dorsiventral leaf is dependent on


dy ra

A) Size of lamina B) Size of veins C) Number of stomata D) Number of veins


ya
148. During water stress, the bulliform cells
(a) Become turgid
(b) Become flaccid
Vi sha

(c) Make the leaves curl inwards


(d) Make the leaf surface exposed
The correct options are
ala

A) (a) & (c) B) (b) & (d) C) (a) & (d) D) (b) & (c)

149. Centripetal and centrifugal xylem are the important features of


Ak

A) Root and stem respectively B) Exarch and endarch respectively

C) Endarch and exarch respectively D) Both (1) & (2)

150. Closed vascular bundles lack

A) Cambium B) Pith C) Ground tissue D) Conjunctive tissue

Zoology
151. Read the following statements and select the right option having both correct statements.
(i) In simple cuboidal epithelium nuclei are rounded and lie in the centre of the cells.
(ii) Non-keratinized epithelium is impermeable to water.
(iii) Yellow elastic fibrocartilage makes cartilage flexible.
(iv) Areolar tissue forms a shock absorbing cushion around the eye balls and kidneys.

A) (i) and (iii) B) (i) and (ii) C) (iii) and (iv) D) (ii) and (iv)

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152. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently
?

A) Hyaline cartilage B) Ciliated epithelium C) Thrombocytes D) Tendon

153. Given figure represents a type of connective tissue with certain labelled structures A, B, C and D

Which of the following option correctly defines the labelled structure?


dy ra

A) A − Mast cell − Secretes histamine, heparin and serotonin


ya
B) B − Fibroblast − Secrete major amount of matrix
Vi sha

C) C − Elastic fibres − Provides tissue tensile strength D) D − Macrophage − Engulf germ particle
ala

154. Histamine secreted by

A) Mast cells B) Fibroblast C) Histiocytes D) Plasma cells

155. Match the following columns.


Ak

Column I Column II
A. Eardrum 1. Ciliated epithelium
B. Vagina 2. Stratified squamous
C. Urinary bladder 3. Simple squamous
D. Trachea 4. Transitional epithelium
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 4 1 4 1 2 3
A) B) C) D)
156. The endothelium of blood vessel is composed of

A) cuboidal epithelium B) columnar epithelium C) squamous epithelium

D) ciliated epithelium

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157. Gives below is a diagram of epithelial living

A) it is found in the walls of blood vessels and air such of lungs

B) it is mainly present in the inner surface of follow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tube

C)

It covers the dry surface of skin Moist surface of because cavity and has a limited rate in creation and
absorption
dy ra

D)
ya
it is commonly found in ducts of glandh and tubular parts of nephrons and it main function are
secretion and absorption.
Vi sha

158. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
ala

A) striated muscle B) areolar tissue C) stratified epithelium D) myelinated nerve fibres

159. Haversian canals occur in

A) humerus B) pubis C) scapula D) clavicle


Ak

160. Neurilemma is an outer covering of

A) blood capillaries B) muscle fibre C) intestine D) nerve fibre

161. Blood is a

A) epithelial tissue B) muscular tissue C) connective tissue D) supportive tissue

162. Inter-vertebral discs are composed of

A) hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) fibrous cartilage D) None of these

163. In a vertebrate, which germ layer forms the skeleton muscles?

A) Ectoderm B) Endoderm C) Mesoderm D) Both (a) and (c)

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164. The amount of collagen is highest in

A) neonates B) old people C) infants D) adult

165. Supportive connective tissue means

A) tendon B) cartilage and bone C) ligament D) blood and lymph

166. Centrosomes are absent in

A) nerve cells B) epithelial cells C) germinal cells D) All of these

167. Nerve fibres differ from the muscle fibres in having

A) dendrites B) sarcolemma C) myofibrils D) striations

168. Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells are seen in

A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) skeletal muscle tissue D) smooth muscle tissue

169. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location
dy ra
ya
Vi sha
ala
Ak

A) Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the wall of the heart.

B) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart.

C) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, attached with the bones of the ribs.

D) Skeletal muscles show striations and are closely attached with the bones of the limbs.

170. Bones and blood are

A) mesodermal in origin B) endodermal in origin C) Both (a) and (b) D) ectodermal in origin

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171. Ligament is a/an

A) inelastic white fibrous tissue B) modified white fibrous tissue

C) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue D) none of the above

172. Goblet cells are a type of

A) multicellular gland B) intracellular gland C) unicellular gland D) intercellular gland

173. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in

A) connective tissue B) epithelial tissue C) neural tissue D) muscular tissue

174. Which of the following statements about muscle is true?

A) Smooth muscle is multinucleate

B) Differentiated smooth muscle cells retain the ability to undergo cell division
dy ra

C) Cardiac muscle is voluntary D) None of the above


ya
175. An example of holocrine gland is a
Vi sha

A) sweat gland B) salivary gland C) pancreatic gland D) sebaceous gland


ala

176. Tissue (interstitial) fluid would most likely be found in

A) loose connective tissue B) nervous tissue C) adipose tissue D) bone tissue

177. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over


Ak

A) nerve fibre B) cardiac muscle C) muscle fibre D) heart

178. The main function of the connective tissue is

A) Facilitate diffusion B) Hold other tissues together C) Store nutrients

D) Help transportation of dissolved materials from capillaries to epithelial cells

179. Find out the wrongly matched pair

A) Squamous epithelium — Skin of frog B) Columnar epithelium — Peritoneum of body cavity

C) Ciliated epithelium — Bronchioles D) Stratified cuboidal epithelium — Oesophagus.

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180. The longest cell in the human may be

A) nerve cell B) cells of leg muscles C) bone cell D) cells of alimentary canal

181. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in

A) human males B) human females C) both male and female frogs D) male frogs.

182. The closed circulatory system is found in

A) insects B) frog C) clams D) lobsters

183. Frog is

A) ammonotelic B) ureotelic C) uricotelic D) None of these

184. Bidder's canal is present in

A) male frog B) male rabbit C) female frog D) Both (b) and (c)

185. which of the following is present in the skin of frog ?


dy ra

A) Mucous gland B) poison gland C) Chromatophores D) All of the above


ya
186. How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in frog ?
Vi sha

A) 10 B) 9 C) 8 D) 12
ala

187. Sensory papillae in frog is

A) organ of taste B) organ of touch C) organ of smell D) organ of vision

188. The most important respiratory organ of frog is


Ak

A) buccopharyngeal cavity B) lungs C) gills D) skin

189. Excretory product of frog is

A) ammonia B) urea C) uric acid D) sweat

190. In which of the following urinogenital duct is found?

A) Male frog B) Female frog C) Reptiles only D) Birds only

191. Mucus helps frog in forming

A) thick skin B) dry skin C) smooth skin D) moist skin

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192. Frogs differ from humans in possessing

A) paired cerebral hemispheres B) hepatic portal system C) nucleated red blood cells

D) thyroid as well as parathyroid

193. The kidney of an adult frog is

A) metanephros B) opisthonephros C) pronephros D) mesonephros

194. What is the sexual embrance of the frog called?

A) Copulation B) Coitus C) Conjugation D) Amplexus

195. Frog's ear has no

A) middle ear B) internal ear C) eustachian tube D) external ear

196. frog has


dy ra

A) separate urinary system B) separate genital system C) urinogenital system


ya
D) reproductive system

197. The process of series of changes from larva to adult after embryonic development is called
Vi sha

A) regeneration B) growth C) metamorphosis D) ageing


ala

198. The epithelial lining of the alveoli of frog's lung facing lung cavity is

A) columnar, non-ciliated B) columnar, ciliated C) squamous, ciliated


Ak

D) squamous, non-ciliated

199. In frogs, sexual dimorphism is shown by

A) Presence of sound producing vocal sacs in male frogs which are absent in female frogs.

B)

Male frogs have a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs which are absent in female frogs.

C) Both A and B. D) None of the above.

200. In frog, for the digestion of food, wall of the stomach secretes
A) Pepsins and renin b) Amylase and tryptophanase B) and gastric juices d) and pepsin

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