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Vajiram & Ravi: Test

The document contains the answer key and explanations for a Science & Technology test conducted by Vajiram & Ravi for IAS Prelims CAMP 2024. It includes detailed explanations for various questions related to cosmology, astrophysics, nanotechnology, and recent scientific developments. Each question is accompanied by its correct answer and relevant context to enhance understanding of the concepts discussed.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

12 views36 pages

Vajiram & Ravi: Test

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ar.monishakrishh

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VAJIRAM & RAVI

Institute for IAS Examination

PRELIMS CAMP 2024

Test - 19/29
Batch 1 and 2
Science & Tech

Explanation
VAJIRAM & RAVI

Answer Key – Prelims CAMP ST-02-Science & Technology (17-02-2024)

1. (B) 11. (D) 21. (A) 31. (B) 41. (B)

2. (B) 12. (A) 22. (A) 32. (B) 42. (B)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (C) 33. (A) 43. (B)

4. (C) 14. (C) 24. (A) 34. (A) 44. (B)

5. (D) 15. (A) 25. (C) 35. (C) 45. (C)

6. (A) 16. (B) 26. (B) 36. (C) 46. (D)

7. (B) 17. (B) 27. (C) 37. (D) 47. (D)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (A) 48. (C)

9. (A) 19. (A) 29. (D) 39. (C) 49. (D)

10. (B) 20. (B) 30. (D) 40. (B) 50. (B)

Q1.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Friedmann equations:
● They are a set of equations in physical cosmology that govern the expansion of space in
homogeneous and isotropic models of the universe within the context of general
relativity.
● They were first derived by Alexander Friedmann in 1922 from Einstein's field equations
of gravitation. According to the equations, the Universe isn't static. It either expands or
contracts depending on the rate of expansion and the contents of the Universe.
● The Friedmann equation derived from Newtonian mechanics accounts only for the
gravity contribution to energy and neglects the pressure contribution to the total
energy.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Maxwell's Equation: They are a set of 4 complicated equations that describe the world
of electromagnetics. These equations describe how electric and magnetic fields
propagate, interact, and how they are influenced by objects.

Vajiram & Ravi - An Institute for IAS Preparation | Delhi Branch- 9-B, Bada Bazar Marg, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi-110060 | Chennai Branch - Vajiram
& Ravi New No. 62, P Block, 6th Avenue, Anna nagar, Chennai - 600040 | E-mail: online@vajiramandravi.com | Tel: 080-6220-6330
VAJIRAM & RAVI

● Wave Equation: It was derived by French polymath Jean-Baptiste le Rond d'Alembert

describing the vibrations of an oscillating string or the movement of a wave.
● Shannon's information Equation: It is an equation that shows the maximum efficiency
at which information could be transmitted.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Conceptual

Q2.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Chandrasekhar limit is the maximum mass of a stable white dwarf star. This limiting
value was named for the Indian-born astrophysicist Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, who
formulated it in 1930. The maximum mass is at which a star near the end of its life cycle
can become a white dwarf and above which the star will collapse to form a neutron star
or black hole. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Chandrasekhar value for a white dwarf star is generally considered to be 1.4 solar
masses, that is 1.4 times the mass of the sun. First predicted by Subrahmanyan
Chandrasekhar in 1931, the Chandrasekhar limit mass has so far corresponded well with
observations as one is yet to find a white dwarf with a mass above 1.4 solar masses. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● Before reaching a white dwarf state, stars first lose mass by shedding their outer layers.
This means that the 1.4 solar masses usually represent the stellar core that is left behind.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual, Conceptual

Q3.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Gravitational lensing occurs when a massive celestial body — such as a galaxy cluster —
causes a sufficient curvature of spacetime for the path of light around it to be visibly
bent, as if by a lens. The body causing the light to curve is accordingly called a gravitational
lens. Gravitational lensing probes the distribution of matter in galaxies and clusters of
galaxies and enables observations of the distant universe.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: European Southern Observatory has recently released the images of galaxies forming
a flower-like pattern due to gravitational lensing.

Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments

Tags: Factual

Q4.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Tidal Disruption Events (TDE) occur when a star passes too close to a compact object,
such as a supermassive black hole, that the tidal field of the compact object is able to
overcome the stellar self-gravity and tear the star apart. It occurs when the black hole's
tidal gravity exceeds the star's self-gravity. So, statement 1 is correct.
● When a black hole swallows approaching stars, it shreds them into strands like spaghetti
while the rest of its matter settles into an accretion disk that steadily feeds the black hole.
● As this happens a jet of light particles is emitted. It appears as an intensely bright flash
of light coming from halfway across the universe. It appears extremely bright because of
an effect called Doppler boosting. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Doppler boosting is the process by which relativistic effects modify the apparent
luminosity of emitting matter that is moving at speeds close to the speed of light.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Astronomers at MIT have discovered a new tidal disruption event, shining brightly in
infrared.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual, Current Affairs

Q5.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Nanotechnology refers to the branch of science and engineering devoted to designing,
producing and using structures, devices and systems by manipulating atoms and
molecules at the nanoscale, i.e., having one or more dimensions of the order of 100
nanometres (100 millionth of a millimetre) or less.
● Gold nanoparticle conjugates can be used for multimodal imaging and synergistic
phototherapy to destroy cancer cells effectively at power densities below the skin
tolerance threshold. So, point 1 is correct.
● Water purification using nanotechnology exploits nanoscopic materials such as carbon
nanotubes and alumina fibers for nanofiltration. It also utilises the existence of
nanoscopic pores in zeolite filtration membranes, as well as nanocatalysts and magnetic
nanoparticles. Nanosensors, such as those based on titanium oxide nanowires or

palladium nanoparticles are used for the analytical detection of contaminants in water
samples. So, point 2 is correct.
● Electrospinning is a new technique of manufacturing nanomaterials, to produce a novel
fabric that offers high-performance protection against electromagnetic interference.
So, point 3 is correct.
● Silver nanoparticles (AgNPs) have antimicrobial properties and can be combined with
both non-degradable and edible polymers for active food packaging. This helps increase
the shelf life of the food. So, point 4 is correct.
So, all four of the above can be successfully carried out by using Nanotechnology.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: ICAR-Central Institute of Research on Cotton Technology, organised a five-day
training programme on “Advances in Applications of Nanotechnology”.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nanotechnology
Tags: Factual, Current Affairs

Q6.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Nanites/Nanoid robotics/Nanorobotics/Nanobotics is a mechanical or electromechanical
device. It is an emerging technology that refers to nanotechnology, an engineering
discipline that can design and build nanorobots ranging in size from 0.1 to 10
micrometres and construction of nanoscale/molecular components. The terms
Nanobots, Nanomachine, and Nanomite have also been used to describe such devices.
They are largely in the research and development phase, but some primitive molecular
machines and nanomotors have been tested.
● The first useful applications of nanomachines may be in nanomedicines, e.g. - biological
machines could be used to identify and destroy cancer cells, surgical instrumentation,
diagnosis, drug delivery, etc. While helping to curb climate change, it can facilitate the
measurement of pollutant concentrations in the environment, etc. Earlier nanites have
been tested for water purification purposes. Also, highly complex molecular machines
have been proposed that are aimed at the goal of constructing molecular assemblers in
Chemistry. The 2016 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded for the design and synthesis
of molecular machines.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Recent Developments
Tags: Factual, Analytical

Q7.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Liquid nano urea is a revolutionary agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants. It is
sprayed directly on the leaves and gets absorbed by the plant. Fertilisers in nano form
provide a targeted supply of nutrients to crops, as they are absorbed by the stomata. It is
recommended for application only as a foliar spray at critical growth stages of crops. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● Liquid nano urea has a shelf life of a year. It is not likely to undergo ‘caking’ when it
comes in contact with moisture. While conventional urea has an efficiency of about 25
per cent, the efficiency of liquid nano urea can be as high as 85-90 per cent. Conventional
urea fails to have the desired impact on crops as it is often applied incorrectly and the
nitrogen in it is vaporised or lost as gas. A lot of nitrogen is also washed away during
irrigation. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Urea is a chemical nitrogen fertiliser, white in colour, which artificially provides nitrogen,
a major nutrient required by plants. Liquid Nano Urea is a patented and indigenously
made liquid that contains nanoparticles of urea. The Indian Farmers Fertiliser
Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) has developed and patented nano urea liquid technology.
So, statement 3 is correct.
● Nano urea helps in minimising the environmental footprint by reducing the loss of
nutrients from agriculture fields in the form of leaching and gaseous emissions which used
to cause environmental pollution and climate change.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to the Minister of Chemicals and Fertilisers, the total number of plants
producing nano-liquid urea in the country will be increased to 13 from nine at present by 2025.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nanotechnology
Tags: Conceptual, Factual

Q8.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Quasars are a subclass of Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs), extremely luminous galactic
cores where gas and dust falling into a supermassive black hole emit electromagnetic
radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum. Simply put, quasars are the blazing
centers of active galaxies and are powered by a supermassive black hole feeding on
humongous quantities of gas.

● The gas and dust become luminous as a result of the extreme gravitational and frictional
forces exerted on them as they fall into the black hole.
● Quasars are amongst the most luminous objects in the known Universe, typically
emitting thousands of times more light than the entire Milky Way.
● They are distinguished from other AGNs by their enormous luminosity and their
enormous distances from Earth. As the speed of light is finite, objects observed from Earth
are seen as they were when the light we see left them.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The James Webb Space Telescope has recently discovered massive Galaxies forming
around a red Quasar.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q9.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Rogue planets are cosmic objects that have masses similar to the planets in the Solar
System but do not orbit a star, instead roaming freely on their own. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● A team of astronomers, using data from several European Southern Observatory (ESO)
telescopes and other facilities, have just discovered at least 70 new rogue planets in the
Milky Way galaxy. This is the largest group of rogue planets ever discovered, an important
step towards understanding the origins and features of these mysterious galactic
nomads. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Rogue planets, lurking far away from any star illuminating them, would normally be
impossible to capture. However, astronomers took advantage of the fact that, in the few
million years after their formation, these planets are still hot enough to glow, making
them directly detectable by sensitive cameras on large telescopes. They found at least
70 new rogue planets with masses comparable to Jupiter’s in a star-forming region close
to our Sun, located within the Scorpius and Ophiuchus constellations.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Astronomers have discovered the largest group of rogue planets.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q10.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
● These are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per
unit, which is about one-third of the generating capacity of traditional nuclear power
reactors.
● In comparison to existing reactors, proposed SMR designs are generally simpler and the
safety concept for SMRs often relies more on passive systems and inherent safety
characteristics of the reactor, such as low power and operating pressure. This means that
in such cases no human intervention or external power or force is required to shut down
systems, because passive systems rely on physical phenomena, such as natural
circulation, convection, gravity and self-pressurisation. These increased safety margins,
in some cases, eliminate or significantly lower the potential for unsafe releases of
radioactivity to the environment and the public in case of an accident. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● SMRs have reduced fuel requirements. Power plants based on SMRs may require less
frequent refuelling, every 3 to 7 years, in comparison to between 1 and 2 years for
conventional plants. Some SMRs are designed to operate for up to 30 years without
refuelling. So, statement 2 is correct.
Microreactors:
● A microreactor is a small nuclear reactor that can operate as part of the electric grid,
independently from the electric grid, or as part of a microgrid to generate up to 20
megawatts of thermal energy that can be used to generate electricity and provide heat
for industrial applications. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● Most of these small reactors are designed to be portable.
● Microreactors are 100 to 1,000 times smaller than conventional nuclear reactors, while
SMRs range from 20 to 300 megawatts.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nuclear Technology
Tags: Factual

Q11.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Radioactive describes something that exhibits or is caused by radioactivity. If something
is radioactive, it emits radiation, which usually takes the form of electromagnetic waves
or fast-moving elementary particles, such as protons or neutrons.
● Polonium-210 (Po-210) is a radioactive material that occurs naturally in the Earth’s crust
at very low levels. Po-210 is a product of the radioactive decay of Uranium-238, which
decays to Radon-222 and then to polonium. Polonium 210 has a half-life of 138 days. Po-
210 emits alpha particles, which carry high amounts of energy that can damage or destroy
genetic material in cells inside the body. So, point 1 is correct.
● Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope of carbon that has six protons and eight neutrons in
its nucleus. It is the longest-lived radioactive isotope of carbon. Its decay allows the
accurate dating of archaeological artefacts. So, point 2 is correct.
● Americium (Am) is a man-made radioactive metal that is solid under normal conditions.
Americium is produced when plutonium absorbs neutrons in nuclear reactors or during
nuclear weapons tests. Americium-241 is the most common form of Americium.
Americium-241 is primarily an alpha emitter but also emits some gamma rays. So, point
3 is correct.
● Tritium is a radioactive form of hydrogen. Most materials used in fusion reactors are
metals with a relatively high permeability for Tritium. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, 400,000 gallons of radioactive water containing Tritium leaked from the
Minnesota nuclear plant in the United States of America.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nuclear Technology
Tags: Factual

Q12.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Thorium (chemical symbol Th) is a naturally occurring radioactive metal found at trace
levels in soil, rocks, water, plants and animals. Thorium is solid under normal conditions.
There are natural and man-made forms of thorium, all of which are radioactive. In
general, naturally occurring thorium exists as Th-232, Th-230 or Th-228.
● Thorium does not mutate into uranium-233 straightaway; it first turns into an isotope
of an element known as protactinium. The isotope, protactinium-233, turns into
uranium-233. So, statement 1 is not correct.

● Unlike uranium, thorium alone cannot be directly used as nuclear fuel in a reactor. It is
fertile rather than fissile, and can only be used as a fuel in conjunction with a fissile
material such as recycled plutonium. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Till 2014, the Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a
constituent unit of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), had established 11.93
million tonnes of in situ resources of Monazite (Thorium bearing mineral) in the
country, which contains about 1.07 million tonnes of thorium. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
○ Monazite resources are found in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala,
West Bengal, and Jharkhand.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nuclear Technology
Tags: Factual

Q13.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Nuclear reactors use uranium fuel rods containing pellets of fissionable material to create
energy through fission.
● Criticality is the normal operating condition of a nuclear reactor, in which nuclear fuel
sustains a fission chain reaction.
● A reactor achieves criticality (and is said to be critical) when each fission releases a
sufficient number of neutrons to sustain an ongoing series of nuclear reactions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Uranium is the main fuel for nuclear reactors, and it can be found in many places
around the world. To make the fuel, uranium is mined and goes through refining
and enrichment before being loaded into a nuclear reactor.

Relevance: The fourth unit of the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project (KAPP-4) has started a
controlled fission chain reaction and thus became critical.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nuclear Technology
Tags: Conceptual

Q14.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Rosalind Franklin, previously known as the ExoMars rover, is a planned robotic Mars
rover, part of the international ExoMars programme, to explore the surface of Mars. The
mission is set to be launched in 2028.
● ExoMars is a joint endeavour between the European Space Agency (ESA) and Russia's
Roscosmos agency, and consists of the 2016 Trace Gas Orbiter, and the 2022 Rosalind
Franklin Rover. ESA and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) were
the original ExoMars collaborators, but NASA dropped out in 2012 due to budgeting
problems. Russia replaced NASA in the project in 2013. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It is the first mission which can probe the very early history of terrestrial planets. The
rover’s intended landing site, a vast plain called Oxia Planum, records unique information
on ancient, water-rich Mars environments, prebiotic chemistry, and, perhaps, life. The
ExoMars rover will be the first of its kind to combine the capability to roam around Mars
and to study it in depth. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The Exomars is a two-stage mission.

○ Its first mission was launched atop a Proton-M rocket in 2016 and
consisted of the European Trace Gas Orbiter and test lander called
Schiaparelli. The orbiter was successful while the test lander failed during
its descent to Mars.
○ The second stage comprises a rover and surface platform. This second part
of the mission was originally planned for July 2020. But it was postponed
until September 2022 due to technical issues and now to 2028.
● Jovian planets refer to the group of four planets namely Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus
and Neptune. They are known as Gas giants.
● Rosalind Elsie Franklin was a British chemist and X-ray crystallographer who
contributed to unravelling the double helix structure of DNA. She also made
enduring contributions to the study of coal, carbon and graphite.
Relevance: Europe’s Rosalind Franklin Mars rover, part of the beleaguered €1.3-billion ExoMars
programme, is set to launch in 2028.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q15.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic fields from
the Sun’s corona. They erupt periodically from the solar surface, triggered by unstable
magnetic field conditions. Their occurrence varies over an 11-year solar cycle of
increasing and decreasing activity. The next solar maximum will be around 2025 or 2026.
● CMEs are capable of disrupting radio waves which can result in a radio blackout. This can
also impact Global Positioning System (GPS) systems and wireless communication
systems. As a result, flight timings can be delayed and ship transportation can be
affected. So, points 1 and 2 are correct.
● Very high-energy particles, such as those carried by CMEs, can cause radiation poisoning
to humans and other mammals. They would be dangerous to unshielded astronauts, say,
astronauts travelling to the moon. However, solar storms have no direct impact on
humans on Earth’s surface. Earth’s atmosphere and magnetosphere protect human
bodies from the effects of solar flares. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a coronal mass ejection (CME) occurred after the eruption of a magnetic
filament on the side of the Sun that faces Earth.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Conceptual, Analytical

Q16.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is the world’s premier space science observatory
developed by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). It has
succeeded the Hubble Space Telescope.
● It primarily studies the universe in the infrared, while the Hubble Space Telescope looks
at it mainly at optical and ultraviolet wavelengths. Webb's instruments will work
primarily in the infrared range of the electromagnetic spectrum, with some capability in
the visible and near-infrared wavelengths (in particular in the red and up to the yellow
part of the visible spectrum). Infrared observations are important because light at this
wavelength can penetrate the dust that shrouds newly formed stars and planets, and
make them visible. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It does not orbit the Earth, instead, it sits at the Earth-Sun L2 Lagrange Point at a distance
of 1.5 million km from Earth. This means that Webb orbits the Sun along with the Earth,
but stays fixed at the same spot concerning the Earth and the Sun.

● It can see the galaxies as they appeared in the ancient past when the universe was young.
Hubble can see the equivalent of ‘toddler galaxies’ and Webb will be able to see ‘baby
galaxies’. This is also because Webb is an infrared telescope and can see distant objects
which are very dim at visible wavelengths of light. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Both Hubble and Webb are reflecting telescopes. They use curved mirrors instead of
lenses to collect and "bend" light to their various instruments. Many reflecting telescopes
have two main curved optics – a large, concave (shallow bowl shape) main or primary
mirror and a much smaller, convex (slightly arching) secondary mirror positioned directly
above the primary mirror. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The James Webb Space Telescope has revealed galaxies in the early universe, hidden
star formation, and sniffed the atmospheres of exoplanets.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q17.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Dark matter makes up around 85 per cent of the matter in the known universe. Dark
matter is completely invisible as it doesn't interact with light. The elusive nature of dark
matter is mainly because of its composition. According to researchers, dark matter isn't
made up of protons and neutrons like everyday matter. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Visible matter, also called baryonic matter, consists of baryons - an overall generic
name for subatomic particles such as protons, neutrons and electrons.
● So, these particles are 'dark', namely because they do not emit light, which is an
electromagnetic phenomenon, and 'matter' because they possess mass like normal
matter and interact through gravity. It is because of this reason that they cannot be
detected by conventional sensors and detectors. They do interact with Gravity - exerting
gravitational forces on surrounding matter and influencing the dynamics of cosmic
structures such as galaxies and galaxy clusters So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Particles that make up Dark matter do not have a charge. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Dark Matter is too dim to be detected by telescopes including infrared telescopes. As it
does not interact with light or other electromagnetic radiation, it cannot be seen directly.
It can only be detected by measuring its gravitational effects.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Knowledge Box

Evidence for dark matter:

● Astronomers can see light bent from the gravity of invisible objects (a phenomenon
called gravitational lensing). They can also measure stars orbiting around their galaxies
faster than they should be. This can all be accounted for if there is a large amount of
invisible matter tied up in each galaxy, contributing to it: overall mass and rotation rate.
● The only way scientists can infer the presence of dark matter is via its gravitational
influence which holds together most galaxies, preventing their constituent stars from
flying apart as they spin.

Relevance: Researchers have found 208 stars inhabiting the most remote reaches of the Milky
Way's halo dominated by dark matter.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q18.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):
● PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites
with a lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of
600-900 Km altitude. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It is also used to launch satellites of lower lift-off mass of up to about 1400 Kg to the
elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
● PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket
motors and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
● It also uses strap-on motors to augment the thrust. Depending on the number of these
strap-on boosters, the PSLV is classified into various versions like core-alone version
(PSLV-CA), PSLV-G or PSLV-XL variants.
● The vehicle has successfully launched two spacecraft "Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars
Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013".
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV):
● The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250
x 36000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). It employs a cryogenic stage to carry

heavier satellites of the order of 2200 kg into the GTO. The heavy lift launcher GSLV Mk-
III is intended to enhance the GTO capability to 4000 kg.
● GSLV Mark II is a three-stage vehicle with four liquid strap-ons. The flight-proven
indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), forms the third stage of GSLV Mk
II.
● GSLV Mk-III is configured as a three-stage vehicle with two solid strap-on motors (S200),
one liquid core stage (L110) and a high-thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q19.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● A space station is a spacecraft capable of supporting crew members, designed to remain
in space for an extended period of time and for other spacecraft to dock.
● Tiangong space station is China's new permanent space station. The country has
previously launched two temporary trial space stations, named Tiangong-1 and Tiangong-
2.
● China is only the third country in history to have put astronauts into space and to build
a space station, after the Soviet Union (now Russia) and the United States of America
(USA). Apart from the USA, the Soviet Union and then Russia had a space station named
‘Mir’ till 2001. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● The Tiangong space station is being independently built by China. This Space Station is
also expected to be a competitor to the International Space Station (ISS). So, statement
1 is correct.
● It will operate in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) between 340 and 450 kilometres above the Earth.
It is part of China’s Manned Space Program. So, statement 2 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar system. Most orbit other stars, but free-
floating exoplanets, called rogue planets, orbit the galactic center and are untethered to
any star. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Exoplanets are composed of a variety of elements, and some exoplanets have been found
to have similar compositions to the planets in our solar system, such as rocky planets
with a similar composition to Earth. However, other exoplanets have been found to have
vastly different compositions, such as gas giants composed primarily of hydrogen and
helium like Jupiter and Saturn. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Exoplanets come in a wide range of sizes, from small rocky planets similar to Earth to
large gas giants similar to Jupiter. Some exoplanets are even much larger than Jupiter
and have masses several times that of Jupiter. So, a planet can exceed the size and mass
of Earth and still be categorised as an exoplanet. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● Most exoplanets are found through indirect methods: measuring the dimming of a star
that happens to have a planet pass in front of it, called the transit method. It’s pretty
rare for astronomers to see an exoplanet through their telescopes the way one might see
Saturn through a telescope from Earth. That’s called direct imaging, and only a handful
of exoplanets have been found this way. So, statement 4 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The James Webb Space Telescope of the National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) has recently discovered its first new exoplanet.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q21.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Stars are hot bodies of glowing gas that start their life in Nebulae. They vary in size, mass
and temperature, with diameters ranging from 450x smaller to over 1000x larger than
that of the Sun.
● The energy produced by the star is by nuclear fusion in the star's core. Stars are born in
a region of high-density Stellar Nebula and condense into a huge globule of gas and dust
and contract under its gravity.
● A region of condensing matter will begin to heat up and start to glow forming Protostars.
If a protostar contains enough matter the central temperature reaches 15 million degrees

centigrade. At this temperature, nuclear reactions in which hydrogen fuses to form

helium can start. The star begins to release energy, stopping it from contracting even
more and causing it to shine. It becomes a Main Sequence Star.
● The helium core now starts to contract further and reactions begin to occur in a shell
around the core. The core is hot enough for the helium to fuse to form carbon. The outer
layers begin to expand, cool and shine less brightly. The expanding star will be called a
Red Giant in the case of an average star. In the case of a massive star, it becomes a Red
Supergiant and starts with a helium core surrounded by a shell of cooling, expanding gas.
● In the case of a Red Giant, the helium core runs out, and the outer layers drift away from
the core as a gaseous shell; this gas that surrounds the core is called a Planetary Nebula.
In the case of a Red Supergiant, the core collapses in less than a second, causing an
explosion called a Supernova, in which a shock wave blows off the outer layers of the star.
● In the case of a Planetary Nebula, the remaining core in its final stage becomes a White
Dwarf; the star eventually cools and dims. When it stops shining, the now-dead star is
called a Black Dwarf.
● But in the case of a Supernova, sometimes the core survives the explosion. If the surviving
core is between 1.5 - 3 solar masses it contracts to become a tiny, very dense Neutron
Star. If the core is much greater than 3 solar masses, the core contracts to become a Black
Hole.
So, the correct sequence is Stellar Nebula, Red Giant, Planetary Nebula and White Dwarf.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Conceptual, Analytical

Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Lucy Mission:
● It was launched by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) in 2021.
It is the first spacecraft launched to explore the Trojan asteroids. They are a population
of primitive asteroids orbiting in tandem with Jupiter. They orbit the Sun in two loose
groups: one group leading ahead of Jupiter in its orbit, the other trailing behind.
● The mission will also study the diversity, geology, surface composition and physical
properties of the asteroids. Its objective is to uncover the origins of the solar system by
studying the surface and composition of the Trojan asteroids.
● The mission is named after the fossilised skeleton of an early human ancestor, which was
nicknamed “Lucy” by its discoverers.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Relevance: The Lucy spacecraft of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
completed its first flyby of an asteroid named Dinkinesh.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q23.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A Neutron Star is the collapsed core of a massive Supergiant Star. If the collapsing stellar
core at the center of a supernova contains between about 1.4 and 3 solar masses, the
collapse continues until electrons and protons combine to form neutrons, producing a
Neutron Star. If the collapsed stellar core is larger than three solar masses, it collapses
completely to form a Black Hole. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Neutron Stars are incredibly dense - similar to the density of an atomic nucleus. Since they
contain huge mass packed into such a small volume, the gravitation at the surface of a
Neutron Star is immense. Neutron stars average only about 12 miles in diameter but are
denser than our sun, which is more than 72,000 times bigger than a neutron star. A
neutron star is the densest object astronomers can observe directly. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
○ Many neutron stars are likely undetectable because they simply do not emit
enough radiation. However, under certain conditions, they can be easily
observed.
○ Neutron stars got their name because their cores have such powerful gravity that
most positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons in the interior
of these stars combine into uncharged neutrons.
● Neutron stars produce no new heat. However, they are incredibly hot when they form
and cool slowly. Neutron stars have an important role in the universe. Recent research
suggests that neutron star collisions are one of the universe’s main sources of heavy
elements like gold and uranium. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ The process of creating new atomic nuclei from pre-existing protons and neutrons,
whether it occurs during a neutron star collision, a supernova, the burning of stars,
or the Big Bang, is called nucleosynthesis.
● Pulsars are neutron stars that rotate, are highly magnetic and emit a strong
perpendicular beam of electromagnetic radiation. Normal pulsars spin between 0.1 and
60 times per second, while millisecond pulsars can result as much as 700 times per
second. So, statement 4 is correct.
So, only three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Relevance: The Indian Space and Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched the
XPoSat mission to study black holes and neutron stars.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Conceptual, Factual

Q24.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Giant-Impact theory was proposed in 1984 and explains the formation of the Moon.
It proposes that the Moon formed during a collision between the Earth and another small
planet, about the size of Mars. The debris from this impact collected in an orbit around
Earth to form the Moon.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q25.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory jointly developed by
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO). It is an SUV-size satellite weighing 2,800 kilograms. It consists of
both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a
dual-frequency imaging radar satellite. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Mission will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses
providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater,
and will support a host of other applications.
● NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies (L-band
and S-band) to measure changes in our planet’s surface. SAR is capable of penetrating
clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists and engineers involved in the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
mission have completed key tests including the thermal vacuum testing ahead of its launch.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual, Analytical

Q26.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● An orbit is a curved path that an object in space (such as a star, planet, moon, asteroid or
spacecraft) takes around another object due to gravity.
● There are several types of Earth orbit, and each offers certain advantages and capabilities.
● A Highly Elliptical Orbit (HEO) is
oblong, with one end nearer the
Earth and the other more distant.
Satellites in HEO are suited for
communications, satellite radio,
remote sensing and other
applications.
● Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is
commonly used for
communication and remote
sensing satellite systems, as well
as the International Space
Station (ISS) and Hubble Space
Telescope that are placed here.
So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) is a type of polar orbit. SSO objects are synchronous with
the sun, such that they pass over an Earth region at the same local time every day.
○ Objects in Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO) have an orbital speed that matches the
Earth’s rotation, yielding a consistent position over a single longitude. So, pair 2 is
not correctly matched.
● Geostationary Orbit (GEO) is a kind of GSO. It matches the planet’s rotation, but GEO
objects only orbit Earth’s equator, and from the ground perspective, they appear in a
fixed position in the sky. GSO and GEO are used for telecommunications and Earth
observation. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● Within 30 degrees of the Earth’s poles, the polar orbit is used for satellites providing
reconnaissance, weather tracking, measuring atmospheric conditions, and long-term
Earth observation.
● Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) is commonly used for navigation systems, including the U.S.
Global Positioning System (GPS). GPS satellites fly in the MEO at an altitude of
approximately 20,200 km. Each satellite circles the Earth twice a day.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments

Tags: Conceptual, Factual

Q27.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A "stationary limit" is a surface around the outside of a rotating black hole. Any object
which passes through this surface is always in motion, it is pulled by the distortion of
space caused by the rotating black hole.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The "event horizon" is a surface that exists closer to the black hole. Any object which
passes through this surface can never be seen again. When we look at a black hole, we
see its event horizon.
● The black hole’s gravitational pull itself emanates from a point at its centre called the
singularity.
● The ergosphere is a region of space around a rotating black hole where its gravitational
effects can be felt but which doesn’t demarcate ‘points of no return’.
● It is the region wherein the spacetime continuum is deformed by the black hole to such
an extent that one can enter it and leave if one travels fast enough (but less than at
the speed of light).
● The ergosphere lies just outside the event horizon of a rotating black hole, within which
an observer is forced to rotate with the black hole, and cannot remain stationary
concerning the rest of the Universe.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q28.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● ‘EDUSAT’, India’s first thematic satellite dedicated exclusively to educational services,
was used extensively to cater to a wide range of interactive educational delivery modes
like a one-way TV broadcast, video conferencing, computer conferencing, web-based
instructions, etc. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Indian National Satellite System (INSAT/GSAT) is one of the largest domestic
communication satellite systems in the Asia-Pacific region. Established in 1983 with the

commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communication

sector. INSAT has been a major catalyst for the expansion of television coverage in India.
The Department of Space has made available the required transponders through
INSAT/GSAT satellites and through the leased capacity to cater to the needs of television
service. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q29.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● India is a party to all the major international treaties/regulations related to outer space,
including the Outer Space Treaty, the Rescue Agreement, the Liability Convention, the
Registration Convention and has also signed the Moon Treaty. India also implements all
the outer space-related instruments, including the United Nations (UN) Space Debris
Mitigation Guidelines.
○ The Outer Space Treaty, 1967 provides the basic framework for international
space law. It mandates that the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried
out for the benefit and the interests of all countries and shall be the province of
all mankind. So, point 1 is correct.
○ The Rescue Agreement of 1968 requires States to assist an astronaut in case of
accident, distress, emergency or unintended landing. So, point 2 is correct.
○ The Liability Convention of 1972 establishes the standards of liability for damage
caused by space objects. So, point 3 is correct.
○ The Moon Agreement of 1979 elaborates on the provisions of the Outer Space
Treaty as they apply to the Moon and other celestial bodies. So, point 4 is correct.
So, India is a signatory to all four of the above Outer Space Treaties.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q30.
Answer: d
Explanation:
LUX-ZEPLIN (LZ):
● It is a next-generation dark matter experiment, selected by the United States
Department of Energy (DOE) as one of the three Generation 2 (G2) dark matter
experiments.
● Located at the Sanford Underground Research Facility, the experiment utilises a two-
phase time projection chamber (TPC), containing seven active tonnes of liquid xenon, to
search for dark matter particles.
● LZ has been designed to improve on the sensitivity of the prior generation of experiments
by a factor of 50 or more.
● The experiment is underground to protect it from cosmic radiation at the surface that
could drown out dark matter signals.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: LUX ZEPLIN has recently reported the first results of their searches for weakly
interacting massive particles (WIMPs).
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q31.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Satellites provide synoptic observations of natural disasters at regular intervals that help
in better planning and management of disasters. The data from earth observation and
meteorological satellites in conjunction with ground-based information and services
derived from communication & navigation satellites are being used towards Disaster
Management Support.
○ AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying
celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV spectral bands simultaneously. Hence it
has no application in disaster management. It was developed by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO). So, point 1 is not correct.
○ Radar Imaging Satellite-2B (RISAT-2B) is a radar imaging earth observation
satellite developed by ISRO. It was launched in the LEO (Low Earth Orbit) in 2019.
Its applications include Disaster Management Systems and Earth Observation. So,
point 2 is correct.
○ Earth Observation Satellite-3 (EOS-3) is ISRO’s geo-imaging satellite, capable of
near-real-time monitoring of natural disasters like floods and cyclones. Apart

from natural disasters, the satellite which is capable of imaging the country 4 to 5
times a day will be able to monitor water bodies, crops, vegetation conditions, and
forest cover changes. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Indian National Satellite-3D Repeat (INSAT-3DR), similar to INSAT-3D, is an
advanced meteorological satellite of India configured with an imaging System and
an Atmospheric Sounder. It was launched into the Geosynchronous Orbit in 2016.
Its applications include Climate & Environment and Disaster Management
Systems. So, point 4 is correct.
○ XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission
to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme
conditions. It will study the emission mechanism from various astronomical
sources such as black holes, neutron stars, active galactic nuclei, pulsar wind
nebulae etc. So, point 5 is not correct.
So, only three of the above Indian Satellites have applications in Disaster Management.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India's Astrosat space telescope has witnessed the birth of a black hole in space for
the 500th time.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual, Current Affairs

Q32.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Constellations are any of certain groupings of stars that were imagined to form
conspicuous configurations of objects or creatures in the sky. Constellations are useful in
assisting astronomers and navigators to locate certain stars.
● Stars and constellations stay in approximately the same spot for many years. They only
appear to move in the sky during the year because perceivers are on a moving planet.
Because the constellations are in a fixed location, they are often used as landmarks in
the sky.
● Cassiopeia, Cepheus, Draco, Ursa Major and Ursa Minor are some of the constellations
that can be seen all year long in the northern hemisphere. So, points 1 and 2 are correct.
● Orion can be seen during winter in the late evening time. It has seven or eight bright stars.
Orion is also called the Hunter and the three middle stars represent the belt of the hunter.
So, point 3 is not correct.
● Sagittarius is usually depicted as a centaur holding a bow and arrow. It is one of the
largest southern constellations. It is easy to find because it lies on the Milky Way. It is
visible only in summer. So, point 4 is not correct.

So, only two of the above star constellations in the sky can be seen throughout the year in the
northern hemisphere.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Dark Sky Reserve will be located at Hanle village in Eastern Ladakh as a part of
Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Factual

Q33.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols (MAIA) mission is a joint mission between NASA
and the Italian Space Agency ASI. Its primary goal is to benefit societal health.
Epidemiologists and public health researchers will be directly working on the
development of a satellite mission.
● The mission will consist of the PLATiNO-2 satellite, which will be provided by ASI, and a
science instrument that will be built at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL). It will be
able to collect measurements of sunlight reflecting off airborne particles, which will help
researchers determine the abundance, size, and optical properties of certain pollutants
in the Earth's atmosphere. So, point 1 is correct.
● The mission will investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most
populated cities. During the course of the three-year mission, MAIA will focus on 11
primary target areas that include major urban centres across the world: Los Angeles,
Atlanta, Boston, Rome, Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, Barcelona, Spain, Beijing, Johannesburg,
New Delhi, Taipei, Taiwan; and Tel Aviv. The MAIA observatory is set to launch before the
end of 2024. So, point 2 is correct.
● The objective of the MAIA mission is not to advance exploration and research in
microgravity. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: NASA announced that it is partnering with the Italian Space Agency ASI to build and
launch MAIA, or the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions.
Subject: Environment | Pollution
Tags: Factual

Q34.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Nuclear Fission and Nuclear Fusion:
● Nuclear Fission occurs when a neutron strikes a larger atom, forcing it to excite and split
into two smaller atoms. Fusion involves the joining of two light elements with a low
atomic mass number to form a heavier element.
● Nuclear Fusion is among the most environmentally friendly sources of energy. There are
no carbon dioxide emissions or other harmful atmospheric emissions from the fusion
process. It does not contribute to greenhouse gas emissions or global warming. Its two
sources of fuel, hydrogen and lithium, are widely available in many parts of the Earth. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The source of energy of the sun is nuclear fusion. It takes place in the core of the sun
where hydrogen atoms merge to form helium. It creates huge amounts of energy, several
times greater than fission
● Fusion reactions are difficult to sustain for longer periods because of the tremendous
amount of pressure and temperature needed to join the nuclei together.
● Nuclear fusion cannot be very useful in producing weapons as fusion cannot produce
cascading chain reactions to release a tremendous amount of power in a short span.
Although hydrogen bombs do use fusion reactions, they require an additional fission
bomb to detonate. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Nuclear fission power plants have the disadvantage of generating unstable nuclei which
remain radioactive for millions of years. Fusion, on the other hand, does not create any
long-lived radioactive nuclear waste. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nuclear Technology
Tags: Conceptual, Analytical

Q35.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Cordy Gold Nanoparticles (Cor-AuNPs) are derived from the synthesis of the extracts of
Cordyceps militaris and gold salts. Cordyceps militarisis has a high-value parasitic fungus
and gold salts are ionic chemical compounds of gold generally used in medicine. So,
statement 1 is correct.

○ These nanoparticles are the outcome of a collaborative experiment by scientists

from four Indian institutions which has earned an international patent from
Germany.
● These nanoparticles add bioactive components to the synthesis of gold nanoparticles
for better penetration and make drug delivery in the human body faster and surer. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● These biosynthesized nanogold particles (Cor-AuNPs) can be used in the development of
therapeutic drugs which can be delivered as ointments, tablets, capsules, and in other
forms.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Biotechnology
Tags: Factual

Q36.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● In a nuclear power reactor, the energy released from continuous fission of the atoms of
the fuel is harnessed as heat in either a gas or water and is used to produce steam. The
steam is used to drive the turbines which produce electricity.
Pressurised-Water Reactor (PWR):
● It utilises ordinary water as both coolant and moderator. In the PWR, water at high
pressure and temperature removes heat from the core and transports it to a steam
generator. Pressurised water has a higher boiling point and it does not involve boiling
water. The steam that gets generated ultimately serves as the working fluid in a steam
turbine cycle. So, statement 1 is correct.
Boiling-Water Reactor (BWR):
● A BWR operates on the principle of a direct power cycle. Water passing through the core
is allowed to boil at an intermediate pressure level.
● The saturated steam that exits the core region is transported through a series of
separators and dryers located within the reactor vessel that promote a superheated state.
The superheated water vapour is then used as the working fluid to turn the steam
turbine.
Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR):
● PHWRs generally use natural uranium (0.7% U-235) oxide as fuel and hence need a more
efficient moderator like heavy water (D2O). So, statement 2 is correct.
● The PHWR produces more energy per kilogram of mined uranium than other designs but
also produces a much larger amount of used fuel per unit output.

Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR):

● FBR is a type of nuclear reactor that produces more nuclear fuels than it consumes while
producing electricity. They employ Fast Neutrons instead of Moderators. The fission
material must be significantly enriched to continue the fission reaction with fast neutrons.
Sodium, which is a light metal, is used as a coolant. Fissionable Plutonium-239 can be
produced from non-fissionable uranium-238. Breeder reactors can keep recycling their
own fuel until all the plutonium is gone. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nuclear Technology
Tags: Conceptual, Factual

Q37.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A Total Solar Eclipse happens when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth,
completely blocking the face of the Sun. People viewing the eclipse from locations
where the Moon’s shadow completely covers the Sun known as the path of totality will
experience a total solar eclipse.
○ Seen about 10 to 15 seconds before and after totality, the solar corona (the
outer atmosphere of the Sun) becomes visible. Together with the single jewel of
light from the Sun, it creates the well-known Diamond Ring Effect.
○ As the last bits of sunlight pass through the valleys on the moon's limb, and the
faint corona around the sun is just becoming visible, it looks like a ring with
glittering diamonds on it.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments
Tags: Conceptual, Factual

Q38.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● A Dark Sky Reserve is public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal environment
and starry nights that have been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution. A Dark
Sky Reserve is a designation given to a place that has policies in place to ensure that a
tract of land or region has minimal artificial light interference. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Department of Science and Technology will set up India’s first Dark Sky Reserve at
Ladakh’s Hanle which is a part of the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary. The reserve will be

one of the world’s highest-located sites for optical, infrared, and gamma-ray telescopes.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The primary objective of the proposed Dark Sky Reserve is to promote astronomy
tourism in a sustainable and environment-friendly manner. Scientific methods will be
used here to preserve the night sky from ever-increasing light pollution.
● The International Dark Sky Association is a U.S. based non-profit that designates places
as International Dark Sky Places, Parks, Sanctuaries and Reserves, depending on the
criteria they meet. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Recent Developments
Tags: Factual

Q39.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Nanomicelles are ultramicroscopic structures used in the treatment of diseases. They are
globe-like structures having a hydrophilic outer shell and a hydrophobic exterior. This
dual property makes them a perfect carrier for delivering drug molecules. They can be
used as carriers for solubilising hydrophobic drugs that result in a clear aqueous
formulation. The particles are able to minimise drug degradation, lower adverse side
effects, and improve drug permeation. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Nanomicelles are an emerging platform in targeted therapy and are being used for cancer
treatment. Near-infrared (NIR) light-triggered polymeric nanomicelles have been found
useful in photoactive delivery and imaging in the early diagnosis of cancer management.
So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nanotechnology
Tags: Conceptual

Q40.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● In the agriculture sector, nanotechnology applications can be broadly classified into the
following main sectors:
○ Crop improvement using nano fertiliser and nano biosensors for soil/plant
systems and the nano remediation of soils, water, and the food sector.

○ Crop production through the use of nano herbicides/nano pesticides and

nanomaterials to control the viral and fungal diseases of plants. So, point 1 is
correct.
○ It helps in precision farming. It is an approach where inputs are utilised in precise
amounts to get increased average yields, compared to traditional cultivation
techniques. So, point 2 is correct.
● Although agro-nanotechnology has several benefits, nanomaterials may also be
associated with many risks, which include:
○ The degradation of the nanomaterials and/or nanocomposites under
environmental conditions, with the release of the inserted nanomaterials into the
environment.
○ A significant amount of leaching of the nanoparticles can occur in the agro-
environment, which may cause nanotoxicity. So, point 3 is not correct.
○ The integration of many nanoparticles into the human body via inhalation,
ingestion, or cutaneous contact can have many side effects on health. So, point 4
is not correct.
So, only two of the above are the benefits of nano fertilisers.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Subject: Science & Technology | Nanotechnology
Tags: Factual, Analytical

Q41.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Nanoflakes of a material called hematene extracted from iron ore have been found
capable of withstanding and acting as shields from high laser intensities. Hence it could
be used to make devices called optical limiters that can protect sensitive optical
equipment from light-induced damage. Radiation from laser sources is highly
concentrated and powerful and can be detrimental to sensitive equipment such as
sensors, detectors, and other optical devices. It is ferromagnetic (the mechanism by which
certain materials like iron form permanent magnets, or are attracted to magnets) like a
common magnet. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q42.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Artemis Accords, which are grounded in the Outer Space Treaty of 1967, are a set
of non-legally binding principles to guide sustainable civil space exploration. These

principles, which include transparency, peaceful purposes, registering of space objects

and release of scientific data, help make the space environment safer and more
predictable, and allow all nations – even those without space programs – to benefit from
the scientific data obtained in space.
● NASA, in coordination with the U.S. Department of State, established the Artemis Accords
in 2020 together with seven other founding member nations (Australia, Canada, Italy,
Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom). The accords
reinforce the commitment by the United States and signatory nations to the Registration
Convention, the Rescue and Return Agreement, as well as best practices and norms of
responsible behaviour that NASA and its partners support, including the public release
of scientific data. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.
● In a ceremony held at the Intercontinental Willard Hotel in Washington, D.C. on June 21,
2023, the Republic of India became the 27th nation to sign the Artemis Accords,
demonstrating its commitment to sustainable and transparent space activity.

Q43.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Standard Model of Particle Physics is scientists’ current best theory to describe the
most basic building blocks of the universe. It explains how particles called quarks (which
make up protons and neutrons) and leptons (which include electrons) make up all known
matter. It also explains how force carrying particles, which belong to a broader group of
bosons, influence the quarks and leptons.
● The Standard Model explains three of the four fundamental forces that govern the
universe: electromagnetism, the strong nuclear force, and the weak force.
Electromagnetism is carried by photons and involves the interaction of electric fields and
magnetic fields while gravity is not included in this model. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● It explains how the entire Universe is built from just twelve matter particles called
fermions and how the forces between them are mediated by just six force carrying
particles called bosons. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Fermions: These are particles that make up matter. They are further divided into two
groups:
○ Quarks: The building blocks of protons and neutrons, among other particles.
○ Leptons: Include particles like electrons. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
● Bosons: These particles are responsible for mediating the fundamental forces between
fermions. It includes Photons, W and Z bosons, Gluons, Higgs boson.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q44.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Lagrange points are positions in space where objects sent there tend to stay put. At
Lagrange points, the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the
centripetal force required for a small object to move with them. These points in space
can be used by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption needed to remain in position.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

● There are five special points where a small mass can orbit in a constant pattern with two
larger masses. The Lagrange Points are positions where the gravitational pull of two
large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move
with them.
● This mathematical problem, known as the "General Three-Body Problem" was
considered by Lagrange in his prize-winning paper.
● Of the five Lagrange points, three are unstable and two are stable. The unstable
Lagrange points - labelled L1, L2 and L3 - lie along the line connecting the two large
masses. The stable Lagrange points - labelled L4 and L5 - form the apex of two
equilateral triangles that have the large masses at their vertices. L4 leads the orbit of
earth and L5 follows. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● The L1 point of the Earth-Sun system affords an uninterrupted view of the sun and is
currently home to the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory Satellite SOHO and ISRO
Aditya L-1.
● The L2 point of the Earth-Sun system was the home to the WMAP spacecraft, current
home of Planck, and future home of the James Webb Space Telescope. L2 is ideal for
astronomy because a spacecraft is close enough to readily communicate with Earth, and

can keep the Sun, Earth and Moon behind the spacecraft for solar power. Hence,
Statement 3 is incorrect.
● Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q45.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Aditya L1 shall be the first space based Indian mission to study the Sun. The spacecraft
shall be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system,
which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● Using the special vantage point L1, four payloads directly view the Sun and the remaining
three payloads carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at the Lagrange point L1,
thus providing important scientific studies of the propagatory effect of solar dynamics in
the interplanetary medium. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

● A satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 point has the major advantage of
continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipses. This will provide a
greater advantage of observing the solar activities and its effect on space weather in real
time. The spacecraft carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere
and the outermost layers of the Sun (the corona) using electromagnetic and particle and
magnetic field detectors. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q46.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: JT-60SA is a joint initiative between the European Union and
Japan aiming to investigate the feasibility of nuclear fusion as a sustainable and near
limitless power source. The JT-60SA reactor is a six-storey-high machine, which is kept in
a hangar in Naka, north of Tokyo. It comprises a doughnut-shaped “tokamak” vessel set
to contain the swirling plasma heated up to 200 million degrees Celsius.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: JT-60SA is a forerunner for the under-construction
International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER). It is expected to begin
operations in 2025. JT-60SA is the world’s largest and most advanced nuclear fusion
reactor which started its official operations in Japan.
● Therefore, option d is incorrect.

Q47.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Gravitational waves, described as 'ripples' in the fabric of space-time, originate from the
most violent and energetic events in the cosmos. Despite being invisible, they traverse
space at the speed of light, exerting a squeezing and stretching effect on anything in
their trajectory. Albert Einstein's 1916 general theory of relativity first predicted their
existence, emphasising how mass warps the fundamental structure of spacetime. This
theory underscores the profound influence of massive objects on the very fabric of the
universe.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: LIGO, a laser interferometer tool, is designed to detect
gravitational waves. It comprises two 4-km-long vacuum chambers arranged
orthogonally, each with mirrors at its terminus. The experiment entails releasing light
rays concurrently into both chambers, ideally returning simultaneously. Yet, the passage
of a gravitational wave causes one chamber to elongate and the other to compress,
creating a phase disparity in the returning light. Detection of this phase difference
validates the existence of a gravitational wave.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: LIGO-India will be an addition to the already existing facilities
of this type. Currently, LIGO consists of two widely separated installations within the
United States -- one in Hanford Washington and the other in Livingston, Louisiana. There
are other sister LIGO facilities as well like LIGO-VIRGO (Italy) and LIGO KANGRA (Japan)
and another GEO600 (Germany).
● Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

Q48.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● They are ripples in the fabric of spacetime caused by the most energetic events in the
cosmos, such as black hole mergers and neutron star collisions. Their presence was
first given by Einstein in his Theory of Relativity. Gravitational waves were first detected
in 2015 using an experiment, involving Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory
(LIGO) detectors. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● There are 2 type of G- waves: Higher and Lower Frequency G- waves
○ Higher-frequency gravitational waves come from smaller pairs of black holes
zipping around each other rapidly in the final seconds before they collide. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
○ While the lower-frequency waves are thought to be generated by huge black
holes at the hearts of galaxies, up to billions of times the mass of our sun, that
lumber around each other slowly and have millions of years to go before they
merge.
● For discovering low-frequency gravitational waves, researchers used six large radio
telescopes around the world to study objects called pulsars. India’s Giant Metrewave
Radio Telescope (GMRT, Pune) was among the world’s six large telescopes that played
a vital role in providing evidence. Other 5 are located in Germany, UK, France, Italy and
Netherlands. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Additional Information
● GMRT is an instrument for studying astrophysical phenomena, ranging from
nearby Solar system to the edge of observable Universe, at low radio
frequencies (40 to 1450 MHz).
● It is operated by National Centre of Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) Pune, which is
part of Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
● Metre wavelength part of the radio spectrum has been particularly chosen for
study with GMRT because man-made radio interference is considerably lower
in this part of the spectrum in India.

Q49.
Answer: d
Explanation:
ISRO's mission objectives for the Chandrayaan-3 mission are:
● Engineering and implementing a lander to land safely and softly on the surface of the
Moon.

● Observing and demonstrating the rover's driving capabilities on the Moon.

● Conducting and observing experiments on the materials available on the lunar surface
to better understand the composition of the Moon.
Hence, statement (d) is incorrect.

Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India has approved two unmanned
missions and one manned mission as part of the Gaganyaan program, which is
spearheaded by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The first manned
spaceflight is slated for 2024, aiming to elevate India into the esteemed league of
nations with human spaceflight capabilities, alongside the US, Russia, and China. The
Gaganyaan mission comprises three planned flights, including two unmanned missions
and one manned spaceflight. The Orbital Module of the Gaganyaan system will
accommodate three Indian astronauts, including a woman, orbiting the Earth at a low-
earth-orbit altitude of 300-400 km for a duration of 5-7 days.
● Statement 2 is correct: A modified version of ISRO’s most-reliable rocket, LVM3
(previously called Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mk III), is the launching
vehicle of the Gaganyaan Mission. It is re-configured as a human rated launch vehicle to
be capable of safely transporting humans into the intended orbit. It has a three-stage
propulsion system - solid stage, liquid stage, and cryogenic stage. It consists of Crew
Escape System (CES) as well as Orbital Module, along with solid stage, liquid stage, and
cryogenic stage.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The mission will make India the fourth nation in the world to
launch a Human Spaceflight Mission. The US, Russia and China are the only three
countries to have sent crews to space. Thus, it would make India 4th and not 3rd
country to have sent a crew to space if successful.
● Statement 4 is correct: India and France joined forces for India’s ambitious human
spaceflight initiative named Gaganyaan, with France contributing to areas like medicine
and astronaut health as well as supplying CNES flight systems. Russia will help with the
selection of astronauts, while France will help with its expertise in space medicine.
● Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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Vajiram & Ravi: Test

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PRELIMS CAMP 2024

Answer Key – Prelims CAMP ST-02-Science & Technology (17-02-2024)

1. (B) 11. (D) 21. (A) 31. (B) 41. (B)

2. (B) 12. (A) 22. (A) 32. (B) 42. (B)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (C) 33. (A) 43. (B)

4. (C) 14. (C) 24. (A) 34. (A) 44. (B)

5. (D) 15. (A) 25. (C) 35. (C) 45. (C)

6. (A) 16. (B) 26. (B) 36. (C) 46. (D)

7. (B) 17. (B) 27. (C) 37. (D) 47. (D)

8. (D) 18. (B) 28. (C) 38. (A) 48. (C)

9. (A) 19. (A) 29. (D) 39. (C) 49. (D)

● Wave Equation: It was derived by French polymath Jean-Baptiste le Rond d'Alembert

Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments

● The Exomars is a two-stage mission.

Evidence for dark matter:

centigrade. At this temperature, nuclear reactions in which hydrogen fuses to form

Subject: Science & Technology | Space and Related Developments

commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communication

○ These nanoparticles are the outcome of a collaborative experiment by scientists

Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR):

○ Crop production through the use of nano herbicides/nano pesticides and

principles, which include transparency, peaceful purposes, registering of space objects

● Observing and demonstrating the rover's driving capabilities on the Moon.

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