27-02-2025

1016CMD303031240071 MD

PHYSICS

1) At a given place where acceleration due to gravity is 'g' m/sec2, a sphere of lead of density 'd'
kg/m3 is gently released on a column of liquid of density 'ρ' kg/m3. If d > ρ, the sphere will :-

(1) Fall vertically with an acceleration 'g' m/sec2

(2) Fall vertically with no acceleration

(3)
Fall vertically with an acceleration g

(4)
Fall vertically with an acceleration g

2) For the system shown in the figure, the cylinder on the left at L has a mass of 600 kg and a cross
sectional area of 800 cm2. The piston on the right, at S, has cross sectional area 25 cm2 and
negligible weight. If the apparatus is filled with oil.(ρ = 0.75 gm/cm3). Find the force F required to

hold the system in equilibrium.

(1) 37.5 N
(2) 45 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 100 N

3) A uniform solid ball of density d and of radius r is moving vertically downward inside a viscous
liquid (density = d/6 and coefficient of viscosity = η) with an acceleration of g/2 at an instant. Speed
of the ball at this instant is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) The displacement of a ball falling from rest in a viscous medium is plotted against time. Choose a
possible option

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If the work done in blowing a bubble of volume V is W, then the work done in blowing the bubble
of volume 2V from the same soap solution will be :-

(1) W/2
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
10–2 N (see figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight negligible. The surface tension of

the liquid film is (in dyne/cm)

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 100

7) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a,b and c
respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :-

(1) 2a2c/b
(2) 3a/2b2c
(3) 2ac/b2
(4) 3c/2ab2

8) The diagram show the change x in the length of a thin uniform wire caused by the application of

stress F of two different temperature T1 and T2. The variation suggest that :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = T2
(4) None of these

9) If two soap bubbles of equal radii r coalesce then the radius of curvature of interface between two
bubbles.

(1) r
(2) 0
(3) Infinity

(4)

10) A particle of mass m begins to slide down a fixed smooth sphere from the top. What is the
tangential acceleration when it breaks off the sphere ?

(1)

(2)

(3) g

(4)

11) A small particle of mass m is released from rest from point A inside a smooth hemispherical bowl
as shown in figure. The ratio (x) of magnitude of centripetal force and normal reaction on the

particle at any point B varies with θ as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Choose the correct statement related to a non-uniform circular motion :

(1)
Tangential acceleration =

(2)
Tangential acceleration =

(3)
Centripital acceleration =
(4) Acceleration is independent of the radius of circle

13) If speed of a particle performing circular motion is decreasing then

(1) May be positive

(2) May be negative
(3) Must be negative
(4) Must be positive

14) Select the correct alternative for non-uniform circular motion :

(1) Speed is variable.
(2) Angular acceleration must be constant.
(3) Angular acceleration may be constant
(4) Angular velocity must be variable.

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 3, 4
(3) 1, 2, 4
(4) All

15) A motorcycle is travelling on a curved track of radius 500 m. If the coefficient of friction between
road and tyres is 0.5. The maximum safe speed to avoid skidding will be :

(1) 50 m/s
(2) 75 m/s
(3) 25 m/s
(4) 35 m/s

16) A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light rigid rod of length L and rotated in a vertical
circular path about its other end. The minimum speed of the particle at its highest point must be :

(1) zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) A stone is attached to one end of a string and is whirled in a vertical circle of radius R as shown

in figure. Then select correct :

(1) TA = Maximum
(2) TC = TD
(3) TB = Minimum
(4) All

18) A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed v.

(i) The angular speed of particle is .

(ii) The time-period of revolution is .

(iii) The acceleration of particle is .

(iv) The work done by centripetal force is

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) All options are correct.

19) If t1 is the time taken by the planet to travel along ACB and t2 the time along BDA, then :-
(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) nothing can be concluded

20) If the density of a planet is constant, then the curve between g on its surface and its radius r will
be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The forces on a particle of mass m, due to two concentric shells of different masses m1 and m2 at

position A, B and C are:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) The figure represents a solid uniform sphere of mass M and radius R. A spherical cavity of radius

r is at a distance a from sphere. The gravitational field inside the cavity is

(1) non uniform

(2) towards the centre of the cavity
(3) Uniform
(4) All of above

23) A spherical shell is cut into two pieces along a chord as shown in the figure. P is a point on the
plane of the chord. The gravitational field at P due to the upper part is I1 and the due to the lower

part is I2. What is the relation between them?

(1) I1 > I2
(2) I1 < I2
(3) I1 = I2
(4) No definite relation

24) Assertion :- Work done by or against gravitational force in moving a body from one point to
another is independent of the actual path followed between the two points.
Reason :- Gravitational forces are conservative forces.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false

25) A body of mass m is taken to the bottom of a deep mine. Then :-

(1) Its mass increases

(2) Its mass decreases
(3) Its mass is zero
(4) Mass remain same

26) In the given figure there is a hollow sphere. Then on which points, gravitational potential due to

the sphere will be same ?

(1) O, A, B, C
(2) O, A, B
(3) O, B
(4) No where

27) In a certain region of space, the gravitational potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – y2 + z2]. The
gravitational field at the point (1,1,1) has magnitude = :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) The angular momentum of given disc about axis AB is → (AB → Perpendicular to plane)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)
For the above given conical pendulum, particle is performing uniform circular motion in horizontal
circle then -
(1) Net torque about point 'O' is zero
(2) Torque of mg about point 'O' is mgℓ sin θ
(3) Net torque about point 'P' is non-zero
(4) All

30)
For the given projectile of mass m the graph between torque of gravity about point of projection and
time is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A body of mass m crosses the topmost point of a verticle circle with critical speed. Torque about
centre at this instant is (ℓ = Length of string)

(1) mgℓ
(2) 0
(3)

(4)

32) A Ring of mass m and radius R is acted upon by a force F as shown in fig. The cofficient of

friction necessary for pure rolling is -

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

33) In case of pure rolling, what will be the velocity of point A of the ring of radius R?

(1) 2VCM
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) Calculate the torque acting on the disc in the given arrangement (Radius of disc is 1m and its

mass is also m)

(1)

(2)

(3) mg

(4)
35) A thin wire of length ℓ and mass m is bent in the form of a semicircle as shown. Its moment of
Inertia about an axis passing through centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Consider a spool being pulled (from Rest) on a rough horizontal surface by applying two equal

and opposite forces as shown in fig. Statement -1 :- Centre of mass

of the spool moves towards right.
Statement - 2 :- Friction acts on the point of contact of the spool with rough horizontal surface
rightwards.

Statement - (1) is true, Statement - (2) is true, Statement - (2) is correct, explanation for
(1)
Statement (1).
Statement - (1) is true, Statement - (2) is true, Statement - (2) is not a correct, explanation for
(2)
Statement (1).
(3) Statement - (1) is true, Statement - (2) is false.
(4) Statement - (1) is false, Statement - (2) is true.

37) Three spheres each of radius R, having mass density (uniform mass distribution) ρ, 2ρ and 3ρ
respectively are kept as shown in the figure, touching each other, with their centres on a straight
line. If their centres are marked a, b and c respectively, the distance of COM of the system from a is

:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Two square plate are shown in figure. If the masses of plate are 2m and 4m respectively then

distance of centre of mass of system from point O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) From a circular disc of radius 2R, a square is cut out with half of radius as its diagonal. The
centre of mass of remaining portion is at a distance from the center of original circular disc is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Assertion : In a rotating rigid body, the center of mass does not necessarily coincide with the
axis of rotation.
Reason : The axis of rotation can be anywhere in the space of the rigid body, independent of the
center of mass.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

41) If the system shown below is released from rest, and it is observed that acceleration of COM of

system is 2.5 ms–2, then value of m is :- (g = 10 ms–2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A man of mass 60 kg is standing on a boat of mass 120 kg, which is at rest in still water. The
man is initially at rest 20 m from shore. He starts walking on the boat towards the shore. The final
distance of the man from the shore is, when man reaches at other end of the boat is :-

(1) 4 m
(2) 12 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 8 m

43) A Stationary body explodes into two fragments of masses m1 and m2. If momentum of one
fragment is p, then the energy of explosion is (Total K.E. generated in explosion) :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Particles of mass 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with same speed 10 m/s towards each other &

collides. Find out loss in kinetic energy.

(1) 150 J
(2) 168 J
(3) 384 J
(4) 204 J

45) Two blocks of masses m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 3 kg kept on a smooth surface, are connected to each
other through a light spring (k = 100 N/m) as shown in figure. When we push mass m1 with a force F
= 10 N, Find the acceleration of center of mass of the system.

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2

(3)
m/s2
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1)

Correct match is :

(a) Expanded octet (p) H2SO4

(b) Odd e– molecule (q) NO

(c) Incomplete octet (r) CH4

(d) Complete octet (s) BeH2

(1) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(2) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(4) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s

2)

Identify incorrect match :-

(1) ClF3 ; planar and polar

(2) PCl5 ; non-planar and non-polar
(3) BCl3 ; non-polar and planar
(4) NCl3 ; polar and planer

3) Which is correct for dipole moment :-

(1) NH3 < NF3

(2) SO2 < SO3
(3) NF3 > BF3
(4) SO2 > H2O

4) Which order of boiling point is correct :

(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI

(2) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(3) H2O > HF > NH3
(4) All of the above

5) Which of the following compounds show intramolecular hydrogen bonding :

(A) o - nitrophenol (B) p - nitrophenol
(C) phenol (D) salicylaldehyde

(1) A & B
(2) A & C
(3) A & D
(4) B & C

6) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) NaCl + H2O ⇒ Keesome attraction

(2) CH4 + CH4 ⇒ London force
(3) He + H2O ⇒ Debye force
+
(4) Na + CH4 ⇒ Ion-induced dipole attraction

7) Assertion (A) : Generally melting point of ionic compound is more than that of covalent
compound.
Reason (R) : Melting point of SiC is more than NaCl.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explaination for the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explaination for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

8) Select correct order out of given options-

(1) BeCO3 < BaCO3 → Covalent character

(2) BeO > SrO → Lattice energy
(3) Be2+ < Li+ → Hydration energy

(4) → Ionic Mobility

9) Assertion :- Lithium chloride is predominately covalent compound .

Reason :- Electronegativity difference between Li and Cl is small.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding electrovalent bond ?

(1) Ionic compound doesn't exhibit space isomerism because of non-directional nature of the bond
(2) A bond formed between two like atoms cannot be ionic bond
A+B– ionic compound is most likely to be formed when the ionisation energy of A is low and
(3)
electron affinity of B is high
(4) Ionic compounds shows electrical conductivity in solid, aqueous as well as molten form

11) Match List-I (Molecules) with List-II (Bond order) and select the correct answer using codes
given below lists:

List-I List-II

I. Li2 A. 3

II. N2 B. 1.5

III. Be2 C. 1.0

IV. O2 D. 0

E. 2
(1) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-E
(2) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-E
(3) I-D, II-A, III-E, IV-C
(4) I-C, II-B, III-E, IV-A

12) Match the column :-

 Column-I Column-II
+
(a) H3O (i) Square pyramidal

(b) HC ≡ CH (ii) Pyramidal

(c) IF5 (iii) See-saw

(d) SF4 (iv) Linear

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)

13)

Which of the following show diagonal hybridisation?

(1)
(2)
(3) BeF2
(4) SF2

14) Choose incorrect order :-

(1) 1st ionisation potential Mg < S < P < F

(2) Atomic radii Cl < Mg < P < Ca
(3) Basic nature Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(4) Acidic nature NH3 < PH3 < AsH3

15)

Incorrect order of atomic radius :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) From the given set of species, point out the species from each set having the least atomic radius
:
(P) O2–, F–, Na+ (Q) Ni,Cu, Zn
(R) Li, Be, Mg (S) He, Li+, H–
correct answer is :

(1) O2–, Cu, Li, H–

(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
(3) F–, Zn, Mg, He
(4) Na+, Cu, Be, He

17) Which of the following is not correctly matched

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 → Transition element

(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 → Inner transition element
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6 7s2 → Representative element
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 → d-block element

18) Which of the following is drawback of the octet theory?

I. It is clear that octet rule is based upon the chemical inertness of noble gases. However, some
noble gases (for example xenon and krypton) also combine with oxygen and fluorine to form a
number of compounds like XeF2, KrF2, XeOF2 etc.
II. This theory does not account for the shape of molecules.
III. It does not explain the relative stability of the molecules being totally silent about the energy of a
molecule.
Choose the correct statements

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) All of these

19) Match the following correctly

Molecule Type of Overlapping

(a) F2 (p) sp2 – 3p

(b) H–Cl (q) 2p – 2p

(c) H2O (r) sp3 – 1s

(d) BCl3 (s) 1s – 3p

(1) a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
(2) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p
(3) a - s, b - r, c - q, d - p
(4) a - p, b - q, c - r, d - p

20) In the following chemical reaction -

H2O(g) → H(g) + OH(g), ΔH1 = x kJ/mol
OH(g) → H(g) + O(g), ΔH2 = y kJ/mol
The correct order is -

(1) x > y
(2) x = y
(3) x < y
(4) Can't be predicted
21) If pure unhybridised orbitals are used in forming CH4 then which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Three bond angle will be at 90°.

(2) Three bond lengths are identical and fourth is different.
(3) Geometry will be tetrahedral.
(4) All of these

22) Which among the following molecules have sp3d hybridisation with one lone pair of electrons on
the central atom ?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4]+
(iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only.

23) Select the incorrect statement about resonance.

(1) The canonical forms have no real existence.

The molecule exist for a certain fraction of time in one canonical form and for other fraction of
(2)
time in other canonical form.
There is no such equilibrium between the canonical forms as in between tautomeric forms in
(3)
tautomerism.
The molecule as such has a single structure which is the resonance hybrid of the canonical
(4)
forms and which cannot as such be depicted by a single lewis structure.

24) Choose correct statement regarding molecular orbitals

(A) Sigma (σ) Molecular orbitals are symmetrical around the bond axis while pi(π) molecular orbitals
are not symmetrical.
(B) Molecular orbitals of diatomic molecules are designated as σ(sigma) / π(pi) / δ(delta), etc.
(C) Molecular orbitals obtain from 2Px and 2Py orbitals are symmetrical around the bond axis
because the presence of positive lobes above and negative lobes below the molecular plane.

(1) A,B and C

(2) B and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A and C only

25) Assertion : SF4 molecule has two type of structure possibilities. in

which (b) is more stable than (a).
Reason : lp-bp repulsions decide the greater stability of structure (b).
(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

26) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Energy released (p)

(b) Energy absorbed (q) O– → O2–

Inert gas configuration

(c) (r) Sr → Sr+2
is achieved

Half filled configuration

(d) (s)
is achieved

(t) Ge → Ge–
(1) (a) → p, s, t (b) → q, r (c) → q, r (d) → s, t
(2) (a) → p, t (b) → q, r, s (c) → q, r (d) → s, t
(3) (a) → p, r, t (b) → q, r (c) → q (d) → s, t
(4) (a) → p, t (b) → q, r, s (c) → q (d) → s, t

27) Arrange the following inert gases in increasing order of positive electron gain enthalpy (ΔegH)

(1) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn

(2) Rn < Xe < Kr < Ar < Ne < He
(3) He < Rn < Xe < Ar = Kr < Ne
(4) Rn < Xe < Kr < Ar < He < Ne

28) Correct arrangement of following elements in increasing order of metallic character is -

Si, Be, Mg, Na, P

(1) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na

(2) P < Si < Mg < Na < Be
(3) Be < Si < P < Mg < Na
(4) Be < Si < P < Na < Mg

29) Correct order of 2nd I.P. of C, N, O, F would be -

(1) C < N < F < O

(2) C < O < N < F
(3) N < C < F < O
(4) N < C < O < F

30) Incorrect increasing order of ionic size is-

(1) O2– < F¯ < Na+ < Al+3
(2) F– < Cl¯ < Br– < I–
(3) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+
(4) Ca2+ < K+ < S2– < P3–

31) Statement-I : Neptunium and Plutonium like Actinium and Protactinium are found in "pitche
blend" i.e., an ore of uranium.
Statement-II : A plot of against atomic mass gave a straight line ( where ν is frequency of x-
rays emitted).

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

32) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1)
According to Heisenberg's uncertainity principle, Δv.Δx≤
(2) Be2+ and Na+ are isoelectronic
The Balmer series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum appear in the visible region of
(3)
electromagnetic spectrum.
The four quantum numbers of valence electron of potassium are 4,0,1,
(4)

33) During microwave oven cooking, microwaves cause water molecules in food to vibrates,
producing heat that cooks the food. If food receives a total 20 × 10–24 J energy from the radiation of
wavelength 30 cm then the number of quantum received by the food is :

(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 30
(4) 70

34) The angular momentum of electron in an excited H-atom is . The K.E. of electron will be :

(1) + 13.6 eV
(2) + 3.4 eV
(3) + 0.85 eV
(4) + 0.5 eV

35) Statement-I :- Azimuthal quantum number determines the shape of the orbital.
Statement-II :- The principal quantum number determines the orientation and energy of the
orbitals.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

36) Which of the following pairs of orbitals do not have electron density along the axis ?

(1) dxy, pz
(2)
(3) px, py
(4) dxz, dyz

37) Assertion (A) :- It is possible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an
electron simultaneously in atom.
Reason (R) :- The path of electron in an atom is not clearly defined.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are false
(4) A is false but R is true

38) First line of Balmer series in H-spectrum show which colour ?

(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) Blue
(4) Violet

39) Study the orbital diagrams of two atoms P and Q. Which subshell will be more stable and why?

(1) P, exchange energy is more than Q

(2) Q, exchange energy is more than P
(3) Both are having same exchange energy
(4) P, exchange energy is less than Q

40) The orbital diagram in which both Aufbau and Hund's Rules are violated :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

41)

Which experiment is responsible for finding out the magnitude charge on an electron?

(1) Photoelectric experiment

(2) Rutherford's α-rays scattering experiment
(3) Cathode ray discharge tube experiment
(4) Millikan's oil drop experiment

42) Find orbital angular momentum of an e– which has angular momentum .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following graph represents the variation of probability density of 2s-electron?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44) If the radius of first Bohr orbit is x unit, then momentum of that e– in Third orbit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) When electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit in He+ ion. The radiation emitted
out will fall in :

(1) X-ray
(2) U.V. region
(3) infrared region
(4) radio wave region

BIOLOGY

1) (i) In human being the membrane of __A__ contain 52% protein and 40% lipid.
(ii) In young plant cell, the __B__ is capable of growth.

(1) A-Leucocytes, B-Secondary cell wall

(2) A-Erythrocytes, B-Primary cell wall
(3) A-Leucocytes, B-Tertiary cell wall
(4) A-Erythrocytes, B-Secondary cell wall

2) Given below are two statements One is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid.
Reason (R) : Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzyme like hydrolase, lipases, proteases and
carbohydrases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

3) Match the following lists.

List-I List-II

Store oil and

(a) Aleuroplast (i)
fats

(b) Elaioplast (ii) Store proteins

Xanthophyll
(c) Amyloplast (iii)
pigment

Store
(d) Chromoplast (iv)
carbohydrates

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

2 (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

3 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

4 (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding lysosomes ?

(1) These are membrane bound vesicular structures.

(2) It is very rich in almost all type of hydrolytic enzymes.
(3) It is formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus
(4) The hydrolytic enzymes optimally active at alkaline pH.

5) How many of the following statement is/are correct ?

(a) The ER often shows ribosomes attached to their outer surface
(b) Golgi cisternae are stacked perpendicular to each other
(c) Golgi apparatus remain in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
(d) The vacuole is bound by single membrane called leucoplast.
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

6) Given below is the list of organelles.

Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, mitochondria, peroxisomes, lysosomes, chloroplast, vacuoles.
How many of the above are part of endomembrane system ?

(1) four
(2) five
(3) three
(4) six

7) Which of the following is not a function of golgi apparatus ?

(1) Packaging of materials

(2) Modification of proteins
(3) Major site of synthesis of lipid
(4) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

8) RER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in __A__.

identify the __A__

(1) Lipid synthesis

(2) Carbohydrate synthesis
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Lipid and protein synthesis.

9) An arrangement of axonemal microtubles is referred to as the ___array.

(1) 9 + 2
(2) 2 + 9
(3) 9 + 0
(4) 9 + 9

10) Animal cells contain another non-membrane bound organelle called _______ which help in cell
division.

(1) Lysosome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Centrosome
(4) Microbodies

11) Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
Statement–I :- Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction.
Statement–II :- A few chromosomes have non staining secondary constriction at a constant
location.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

12) Plasmodesmata connects-

(1) Cytoplasm of neighbouring plant cells

(2) DNA of two cells
(3) Only ribosomes of two cells
(4) Nucleus of two cells

13) Match the following-

Column-I Column-II

Bivalent chromosomes align

(a) Prophase-I (i)
on equatorial plate

Homologous chromosome
(b) Metaphase-I (ii)
separate

Synaptonemal complex
(c) Anaphase-I (iii)
formation

(d) Telophase-I (iv) Nuclear membrane reappear

(1) (a–i), (b–ii), (c–iii), (d-iv)
(2) (a–iii), (b–ii), (c–iv), (d-i)
(3) (a–iii), (b–i), (c–ii), (d-iv)
(4) (a–iv), (b–iii), (c–ii), (d-i)

14) A very significant contribution of mitosis is-

(1) Cell repair

(2) Reduction in number of chromosomes
(3) Increase genetic variability
(4) Recombination

15) Separation of homologous chromosomes occur but centromere does not split in-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Metaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) Telophase-I

16) Assertion: The cell cycle is a highly regulated process that ensures accurate replication and
division of genetic material.
Reason: The cell cycle consist of distinct phases including interphases and M phase each at which is
highly controlled by check points and regulatory proteins.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

17) Given below are 2 statements.

Statement-I: Interkinesis is followed by telophase-I.
Statement-II: DNA synthesis occurs in Interkinesis.
Identify the correct option.

(1) Both Statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is incorrect.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

18) Observe the above diagram and identify the correct statement for given diagram ?

(a) In this stage, both the chromatids of chromosome become

separate.
(b) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochore of chromosome
(c) In this stage all the chromosomes coming to lie at the equator
(d) The chromosome become double and DNA amount remain same
(e) This stage is marked by the end of karyokinesis.

(1) b and c only

(2) a and b only
(3) d and e only
(4) b, c, and e only

19) Which of the following is correctly match ?

(A) (B)

(1) Each chromosome moving away from the equatorial plate Telophase

Condensation of chromosome is completed and chromosome

(2) Metaphase
are clearly observed under the microscope

(3) Morphology of chromosome is most easily studied Anaphase

 (4) Centrosome reach at the opposite poles Anaphase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which stage at mitosis follows S and G2 phase of interphase ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

21) Which of the following is marked by initiation of condensation of chromosome-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

22) In which phase of mitosis nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome clusters ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

23) Find out the incorrect statement-

(1) In zygotene, formation of synaptonemal complex takes place

(2) In pachytene, formation of recombination nodules takes place
(3) In diakinesis dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place
(4) Crossing over takes place during pachytene

24) Match the following-

Column-I Column-II

Centromere
(a) (i) G0-phase
splitting

Replication
(b) (ii) Telophase
of DNA

Nuclear
(c) (iii) S-phase
membrane reappear
 Cells are
(d) (iv) Anaphase
metabolically active
(1) (a–i), (b–ii), (c–iii), (d–iv)
(2) (a–ii), (b–i), (c–iv), (d–iii)
(3) (a–iv), (b–iii), (c–ii), (d–i)
(4) (a–iii), (b–iv), (c–i), (d–ii)

25) Fill up the blanks in the following statements with the appropriate options.
(I) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called as A .
(II) Enzyme involved in crossing over is B .
(III) The X-shaped structure formed during diplotene is C .
(IV) Dyad of cells are formed at the end of D .

A B C D

(1) Synapsis Permease Synaptonemal complex Telophase-I

(2) Bivalent Recombinase Chiasmata Meiosis-I

(3) Tetrad Lyase Bivalent Meiosis-I

(4) Nodules Endonucleas Chiasmata Anaphase-I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) A diploid cell contain 8 chromosomes what will be number of chromosome in each daughter
nuclei after meiosis-I.

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 16

27) Which enzymes catalyze the linking together of two compounds ?

(1) Transferase
(2) Lyases
(3) Isomerases
(4) Ligases

28) In protein the first amino acid in called as ..........'A'.......... and last amino acid is called as
.........'B'..........
Choose the correct word for "A" and "B"

"A" "B"

1. Reducing end Non reducing end

 2. 5' phosphate end 3' OH end

3. 'N' Terminal 'C' Terminal

4. 5' OH end 3' Phosphate end

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) The starch-I2 is ______ in colour. Cellulose does not contain complex_____ and hence cannot hold
I2.
Fill in the blanks, respectively :

(1) Red ; Helices

(2) Blue ; Helices
(3) Red ; Straight
(4) Blue ; Branches

30) Phospholipids are found in _______, such as _____.

Fill in the blanks, respectively -

(1) cell wall; Lecithin

(2) cell wall; cholesterol
(3) Cell membrane; palmitic acid
(4) Cell membrane; Lecithin

31) Majority of proteins & enzymes in protoplasm exhibit ____A____ structure -

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quaternary

32) (A) and (B) in the above diagram are :-

(A) (B)

(1) Guanine Cytosine

(2) Adenine Uracil

 (3) Adenosine Uridine

(4) Guanine Uracil

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33)

Choose the odd one out w.r.t. homopolymers :

(1) Cellulose
(2) Glycogen
(3) Protein
(4) Chitin

34) Which of the following statement is not true about amino acid ?

(1) Essential amino acids are not synthesized in the body. Therefore have to be provided in the diet.
(2) Amino acids are substituted methanes.
(3) At isoelectric point, amino acid is present in form of Zwitter ion.
(4) All 20 types of amino acids are essential amino acid for human body.

35) Match the protein given in Column-I with its function given in Column-II and choose the right
option.

Column-I Column-II
(Protein) (Functions)

A. GLUT-4 I Fight Infections agents

Inter cellular ground

B. Collagen II
substance`

C. Antibody III Enzyme

D. Trypsin IV Glucose transport

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III,D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I,D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I,D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I,D-III
36)
According to above graph

(1) It is an exothermic reaction

(2) It is an endothermic reaction
(3) It is an endothermic and redox reaction
(4) Need to supply energy in order to form the product

37) Select the correct statements :

(a) Each of the metabolic reactions results in the transformation of biomolecules.
(b) Proteins with catalytic power are named enzymes.
(c) NAD+ is the most important form of energy currency in living system is the bond energy in a
chemical.
(d) Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature and pH.

(1) a and b
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a and d

38) ________ is a metal ion cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.

(1) Mn
(2) Zn
(3) Cl
(4) Mg

39) Which of the following co-factor is a prosthetic group ?

(1) NAD+
(2) Zinc
(3) Haem
(4) Niacin

40) The binding of the ________induces the enzyme to alter it's shape fitting more tightly around the
substrate.

(1) Inhibitor
(2) Product
(3) Substrate
(4) Bacterial pathogen

41) The difference in average energy content of substrate from that of transition state is called____.

(1) Kinetic energy

(2) Chemical energy
(3) Activation energy
(4) Potential energy

42) Which of the following scientist gave the cell theory a final shape?

(1) Leeuwenhoek
(2) Schleiden & Schwann
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Rudolf Virchow

43) Which among the following is a function of chloroplast ?

(1) Synthesis of food

(2) Cell wall formation
(3) NAD+ synthesis
(4) Distribution of DNA in daughter cells

44) In the meiotic cell division four daughter cells are produced by two successive division in which :

(1) First division is reductional and second is equational.

(2) First division is equational, second is reductional.
(3) Both division are equational.
(4) Both division are reductional.

45) In a diploid cell after S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram then after meiosis-II each
daughter nucleus will be :-

(1) Diploid with 10 pico gram DNA

(2) Haploid with 10 pico gram DNA
(3) Haploid with 5 pico gram DNA
(4) Diploid with 5 pico gram DNA

46) Select the incorrect one :

 Antibodies
Blood Group Donor's Group
in plasma

(1) A anti-B A,O

(2) O anti-A,B O

(3) B anti-A A,O

(4) AB nil AB, A, B, O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Congestive heart Heart muscle suddenly damaged

(A) (i)
failure by inadequate blood supply

Acute chest pain due to lack of

(B) Heart attack (ii)
oxygen to heart muscle

(C) Cardiac arrest (iii) Congestion of the lungs

(D) Angina (iv) Heart stops beating

Options :-
A B C D

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Statement-I : Platelets are also called Leucocytes.

Statement-II : Platelets are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

49) Select the correct option for heart failure.

(1) Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptom.
(2) Heart is not pumping blood.
(3) Heart stops beating.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

50) SA node is present in the :-

(1) right upper corner of the left atrium

(2) left upper corner of the right atrium
(3) right lower corner of the right atrium
(4) right upper corner of the right atrium

51) The atrium and the ventricle of the same side are separated by a __'X'____ tissue called the atrio-
ventricular septum. Identify X :-

(1) Thin fibrous

(2) Thin muscular
(3) Thick muscular
(4) Thick fibrous

52) Which of the following statements are correct-

I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrin to fibrinogen by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves only one reaction

(1) I, III, IV
(2) I, II
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

53) Which of following blood cells are phagocytic ?

(1) Eosinophil, Basophil

(2) Basophil, Neutrophil
(3) Neutrophil, Monocyte
(4) Monocyte, Lymphocyte

54) Time periode of joint diastole is :-

(1) 0.8 sec

(2) 0.4 sec
(3) 0.5 sec
(4) 0.3 sec

55) Which of the following have simple squamous epithelium ?

(1) Artery only
(2) Vein only
(3) Capillary only
(4) Artery, Vein and Capillary

56) Which statement is incorrect regarding first heart sound ?

(1) It is produced at the beginning of ventricular systole

(2) It is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(3) It is called "LUBB"
(4) It is high pitch sound for short period

57) Cardiac output can be changed by change in:

(1) Heart rate

(2) Stroke volume
(3) Breathing rate
(4) Both (1) & (2)

58)

In which of the following possibility of erythroblastosis foetalis is maximum ?

(1) Father Rh+, Mother Rh+, Foetus Rh–

(2) Father Rh–, Mother Rh–, Foetus Rh–
(3) Father Rh+, Mother Rh–, Foetus Rh+
(4) Father Rh–, Mother Rh+, Foetus Rh+

59) Just after second heart sound.

(1) Blood moves from right ventricle to pulmonary artery

(2) AV valve close
(3) Joint Diastole starts
(4) Auricular systole ends

60)

Rh –ve person donated blood to Rh +ve person for the second time then. :-

(1) Rh –ve person will die

(2) Rh +ve person will die
(3) Rh +ve blood starts reacting to Rh –ve blood
(4) Nothing happens to Rh +ve person.

61) In human beings, the conducting part of the respiratory tract is present from
(1) Trachea to initial bronchiole.
(2) External nostrils to terminal bronchioles.
(3) Internal nostrils to terminal bronchioles.
(4) External nostrils to initial bronchioles.

62) How does diaphragm contribute to inspiration ?

(1) By relaxing to decrease thoracic volume.

(2) By contracting to increase thoracic volume.
(3) By contracting to decrease thoracic volume.
(4) By relaxing to increase thoracic volume.

63) Assertion : The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit
difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.
Reason : The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2

(1) Both Assertion and Reason is correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason is correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

64) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primary related to

(1) Partial pressure of O2

(2) Partial pressure of CO2
(3) Hydrogen of concentration
(4) Temperature

65) The given oxygen dissociation curve is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like

(1) pCO2
(2) H+
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Carbonic anhydrase

66) Which is not true regarding breathing of gases ?

 As the solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2, the amount of CO2 that can diffuse
(1) through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much lower compared
to that of O2
Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
(2)
physiological conditions.
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

67) Match the following and choose the correct option -

Column-I Column-II

(1) Tidal volume 1200 ml

(2) Asthma Wheezing

(3) Vital capacity 1100-1200 ml

(4) Emphysema Fibrosis of lungs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Which is correctly represents FRC ?

(1) TV + IRV
(2) TV + ERV
(3) RV + ERV
(4) TV + RV

69) If total O2 transported by blood from lungs to cell in a minute is 500 ml. Then the volume of O2
transported by blood found dissolved in plasma is

(1) 970 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 1000 ml
(4) 30 ml

70) Which one is not suitable condition that arrised at tissue level for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin ?

(1) Low
High
(2)

(3) Low H+ concentration

(4) High temperature
71) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in Alveoli, atmospheric air and tissues will be :-

(1) 0.3, 40, 45

(2) 40, 0.3, 45
(3) 0.3, 104, 28
(4) 104, 159, 40

72) During CO2 transport, HCO3– diffuses from erythrocytes to plasma and in turn upsets the ionic
balance momentarily. In order to keep the ionic balance, equal number of Cl– pass into the
erythrocytes from plasma. The process is known as :-

(1) Hamburger phenomenon

(2) Bicarbonate shift
(3) Carbonation
(4) Bohr's effect

73)

An area situated adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre and highly sensitive to CO2 and H+. It is

(1) Chemo sensitive area

(2) Dorsal respiratory group
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Ventral respiratory group

74) By the contraction in diaphragm the volume of thoracic chamber increase in the

(1) Darso - ventral axis

(2) Antero - posterior axis
(3) Antero - ventral axis
(4) Darso - posterior axis

75) Select the correct statement from following ?

(1) Pneunotaxic centre is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration.

(2) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is highly significant.
(3) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
A chemosensative area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to O2
(4)
concentration.

76) _______perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.

(1) Antennal gland

(2) Nephridia
(3) Flame cell
(4) Kidney
77) What is the function of the renal Pelvis ?

(1) Filtration of Blood

(2) Storage of Urine
(3) Collection of Urine from calyces
(4) Production of Urine

78) ____ is the major site of selective secretion.

Choose the correct option :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct

79) Assertion :- There is a need to conserve water in terrestrial adaptations.

Reason :- It has necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric
acid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

80) Protonephridia are primarily concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation are present in :-

(1) Rotifers
(2) Cephalochordate
(3) Some annelids
(4) All of the above

81)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and
permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium
and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

82) Light yellow coloured fluid which is slightly acidic (pH 6.0) is :-
(1) Plasma
(2) Lymph
(3) Urine
(4) Glomerular filterate

83) What would be true about the role of collecting duct in the concentration of urine by the kidneys
?
(I) Allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium.
(II) Large amounts of water could be reabsorbed from this part of produce a concentrated urine.

(1) Only (I)

(2) Only (II)
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Neither (I) nor (II)

84) Which of the following substances is not eliminated by secretion of sebaceous gland?

(1) Sterols
(2) Hydrocarbons
(3) Wax
(4) NaCl

85) Nitrogenous waste is excreted by diffusion across body surfaces or through gill surfaces is :-

(1) Urea
(2) Uric acid
(3) Ammonia
(4) Creatinine

86) Which structure is absent in cortical nephrons ?

(1) PCT
(2) Peritubular capillaries
(3) Vasa recta
(4) DCT

87) Removal of JGA from kidney will result in

(1) Release of renin which convertes angiotensinogen to angiotensin-I.

(2) Further decrease of GFR
(3) Heart release's ANF in response
(4) No change in body fluid volume.

88) If a person drinks excess water, then ADH release will be :

(1) Stimulated
(2) Suppressed
(3) Not affected
(4) First stimulate then suppressed

89) Which of following helps to autoregulate the GFR over a wide range of blood pressure ?

(1) Myogenic mechanism

(2) Renin
(3) JGA
(4) All of the above

90) Medullary gradient is mainly developed due to :-

(1) NaCl and urea

(2) NaCl and glucose
(3) Glucose and urea
(4) Ammonia and glucose
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 4 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 1 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 4 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Apparent weight = actual weight – upthrust force

Vdg' = Vdg – Vrg

⇒ g' = g

2)
F = 37.5 N

3) Vdg – Vrg – 6rhrn = Vd

⇒ν=

5) Work done to from a soap bubble

W = 8πR2T [As V ∝ R3 R ∝ V1/3]
∴ W ∝ V2/3

= (2)2/3
1/3
⇒ W2 = (4) W

6)

At equilibrium, weight of the given block is balanced by force due to surface tension,
i.e. 2LS = w

or S = = 0.025 Nm–1

= 0.025 ×
= 25

7) TS = 3mg

= yS ×

= yb ×
=

8) Elasticity of wire decrease with tem.

10) Particle breaks off at cos θ =

11) x = = = const.

12) aT = , ac =

a=

13) θ > 180°

14)

In non-uniform circular motion aT may or may not be constant.

NCERT Pg. 41

15) Vmax = = = 50 m/s

16)

17) TA > TC = TD > TB

[TP = mg cos θ + ]
26)

Gravitational potential is same inside and surface of hollow sphere.

27)

28) NCERT Pg. # 122

IAB = ICM + Md2

IAB = =

LAB = IABω =

29) τ0 = 0 [Particle performing U.C.M.]

τp = mgℓ sin θ

30) τ = mg × x
τ = mg ucosθ t

31) NCERT Page - 106

32) xc =
∴ Friction required is zero.

33)
VA = 2VCMsin30° = VCM

34)

=
35) IAB = ICM + Md2
ICM = IAB – Md2

= mR2 – m

37) M = ρ × Vol ⇒ M ∝ ρ (v = same)

38)

same as,

∴ distance of COM from O is =

=
39)
A1r1 = A2r2

40) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

41)

case (1) case (2)

If If
10 + m = 20 – 2m –10 – m = 20 – 2m
3m = 10 m = 30

Not possible because

m < 10 kg

42) distance travelled by boat

60 (6 – x) = 120 x
360 – 60x = 120 x
180 x = 360
x = 2m
final distance of man from the shore is = 20 – (6 – 2)
= 16 m

43) NCERT Page no. # 100

∵ momentum conservation in explosion
then p1 = p2 = p

∵ K.E. =
 Total K.E. = (KE)1 + (KE)2 = (KE)Total =

44)

= 24(16)
= 384 J

45) = = 2 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

46)

NCERT Pg. # 103

48)

49)

b.p. ⇒ H2O > HF > NH3 → due to both extent and strength of H-bond.

50)

NCERT Pg. # 132

55)

NCERT Pg. # 106

56)

As per M.O.T
57)

NCERT Pg. # 115,116

58)

NCERT Pg.#121

63)

NCERT Pg. # 106

65) NCERT, Pg. # 105

66)

NCERT Pg. # 120

68)

NCERT Pg. # 110

69) NCERT Pg.#123

70)

NCERT Pg. # 117

72) He = +48, Ne = +116, Ar = +96, Kr = +96,

Xe = + 77, Rn = +68

73)

Metallic character increases top to bottom and decreases left to right.

74) After losing 1 e–1, Oxygen shows most stable electronic configuration.

75) Ionic size ∝

76) v/s Z graph ⇒ straight line.

77) NCERT XIth Part-1 Pg. # 51, 70, 46, 63

78) NCERT Pg. # 67 Q.2.48

E=

79) NCERT Pg.# 45, 2019

= ⇒ n = 4, KE = + 0.85 eV

80) NCERT Pg. # 55

Principal Quantum number determines, size & energy of shell.
Azimuthal Quantum number determines shape and angular momentum of electron in orbital.

81) dxy have electron density in xy plane and dyz have electron density in yz plane.

82) NCERT Pg. # 50

Both exact position and exact momentum of moving electron can't be determined
simultaneously → path of electron in atom is not well defined.

83) NCERT Pg. # 46

1st line of Balmer series is least energetic line in visible range.
i.e. max wavelength.

87)

mvr =

n=4
ℓ=3

O.A,M. =

88)

Radial node = (n – ℓ – 1)
=2–0–1=1

89)

r0 = x

mvr3 =
BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI, Pg. # 93

92) NCERT Pg.# 96

93) NCERT XI, Pg. # 97

94) NCERT XI, Pg. # 97

95) NCERT XI, Pg. # 95

96) NCERT XI, Pg. # 94, 95

97) NCERT XI, Pg. # 133, 95

98) NCERT XI, Pg. # 95

99) NCERT Pg. # 99

100) NCERT XI, Pg. # 99

101)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 101

102) NCERT XI, Pg. # 94

103) NCERT-XI, Pg # 126, 127

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

105) NCERT, Pg. # 127

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 120

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

108) NCERT XI, Pg. # 123

109) NCERT XI, Pg. # 123, 124

110) NCERT XI, Pg. # 122

111) NCERT (XI) Pg # 122

112) NCERT XI, Pg. # 124

113) NCERT XI, Pg. # 126

114) NCERT XI, Pg. # 121, 122

115) NCERT XI, Pg. # 126, 125

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122

117)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 117

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112

119) NCERT XI, Pg. # 110

120) NCERT XI, Pg. # 106

121) NCERT XI Pg : 111-112

122) NCERT XI, Pg. # 107

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 110

124)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 109

125)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 109

126) NCERT XI, Pg. # 115

127) NCERT XI, Pg. # 152, 153

128) NCERT XI, Pg. # 118

129) NCERT Pg. # 118

130)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 116, 117

131)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 115

132)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 88

133)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 97

134)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 125

135) NCERT XI, Pg. # 121, 122

136) NCERT Page No. # E-280, H-281

137) NCERT, Pg # 288

138) NCERT Pg#280(E), 281(H)

139) NCERT Pg#288 (E), 289 (H)

140) NCERT - Pg#284(E), 285 (H)

141) NCERT - Pg#283(E), 284 (H)

142)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 196

143) NCERT-XI, Pg#279

144)

NCERT XI Pg. # 285

145) NCERT–XI, Para-3, Pg. # 101

146) NCERT-XI , Pg# 285

147) NCERT Pg. # 285

148) NCERT(XI) Pg # 281

149) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 284

150)

NCERT Pg No. # 281 (Para-1)

151)

NCERT Pg#185

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 186

153) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 188

154) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 189

155) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 189

156) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 188, 189

157) NCERT Pg. # 186,187,190

158) NCERT Pg. # 187

159) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 274

160) NCERT (XI) (H) Pg. # 275

161)

NCERT PAGE NO. 187

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

Hamburger phenomenon
Chloride shift → Movement of HCO3– from RBCs to plasma changes ionic balance. To restore
ionic balance, negative Cl– ions from plasma diffuse into RBCs. This is chloride shift. (Bohr's
effect occurs at tissue surface).

163)

NCERT (XI) Page No. # 275

164) NCERT - XI, Pg. # 271

Diaphragm moves towards abdominal cavity, that becomes flate

165) NCERT-XIth Pg # 275 [E]

166) NCERT Pg. # 206

167) NCERT Pg. # 206

168)

Summary Pg. # 215

169) NCERT Pg. # 205

170) NCERT Pg. # 206

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

172) NCERT Pg # 213

173) NCERT Pg. No. # 210

174) NCERT Pg.# 213

175) NCERT Pg.# 205

176) NCERT Pg.# 208

177) NCERT Pg. No. # 297

178) NCERT Pg.#297

179) NCERT XI, Page # 297

180) NCERT XI (E), Page # 296