NEET Like MOCK TEST-10

Time : 3.00Hrs 200 MCQs PATTERN Max.Marks.720

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test will be a 3 hours Test, Maximum Marks 720M.

2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology questions with equal weightage of 180 marks.

3. Each question is of 4 marks.

4. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting Part-I Physics (Q.no.1 to 50), Part-II Chemistry (Q.no.51 to 100),
Part-III Botany (Q. no. 101 to 150) and Part-IV Zoology (Q. no.151 to 200). Each part is divided into two Sections,
Section A consists of 35 multiple choice questions & Section-B consists of 15 Multiple choice questions, out of these 15
questions candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.

5. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each question 4 marks will be
awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted
question.

6. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students appearing for the
test.

7. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.

========================================================================
Syllabus
Physics : CLASS XI & XII
Chemistry : CLASS XI & XII
Biology : CLASS XI & XII
========================================================================
 PART-1 : PHYSICS : SECTION-A
1. Component of 3iˆ + 4 ˆj perpendicular to iˆ + ˆj and in the same plane as that of 3iˆ + 4 ˆj is:

(1)
2
(
1 ˆ ˆ
)
j −i (2)
2
(
3 ˆ ˆ
)
j −i (3) (
5 ˆ ˆ
2
)
j −i (4) (
7 ˆ ˆ
2
)
j −i
2. Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2% respectively. The
error in measurement of moment of inertia about its diameter is :-
(1) 9% (2) 6% (3) 5% (4) 4%
3. A car is moving with a speed of 50 km/h, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6m. If the same car is
moving at a speed of 100 km/h the minimum stopping distance is :-
(1) 12 m (2) 18 m (3) 24 m (4) 6 m
4. In a car race, car A takes t0 timeless to finish than car B and passes the finishing point with a velocity v0
v
more than car B. The cars start from rest and travel with constant acceleration a 1 and a2. Then the ratio 0
t0
is equal to :
a12 a1 + a2 a22
(1) (2) (3) a1 + a2 (4)
a2 2 a1
2
5. In give figure expansion of spring will be :- (take g = 10 m/s )

(1) 64 cm (2) 16 cm (3) 32 cm (4) None

6. The system is pushed by a force F as shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth except between B and C.
Friction coefficient between B and C is μ. Minimum value of F to prevent block B from downward
slipping is :-

 3   5  5 3
(1)   mg (2)   mg (3)    mg (4)    mg
 2   2  2 2
7. A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along iˆ + ˆj + kˆ , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1) to (3, 5, 2).
The work done during this displacement is
(1) 90 J (2) 30 J (3) 30 3 J (4) 30/ 3 J
8. A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate through a given horizontal pipe. To deliver ‘n’ times the
water through the same pipe in the same time the power of the motor must be increased as follows:-
(1) n-times (2) n2 –times (3) n3 -times (4) n4 –times
9. The ratio of angular speeds of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is :-
(1) 1 : 12 (2) 6 : 1 (3) 12 : 1 (4) 1 : 6
10. A ball is dropped from a height 'h'. As it bounces off the floor, its speed is 80 percent of what it was just
before it hit the floor. The ball will then rise to a height of most nearly :
(1) 0.8 h (2) 0.75 h (3) 0.64 h (4) 0.50 h
11. A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with variable angular velocity equal to α-βt at time t, where α and
β are constants. The angle through which it rotates before it comes to rest is :-
2 2 + 2 2 −2  ( −  )
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
12. A rod of mass 'M' and length 'L' is hinged about one end and a particle of mass 'M' is attached to its other
end. If it is kept horizontal with the help of a spring of spring constant 'K' as shown in fig. find the
extension in spring :-

3Mg Mg 2Mg 4Mg

(1) (2) (3) (4)
K K K K
13. A planet revolves in elliptical orbit around the sun. The linear speed of the planet will be maximum at:

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

14. An object weighs 10 N at the north pole of the earth. In a geostationary satellite distant 7R from the centre
of the earth (of radius R), the true weight and the apparent weight are :-
(1) 0 N, 0 N (2) 0.2 N, 0 N (3) 0.2 N, 9.8 N (4) 0.2 N, 0.2 N
15. A number of water droplets each of radius r coalesce to form a drop of radius R. Assuming the whole of
the energy liberated due to coalescence goes into heating the drop, the rise in the temperature dθ is :-
2T 3T 3T  1 1  3T  1 1 
(1) (2) (3)  −  (4)  + 
rJ rJ J r R J r R
16. If there is no change in the volume of wire on stretching, then poisson's ratio for material of wire is :-
(1) –1 (2) 0 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.25
17. Oxygen boils at –183°C. This temperature is approximately :-
(1) 215°F (2) –297°F (3) 329°F (4) 361°F
18. A person weighing 50 kg takes in 1500 k cal diet per day, If this energy were to be used in heating the
body of person without any losses, then the rise in his temperature is :- (specific heat of human body =
0.83 cal g–1 C–1 )
(1) 30 °C (2) 48 °C (3) 40.16 °C (4) 36.14 °C
19. When fluids are heated from the bottom, convection currents are produced because :-
(1) Molecular motion of fluid becomes aligned
(2) Molecular collisions take place within the fluid
(3) Heated fluid becomes more dense than the cold fluid above it
(4) Heated fluid becomes less dense than the cold fluid above it
20. If the temperature of the sun is doubled the rate of energy received on earth will be increased by a factor
of :-
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16

21. Four pendulums A, B, C and D are suspended from the same elastic support as shown in figure. A and C
are of the same length, while B is smaller than A and D is larger than A. if A is given a transverse
displacement:

(1) D will vibrate with maximum amplitude (2) C will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(3) B will vibrate with maximum amplitude (4) All the four will oscillate with equal amplitude
22. Speed of sound waves in a fluid depends upon :-
(1) Directly on density of the medium
(2) Square of Bulk modulus of the medium
(3) Directly on the square root of density
(4) Directly on the square root of bulk modulus of the medium
v
23. A source and a listener are both moving towards each other with speed , where v is the speed of sound.
10
If the frequency of the note emitted by the source is f, the frequency heard by the listener would be nearly
:-
(1) 1.11 f (2) 1.22 f (3) 1.27 f (4) f
24. Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64 P are placed in opposite direction on a line at a distance of 25
cm. The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance from the dipole of moment
P is :-
25 4
(1) 5 cm (2) cm (3) 10 cm (4) cm
9 13
25. Charge on both surfaces of middle metal plate :-

(1) x = – 2Q, x' = 0 (2) x = + 2Q, x' = 0 (3) x = – 2Q, x' = + 4 Q (4) x = – 4Q, x' = + 2Q
26. Two spherical conductors A and B of radius a and b (b > a) are placed in air concentrically B is given
charge + Q coulomb and A is grounded. The equivalent capacitance of these is :-

 ab   b2 
(1) 4 0   (2) 4πε 0 (a + b) (3) 4πε 0 b (4) 4 0 
b−a b−a
27. The resistance in the following figure are in ohm. Then, the effective resistance between the points A and
B is :-

(1) 3 Ω (2) 2 Ω (3) 6 Ω (4) 36 Ω

28. Reading of Ammeter ( A1 ) and ( A2 ) will be respectively:-

(1) 4A, 9A (2) 2A, 7A (3) 4A, 7A (4) 2A, 9A

29. Three 60 W, 120V light bulbs are connected across a 120 V power source. If resistance of each bulb does
not change with current then find out total power delivered to the three bulbs.

(1) 180W (2) 20W (3) 40W (4) 60W

30. If the angles of dip at two places are 30° and 45° respectively, then the ratio of horizontal components of
earth's magnetic field at the two places assuming magnitude of total magnetic field of earth is same will
be :-
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 1: 3 (3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2
31. A square loop. carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor
carrying steady current I1 at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience

(1) a net attractive force towards the conductor

(2) a net repulsive force away from the conductor
(3) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
(4) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
32. In an electromagnetic wave, at any instant the electric field was found to oscillate with an amplitude of
18v/m. The magnitude of oscillating magnetic field will be –
(1) 4 × 10–6 T (2) 6 × 10–8 T (3) 9 × 10–9 T (4) 11 × 10–11 T
33. Flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to the
equation; ϕ = 6t2 – 5t + 1. What is the magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 sec?
(1) 1.2A (2) 0.8A (3) 0.6A (4) 0.2A
34. I = 2 t A, find out rms value of above signal from t = 2s to t = 4s.
(1) 2 3 A (2) 2 A (3)
2
3
A
2
3
(
(4) 8 − 2 2 )
35. Absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3. The ratio of speed of light in glass and
water will be :-
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 8 : 7 (3) 8 : 9 (4) 3 : 4
PART-1 : PHYSICS : SECTION-B
36. A person can not see the objects beyond 50 cm. The power of a lens to correct this vision will be
(1) +2D (2) –2D (3) +5D (4) 0.5D
37. Two tree are at distance of 3.14 m from each other. What should the maximum distance of an observer
from tree to see them separately
(1) 21.6 km (2) 10.8 km (3) 15 km (4) 25.2 km
38. A double slit experiment is shown in the figure. Each slit has width W. A thin piece of glass of thickness
δ refractive index μ, is placed between one of the slits and the screen. The intensity at the central point is
measured as a function of thickness δ. For what values of δ is the intensity at C is minimum.
  
(1) (2) (3) zero (4) λ
2 2 (  − 1)
39. The energy of a photon of light of wavelength 450 nm is :
(1) 4.4 × 10–19 J (2) 2.5 × 10–19 J (3) 1.25 × 10–17 J (4) 2.5 × 10–17 J
40. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 2 m away. When the source is shifted to 1m,
then
(1) each emitted electron carries two times of initial energy
(2) number of electrons emitted is two times of the initial number
(3) each emitted electron carries four times of the initial energy
(4) number of electrons emitted is four times of the initial number
41. The binding energy of deuteron 12 H is 1.112 MeV per nucleon and an α-particle He has a binding energy
of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the fusion reaction 12 H +12 H →42 He + Q , the energy Q released is :-
(1) 1 MeV (2) 11.9 MeV (3) 23.8 MeV (4) 931 MeV
42. The half-life of radioactive radon is 3.8 days. The time at the end of which (1/20)th of the radon sample
will remain undecayed, is :-
(1) 3.8 days (2) 16.5 days (3) 33 days (4) 76 days
43. In a common emitter transistor amplifier, an input signal of 10 mV is applied. Due to this signal, the
change in base current is 50μA and the corresponding change in collector current is 5 μA. If the load
resistance in the collector emitter circuit is 5kΩ, the change in output voltage will be
(1) 5V (2) 10 V (3) 25 V (4) 50 V
44. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

45. A zener diode having breakdown voltage equal to 10V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in
figure. The current flowing through the diode is :

(1) 10 mA (2) 5 mA (3) 15 mA (4) 20 Ma

46. Which statement is incorrect?
1) All reversible cycles have same efficiency
2) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one
3) Carnot cycle is a reversible one
4) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles
47. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot’s cycle between 227 0C and 1270 C . It absorbs 6 104 J at
the higher temperature. The amount of heat converted into work is
 1) 1.6 104 J 2) 1.2 104 J 3) 4.8 104 J 4) 3.5 104 J
48. If CP and CV denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit mass at constant pressure and constant
volume respectively, then
R R
1) CP − CV = 28R 2) C P − CV = 3) C P − CV = 4) CP − CV = R
28 14
49. At what temperature, RMS speed of air molecules is doubled of that at NTP?
1) 819 0 C 2) 719 0 C 3) 909 0 C 4) None of these
50. During adiabatic change, specific heat is
1) Zero 2) Greater than zero but finite 3) Less than zero
4) Infinite

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY : SECTION-A

51. The difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr's radius of H atom is equal to its (n – 1)th Bohr's radius. The
value of n is :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
52. Approximate atomic weight of an element is 26.89. If its equivalent weight is 8.9, the exact atomic weight
of element would be :-
(1) 26.89 (2) 8.9 (3) 17.8 (4) 26.7
53. Which of the following will not shift the equilibrium, N2 + 3H2 2NH3 towards product side
(1) Cooling (2) Addition of reactants (3) Addition of catalyst (4) Increasing pressure
54. pH of water is 7.0 at 25°C. If water is heated to 70°C, the:-
(1) pH will decrease and solution becomes acidic (2) pH will increase
(3) pH will remain constant as 7 (4) pH will decrease but solution will be neutral
55. Which relationship is incorrect ?
(1) ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT (for reaction)
(2) ΔG = – TΔS
(3) ΔG° = –2.303 RT log K
V
(4) W = + 2.303 nRT log 1 (for reversible isothermal process)
V2
56. The bond dissociation energies of CH4 and C2H6 respectively are 360 and 620 kcal mol-1 The C–C bond
energy would be :-
(1) 260 kcal mol-1 (2) 180 kcal mol-1 (3) 130 kcal mol-1 (4) 80 kcal mol-1
57. When 1 mole of KMnO4 reacts with H2C2O4 in acidic medium number of moles of H2C2O4 are :-
(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 2 / 5 (4) 5 / 2
58. Which is correct about real gas :
(1) Pressure of real gas is higher than ideal gas
(2) volume of real gas is lower than ideal gas
(3) Real gas follows ideal gas equation at very low pressure and high temperature.
(4) Real gas behaves as ideal gas at high pressure and low temperature
59. Each unit cell of NaCl consists of 14 Cl– ions and
(1) 13 Na+ (2) 14 Na+ (3) 6 Na+ (4) All are wrong
60. Emulsion can be broken into liquid constituents by all except.
(1) Heating (2) Freezing (3) Centrifuging (4) Emulsifier
k1
61. For and elementary reaction 2 A k B , the rate of disappearance of A is equal to :-
2

2k
(1) 1  A
2
(2) –2k1 [A]2 + 2k2[B] (3) 2k1[A]2 – 2k2 [B] (4) (2k1 – k2 )[A]
k2
62. The thermodynamic efficiency of cell is given by –
H nFE nFE
(1) (2) (3) – (4) Zero
G G H
63. Four alkali metals A, B, C & D have standard electrode potentials –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 & 0.80 V
respectively. Which metal will be the most reactive :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
64. Certain amount of urea is dissolved in 200 g of water in order to decrease the vapour pressure of water by
25%.The molality of the solution is :-
(1) 1.85 m (2) 0.93 m (3) 18.5 m (4) 9.3 m
3
65. If mol of O2 combine with Mg to form MgO. Find mass of Mg that has combined :
2
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
(1) 72 g (2) 36 g (3) 24 g (4) 96 g
66. Which of the following is strongest base?
(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Mg(OH)2 (3) Al(OH)3 (4) Si(OH)4
67. Which graph indicates trend of valency in group:-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

68. Types of bond present in CuSO4.5H2O:
(1) Electrovalent, covalent, coordinate and hydrogen bond
(2) Electrovalent and covalent
(3) Electrovalent and coordinate
(4) Covalent and coordinate
69. In which of the following pair both species have comparable bond order.
(1) O2[AsF6], BaO2[O-O bond order] (2) C2, CaC2[C-C bond order]
(3) C2H2, CaC2 [C-C bond order] (4) CaC2, N2-2 [C-C and N-N bond order]
70. Which of the following are bidentate monoanion ligands?
(a) Acetylacetonato (b) Oxalato ion (c) Dimethylglyoximato
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) a only (2) a and c only (3) c only (4) b and c only
71. Which one of the following has the highest molar conductivity?
(1) Diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (2) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) chloride
(3) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II) (4) Hexaaquochromium(III) bromide
72. Total number of possible isomer of complex [Pd(NH3)2(ONO)2] :-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 9
73. Fire extinguisher contains :-
(1) CaCO3 (2) H2SO4 & NaHCO3 solutions
(3) NaHCO3 solution (4) CaCO3 & H2SO4 solutions
74. If x pentagonal rings and y hexagonal Rings are present in fullerene of z carbon atoms then :-
(1) 5x + 6y = z (2) 5x + 6y = 2z (3) 5x + 6y = 3z (4) 5x + 6y = 4z
75. In which of the following molecule central atom is having complete octet
(1) BeCl2 (dimer) (2) BeH2 (dimer) (3) BeH2 (s) (4) BeCl2 (s)
76. Which of the following has peroxy linkage?
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2SO5 (3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S4O6
77. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is :-
(1) IO3– (2) I2 (3) IO– (4) IO4–
78. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoides than those by the lanthanoids, the main
reason being :-
(1) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than 4f and 5d orbitals
(2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) More reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids
(4) 4f orbitals are more diffused than 5f orbitals
79. Main chemical change during roasting of CuFeS2 –

(1) CuFeS2 + O2 ⎯⎯ → Cu2O + FeO + SO2 (2) CuFeS2 + O2 ⎯⎯ 
→ Cu2S + FeS + SO2 + FeO

(3) CuFeS2 + O2 ⎯⎯ 
→ Cu2S + FeO + SO2 (4) CuFeS2 + O2 ⎯⎯ → Cu2O + FeS + SO2
80. H2O2 on treatment with Cl2 gives:-
(1) H2 (2) O2 (3) HOCl (4) ClO2

81.
Here P is :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

82. In which of the following Gauche form is more stable if ‘P’ is :-


(1) –CH3 (2) –CH2CH3 (3) –COO  (4) − NH 3
83. Correct –Ι effect order is :-
(1) − N  R3  −CN  −COOH  −OH (2) − N  R3  −COOH  −CN  −OH
(3) −OH  −CN  −COOH − N  R3 (4) −CN  −OH  −COOH − N  R3
84. In which of the following reaction methane will form as a product :

(1) (2) CH3COONa ⎯⎯⎯⎯

Electrolysis
→
NaOH +CaO
(3) CH3MgBr + CH3CH2OH → (4) CH3CH2COOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
85.

. A & B are related as :

(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers (3) Homomers (4) Homologues

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY : SECTION-B

86. Find out the product when the following compound react with NaBH4:-

(1) (2)
 (3) (4)

87. ; reactant (A) is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
88. Which of the following is the correct order of C—C bond lengths among these compounds :-
(I) CH3 –O–CH=CH–NO2 (II) CH2 =CH–NO2 (III) CH2 =CH–CH3 (IV) CH2 =CH2
(1) I > III > II > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > III > I > IV
89. The product formed in reaction

(1) (2) (3) (4) All of the above

90. The structure of major product in following reaction is :-

(1) (2) (3) (4) CHCl3

91. Maltose is changed into monossacharide (Glucose), in presence of :-
(1) Maltase (2) Zymase (3) Diastase (4) Sucrase
92. Which of the following is not a fibre?
(1) Terlyene (2) Nylon (3) Polyacrylonitrile (4) Polychloroprene
93. Consider

Correct order of above molecule in decreasing of pka value :-

(1) B > C > A (2) C > A > B (3) B > A > C (4) A > B > C
94.

CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯ ⎯
HBr
→ (B)
(A) + (B) →(C)
The product (C) will be :-

(1) (2) CH3–CH3

(3) (4)
95. Find reactivity order of following towards E-2 reaction :

(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(1) R > P > Q > S (2) P > R > Q > S (3) S > Q > R > P (4) S > Q > P > R

96. The weight of silver (at wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 560 mL of O2 at
STP will be
(volume of 1 mole of gas at STP is 22.4 L)
1) 54.9 g 2) 5.4 g 3) 10.8 g 4) 108.0 g
97. The increasing order of basicity for the following intermediates is (from weak to strong)

i) ii) iii) iv) v) C N

1) (v)  (iii)  (ii)  (iv)  (i) 2) (iii)  (iv)  (ii)  (i)  (v)
3) (v)  (i)  (iv)  (ii)  (iii) 4) (iii)  (i)  (ii)  (iv)  (v)
98. Which one of the following graphs between molar conductivity (  m ) versus C is correct?

1) 2) 3) 4)
'
99. For a given exothermic reaction, K P and K P are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2 ,
respectively Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T1 and T2 , it is
readily observed that (T2  T1 )
1
1) K P = 2) K P  K P' 3) K P = K P' 4) K P  K P'
KP
100. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
3+ 2+ 3−
1) H −  H  H + 2) Al  Mg  N
3) F −  O2−  Na+ 4) Na+  F −  O2−
 PART-3 : BOTANY : SECTION-A
101. Which type of ribosome is present in a typical mammalian mitochondria?
(1) 70 S (2) 80 S (3) 60 S (4) 40 S
102. Which of the given plastids store fats and oils?
(1) Amyloplast (2) Aleuroplast (3) Chloroplast (4) Elaioplast
103. In which stage of mitosis, shape of chromosomes is best studied?
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
104. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘Interkinesis’
(1) Is a metabolic phase between telophase I and prophase-II
(2) Chromosomes form chromatin fibre during this phase
(3) There is no replication of DNA during this phase
(4) RNA and protein required during meiosis II are synthesized
105. Which of the given is not a defining property of living organisms?
(1) Growth (2) Metabolism (3) Cellular organization (4) Consciousness
106. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the given taxonomic categories of wheat.
(1) Genus – Triticum (2) Family - aestivum
(3) Order- Poales (4) Class - Monocotyledonae
107. The disease ‘sleeping sickness’ is caused due to a member of which of the given groups of
protozoan?
(1) Amoeboid protozoan (2) Flagellated protozoan
(3) Ciliated protozoan (4) Plantae
108. The cell wall resembles a soap box in organism of which of the given kingdom according to
Whittaker’s classification system?
(1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
109. Bilateral symmetry is found in the flower of
(1) Cassia (2) Mustard (3) Canna (4) Chilli
110. Select the incorrect match
(1) Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis
(2) Parallel venation - Banana
(3) Whorled phylotaxy - Nerium
(4) Alternate phyllotaxy - Guava
111. The shoot axis continue to grow indefinitely and the flowers are borne in an acropetal succession is seen
in
(1) Begonia (2) Solanum (3) Mustard (4) Teak
112. The study of internal structures of organisms is called
(1) Morphology (2) Anatomy (3) Physiology (4) Ecology
113. The apical meristem performs all of the given functions, except
(1) Produces the primary tissues of the plant body (2) Responsible for primary growth of the plant
(3) Growth of roots and stem in length (4) Produces cork
114. Colonial algae is
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix (3) Spirogyra (4) Kelps
115. Double fertilization is an unique event to
(1) Alage (2) Gymnosperm (3) Angiosperm (4) Pteridophyte
116. A hypothetical arrangement of plant cells (A, B and C) is given below.
 Select the correct statement w.r.t. arrangement of given plant cells
(1) There is irreversible flow of water between cell-A and cell-B
(2) The medium in cell-C is more concentrated than cell-B
(3) Net flow of water is zero between cell-C and cell-B
(4) Direction of flow of water is from cell-C to cell-A
117. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic solid particles of a substance without forming a
solution is called
(1) Imbibition (2) Plasmolysis (3) Guttation (4) Osmosis
118. Deficiency of which of the given groups of elements causes necrosis?
(1) Ca, Mg, Cu (2) N, S, Fe (3) N, S, Mo (4) K, S, Mo
119. Which of the given bacteria is autotrophic, free living as well as symbiotic nitrogen fixer?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia (3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter
120. Which of the given is primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants?
(1) RuBP (2) PEP (3) PGA (4) OAA
121. The reaction centre w.r.t. cyclic photophosphorylation is
(1) P700 (2) P680 (3) P540 (4) P660
122. Which of the given steps of EMP pathway is catalyzed by phosphofructokinase (PFK)?
(1) Glucose → Glucose-6-Phosphate
(2) Glucose-6-phosphate → Fructose-6-phosphate
(3) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(4) Fructose-1,6 → Glyceraldehyde-bisphosphate -3-phosphate
123. Which of the given has maximum respiratory quotient (RQ) under aerobic respiration?
(1) Proteins (2) Fats (3) Oxalic acid (4) Malic acid
124. Select the incorrect match
(1) Penicillium – conidia (2) Chlamydomonas - Zoospore
(3) Spirogyra – Binary fission (4) Yeast - Budding
125. Select the odd one w.r.t. polycarpic plants
(1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Marigold
126. The innermost layer of anther wall is
(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum

127. Largest cell in embryo sac of angiosperm is

(1) Synergid cell (2) Egg (3) Antipodal cell (4) Central cell
128. How many linkage groups are present in human female?
(1) 24 (2) 23 (3) 22 (4) 2
129. How many gametes can be produced by a diploid organism, if it is heterozygous for 4 loci?
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 5
130. Which of the given hormones is used to produce parthenocarpic or seedless banana and tomatoes?
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Abscisic acid (4) Kinetin
131. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. RNA polymerase I (i) hn RNA
B. RNA polymerase II (ii) tRNA
C. RNA polymerase III (iii) 5.8 S, 18 S, 28 S
rRNA
A B C
(1) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)
132. Calculate the number of nucleosome present in the nucleus of diploid eukaryotic cell which
possess 3.3 × 109 bp
(1) 3.3 × 109 (2) 3.3 × 107 (3) 1.65 × 109 (4) 1.65 × 107
133. If a dsDNA molecule has 3000 bp then what will be the number of N-glycosidic linkage in it?
(1) 3000 (2) 4000 (3) 6000 (4) 2988
134. Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plant is possible by
(1) Meristem culture (2) Somatic hybridisation
(3) Protoplast fusion (4) Callus culture
135. Himgiri is bred by hybridization and selection for disease resistance to leaf and stripe rust is a
variety of which of the given crop?
(1) Wheat (2) Brasssica (3) Cowpea (4) Chilli

PART-3 : BOTANY : SECTION-B

136. Select the incorrect match
(1) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum (2) Statins – Streptococcus
(3) Amylase – Aspergillus (4) Acetic acid – Acetobacter aceti
137. The major component of biogas is
(1) CH4 (2) CO2 (3) H2 (4) H2S
138. The enzyme that seals 5’ PO4and 3’ OH polynucleotide ends while creating a recombinant
DNA molecule is
(1) Alkaline phosphatase (2) DNA ligase
(3) DNAse (4) Restriction endonuclease
139. Part of a plasmid such as pBR322 responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked alienDNA
is
(1) Ori (2) rop (3) ampR (4) tetR
140. DNA from Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be extracted through use of enzyme
(1) Chitinase (2) Cellulase (3) Lysozyme (4) DNAse
141. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Separation of DNA fragments occurs basedon their size in agarose gel.
(2) Blue-white selection involves insertionalinactivation of β-galactosidase.
(3) Treatment with ice-cold calcium can enhanceefficiency of transformation in host cells.
(4) Extension step during PCR is based onthermolabile nature of Taq polymerase.
142. Category of aromatic amino acids include all except
(1) Serine (2) Tyrosine (3) Phenylalanine (4) Tryptophan
143. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Dietary proteins are the source of essentialamino-acids.
(2) Concanavalin A is a lectin and is considereda secondary metabolite
(3) Cellulose, inulin, starch and glycogen arehomopolymers of glucose
(4) Phosphodiester bonds are a characteristicfeature of both RNA and DNA
144. Carboxypeptidase requires zinc as a cofactor for optimal functioning. It can be classified as a
(1) Transferase (2) Lyase (3) Ligase (4) Hydrolase
145. Non-reducing sugar among following is
(1) Ribose (2) Deoxyribose (3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
146. Which of the following statements given below is NOT true regarding secondary growth in dicot
stem ?
(1) Annual ring is combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year
(2) Annual rings are formed in cortex region of stem
(3) The amount of heart wood in a plant gradually increases year by year
(4) Phellem is formed by activity of phellogen
147. Study the following sequence
51AGCTATGCATTGCCC31
One of the following options does not cause/lead to frame shift mutation.
(1) Insertion of ‘T’ at 3rd position
(2) Deletion of T, G at 6th and 7th position
(3) Deletion of TTG at 10, 11, 12 positions
(4) Insertion of ‘A’ at 8th position
148. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by
(1) T H Morgan (2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) G.J. Mendal
149. Concanavalin-A is
(1) Lectin (2) Pigment (3) Alkaloid (4) Essential oil
150. Identify the incorrect match regarding post fertilization changes
(1) Fertilized ovule – Fruit (2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Outer integument - Testa (4) Micropyle of ovule – Seed pore

PART-4 : ZOOLOGY : SECTION-A

151. Find out the correct diagrammatic representation of organismic response w.r.t. conformers.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

152. Epiphytes growing on mango is an example of which type of the given population interaction?
(1) Competition (2) Protocooperation
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
153. Read the given statements stating true (T) and false (F) and select the correct option.
A. Anthropogenic ecosystem possess self regulatory mechanism
B. Forest is a natural ecosystem
C. Estuaries is a terrestrial ecosystem
A B C
(1) T T F
(2) F T F
(3) F F T
(4) T F F
154. Which of the given is/are among the most productive ecosystem?
(1) Coral reefs (2) Sugarcane field (3) Desert (4) Both (1) and (2)
155. Select the correct match
(1) Genetically – Lacksengineered insulin disulfide bonds between chain A and B
(2) Glyphosate – Systemic herbicideused to kill weeds
(3) RNA interference – Utilised to create Bttechnique cotton and Bt corn
(4) First transgenic – Produced milk richsheep, Rosie in human  - lactalbumin
156. Which of the following is a product of cross breeding?
(1) Mule (2) Jersey (3) Leghorn (4) Hisardale
157. Select the term not associated with MOET.
(1) Artificial insemination (2) In-vitro fertilisation
(3) Super ovulation (4) Embryo transfer
158. Retrovirus among following is
(1) Corona virus (2) Ebola virus(3) Herpes simplex (4) HIV virus
159. Select the option that completes the given analogy
Pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae : :Typhoid : ________
(1) Plasmodium falciparum (2) Haemophilus influenzae
(3) Salmonella typhi (4) Wuchereria bancrofti
160. Select the incorrect match
(1) Biological response –  -interferon modifiers (2) Insomnia – Benzodiazepines
(3) Cannabis sativa – Smack (4) Metastasis – Malignant neoplasm
161. Passive immunity through administration of preformed antibodies is exemplified by all except
(1) Colostrum (2) Tetanus toxoid vaccine
(3) Anti-tetanus serum (4) lgG crossing placental barrier
162. Read the given statements
Statement A: Histamine is a potent vasodilator released from mast cells during an allergic
reaction.
Statement B: Memory based acquired immunity evolved in vertebrates.
Select the correct option.
(1) Only statement A is correct. (2) Only statement B is correct.
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(4) Both statements A and B are correct.
163. Cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district
of
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Maharashtra (4) Gujarat
164. Possibly direct descendents of Psilophyton include all except
(1) Herbaceous lycopods (2) Gnetales (3) Conifers (4) Gingkos
165. Which type of natural selection is said to have occurred when more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve?
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Balancing selection
(3) Disruptive selection (4) Directional selection
166. Factor whose absence can disrupt the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium in a large population is
(1) Natural selection (2) Random mating (3) Gene flow (4) Gene recombination
167. Examples of phenomenon named adaptive radiation is not seen in/amongst
(1) Marsupials in Australia (2) Finches on Galapagos Islands
(3) Dark and light moths w.r.t. industrial melanism
(4) Structure of limbs for locomotion in mammals
168. Select the correct match between column I and column II
Column I Column II
(i) Theory of Panspermia p) Paleontological evidences
(ii) Big Bang theory q) Origin of life on Earth
(iii) Miller’s electric discharge experiment r) Origin of Earth
(iv) Fossil remnants s) Origin of Universe
t) Formation of amino acids
Code
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) r q p s
(2) r s t p
(3) q r p t
(4) q s t p
169. Which among the following can be cured if detected early and treated properly?
(1) Syphilis (2) Hepatitis-B (3) Genital herpes (4) HIV infections
170. Mode of action of IUDs does not involve
(1) Phagocytosis of sperms in uterus
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) Inhibiting deposition of sperms in vagina
(4) Altering the quality of cervical mucus
171. How many sex chromosomes does a normal human baby inherit from father?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Twenty three (4) Forty six
172. Read the given statements.
(a) Decline in LH leads to regression of corpus luteum in a pregnant female.
(b) Saheli acts as selective estrogen receptor modulator.
(c) Secretions from acrosome of ootid results infertilisation.
(d) Level of gonadotropins increase markedly upon removal of ovaries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four
173. Ploidy levels are similar in
(1) Oogonia, primary oocyte
(2) Spermatid, primary spermatocyte
(3) 1st polar body, spermatogonia
(4) 2nd polar body, spermatogonia
174. Chromosome number in gamete of housefly is ‘x’ while chromosome number in meiocytes
of fruit fly ‘y’ .Select the correct option in context of ‘x’ and ‘y’.
‘x’ ‘y’
(1) 12 16
(2) 6 8
(3) 12 4
(4) 16 12
175. Read the given features
(a) Presence of cnidoblasts
(b) Alternation of generation
(c) Extracellular and intracellular digestion
All of the above given characters are observed in
(1) Hydra (2) Physalia (3) Meandrina (4) Adamsia
176. Which of the following is a correct match w.r.t. members listed and corresponding taxon?
(1) Annelida - Earthworm, silkworm, hookworm
(2) Echinodermata - Sea hare, sea lily, sea urchin
(3) Mollusca,- Cuttle fish, devil fish, apple snail
(4) Chondrichthyes - Sea horse, flying fish, dog fish
177. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. animal listed in column A and features exhibited in column B
Column A Column B
(Organism) (Features)
(1) Psittacula Homeothermy, Air sacs to supplement respiration
(2) Panthera tigris Viviparity,Thecodont dentition
(3) Pleurobrachia Bioluminescence, Eight rows of ciliated comb plates
(4) Pristis Presence of operculum, Absence of air bladder
178. Among the options given below, simple epithelium is not found at which location?
(1) Air sacs of lungs (2) PCT
(3) Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(4) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreas
179. See the figures given below and select the mismatch w.r.t. identification or corresponding
feature listed.
(1) Voluntary, striated fibres exhibiting structural
syncytium.

(2) Cell body is rich in Nissl’s granules

(3) Fibres with gap junctions

between adjacent cells

(4) Intercellular material arranged in

concentric lamellae and cells are found in lacunae.

180. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Periplaneta americana.

(1) Paurometabolous development with 9-10 nymphal stages.
(2) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6thsegment of only female cockroach.
(3) Anal styles present exclusively in males are attached to 10th tergite.
(4) Mesothoracic wings are opaque, dark and leathery in appearance and are used in flight.
181. Secretions from these help in digestion of food in cockroach. ‘These’ represents the
(1) Crop (2) Gizzard (3) Hepatic caecae (4) Malpighian tubules
182. The historic convention on biological diversity
(The earth summit) held in A in B.
(1) A-Rio de Janeiro, B-1992 (2) A-Johannesburg, B-2002
(3) A-Rio de Janerio, B-2002 (4) A-Johannesburg, B-1992
183. The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction is
(1) Over exploitation (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Alien species invasion (4) Co-extinction
184. Biomagnification will be maximum among which of the given trophic level in an aquatic
ecosystem?
(1) T1 (2) T2 (3) T3 (4) T4
185. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t. pollutants and their effect
Column-I Column-II
A. Carbon monoxide (i) Phaeophytization in lichens
B. Sulphur dioxide (ii) Heart and lung problems
C. NOx (iii) Reduces O2 carrying capacity of the blood
D. Hydrocarbon (iv) Cancer
A B C D
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

PART-4 : ZOOLOGY : SECTION-B

186. Select the option that represents correct combination of components of succus entericus.
(1) Lipase, nuclease, nucleotidase
(2) Enterokinase, lactase, nucleosidase
(3) Mucus, trypsinogen, pepsin
(4) Castle’s intrinsic factor, sucrase, maltase
187. Select the incorrect option.
(1) Polysaccharides ⎯⎯⎯⎯ Amylase
pH 6.8
→ Disaccharides
(2) Paneth cells in mucosa of gut secrete lysozyme that has antibacterial effects.
(3) Mucus secreting goblet cells are present in submucosa of wall of alimentary canal.
(4) Vomiting is a reflex action controlled by the vomit centre in the medulla.
188. The partial pressure of O2 and CO2in the systemic veins is same as that in
(1) Systemic arteries
(2) Pulmonary arteries
(3) Alveolar air
(4) Atmospheric air
189. How much CO2is delivered by 5 L of deoxygenated blood to alveoli?
(1) 250 ml (2) 200 ml (3) 750 ml (4) 400 ml
190. Electrocardiograph records
(1) Potential difference across cells of myocardium
(2) Volume of blood pumped
(3) Ratio of systolic to diastolic blood pressure
(4) Electrical activity of Brain waves
191. This hormone promotes loss of sodium and water in urine, thereby increasing urinary output. This
hormone is released from
(1) JG cells (2) Liver (3) Medulla (4) Atrial walls of heart
192. Select the option that has the correct odd one w.r.t. parameter stated.
S.No Items Parameter Odd one
(1) Ankle joint, elbow joint, Hinge joint Atlanto-occipital joint
knee joint, atlanto-occipital joint
(2) 7th, 8th, 9th &10th pair of Vertebrochondral ribs 10th pair of ribs
Ribs
(3) Carpals, tarsals, femur, humerus Appendicular skeleton Humerus

(4) Frontal, hyoid, Cranial bones Sphenoid

sphenoid, temporal bones
193. In a healthy person, the red muscle fibres appear red due to stored
(1) Carboxy hemoglobin (2) Carbamino hemoglobin
(3) Myoglobin (4) Erythropoietin
194. Select the correct statement.
(1) All hormones from pituitary gland are non-steroidal.
(2) Hormones derived from amino acids including epinephrine and thyroxine both of which do not
require extracellular receptors.
(3) CCK targets exocrine and endocrine part of pancreas to stimulate secretion of water, bicarbonate
ions and hormones.
(4) Progesterone is called ovulatory hormone and it supports pregnancy.
195. Diseases caused due to insufficiency of hormones include all except
(1) Cushing’s disease (2) Addison’s disease
(3) Cretinism (4) Diabetes insipidus
196. What is common to Silkworm, Filarial worm and Tapeworm?
(1) Double ventral nerve cord (2) Complete gut
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Sexual dimorphism
197. All the given below features of birds are useful for them to fly except
(1) Air sacs connected to lungs
(2) Pneumatisation of bones
(3) Forelimbs are modified into wings
(4) Heart is completely four chambered
198. From the below mentioned sexually transmitted diseases, identify the one which does not specially
affect the sex organs
(1) Syphilis (2) AIDS (3) Gonorrhoea (4) Genital warts
199. Members of which phylum of the following can live in all kinds of habitats?
(1) Eichnodermata (2) Arthropoda (3) Porifera (4) Cnidaria
200. Neurons with only one axon and without dendrites are usually found in
(1) Retina of eye
(2) Embryonic stage
(3) Cerebral cortex
(4) Dorsal root ganglion