09-02-2025

9610ZMD801235240016 MD

PHYSICS

1) If 10g ice at 0°C is mixed with 10g water at 40°C. Final temp of mixture will be -

(1) 10°C
(2) 0°C
(3) 20°C
(4) 40°C

2) Liquid is filled till top in a vessel. If for liquid is 12 × 10–5 per °C and av for vessel is 5 × 10–5
then or heating level of liquid will :

(1) Rise
(2) fall
(3) Remain same
(4) None

3) An object is projected vertically up from the earth's surface with velocity where 'R' is the
radius of earth and 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface. The maximum height
reached by the object will be :

(1) R
(2) 2R
(3) 3R
(4) 4R

4) A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius R. Which one of the following
statement is true?

(1)
Angular momentum varies as
(2) Linear momentum varies as
Frequency of revolution varies as
(3)

(4)
Kinetic energy varies as

5) A gardner waters the plants by a pipe of diameter 1mm. The water comes out at the rate of 10 cm
sec. The reactionary force exerted on the hand of the gardner is . Find x -
(1) 2.5
(2) 6.1
(3) 5.2
(4) 3.2

6) A body of mass 2 kg is hung on a spring balance mounted vertically in a lift. If the lift descends
with an acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity g the reading of the spring balance will
be -

(1) 40N
(2) 30N
(3) 20N
(4) 0N

7) A wire of length ' ' and resistance 200 is divided into 20 equal parts. The first 10 parts are
connected in series while the next 10 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are
again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is :

(1) 101
(2) 51
(3) 55
(4) 60

8) The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire AB of 60 cm length fixed at both ends. In order to
get zero reading in the galvanometer G, the free end of J is to be placed from B at :

(1) 36 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 24 cm

9) Choose the correct option :

(1)
The capacitance of spherical capacitor is

(2)
The energy density between plates of capacitor is

(3)
The force between plates of parallel plate capacitor is
(4)
The capacitance of cylindrical capacitor is

10) The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :

(1) 4C
(2) 2C
(3) C/2
(4) 3C/2

11) Find the most stable situation [where dipole moment vector is and electric field vector is ]:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Two spheres having equal charges exert F force on each other. Now 40% charge of one sphere is
transferred to another sphere. Then find new force between them in terms of F.

(1) 0.84 F
(2) 0.96 F
(3) 0.65 F
(4) 0.81 F

13) The length of the tube of a microscope is 10 cm. The focal lengths of the objective and eye lenses
are 0.5 cm and 1.0 cm. The magnifying power of the microscope is about -

(1) 5
(2) 23
(3) 166
(4) 500
14) In Young's experiment, light of wavelength 6000Å is used to produce fringes of width 0.8 mm at
a distance of 2.5 m. If the whole experiment is deep in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, then fringe
width will be :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.6 mm
(3) 0.4 mm
(4) 0.2 mm

15) In a single slit diffraction, slit width is 0.6 mm and distance of first minima from central position
is 1 mm. If screen distance is 1.2 m, then wave length of light is :

(1) 500 nm
(2) 600 nm
(3) 200 nm
(4) 100 nm

16) A cylindrical vessel of 90 cm height is kept filled upto the brim. It has four holes 1,2,3,4 which
are respectively at heights of 20cm, 30cm, 45cm and 50cm from the top. maximum horizontal
distance from the vessel comes from : -

(1) hole number 4

(2) hole number 3
(3) hole number 2
(4) hole number 1

17) Water flow steadily from a tank as shown. Find x where the water lands. Assume area of cross-
section of hole is much less then area of cross-section of tank.

(1) 8m
(2) 6m
(3) 3.75m
(4) 7m

18) The radius (r), length ( ) and resistance (R) of a metal wire was measured in the laboratory as
r = (0.35 ± 0.05) cm
R = (100 ± 10) ohm
= (15 ± 0.2) cm
The percentage error in resistivity of the material of the wire is : -

(1) 25.6%
(2) 39.9%
(3) 37.3%
(4) 35.6%

19) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Statement-I : In vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking measurements, the
reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
Statement-II : The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to manufacturing defect
or due to rough handling.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : -

(1) Both statements are incorrect.

(2) Both statements are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct statement-II is incorrect

20) Conductivity of photodiode starts changing only if the wavelength of incident light is less than

660 nm. The band gap of photodiode is found to be . The value of X is (Given, h = 6.6 × 10–34
Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C) : -

(1) 15
(2) 11
(3) 13
(4) 21

21) The inputs A, B and C to be given in order to get an output Y = 1 from the following circuit are : -

(1) 0,1,0
(2) 1,0,0
(3) 0,0,1
(4) 1,1,0

22) Adjoining figure shows a conductor carrying a current I. The magnitude of magnetic field at the

origin is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Two coaxial solenoids 1 and 2 of the same length are set so that one is inside the other. The
number of turns per unit length are n1 and n2. The currents i1 and i2 are flowing in opposite
directions. The magnetic field inside the inner solenoid is zero. This is possible when
(A) i1 ≠ i2 and n1 = n2 (B) i1 = i2 and n1 ≠ n2 (C) i1 = i2 and n1 = n2 (D) i1n1 = i2n2

(1) A,C
(2) B,D
(3) C,D
(4) A,D

24) Current i is carried in a wire of length L. If the wire is turned into a circular coil, the maximum
magnitude of torque in a given magnetic field B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Two identical conductors P and Q are placed on two frictionless rails R and S in a uniform
magnetic field directed into the plane. If P is moved in the direction shown in figure with a constant

speed then rod Q :-

(1) will be attracted towards P

(2) will be attracted towards Q
(3) will be attracted towards R
(4) will be attracted towards S

26) A metallic ring connected to a rod oscillates freely like a pendulum. If now a magnetic field is
applied in horizontal direction so that the pendulum now swings in the field, the pendulum will :-
(1) Keep oscillating with the old time period
(2) Keep oscillating with a smaller time period
(3) Keep oscillating with a larger time period
(4) Eventually come to rest.

27) A ball is projected at an angle with the vertical with kinetic energy K. Find its kinetic energy at
maximum height -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Two particles are located at equal distance from origin. The position vectors of those are
represented by and respectively. If both the vectors are at right
angle to each other the value of n-1 is -

(1) 1/3
(2) 3
(3) –1/3
(4) –3

29)
Above velocity-time graph shows the motion of an object with negative acceleration, that

(1) does not change direction between times 0 to t2

(2) between times 0 to t2, it moves in positive x-direction
(3) between times t1 and t2 it moves in the negative x-direction
(4) between times 0 to t1, it changes its direction

30) The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the emitter
plate. Light source is put on and a saturation photo current is recorded. An electric field is switched
on which has a vertically downward direction :-

(1) The photo current will increase

(2) The kinetic energy of the electrons will increase
(3) The stopping potential will decrease
(4) The threshold wavelength will increase

31) Assertion :- The nature of nuclear force depends upon the separation between nucleons.
Reason :- Nuclear force is always attractive in nature.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

32) The first excited state of hydrogen atom is 10.2 eV above its ground state. The temperature is
needed to excite hydrogen atoms to first excited level, is :-

(1) 7.9 × 104 K

(2) 3.5 × 105 K
(3) 5.8 × 107 K
(4) 14 × 106 K

33) Two springs are connected to a block of mass M placed on a frictionless surface as shown below.
If both the springs have a spring constant k, the frequency of oscillation of the block is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) One-fourth length of a spring of force constant k is cut away. The force constant of the remaining
spring will be:

(1)

(2)

(3) k
(4) 4k
35) 5 beats/s are produced on blowing together two closed organ pipes of the same diameter but of
different lengths. If shorter pipe is of 10 cm length and speed of sound in air is 300 m/s, length of
other pipe is :

(1) 10.06 cm
(2) 11.22 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 14 cm

36) To increases the frequency by 20% the tension in the string vibrating on a sonometer has to be
increased by :

(1) 44%
(2) 33%
(3) 22%
(4) 11%

37) A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light spring having force constant k and unstretched
length l. The other end is fixed. The system is given an angular speed ω about the fixed end of the
spring such that it rotated in a circle in gravity free space. Then the stretch in the spring is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A block of mass m = 1 kg slides with velocity v = 6 m/s on a frictionless horizontal surface and
collides with a uniform vertical rod and sticks to it as shown. The rod is pivoted about O and swings
as a result of the collision making angle θ before momentarily coming to rest. If the rod ahs mass M
= 2 kg, and length l = 1 m, the value of θ is approximately:
(take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 63°
(2) 55°
(3) 69°
(4) 49°

39) A non-uniform rod of length L has a mass per unit length given by λ(x) = λ0(1 + x), where xx is
measured from one end. Find the center of mass of the rod.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The voltage across a pure inductor is represented by the following diagram. Which one of the
following diagrams will represent the current

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) In pure inductive circuit, the curves between frequency f and reciprocal of inductive reactance
1/XL is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) The phase difference between emf and current in LCR series a.c. circuit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In order to establish an instantaneous displacement current of 1 mA in the space between the
plates of 2µF parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference need to apply is :

(1) 100 Vs–1

(2) 200 Vs–1
(3) 300 Vs–1
(4) 500 Vs–1

44) A pendulum of mass m and length l is given certain velocity at bottom most point such that it
moves in vertical circular path. Find the ratio of velocity at topmost point and bottom most
respectively if the tension at bottom most point is 8mg.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A force F = is acting on a body which displaces it from x = 0 to x = 1 m. If the total

work done during the process is 10 J then find the value of , given .

(1) 13
(2) 15
(3) 27
(4) 22
 CHEMISTRY

1) The most stable carbanion among the following is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Arrange in the order of decreasing Ka.

(P) F—CH2CH2COOH (Q)

(R) F—CH2—COOH (S) Br—CH2—CH2—COOH
Correct answer is :

(1) Q > S > P > R

(2) P > R > S > Q
(3) R > Q > P > S
(4) S > Q > P > R

3) In which of the following molecules all the effects namely inductive, mesomeric and
hyperconjugation operate?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Assertion (A):- is more acidic than .

Reason (R):- Electron donating groups (EDG) increase acidity while electron withdrawing groups
(EWG) decrease acidity.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are wrong.

5) Which one of the following is the most stable conformer ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) An alkene on ozonolysis gives ethanal as one of the product. Its structure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Arrange the following alkyl halide in decreasing order of the rate of β-elimination rection with alc.
KOH.

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > B > A
(3) B > C > A
(4) A > C > B
8) The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical isomers of 2-butene is:

(1) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature.

(2) cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
(3) trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
(4) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers.

9) An element which belongs to third period and group 15 has electronic configuration :

(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3

(2) 1s2, 2s22p3
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p4
(4) None of these

10) The correct order of atomic or ionic radii is :

(1) Na < Be < B

(2) F¯ < O2– < N3–
(3) Na < Li < K
(4) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+

11) In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it ?

(1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing acid power
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acid strength
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing basic strength
(4) B < C < O < N : Increasing first ionisation energy

12) Which one of the following order represents the correct sequence of increasing basic nature of
the given oxides ?

(1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O

(2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(3) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO

13) The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair-bond of electrons is observed between :

(1) dsp3 hybridisation

(2) d2sp3 hybridisation
(3) dsp2 hybridisation
(4) sp3d hybridisation
14) How many bonds are there in ?

(1) 14σ, 8π
(2) 18σ, 8π
(3) 14σ, 2π
(4) 18σ, 4π

15) The correct arrangement of the species in the decreasing order of the bond length between
carbon and oxygen in there is :

2–
(1) CO, CO2, HCO2¯, CO3
2–
(2) CO2, HCO2¯, CO, CO3
2–
(3) CO3 , HCO2¯, CO2, CO
2–
(4) CO, CO3 , CO2, HCO2¯

16) The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are :

(1) Angular and non-zero

(2) Angular and zero
(3) Linear and non-zero
(4) Linear and zero

17) A Solution has an osmotic pressure of 0.821 atm at 300 K. Its concentration would be :

(1) 0.66 M
(2) 0.32 M
(3) 0.066 M
(4) 0.033 M

18) Which of the following aqueous solution has highest freezing point ?

(1) 0.1 molal Al2(SO4)3

(2) 0.1 molal BaCl2
(3) 0.1 molal AlCl3
(4) 0.1 molal NH4Cl

19) In a reaction 2A + 3B → 5C + 3D rate of appearance of D is 9 × 10–4 mol L–1sec–1. What will be

rate of disappearance of A (mol L–1sec–1) ?

(1) 3 × 10–4
(2) 6 × 10–4
(3) 9 × 10–4
(4) 2 × 10–4

20) Which of the following condition is correct for operation of electrolytic cell ?

(1) ΔG = 0, E = 0
(2) ΔG < 0, E > 0
(3) ΔG > 0, E < 0
(4) ΔG > 0, E > 0

21) Which of the following is example of globular protein ?

(1) Keratin
(2) Collagen
(3) Myosin
(4) Insulin

22) Reaction of Haloalkane with AgCN gives isocyanide as the major product not cyanide due to -

(1) C–N bond is more stable than C–C bond

(2) AgCN is mainly covalent and carbon is free to donate electron pair
(3) AgCN is mainly ionic and carbon is free to donate electron pair
(4) AgCN is mainly covalent bond and nitrogen is free to donate electron pair

23) Most reactive towards SN2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Cross aldol condensation product of is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 and 3 both

26) Which reaction does not gives Aldehyde ?

(1)
CH3–C≡CH + H2O

(2) Ph–CH3 + 2Cl2

(3)

(4)

27) Incorrect statement about reaction of amine with HNO2, is

(1) Aliphatic primary amine gives alcohol

(2) Secondary amines gives yellow oily liquid.
(3) Aromatic primary amine gives diazonium salt at room temperature.
(4) Tertiary amine forms salt.

28)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is:

(1) Hexafluoroplatinate(VI)xenon
(2) Xenonhexafluoroplatinate(V)
(3) Xenonhexafluoroplatinate(VI)
(4) Xenoniumhexafluoroplatinum(V)

30) The complex used as an anticancer agent is :

(1) meso-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(2) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(3) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]
(4) Na2CoCl4

31) PbI4 does not exist because:

(1) Iodine is not a reactive

(2) Pb(IV) is oxidizing and I¯ is strong reducing agent
(3) Pb(IV) is less stable than Pb(II)
(4) Pb4+ is not easily formed

32) Oxidation state of Mn in is +7 indicating all electrons paired in Mn but is coloured. It is due to

(1) Charge transfer

(2) Presence of unpaired electron in d-orbital in oxygen
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

33) Arrange the following cyano complexes in decreasing order of their magnetic moment.

3– 3– 3– 3–
(1) [Cr(CN)6] > [Mn(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3– 3– 3–
(2) [Mn(CN)6] > [Cr(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3– 3– 3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6] > [Cr(CN)6] > [Mn(CN)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3– 3– 3–
(4) [Co(CN)6] > [Cr(CN)6] > [Mn(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6]

34) Select correct match :

(1) [Co(ox)(H2O)3(NH3)]Br : Optical isomerism

(2) [Cr(SCN)(H2O)3(en)](C2O4) : Ionization isomerism
–
(3) [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH3)] : Geometrical isomerism
(4) [CoBrCl(H2O)4][Ag(CN)2] : Co-ordination isomerism

35) Which of the following combines with Fe (II) ions to form a brown complex

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O5

36) Which compound is soluble in NH4OH

(1) PbCl2
(2) PbSO4
(3) AgCl
(4) CaCO3

37) Insulin contains 3.4 % sulphur Then, the minimum molecular mass of the insulin is about :

(1) 940 amu

(2) 9400 amu
(3) 3600 amu
(4) 970 amu

38) The frequency of the radiation having wave number 10 m–1 is :

(1) 10 s–1
(2) 3 × 107 s–1
(3) 3 × 1011 s–1
(4) 3 × 109 s–1

39) The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in
H-atom corresponding to which of the following ?

(1) n = 3 to n = 1
(2) n = 2 to n = 1
(3) n = 3 to n = 2
(4) n = 4 to n = 3

40) For a hypothetical reaction:

4A(g) + 5B(g) ⇌ 4P(g) + 6Q(g)
The equilibrium constant Kc. has units:

(1) mol L–1

(2) mol–1 L
(3) (mol L–1)–2
(4) unitless

41) The pH of 0.5 M aqueous solution of HF (Ka = 2 × 10–4) is:

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10

42) The solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 3.4 × 10–11) in 0.1 M solution of NaF would be:

(1) 3.4 × 10–12 M

(2) 3.4 × 10–10 M
(3) 3.4 × 10–9 M
(4) 3.4 × 10–13 M

43) Enthalpy of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ mol–1. The entropy change of 1 mole of ice at its melting
point will be:

(1) 22kl mol–l

(2) 109 kJ mol–l
(3) 44 kJ mol–l
(4) 11 kJ mol–l

44) (ΔH – ΔU) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its element at 298 K is: (R = 8.314 J
K–1 mol–1

(1) –1238.78 J mol–1

(2) 1238.78 J mol–1
(3) –2477.57 J mol–1
(4) 2477.57 J mol–l

45) In the reaction :

the coefficients of I– and in balanced equation are :

(1) 6, 2 respectively
(2) 2 and 6 respectively
(3) 6, 6 respectively
(4) 2 and 2 respectively

BIOLOGY

1) According to Alexander Von–Humboldt the species richness increases with increasing the area
upto a limit. It can be defined by equation on log scale :-

(1) S = CAZ
(2) log C = log S + Z log C
(3) C = SAZ
(4) log S = log C + Z log A

2) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

3) Which one of the following is most appropriately defined ?

(1) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
(2) Predator is an organism that catches and kills & eat other organism for food.
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it.
(4) Host is an organism which provides food to another organism.

4) Assertion (A) : A given organism may occupy more than one trophic level simultaneously.
Reason (R) : Sparrow is a primary consumers when eats seeds while is a secondary consumer when
eats insects.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

5) Assertion : Top consumers like lion etc. are ecologically weakest but physically they are strong.
Reason : According to the 10% law of Lindeman, the 90% part of obtained energy of each organism
is utilized in their various metabolic activities and heat and only 10% energy is transferred to the
next trophic level. So 90% energy is lost at each trophic level.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

6) Assertion: Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles.

Reason : Leaching leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance called humus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

7) Identify A, B and C in the following representation of global biodiversity of invertebrates :

A B C
Other animal
(1) Molluscs Crustacean
group
Other animal
(2) Molluscs Crustacean
group
Other animal
(3) Crustacean Molluscs
group
Other animal
(4) Crustacean Molluscs
group
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Assertion A: The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the 'lungs of the planet' and is being
destroyed at a rapid rate.
Reason R: The destruction is mainly due to the cultivation of soya beans and the creation of
grasslands for beef cattle, along with habitat degradation from pollution.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

9) Select the incorrect compounds that we get from living tissues can be called :

(1) Elemental analysis of living tissues gives elemental composition of living tissue.
Analysis of chemical compound of living tissue gives idea of organic and inorganic constituent of
(2)
living tissue.
(3) Weight of small amount of living fresh tissue is known as wet weight.
(4) Acid soluble pool contain lipids, nucleic acid, polysaccharide only.

10) In the primary structure of protein -

(1) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)
(2) Right end represents → Last amino acid (N terminal amino acid)
(3) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid)
(4) Right end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)

11) Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately leads to a parturition which requires
the release of -

(1) Oestrogen from placenta

(2) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(3) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(4) Relaxin from placenta

12) The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

(1) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian tube.
(2) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm.
(3) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum.
(4) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division.

13) Which one of the following is not the function of placenta?

(1) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo.

(2) Secretes oestrogen.
(3) Facilitates the removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo.
(4) Secretes oxytocin during parturition.

14) Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

(1) Primary polar body

(2) Spermatid
(3) Spermatogonia
(4) Secondary polar body

15) The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system
of humans. Which one set of three parts out of A to F have been correctly identified?
(1) C - Infundibulum, D - Fimbriae, E – Cervix
(2) D - Oviductal funnel, E - Uterus, F – Cervix
(3) A - Perimetrium, B - Myometrium, C - Fallopian tube
(4) B - Endometrium, C - Infundibulum, D - Fimbriae

16) Oral pills work by -

(1) Inhibiting ovulation

(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) Altering the quality of mucus
(4) All of these

17) What is shown in the figure?

(1) Cannabinoid molecule

(2) Morphine
(3) Nicotine
(4) Lobeline

18) Active immunity is induced by

(1) Injecting prepared antibodies
(2) Injecting live infectious microbes
(3) Injecting dead microbes or proteins
(4) Injecting antitoxin

19) Which of the following is not a means of transmission of AIDS?

(1) Sexual contact with uninfected person

(2) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(3) Sharing infected needles
(4) Child born to an HIV infected mother

20) Metastasis is -

(1) Normal equilibrium condition of body.

(2) Morphological changes from larva to adult.
(3) Generation of new tumour in different sites of body.
(4) Abnormal growth of the body muscles.

21) Identify the parts A, B, C and D in the figure.

(1) A: Liquid water in trap, B: Electrode, C: Boiling water, D: Condenser

(2) A: Boiling water, B: Condenser, C: Electrode, D: Liquid water in trap
(3) A: Electrode, B: Condenser, C: Liquid water in trap, D: Boiling water
(4) A: Condenser, B: Liquid water in trap, C: Boiling water, D: Electrode
22) Arrange the following in the order of their evolution.

Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Dryopithecus → Homo sapiens

(1)
→ Australopithecines → Neanderthal man
Dryopithecus → Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus →
(2)
Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens
Australopithecines →Homo sapiens → Ramapithecus → Dryopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo
(3)
erectus → Neanderthal man
Neanderthal man → Australopithecines → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus →Homo habilis →
(4)
Ramapithecus → Dryopithecus

23) What is ‘B’ in the figure?

(1) Transformation
(2) Transduction
(3) Conjugation
(4) Vector DNA

24) In ‘EcoRI’ R stands for -

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Strain
(4) Restriction enzyme
25) Find the true statement.

(1) Ori means origin of transcription.

(2) Some bacterial cell may have copy number of plasmid that varies from 15–100.
Vector should have many recognition sites for commonly used restriction enzymes so that alien
(3)
DNA can attach to any one of the sites easily.
(4) TetR gene in pBR322 can be cleaved by PvuI and PstI.

26) To make bacterium competent (Transformation with recombinant DNA) we use -

(1) Specific concentration of Ca2+ ion

(2) Heat shock (42°C)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

27) A nematode _________ infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes great reduction in yield.

(1) Ancylostoma
(2) Hookworm
(3) Meloidogyne incognita
(4) Wuchereria

28) What is true about Bt-toxin?

(1) The concerned bacillus has antitoxins.

(2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.
(3) Bt-protein exists as active toxin in the bacillus.
(4) The activated toxin enters the ovary of pest to sterilize it and thus prevent its multiplication.

29) ADA deficiency is due to -

(1) Insertion of gene

(2) Deletion of gene
(3) Duplication of gene
(4) Translocation of gene

30) Parts A, B, C and D of Nephron are shown in the diagram. Select the option which is incorrect
with it's function :-

(1) A - 70% to 80 % H2O reabsorption

(2) B - Permeable to salts
(3) C - Maintain pH by reabsorption of
D - Allow passage of small amount of urea into medullary interstitium and help to produce
(4)
concentrated urine.

31) Assertion :- Aldosterone leads to an increase in blood pressure and GFR.

Reason :- Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) Grana are -

(1) Protein storing plastids.

(2) Coloured plastids.
(3) Stacks of thylakoids.
(4) Individual thylakoids present in stroma.

33) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Tonoplast I Contain digestive enzyme

B Contractile vacuole II Buoyancy

C Food vacuole III Excretion

D Gas vacuole IV Transport of ions in plants

(1) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(2) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(3) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

34) Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the given section of cilia/flagella showing
different parts. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of parts.
(1) A – Plasma membrane, B – Inter doublet bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(2) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(3) A – Plasma membrane, B – Inter doublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
(4) A – Plasma membrane, B – Inter doublet bridge, C– Hub, D – Arm

35) Interkinesis is a -

(1) Stage between meiosis I and meiosis II.

(2) Stage between two mitotic divisions.
(3) Interphase.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

36) Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?

Fig. A Fig. B

(1) A - Metaphase B - Telophase

(2) A - Telophase B - Metaphase

(3) A - Late Anaphase B - Prophase

(4) A - Prophase B - Anaphase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which of the following is incorrectly matched.

Column-I Column-II

(1) Muscular Dystrophy - Genetic disorder

Due to high Ca2+ levels in body

(2) Tetany -
fluid

(3) Isotropic bands - Actin filament

(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum - Storehouse of Ca2+ ions

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(a) Patella (i) Ankle bones

(b) Femur (ii) Thigh bone

(c) Tarsals (iii) Digits (14 in number)

(d) Phalanges (iv) Cup shaped bone

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

39) Match the following column and select the correct option:-

Column I Column II

(a) Tidal volume (i) 1000-1100ml

(b) Expiratory reserve volume (ii) 2500-3000ml

(c) Residual volume (iii) 500-550 ml

(d) Inspiratory reserve volume (iv) 1100-1200ml

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

40) Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph.

(1) At low temperature the curve shifts to left.
(2) At high pH the curve shifts to right.
(3) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen shifts the curve to right.
(4) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 shift the curve to right.

41) Read the following statement.

Statement I: The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
Statement II: The valves of heart allows the flow of blood only in one direction.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

42) Assertion (A): Erythroblastosis foetalis causes anaemia and jaundice to the baby.
Reason(R): Rh antibodies from the mother can leak into the blood of the foetus and destroy the
foetal RBCs.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

43) Assertion (A): At electrical synapse, the membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons are in
very close proximity.
Reason (R): Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a
chemical synapse.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

44) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The gap between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called node of Ranvier.
Nerve impulse is conducted along the axon membrane in the form of a wave of depolarisation
(2)
and repolarisation.
(3) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is commonly found in autonomous and somatic neural systems.
(4) Dendrites are small fibres which transmit impulses away from the cell body.

45) Assertion (A): The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Reason(R): Hormones released by anterior pituitary reach the posterior pituitary through a portal
circulatory system.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

46) Which of the following is correctly matched with following description -

Gland Hormones Function

(1) Pineal gland MSH Pigmentation of the skin

(2) Hypothalamus Oxytocin Responsible for relaxation of smooth muscles

(3) Parathyroid gland Parathyroid hormone Hypocalcemic hormone

(4) Ovary Progesterone Support pregnancy

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(1) Thyroid – Located on the either side of trachea.

(2) Thymus – Located between lungs behind sternum on the dorsal side of aorta.
(3) Parathyroid – On the back side of gland which secretes TCT hormone.
(4) Adrenal gland – On the anterior side of each kidney.

48) Study the following statements carefully :-

(A) The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7-1.8 million.
(B) Perhaps, the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms is the
ability to sense their surroundings or environment and respond to these environmental stimuli
(C) All organisms have consciousness but the human has self consciousness and not the
consciousness
(D) Living organisms are self replicating, and evolving but not self regulating
Find the most correct option from the followings:

(1) A, B and C are correct and D is incorrect

(2) A and B are correct and C and D are incorrect
(3) A and B are incorrect and C and D are correct
(4) A is correct and B, C and D are incorrect

49) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas are placed according to Whittaker classification, in :

(1) Monera
(2) Protozoans
(3) Protista
(4) Both in pyrophyta and chrysophyta

50) The major mode of nutrition of kingdom viz. Animalia, fungi and Plantae, respectively:-

(1) Autotroph, Chemotroph & Holozoic

(2) Phototroph, Saprotroph & Holophytic
(3) Holozoic, Osmotrophic, Holophytic
(4) Osmotroph, Holozoic & Holophytic

51) Find the correct match from Column I, Column II and Column III.

Column I Column II Column III

(a) Ascomycetes Claviceps Sac fungus

(b) Basidiomycetes Aspergillus Unicellular fungus

(c) Deuteromycetes Alternaria Imperfect fungus

Options :-
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c
(4) only c

52) Stored food of red algae is similar to :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Mannitol
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) Glycogen and chitin

53)
 Column I Column II

A. Agar I. Gelidium, Gracilaria

B. Mannitol II. Brown algae

C. Carrageen III. Red algae

Used as food supplement by space

D. Chlorella & Spirulina IV.
travellers

Choose the correct combination :-

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

54) Read the following statements and select the correct statements among them
I. Bryophytes are found commonly growing in moist shaded areas in the hills
II. Gametophytes of pteridophytes require cool, damp, shady places to grow .
III. Selaginella produces, two type of spores.
IV. Adiantum is an example of gymnosperm.

(1) I and IV
(2) II and IV
(3) III only
(4) I, II and III

55) Choose the correct statement only :-

(1) Phylum Mollusca is the largest phylum of animalia which includes insects.
(2) The body of arthropods is covered by chitinous endoskeleton.
(3) Limulus is a living fossil.
(4) In snails excretion takes place through malpighian tubules.

56) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

A Hemidactylus i Pigeon

B Chelone ii Wall lizard

C Columba iii Cat

D Felis iv Turtle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

57) Statement I - Cyclostomes are the members of gnathostomata and bears jaw.
Statement II – Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

58) Statement I - Main function of simple cuboidal epithelium is to provide protection against
chemical and mechanical stress.
Statement II – Salivary gland is a type of unicellular exocrine gland.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

59) Select the correct statement regarding Rana tigrina.

(1) A very long tail is present in posterior part of the body.

(2) Frog is homeothermal animal.
(3) Bidder’s canal is found in the kidney.
(4) Dorsal part is generally pale yellow.

60) The ureters act as _______and opens into cloaca.

(1) Urinogenital duct

(2) Uriniferous tubule
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Oviducts

61) Male reproductive system (Cockroach) consists of a pair of testes one lying on each _______ side
in the ________ abdominal segments.

(1) Ventral side, 5th to 8th segment

(2) Lateral side , 4th to 6th segment
(3) Dorsal side, 7th to 9th segment
(4) Ventral side, 4th to 6th segment
62)

(1) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome

(2) A - Plasma membrane, B - Lysosome, C - Plastid, D - Centrosome
(3) A - Cell membrane, B - Nucleus, C - Nucleus, D - Lysosome
(4) A - Plasma membrane, B - Non-cytosolic, C - Plastid, D - Microbodies

63) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A. Telocentric chromosome i. Centromere at terminal end

B. Sub-metacentric ii. Centromere slightly away from middle

C. Acrocentric iii. Centromere situated close to the end

D. Metacentric iv. Centromere in the middle

Choose the correct answer from given options.

(1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii

64) 'X' is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast. Tonoplast facilitates the transport of a
number of ions and other materials against the concentration gradient. So, here 'X' is ______.

(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Glyoxysomes

65) The prokaryotic flagella are structurally ____A____ from eukaryotic flagella. The Axoneme of
flagella has ____B____.
Flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called ____C____.
(1) A - Similar, B - Peripheral doublets microtubule, C - Basal bodies.
(2) A - Different, B - Peripheral singlet microtubule, C - Basal bodies.
(3) A - Similar, B - Central doublets microtubules, C - Filaments.
(4) A - Different, B - Peripheral doublet microtubules, C - Basal bodies.

66) Assertion A: Chiasmata are X-shaped structures that are visible during diplotene, indicating the
sites of crossovers.
Reason R: The synaptonemal complex dissolves at the beginning of diplotene, allowing homologous
chromosomes to separate except at the crossover points.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

67) Select the correct order of steps shown in diagrams.

(1) A→ B → C → D
(2) A→ C → D → B
(3) A→ D → C → B
(4) A→ C → B → C

68) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Ladybird Nitrogen
A. (i)
beetle fixation

B. Mycorrhiza (ii) Bio gas

C. Methanogens (iii) Aphids

D. Rhizobium (iv) Glomus

A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as CH4, H2S and CO2 in :

(1) Aerobic sludge digestion

(2) Anaerobic sludge digestion
(3) Physical filtration
(4) Secondary treatment

70) Identify the incorrect statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis :

(a) Splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane.
(b) Protons accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.
(c) Primary acceptor of electron transfers the electrons to an electron carrier.
(d) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
(e) Protons increase in number in stroma.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) and (e)

(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (e)

71) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world.
Statement II : Photorespiration does not occur in C3 plants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

72) Which out of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Grana lamellae lacks both PS I and PS II

(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II
(3) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesised during cyclic photophosphorylation.
(4) Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NADP reductase

73) How many ATP molecules produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of phosphoenol
pyruvate?

(1) 16 ATP
(2) 15 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 32 ATP
74) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A. Oxidative decarboxylation I. α-ketoglutaric acid

B. Glycolysis II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

C. Oxidative phosphorylation III. CF0-CF1 complex

D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle IV. Phosphofructokinase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

75) How many times decarboxylation occurs during each EMP pathway ?

(1) Thrice
(2) Zero
(3) Once
(4) Twice

76) The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life
leading to formation of different kinds of structures is called plasticity it occurs in :

(1) Cotton
(2) Coriander
(3) Larkspur
(4) All the above

77) Match List-I with List-II.

List I List II

(A) Auxin (I) Promotes female flower formation in cucumber

(B) Gibberellin (II) Apical dominance

(C) Cytokinin (III) Increase in the length of grape stalks

(D) Ethylene (IV) Delay in senescence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
78) Match Column - I with Column - II:-

Column - I Column - II

(a) (i) Brassicaceae

(b) Br ⚥P2A3 G1 or G(3) (ii) Liliaceae

(c) (iii) Poaceae

(d) (iv) Malvaceae

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(ii) d-(i)
(2) a-(i) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(iv)
(3) a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(iv) d-(i)
(4) a-(iv) b-(ii) c-(i) d-(iii)

79) Identify the correct set of statements:-

(a) Axillary buds are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
(c) Petiole is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves
(d) Banyan shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c) Only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c) Only

80) In monocot stem, hypodermis is

(1) Parenchymatous
(2) Sclerenchymatous
(3) Collenchymatous
(4) Chlorenchymatous

81) Conjoint, Collateral, open vascular bundle and vascular bundles are arranged in a ring (Eustele)
in :-

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot Root

82) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.
 Column-I Column-II

(i) Tetragonal (a) Anther

(ii) Aeroallergens (b) Haploid

(iii) Antipodals (c) Parthenium

(iv) Polidy of nucellus (d) Same as antipodals

(e) Same as placental cell

(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-e
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-a ii-c, iii-e, iv-b
(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b

83) Assertion : Xenogamy brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.
Reason : Pollen grains are transferred between two different flowers of different species.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Only Assertion is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

84) With respect to this diagram select the most appropriate option related to it.

(1) In this type of plant aleurone layer separate embryo and endosperm.
(2) Such plants show mostly parallel venation.
(3) Endosperm is not formed in them.
(4) Endosperm is not present in their mature seed.

85) Statement I: Chromosomal mutations can be caused by the addition or deletion of

chromosomes in a set.
Statement II: Mutations do not affect the phenotype of an organism.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
86) To determine the genotype of a fall plant of F2 , Mendel crossed it with a dwarf plant. This is
called a :

(1) Test cross

(2) Monohybrid cross
(3) Self cross
(4) Out cross

87) Slightly different forms of the same gene is called:

(1) Factors
(2) Homozygous
(3) Heterozygous
(4) Alleles

88) In the following representation A and B is - Pneumococcus S Strain → injected into Mice → A
Pneumococcus R Strain → injected into Mice → B

A → Mice die
(1)
B → Mice live
A → Mice die
(2)
B → Mice die
A → Mice live
(3)
B → Mice live
A → Mice live
(4)
B → Mice die

89) In a double stranded DNA molecule each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each
step of ascent, the strand turns :-

(1) 0.34 nm
(2) 36°
(3) 3.4 nm
(4) 34°

90) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) E.Coli
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 4 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 1 4 4 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 4 4 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 4 3 1 4 2 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 4 3 1 4 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
5g ice will melt thus final temperature will be 0°C.

2) Since

Level of liquid will fall

3)

By COME

h = 2R
4)

5)

6)
in frame of lift

Spring is unstretched.
Reading

7) Wire resistance = 200

Divided into 20 equal parts

so each part resistance r =

Req. = 10X10

8)
8 (x) = 12(60 – x)
2x = 180 – 3x 5x = 180 x = 36 cm

9) The energy density between plates of capacitor is

10)
(one capacitor gets shorted)
= C1 + C2
= C + 3C
= 4C

11) & for stable equilibrium Umin = –pE

12) Let us assume initially both the sphere were having equal charge q so, Force between
them can be written as -

When 40% charge is transferred from one the another then new force F’ -
 (0.84) = 0.84 F.

13)

14)
βm = 0.5 mm

15) ⇒
= 0.5 × 10–6 m = 500 nm

16) Horizontal range will be maximum when cm, i. e., hole 3

17)

x = 8cm

18)

19) Both statements are correct.

20)
So X = 15

21)

For Y = 1
A=0;B=0;C=1

22)

Where

=0
(Since, wire 3 passes through origin)

23) Bnet = B1 – B2 ⇒ B1 – B2 = 0 ⇒ B1 = B2
⇒ B ∝ ni. So n1i1 = n2i2 or n1 = n2 and i1 = i2

24)

L = N (2πR), R is radius of circular coil.

For maximum torque, N = 1

25) due to motion of 'p' induced current will be produced and this current flow in conductor
'Q'. Due to ext. magnetic field force on 'Q' is towards 'P'.
26)

Pendulum will eventually come to rest due to electromagnetic damping.

27) angle from vertical

projection angle with horizontal
ux = u cos(90- )
v = ux = u sin
v = ux
{speed at maximum height}
v = usin

option (1) is correct.

28) As the two particles are equidistance from origin means

also

4 + 8p + 8p = 0
16p = – 4

and

Therefore

and
option (2) is correct.

29) From t = 0 to t = t1
sign of velocity is positive it means
it is moving +x direction
From t = t1 to t = t2
sign of velocity is negative it means it is moving -x direction.

30) In electric field photoelectron will experience force and accelerate opposite to the field so
it's K.E. increase (i.e., stopping potential will increase), no change in photoelectric current,
and threshold wavelength.

31) Nuclear force is both attractive and repulsive depending on the separation.

32) According to kinetic interpretation of temperature

K.E. = kT

⇒ 10.2 × 1.6 × 10–19 = × (1.38 × 10–23)T

⇒ T = 7.9 × 104 K

33) For series combination,

34) By using, k ∝

Since, one-fourth length is cut away, so remaining length is ,

Hence, k becomes times, i.e., .

35) N = n1 – n2 =

⇒ .

36) As fundamental frequency of sonometer wire is

 ⇒
v2 = v1 + 20% of v,

37) At elongated position (x),

∴ kx = m(ℓ + x)ω2
(∵ r = ℓ + x here)

kx = mℓω2 + mxω2 ∴

38) Using conservation of angular momentum

or,
Now using energy conservation, after collision
 or, ∴ θ ≃ 63°.

39)
Substituting λ(x) = λ0(1+x):

After solving, .

40) In pure inductive circuit current is lagging behind the voltage by 90°.

41) XL = 2π fL ⇒ XL ∝ f

i.e., graph between and f will be a hyperbola.

43) Id = 1 mA = 10–3 A
C = 2µF = 2 × 10–6 F

Therefore,
Therefore, applying a varying potential difference of 500 Vs–1 would produce a displacement
current of desired value.

44) 8mg - mg

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) –NO2 is –M group, which stabilise benzyl carbanion.

48)

50)
both-CH3 are anti to each other.

51)

52) Rate of β-elimination ∝ stability of alkene ∝ No. of α-Hydrogen

Order : A > C > B

53)

cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers.

trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
cis-2-butene has more dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature due to rotational
barrier.

54)

Group 15 → Valence electron = 5

Third period → Outermost shell = 3rd
55)

Radius ∝ ∝ ∝ number of shells

56)

Down the group basic strength of the hydrides of G-15 decreases as electronegativity
decreases, p-orbital take part in the bond and lone pair present in s-orbital : s-orbital is large
and non directional. Hence it has less effective tendency of bond formation.

57)

Down the group basic nature increases as electronegativity decreases while acidic nature
increase left to right in a period table.

58)

59)

σ bond → 18
π bond → 4

60)

B.O. CO = 3.0
B.O. CO2 = 2.0
B.O. HCO2¯ = 1.5
B.O. CO32– = 1.33

61)

62)

π = CRT
63) For NH4Cl, i = 2 which is lowest among the given solute. Hence depression in freezing
point will be least for it.

64)

Given :

= = 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

65)

For operation of electrolytic cell ; ΔG > 0 ; E < 0 because electrolytic cell requires an external
source of energy to drive a non-spontaneous reaction.

66)

Globular protein → Insulin, Albumins

Fibrous protein → Keratin (present in Hair, wool, silk)
→ Myosin (present in Muscles)

67)

68)

Reactivity towards SN2 ∝

69)

70)

71)
72) Aromatic primary amine form diazonium salt with HNO2 at 0–5°C temperature.

73)

74) The IUPAC name of Xe[Pt6] is Xenon hexafluoroplatinate(V)

75) cis-platin, i.e., cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2] is anticancer agent. It destroys cancer cells. So, used as
antitumour agent.

76) Pb(IV) is oxidizing and I¯ is strong reducing agent

77)

Fact based

78) [Cr(CN)6]3– Cr3+ in strong ligand field = = 3 unpaired electron

[Mn(CN)6]3– Mn3+ in strong ligand field = = 2 unpaired electron.

[Fe(CN)6]3– Fe3+ in strong ligand field = = 1 unpaired electron.

[Co(CN)6]3– Co3+ in strong ligand field = = Zero unpaired electron.

79)

⇒ [Co(ox)(H2O)3(NH3)]Br : Does not exhibit structural and optical isomerism but it can exhibit
geometrical isomerism.
⇒ [Cr(SCN)(H2O)3(en)](C2O4) : It can exhibit linkage and geometrical isomerism.
⇒ [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH3)]– : It exhibits optical isomerism.
⇒ [CoBrCl(H2O)4][Ag(CN)2] and [CoCl(CN)(H2O)4]AgBr(CN)] are co-ordination isomerism.

80)

FeSO4 + NO → FeSO4·NO
(Brown)

81) AgCl is soluble in NH4OH

82)

3.4 g sulphur is present in 100 g insulin

∴ 32 g sulphur will be present in × 32 g insulin = 940

∴ Molar mass of insulin is about 940 amu

83)

= 3 × 108 × 10 = 3 × 109 s–1

84)

Here,
∴ n1 = 1, n2 = 2

85)
 Unit of KC = (mol L–1)Δn
= (mol L–1)1 = mol L–1

86)

[H+] =
pH = –log10 [H+] = –log10 10–2 = 2

87)

[Ca2+] = x, [F–] = [2x + 0.1] ≈ 0.1M

Ksp = [Ca2+] [F–]2
3.4 × 10–11 = x(0.1)2
x =3.4 × 10–9 M

88)

89)

ΔH – ΔU = ΔnRT

=
= 1238.78 J mol–1

90)

Balanced equation is:

Stoichiometric coefficients of I– and are 6 and 2 respectively.

BIOLOGY

98) The assertion is true as the Amazon rainforest, which is vast enough to be called the 'lungs
of the planet', is indeed being deforested at an alarming rate. The reason is also true and is the
correct explanation for the assertion, as the rainforest is being cut down for agricultural
purposes such as soya bean cultivation and cattle ranching, as well as suffering from habitat
degradation due to pollution. These activities contribute significantly to the loss of this critical
ecosystem.
99)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104-105

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 38

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 36

103)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 31-33

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 29

106)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 45

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 142

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 136

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 140

110)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 141

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 112

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124-125

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 167

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 165-166

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170-171

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 180

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179-180

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 212

122)
NCERT XI, Page # 96

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

127) NCERT-XI Pg. # 219, 227

128) NCERT-XI Pg. # 226

129) NCERT-XI Pg. # 186-187

130) NCERT-XI Pg. # 189

131) NCERT-XI Pg. # 199

132) NCERT-XI Pg. # 196

133) NCERT-XI Pg. # 234

134) NCERT-XI Pg. # 232

135) NCERT-XI Pg. # 240

136) NCERT-XI Pg. # 240, 242, 243, 246

137) NCERT-XI Pg. # 244, 242, 243

139) NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

141) NCERT XI Pg.# 23, 24

142) NCERT-XI Pg. # 33

144) NCERT XI, Page # 23-33

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 49, 50, 51

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 47

148) Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80, 83

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 82

151) Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 114

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93-99

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137

156) The assertion is true as chiasmata, which are X-shaped structures, represent the sites of
crossing over and are visible during the diplotene stage of meiosis. The reason is also true and
is the correct explanation for the assertion because the synaptonemal complex, which holds
homologous chromosomes together, dissolves at the beginning of diplotene, allowing the
chromosomes to separate but remain connected at the chiasmata where crossing over has
occurred.

157) New NCERT pg no. 123-4

Section 10.2.4
158)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 156,157,158

159) NCERT Pg. # 185

172) NCERT-XII, Page # 11

173)

NCERT-XII, Page # 13

174) NCERT-XII, Page # 19

175) NCERT XII, Page # 72

176) NCERT pg-74

177) NCERT pg. 72

178) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

179) NCERT XI, pg.#152

180)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87