02-03-2025

5001CMD303001240047 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R are placed in contact with each other. The
gravitational attraction force between them is proportional to :

(1) R2
(2) R–2
(3) R4
(4) R–4

2) The mass of a planet is six times of that of the earth. The radius of the planet is twice of that of
earth. If the escape velocity from the earth is v then the escape velocity from the planet is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Three particles of equal mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ.
They are moving in a circle in influence of their mutual gravitational interaction. Then their time
period of revolution is directly proportional to :-

(1) ℓ1/2
(2) ℓ-1/2
(3) ℓ3/2
(4) ℓ–3/2

4) Maximum height reached by an object projected perpendicular to the surface of the earth with a
speed equal to 50% of the escape velocity from earth surface is - (R = Radius of Earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
water in the capillary tube is 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 2.5 g
(2) 5.0 g
(3) 10 g
(4) 20 g

6) Two satellites A and B, ratio of masses 3 : 1 are in circular orbits of radii r and 4r. The ratio of
total mechanical energy of A to that of B is :-

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 12 : 1

7) If the value of acceleration due to gravity at a height h above the surface of the earth is the same
as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth)

(1) x = h
(2) x = 2h

(3)

(4) x = h2

8) Suppose ge be the acceleration due to gravity at the equator and gp be that at the poles. Assuming
the earth to be a sphere of radius Re rotating about its own axis with angular speed ω, then (gp – ge)
is given by :-

2
(1) ω /Re
2
(2) Reω
2 2
(3) ω Re
2
(4) ω/Re

9) If the rotational motion of earth about its axis increases, then the weight of a body on equator
would

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain same
(4) May remain same or increase

10) A planet moving around the sun sweeps area A1 in 3 days, A2 in 6 days and A3 in 2 days. The

relation between A1, A2 and A3 is

(1) A1 = A2 = A3
(2) 2A1 = A2 = 3A3
(3) 4A1 = A2 = 6A3
(4) A1 = 2A2 = 3A3

11) A body is moving in a room with a speed of perpendicular to the two walls separated by 5
metre. There is no friction and the collision with the wall are elastic. The motion of body is:-

(1) Not periodic

(2) Periodic but not simple harmonic
(3) Periodic and simple harmonic
(4) Periodic with variable time period

12) The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion is :-

(1) π
(2) 0.707 π
(3) zero
(4) 0.5 π

13) Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is x = A sin .Time taken by the

particle to go directly from x = – to x = + is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) On suspending a mass M from a spring the period of oscillations is T it is cut into n equal

segment on suspending the mass M from one of the segments the time period become then the
value of n will be :-

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

15) For S.H.M, equation is given by

X = 10 sin
graphical relation b/w displacement and velocity is :-

1 2

3 4

(1) 1,2
(2) 2,3
(3) 3,4
(4) 1,4

16)

Which of the following is constant in SHM ?

(1) mechanical energy

(2) acceleration
(3) potential energy
(4) kinetic energy

17) For a particle executing S.H.M. the displacement x is given by x = Acosωt. Identify the graph
which represents the variation of potential energy (P. E.) as a function of time t and displacement x

:-

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) I, IV

18) A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of material of the bob is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A simple pendulum of length 1m is allowed to oscillate with amplitude 2°. It collides elastically

with a wall inclined at 1° to the vertical. Its time period will be (use g = π2) :-

(1) 2/3 sec

(2) 4/3 sec
(3) 2 sec
(4) None of these

20) The water equivalent of 20 gm. of aluminium (specific heat 0.2 cal/gm °C) is:-

(1) 40g
(2) 4g
(3) 8g
(4) 160g

21) Three identical metal rods in dimension A, B and C are placed end to end and a temperature
difference is maintained between the ends of A and C. If thermal conductivity of B is thrice that of C
and half that of A, then effective thermal conductivity of the system is :-

(1) 12K/7
(2) 6K/7
(3) 7K/3
(4) 2K

22) Find out amount of heat required to convert 2 gm ice at –10°C into water at 60°C.

(1) 130 cal

(2) 290 cal
(3) 300 cal
(4) 400 cal

23) A diatomic ideal gas does 200 J of work when it expands isobarically. The heat given to the gas
in the process is :-

(1) 200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 600 J
(4) 700 J

24) An ideal gas follows VT2 = const. Its volume expansion coefficient will be :-

(1)

(2)
–

(3)

(4)
–

25) Statement I : Water can be boiled inside satellite by convection.

Statement II : Convection is the process in which heat is transmitted from a place of higher
temperature to a place of lower temperature by means of particles with their migration form one
place to another.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

26) Find the work done by the gas in the process ABC.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) An ideal gas at 0°C and atmospheric pressure P has volume V. The percentage increase in its
temperature needed to expand it to 3 V at constant pressure is :

(1) 200 %
(2) 300%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

28) A wooden objects floats in water kept in a beaker. The object is near a side of the beaker as
shown in figure. Let P1,P2,P3 be the pressures at the three points A,B and C of the bottom as shown in

the figure.

(1) P1 = P2 = P3
(2) P1 < P2 < P3
(3) P1 > P2 > P3
(4) P2 = P3P1

29) A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface
tension of water is 0.07 Nm–1, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is :

(1) 19.8 mN
(2) 198 N
(3) 1.98 mN
(4) 99 N

30) A tube in vertical plane is shown in figure. It is filled with a liquid of density ρ and its end B is
closed. Then the force exerted by the fluid on the tube at end B will be : [Neglect atmospheric
pressure and assume the radius of the tube to be negligible in comparison to ℓ]

(1) 0
(2) ρgℓ A0
(3) 2ρgℓ A0
(4) Cannot be determined

31) A barometer tube reads 76 cm of mercury. If the tube is gradually inclined at an angle of
60° with vertical, keeping the open end immersed in the mercury reservoir, the length of the
mercury column will be ?

(1) 152 cm
(2) 76 cm
(3) 38 cm
(4) cm

32)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level of water.
Statement II : The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions equally.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

33) Two wires of same diameter of the same material having the length ℓ and 2ℓ. If the force F is
applied on each, the ratio of the work done in the two wires will be :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

34) Potential energy stored in the wire per unit volume is (A = stress, B = Young's Modulus):-

(1) A/2B
(2) 2.B/A2
(3) A2/2B
(4) B2/2A

35) The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material and same length is shown
in the figure. The thinnest wire is represented by the line :-

(1) OA
(2) OB
(3) OC
(4) OD

36) Two wires, one of steel (Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2) and the other of copper (YCu = 1011 N/m2) have
same length and radii. If on applying a force F, the length of first wire increases by ℓ0, then force
required to increase the length of second wire by same amount is :-

(1) 4F

(2)

(3)

(4) 2F

37) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

38) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following, choose the wrong

statement :

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity
(3) Points C and G has zero velocity
(4) Points A and E have minimum velocity

39) When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacement is given by : y = a sin 2π(bt – cx)
where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if:

(1)

(2) c = πa
(3) b = ac

(4)
b=

40) Two waves represented by ;

and
 ,
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-

(1) zero
(2) 2a
(3) a
(4)

41) According to Newton, propagation of sound in gas is ....... process and according to Laplace it is
......... process :-

(1) Adiabatic, Isothermal

(2) Adiabatic, Adiabatic
(3) Isothermal, Adiabatic
(4) Isothermal, Isothermal

42) Which one of the following statements is true.

(1) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal

(2) Both light and sound waves can travel in vocuum
(3) Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
(4) The sound waves in air longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

43) As a wave propagates :–

(1) The wave intensity remains constant for a plane wave

(2) The wave intensity decreases as the inverse of the distance from the source for a spherical wave
The wave intensity decreases as the inverse of square of the distance from the source for a
(3)
spherical wave
Total intensity of the spherical wave over the spherical surface centred at the source remains
(4)
constant at all time

44) Regarding speed of sound in gas match the following :-

speed
Temperature of gas is made 4
(A) (P) becomes t
times and pressure 2 times
imes

Only pressure is made 4 times speed become

(B) (Q)
without change in temperature 2 times

Only temperature is changed speed remains

(C) (R)
to 4 times unchanged

Molecular mass of the gas is speed become

(D) (S)
made 4 times half
(1) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – Q, B – S, C – Q, D – S
(3) A – S, B –R, C – Q, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – Q

45) A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/s with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little
wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces
2 beats/s. The frequency of the unknown fork is-

(1) 286 cps

(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps

CHEMISTRY

1) The ion with maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) O2 molecule is paramagnetic due to :-

(1) it contains 2 unpaired electrons in π*2Px and π*2Py molecular orbitals

(2) it contains no unpaired electrons in π*2Px and π*2Py molecular orbitals
(3) it contains 2 paired electrons in σ2s orbital
(4) it contains 1 unpaired electrons in σ2s orbital

3) Which of the following molecule does not have bent shape?

(1) SO2
(2) O3
(3) H2O
+
(4) NH4

4) No. of electrons shared in the formation of nitrogen molecule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 2
(4) 8

5) Assertion : H2+ is paramagnetic in nature.

Reason : Bond order of H2+ is 0.5.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

6) Match List-I with List-II

List I List II

A SF4 1 See-Saw

B IF7 2 Linear

C I3– 3 Pentagonal Bipyramidal

D XeF4 4 Square Planar

Choose the correct answer the options given below :
(1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

7) Statement-1 (S1) : Dipole moment of CH3Cl is more than CH3F.

Statement-2 (S2) : Dipole moment depends upon difference in electronegativity of C – X bond only

(1) Both S1 and S2 are correct

(2) S1 is correct but S2 is incorrect
(3) Both S1 and S2 are incorrect
(4) S1 is incorrect but S2 is correct.

8) Which of the following molecule is planar :-

(1) XeF2
(2) PCl3F2
(3) PCl5
(4) SF4

9) Orbital forming strongest bond by the overlapping of :-

(1) 2s – 2s orbital
(2) 3p – 3p orbital
(3) 3s – 2p orbital
(4) 2p – 2p orbital

10) What is the order of relative degree of hydration ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) A hybrid orbital formed from s-and p-orbital can contribute to :-

(1) A σ bond only

(2) π bond only
(3) Either σ or π bond
(4) None of these

12) Which group of molecules are paramagnetic in nature :-

(1) C2, O2, F2

(2) B2, O2, NO
(3) He2, B2, NO
(4) O2, C2, N2

13) Which of the following compound has maximum dipole moment :-

(1) NH3
(2) NF3
(3) H2O2
(4) H2O

14)

Number of σ and π bonds present in

CH3 — CH = CH — C CH are-

(1) 10 σ, 3π
(2) 10 σ, 2π
(3) 9 σ, 2π
(4) None

15) An example of odd-electron molecule is

(1) F2
(2) BCl3
(3) NO2
(4) O3

16) Identify a molecule which does not exist

(1) H2
(2) Be2
(3) C2
(4) N2

17)

For which reaction, ΔS will be maximum ?

(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)

(2) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → N2O4(g)

(3)
S(s) + O2(g) → SO3(g)
(4) 2C(s)+ O2(g) → 2CO(g)

18) Standard molar enthalpy of formation of which of the given substances is zero at 298 K?

(1) C6H6(l)
(2) H2O(l)
(3) Br2(l)
(4) C(diamond)

19) Heat of neutralization of NaOH and HCl is –57.46 kJ/equivalent. The heat of ionisation of water
in kJ/mol is :-

(1) –57.46
(2) +57.46
(3) –114.92
(4) +114.92

20) (i) CH4(g) → CH3(g) + H(g); ΔH = 475 kJ

(ii) CH3(g) → CH2(g) + H(g); ΔH = 470 kJ
(iii) CH2(g) → CH(g) + H(g); ΔH = 416 kJ
(iv) CH(g) → C(g) + H(g); ΔH = 335 kJ
The average bond energy of C — H bond is :-

(1) 1696 kJ mol–1

(2) 424 kJ mol–1
(3) 686 kJ mol–1
(4) 1896 kJ mol–1

21) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

A. C(Diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g) P. ΔrH° = ΔcH°

B. C(Graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) Q. ΔrH° = ΔƒH°

 C. H2(g) → 2H(g) R. ΔrH° =ΔH°atomization

D. CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g) S. ΔrH° = ΔH°bond Dissociation

energy

(1) A–P; B–P,Q; C–R,S; D–R

(2) A–R; B–P,Q; C–R,S; D–P
(3) A–Q; B–R,Q; C–R,S; D–R
(4) A–Q; B–P,R; C–P,S; D–R

22) If a compound has high lattice enthalpy then dissolution of compound will be -

(1) Very high

(2) Low
(3) Dissolution will not take place at all
(4) Lattice enthalpy has no effect on dissolution

23) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → 2NO2 ; ΔH + x kJ

2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) ; ΔH + y kJ
The enthalpy of formation of NO is -

(1) (2x – 2y) kJ/mol

(2) (x – y) kJ/mol

(3)
(y – x) kJ/mol

(4)
(x – y) kJ/mol

24)

In any natural process :-

(1) The entropy of the universe remains const.

(2) The entropy of the universe tends towards minimum
(3) The entropy of the universe tends towards maximum
(4) Any of the above can happen

25)

For reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K, from a volume of 10 L to
20 L, ΔH is :

(1) 1.73 kJ
(2) –1.73 kJ
(3) 3.46 kJ
(4) zero

26) For which of the following change ΔH ≠ ΔE?

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
(2) 2A(g) + B(s) → C(g) + D(g)
(3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

27) Strongest B-F bond present in :-

(1) BF3
(2) BF4Θ
(3) BF3·NH3
(4) BF3·NH2CH3

28) In B2H6 here total 3c–2e– bond :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

29) The compound (SiH3)3N is

(1) Pyramidal and more basic than (CH3)3N

(2) Planar and less basic than (CH3)3N
(3) Pyramidal and less basic than (CH3)3N
(4) Planar and more basic than (CH3)3N

30) Which of the following is true statement about intensive properties

(1) These properties are mass dependent

(2) These properties are non additive in nature
(3) These properties are additive in nature
(4) All of the above

31) Match the column-

Column - I Column - II

(a) Adiabatic process (i) dT = 0

(b) Isothermal process (ii) dq = 0

(c) Free expansion (iii) dv = 0

(d) Isochoric process (iv) Pext = 0

(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

32) Which of the following is path function

(1) Heat
(2) Work
(3) Enthalpy
(4) Both 1 & 2

33) For which of the following

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(2) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
(4) H2O(g) → H2O(l)

34) For the reaction

2C (S) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)
is equal to

(1) – RT
(2) + RT
(3) – 2RT
(4) + 2RT

35) For the isothermal expansion of 1 mol gas

(1) =w
(2) = positive
(3) q = positive
(4) w = 0

36) CP / CV is

(1) Always greater than 1

(2) Always lesser then 1
(3) Sometimes greater then 1
(4) Zero

37) Which of the following is the strongest base :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38)
Compare acidic strength

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

39)
Among these compounds, which one has maximum resonance energy?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

40) Which group can act as an electron donor as well as electron withdrawing by resonance :-

(1)

(2) –O–N=O

(3)
(4) –N=O

41) Correct stability order is :-

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) IV > III > II > I

42) Which of the following compound will not undergo tautomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of following compound forms highly unstable enol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which of the following is anti-aromatic ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) The stability of dihalides of group 14 elements follow which of the order ?

(1) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2

(2) GeCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2 < SiCl2
(3) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2
(4) GeCl2 < SiCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2

BIOLOGY

1) The linear diagram below show the hierarchy of taxonomic category. Select the option giving
correct information about the figure.

(1) Genus comparises a group of related family

(2) Family has more character in common in comparison to species
(3) Group of order is called family
(4) Genus comparises a group of related species

2) Match the following column

Column I Column II

(a) Family (i) Solanaceae

(b) Kingdom (ii) Plantae

(c) Order (iii) Solanum

(d) Specific epithets (iv) Polymoniales

(e) Genus (v) Tuberosum

(1) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv), e - (v)
(2) a - (v), b - (iv), c - (iii), d - (ii), e - (i)
(3) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (v), e - (iii)
(4) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii), e - (v)

3)

Slime mould is known as naked fungi.

(1) Cell membrane absent
(2) Cell wall absent
(3) Cell wall and cell membrane absent
(4) Never naked

4) Which of the following statement is wrong

Members of phycomycetes are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in moist and
(1)
damp places or as obligate parasite on plants
(2) Deuteromycetes are commonly known as sac-fungi
(3) Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes are mushrooms, bracket fungi or pufballs
(4) Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi

5) Some of the cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in their specialised cells called -

(1) Akinetes
(2) heterocyst
(3) Endorpore
(4) Homocyst

6) Select the correct pair :

(1) Phycomycetes - Algal fungi

(2) Ascomycetes - Braket jungi
(3) Basidiomycetes- Imperfect fungi
(4) Deuteromyetes - Sac fungi

7) If the centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely short and one very long arm,
the chromosome is :-

(1) Acrocentric
(2) Submetacentric
(3) Telocentric
(4) Metacentric

8) Important site for the formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid is

(1) lysosomes
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) vacuoles
(4) plastids

9) Cytokinesis in animal cells takes place by_______method in______direction, while in plant cell it
occurs by__________method in_____direction :-

(1) Furrowing, Centrifugal, Cell plate, Centripetal

(2) Furrowing, Centripetal, Cell plate, Centrifugal
(3) Cell plate, Centrifugal, Furrowing, Centripetal
(4) Cell plate, Centripetal, Furrowing, Centrifugal

10) How many characters found in siphonogamous plants ?

(i) Presence of triploid endosperm in all siphonogamous plant
(ii) Always heterosporous
(iii) Free- living gametophytes
(iv) Synergid-cells are found in female gametophyte of all siphonogamous plants
Options :-

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) only iv
(3) i, iii
(4) only ii

11) Read the following terms carefully

Prothallus, Protonema, Endosperm, embryo, Zygote, Archegonia, Rhizome, Cone, Seed, Adventitious
root.
How many term related with vascular cryptogames

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

12) Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes

(2) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
(3) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
(4) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free living

13) In pteridophytes diploid number of chromosomes occur in :-

(1) Gametes
(2) Spores
(3) Sporophylls
(4) Archegonia

14)

Which of the following is most advanced gymnosperm ?

(1) Cycadales
(2) Coniferales
(3) Ginkgoales
(4) Gnetales

15) If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction, the
aestivation is called :-

(1) Imbricate
(2) Valvate
(3) Twisted
(4) Vexillary

16) Phylloclade is found in

(1) Opuntia and cactus

(2) Babool and mango
(3) Fig and brinjal
(4) Banana and turmeric

17)

Find out the correct character regarding racemose inflorescence :-

(i) Main axis continues to grow.
(ii) Flowers are arranged in acropetal order.
(iii) Peduncle is elongated.
(iv) It found in solanum.

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) Only ii
(3) Only ii, iii
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

18) In Cymose inflorescence the main axis :-

(1) Show unlimited growth

(2) Bear a solitary flower in acropetel order
(3) Show unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flower
(4) Always terminates in a flower

19) Meristem which is found in grasses and regenerates the parts removed by the grazing animals :-

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Secondary meristem

20) Arrangment of primary xylem in roots is :-

(1) Mesarch
(2) Endarch
(3) Exarch
(4) (1) and (2) both

21) After secondary growth what is the actual future of primary xylem ?

(1) Converts into secondary xylem

(2) Remains more or less intact in or around the centre
(3) Converts into secondary phloem
(4) Gets crushed

22) Identify the given diagrame and choose correct option :-

(1) It forms the major component within organ

(2) corners becomes thick due to deposition of lignin
(3) Found in the fruit walls of nuts
(4) Living mechanical tissue

23) Which of the following statements are true about parenchyma ?

(a) Their cells are generally isodiametric
(b) Their cell walls are thin and mainly made up of cellulose
(c) Their cells may have small intercellular spaces

(1) only a
(2) only a & b
(3) only c
(4) a, b & c

24) Consider the following events with respect to meosis and select the correct option having
correct sequence of events -
(A) Pairing of homologous chromosome
(B) Dissolution of synaptomemal complex
(C) Appearence of chiasmata
(D) Appearence of recombination module

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) A → D → B → C
(3) A → D → C → B
(4) C → D → B → A

25) Diplotene of meiosis-I in marked by :

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Crossing over take place

26) Homosporous fern plants produce :-

(1) Two types of spores

(2) Dioecious gametophytes
(3) Monoecious gametophytes
(4) Leafy gametophytes

27) Which of the following is incorrect regarding dark reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1) It is not directly light driven

(2) It is dependent upon the products of light reaction
(3) It synthesise ATP and reducing power NADPH
(4) Reduction of CO2 occur

28) In C4 plant for photosynthesis, which one is not correct ?

(1) Carboxylation and decarboxylation ratio is 2 : 1

(2) For each hexose production, net consumption of 2 ATP occurs
(3) In bundle sheath cells only cyclic photo phosphorylation occurs
(4) Biosynthetic phase is completed in mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells

29) The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants is :-

(1) PEPcase
(2) RubisCO
(3) PEP
(4) RuBp

30) Possible location of PSI is :-

(1) Stroma lamella

(2) Grana lamella
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Stroma

31) Which of the following are common between biosynthetic phase of C3 plants and C4 plants? (A)
Regeneration of PEP
(B) Carboxylation by RuBisCO
(C) Dephosphorylation of ATP
(D) Oxidation of NADPH
(E) Reduction of OAA
(F) Regeneration of RuBP
Options :-

(1) A, B, D and E
(2) B, C, D and F
(3) B, D, E and F
(4) A, C, D and E

32) During glycolysis ATP is produced when :-

(1) Fructose 6–phosphate converted into fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate

(2) Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate converted into glyceraldehyde 3–phasphate
(3) 1,3 biphosphoglycerate converted into 3–phosphoglycerate
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate converted into 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid

33) Identify the 5-C compound in kreb's cycle?

(1) Fumaric acid

(2) Citric acid
(3) Oxalo-succinic acid
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid

34)

Which of the following are correctly matched ?

(A) Ethylene – Thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut

(B) ABA – Antagonist to Gibberellic acids (C) Cytokinin – Speed up the malting process in brewing
industry
(D) Auxins – Prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages
Choose the correct option :
(1) (A), (B) and (D)
(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (C) and (D)

35) The NADPH and ATP synthesised in light reaction are used for carry out metabolically processes

(1) Synthesis of new parts

(2) Synthesis of reducing power
(3) Carry out enzymetic activities
(4) Synthesis of sugar

36) In Calvin cycle, the first product identified was

(1) 3 - Phosphoglyceric acid

(2) 2 - Phosphoglyceric acid
(3) 1 - Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) 4 - Phosphoglyceric acid

37) Calvin pathway occurs in

(1) C3 - plant
(2) C4 - Plant
(3) C2 - Plant
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) In dark reaction, regeneration of RuBP needs

(1) 2 molecules of ATP

(2) 1 molecule of ATP
(3) 3 molecules of ATP
(4) 4 molecules of ATP

39) Assertion (A): The flowers of the family - Liliaceae are pentamerous.
Reason (R): Flowers of Liliaceae are pentamerous because it is a dicot family.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

40) Assertion (A): Viruses cause diseases and replicate when they are in the host cell.
Reason (R): Viruses do not replicate outside the host, but they survive in environment.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

41) The protistan cell body contains

I. a well-defined nucleus.
II. membrane bound cell organelles.
III. Some have flagella or cilia.
Correct statements are

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II and III

42) Assertion (A): Euglena is a plant due to the presence of chlorophyll.

Reason (R): Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two kingdom system.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

43) Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape. Refer to the given figure.
Identify A, B, C and D.

(1) A - Vibrio, B - Cocci, C - Bacilli, D - Spirilla

(2) A - Cocci, B - Bacilli, C - Spirilla, D - Vibrio
(3) A - Bacilli, B - Spirilla, C - Vibrio, D - Cocci
(4) A - Spirilla, B - Vibrio, C - Cocci, D - Bacilli

44) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option?

Column -
Column - I
II

(A) Cyt. P-450 (i) Ribosome

(B) Palade particle (ii) SER

(C) Protein hormone synthesis (iii) Golgibody

(D) Zymogen secretion (iv) RER

Option-
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(2) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(3) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(4) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

45) Red tide is caused by-

(1) Gymnodium; that is a diatom

(2) Gonyaulax; that is a dinoflagellate
(3) Noctiluca; that is a slime mold
(4) Noviculla; that is a diatom
46) Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted from heart when

(1) B.P. is low

(2) B.P. is high
(3) B.P. is Normal
(4) Blood glucose level is high

47) How many statements is correct ?

(a) Lymph is the most commonly used body fluid for the higher organism
(b) Mollusca and chordates have a closed circulatory system
(c) Adrenal medullary hormones can also increase cardiac output

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

48) Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder of Alveoli.

Reason : One of the major causes of Emphysema is cigarette smoking in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is increased.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

49) Identify A-F :

Choose the correct option

(1) A - Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary vein, D-Pulmonary artery, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
(2) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Dorsal aorta, F- Vena Cava
(3) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta
(4) A-Body parts, B-Lungs, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal Aorta

50) Which statement is true with the regarding of reabsorption.

(1) Mammals have the ability to pass concentrated urine.

(2) Nearly all of the essential nutrients are reabsorbed by PCT.
–
(3) DCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3
(4) All the above

51) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram :-

A B C D
+2
I. Ca Acetylcholine Closing AP
II. Mg+2 Acetylcholine Closing RP
III. Na+2 Acetylcholine Opening RP
IV. Ca+2 Acetylcholine Opening AP
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

52) Which hormone cause glycogenolysis ?

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Glucagon
(3) Insulin
(4) Both (1) and (2)

53) Assertion :-The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung cavity. (Pulmonary cavity) Reason :- Lungs have no
muscles so we cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

54) Choose the incorrect statement regarding the enzyme carbonic anhydrase :-

(1) Present in high concentration in RBCs

(2) Present in plasma also
(3) Facilitates the reaction of CO2 and H2O in both directions
(4) Absent in plasma

55) Which joint is similar to elbow joint ?

(1) Joint between humerus and scapula

(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Joint between Femur, Tibia and patella
(4) Joint between Radius and Ulna

56) Match the Column - I with Column - II and Identify the correct option?

Column - I Column - II
(i) Impermeable to – ve charged
(A) Axoplasm
protein
(B) Axolemma (ii) Low K+ and high Na+
(C) Fluid Outside Axon (iii) Active Transport
(D) Na+ – K+ Pump (iv) High K+ and Low Na+

A B C D

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) 1. Olfaction
2. Sexual behaviour
3. Emotional reactions
4. Motivation
How many of above are function of limbic system?

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Two

58) Which is a wrong match?

(1) Polarized state - Maintained by Na – K pump

(2) Depolarized state - Action potential
(3) Repolarized state - Nerve impulse
(4) Resting membrane - Resting membrane potential

59) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
(2) Glycosuria and ketonurea is indicative of diabetes insipidus.
(3) In normal blood pressure pumping pressure is 120 mm Hg.
Coronary system of blood vessels is exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the
(4)
cardiac musculature.

60) Read the following statement carefully and choose the correct :
Statement-I : A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called
synapses
Statement-II : At a chemical synaptic cleft, the membranes of the pre and post synaptic neuron are
separated by a fluid-filled space.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I & II both correct
(4) Statement I & II both incorrect

61) Skeletal muscles are controlled by :-

(1) Sympathetic Nervous system

(2) Parasympathetic Nervous system
(3) Autonomic Nervous system
(4) Somatic Neural system

62) In an accident a person got hurt and few of his body parts were severely affected.
Which of the following are least likely to be replaced by new cells?

(1) fibroblast
(2) neurons
(3) epithelial cells
(4) hepatocytes

63) Select the correct statement regarding synapses :-

(1) Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters

Impulse transmission across a electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
(2)
synapse
(3) Neurotransmitter receptors are situated on per synaptic membrane
(4) Chemical synapses are rare in our system

64) The cerebrum wrap around a structure called __A__. Which is major coordinating centre for
__B___ signaling. Another very important part of the brain called ___C___ lie at the base of thalamus.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C to complete the given statement
 A B C

(1) Pons Visual Hypothalamus

(2) Cerebellum Smell Epithalamus

(3) Thalamus Sensorys motor Hypothalamus

(4) Pons Sensory motor Hypothalamus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Transmission of an impulse across ___A___ synapse is very similar to impulse conduction along a
single ___B___ .
Choose the correct options for A and B

A B

(1) Chemical Axon

(2) Electrical Cyton

(3) Chemical Cyton

(4) Electrical Axon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Which sequences is correct to initiate expiration?

I. Relaxation of EICM and return of diaphragm and sternum to their normal position
II. Air expelled from lungs
III. Volume of thorax decreases
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases

(1) I, III, IV, II

(2) II, IV, III, I
(3) IV, III, II, I
(4) I, II, III, IV

67) Which statement is true ?

(1) Micturition is carried out by a reflex

(2) Henle's loop play an important role in concentrating the urine
(3) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the bowman's capsule
(4) All of the above
68) Which is not true for actin ?

(1) It is lighter than myosin

(2) It is thinner than myosin
(3) It is also found in smooth muscles
(4) Its monomeric form is meromyosin

69) Component of thin filament of a sarcomere is

(1) Myosin and troponin

(2) Troponin and actin
(3) Actin and myosin
(4) Actin, troponin and tropomyosin

70) Which is not true for scapula in the following?

(1) It is found between 2nd to 7th ribs

(2) It has an cavity which is found above the acromian process
(3) It is found dorsal part of throrax
(4) It is a flat triangular bone

71) Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Asthma → Wheezing sound

(2) Emphysema → Decreased respiratory surface
(3) Cardiac arrest → Sudden damage of heart muscle
(4) Uremia → Accumulation of urea in blood

72) The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into ventricles by about :

(1) 60%
(2) 70%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%

73) The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to :-

(1) Increase in the blood pressure

(2) Decrease in the blood pressure
(3) Damage to the malpighian corpuscles
(4) Damage to the proximal convoluted tubules

74) Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t urine?

(1) The average pH of urine is 6.0

(2) The yellow colour of urine is due to urochrome, which is breakdown product of haemoglobin
(3) An adult human excretes on an average 1 to 1.5 litres of urine per day
(4) Glycosuria and ketonuria are indicative of diabetes insipidus

75) Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions occur in

(1) Distal convoluted tubule

(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Collecting duct
(4) Both (1) & (3)

76) Match the following

Column I Column II

Reabsorption of Na+
a. Renin (i) from distal parts of
tubule

b. Aldosterone (ii) Vasoconstrictor

Secreted by
c. ANF (iii)
juxtaglomerular cells

d. Angiotensin II (iv) Vasodilator

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

77) Formation of stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts within the kidney is termed as

(1) Glomerulonephritis
(2) Renal failure
(3) Renal calculi
(4) Uremia

78) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a–formation of cross bridge, b–breaking of cross bridge, c–rotation or sliding

(2) c–formation of cross bridge, a–breaking of cross bridge, b–rotation or sliding
(3) b–formation of cross bridge, c–breaking of cross bridge, a–rotation or sliding
(4) c–formation of cross bridge, b–breaking of cross bridge, a–rotation or sliding

79) Correctly match with column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tetany (i) Auto immune disorder

(B) Muscular dystrophy (ii) Rapid spasm in muscle

Progressive degeneration
(C) Myasthenia Gravis (iii)
of skeletal muscle
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)

80) How many of these hormones are lipid soluble?

FSH, LH, Iodothyronine, Epinephrine, Aldosterone, Progesterone :-

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

81) Which is not enhanced by testosterone :-

(1) Male sexual behaviour

(2) Spermatogenesis
(3) Maturation of male seconodary sexual organs
(4) Protein catabolism

82) Hypothalamus does not control :-

(1) Hunger and satiety

(2) Thermoregulation
(3) Libido
(4) Creativity, thinking and consiousness

83) At exciting stage, the stimulus induced permeability is short lived. In this permeability axonal
membrane is more permeable to :-

(1) K+
(2) Na+
(3) Na+ and K+ both
(4) Cl–

84) –70 mV –60 mV + 35 mV

(A) (B) (C)
(A), (B) and (C) are respectively potential :-

(1) RMP, threshold, action

(2) Threshold, action, RMP
(3) RMP, action, threshold
(4) Threshold, RMP, action

85) Read the following steps for synapse, and arrange them correctly :-
(a) Neurotransmitter bind with receptor of post synaptic membrane.
(b) Arrival of impulse at axon terminals.
(c) Binding open channels, which generate potential in postsynaptic membrane.
(d) Release of neurotransmitter in synaptic cleft.
(e) Movement of vesicles towards membrane.

(1) d → a → c → b → e
(2) c → a → e → b → d
(3) b → e → d → a → c
(4) b → c → d → a → e

86) "Hormone are A chemicals which act as B messengers and are produced in C
amounts".
Choose the correct option -

A B C

(1) Non-nutrient Intracellular Trace

(2) Nutrient Intercellular Large

(3) Non-nutrient Extracellular Trace

(4) Nutrient Extracellular Large

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) Which of the following statements are true/false ?

(A) Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of calcium
(B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
(C) Grave's disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal gland.
(D) ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine production.

(1) A and C are true, B and D are false

(2) A and B are true, C and D are false
(3) A and D are false, B and C are true
(4) A only true, B, C and D are false

88) After examining the blood group of husband and wife , the doctor advised them not to have more
than one child. The blood groups of the couple are likely to be :

(1) Male Rh– and female Rh+

(2) Female Rh– and male Rh+
(3) Male Rh+ and female Rh+
(4) Male Rh– and female Rh–

89) Which of the following can activate the chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the rhythm
centre ?

(1) High CO2 concentration, less H concentration

(2) High CO2 concentration, high H concentration
(3) Less CO2 concentration, high H concentration
(4) Less CO2 concentration, less H concentration

90) Which system provides nutrients; O2 and other essential substances to the tissues and takes CO2
and other harmful substances away from elimination :-

(1) Pulmonary circulation

(2) Hepatic portal system
(3) Systemic circulation
(4) Renal portal system
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 4 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 4 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 4 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 3 4 4 1 1 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 1 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 4 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 4 1 3 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) F ∝ ∝
F ∝ R4

2)

3)

V=

T=

4) =

5)
6)

7)

Ans: (2)
x = 2h

8)

gp = g
ge = g – w2Re
Gp–ge = w2Re

9)

W = W'(1 – ω2R)
As ω increases, W decreases

10) = constant

⇒
⇒ 2A1 = A2 = 3A3

11)

Motion repeats at regular interval but with constant speed so periodic but not SHM.

12)

Theory

13)

Time period of SHM =

∴ Time for traveling 60° is =

=
14)

15)

16)

In SHM total energy remains conserved

17)

x = A cos ωt, so particle starting SHM from extreme position hence at t = 0, P.E. is max at x =
A

18) In vacuum,
Let V be the volume and T be the density of the mass of the bob.
Net downward force acting on the bob in side the liquid = Weight – upthrust

i.e. effective value of g is

So, time period of the bob inside the liquid

19)
20) w = ms
= 0.2 × 20 = 4g

21)

Req =

Req =

Req =

=
Keq = 2K

22)
Q = 10 + 160 + 120 = 290 cal.

23) W = nRΔT

Q = nCPΔT =n

24)

VT2 = constant

25)

Inside satellite geff = 0

hence water can not boiled inside satellite

26)

W = WAB + WBC
 0 0 0 0
=– 3P V + 5P V

27)

28)

By theory

29)
Fexcess = (T) (2πR)

30) Pressure exerted by fluid at closed end B is

P = ρgℓ
∴ force exerted by fluid at closed end B is
F = PA = ℓρg A0

31)

⇒l=
∴ l = 152 cm

32)
Pressure in a static liquid will be same at each point on same horizontal level.
∴ P = Patm+ ρgh
As per Pascal law, same pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions
equally.

33)

W = F.ΔL = ×F×
W∝L

34)

Energy per unit volume =

35)

F=

slope =

36) As length of both wires increases by same amount

Δℓ1 = Δℓ2

37) k = = or λ = 50 cm

38)

39)

(Vp)max = 2V
 k = 2πc

40) A =
A=
A=

41)

According to newton propagation of sound in gas is isothermal and according to laplace it is

adiabatic.

44)

Speed of sound,
T → absolute temperature
Mw → Molecular mass

45) ∵ Produce 4 beats ∴ f = 288 ± 4 = 292 or 284 cps

By waxing beats ↓ so f = 292 cps.

CHEMISTRY

46) ICl2–

48) has sp3 hybridisation has tetrahedral geometry.

49)

N ≡ N ⇒ 6 e– envolved in shoring.

52)

µ=q×d
 54) 2p – 2p directional character.

63) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.

173

68)

Desired equation

71) Δng ≠ 0 for (4)

82)

Duo to localized lone pair is the strongest base

84)

Are not resonance structure.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 9, 10

96) NCERT XI_Page No.23,24

97)

NCERT XI Pg # 139

99) NCERT Pg. # 166

 101)

Prothallus, Embryo, Zygote, Archegonia, Rhizome, Cone, Adventitious root.

108) NCERT XI Pg # 71

109) NCERT XI, Page # 85

112) NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 86 Fig. 6.2(b)

113) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 86

114) NCERT Pg. No.168

115) NCERT XI_Page No.168

116)

NCERT-XI,Pg No. # 38, 33

117) NCERT Eng. Page # 215 (3rd para)

119) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 219

124)

NCERT-XI English Page-248, 249 and 250

NCERT-XI िहदी पे ज # 248,249,250 एवं 251

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 275; para-2

145)

NCERT-XI Pg#227

149) NCERT Pg # 190, 202, 213

150) NCERT-Pg.# 319

151)
NCERT Pg. No. # 231

152) NCERT Page No.- 105(old);

157)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

160) NCERT XI Pg # 311

161) NCERT Pg # 190, 203, 213

162) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 285

172) NCERT Pg. # 321

180) NCERT Pg. # 288