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The document outlines the AIM-720 test for NEET-2025, consisting of 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology, with a total score of 720 marks. It includes detailed instructions on test duration, marking scheme, and the format of questions. The document also contains sample questions from various subjects to illustrate the test content.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views25 pages

Part Testnew

The document outlines the AIM-720 test for NEET-2025, consisting of 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology, with a total score of 720 marks. It includes detailed instructions on test duration, marking scheme, and the format of questions. The document also contains sample questions from various subjects to illustrate the test content.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 25

03/04/2025 CODE-A

Corporate Office: AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot no. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

AIM – 720
(Advanced INTENSIVE Mastery for 720)
MM : 720 PST-4 Time : 180 Mins.

Physics: System of Particles and Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids,
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Chemistry: Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons, Thermodynamics
Botany: Photosynthesis in higher plants, Respiration in plants, Plant growth and development, Cell
cycle and cell division
Zoology: Breathing and Exchange of gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and their
Elimination

Instructions:
(i) Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
(ii) The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
(iii) There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45
questions in each part of equal weightage.
(iv) Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(v) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(vi) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(vii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(viii) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(ix) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

PHYSICS

1. A satellite of mass m moves from an orbit of radius r to 4


,
r
5. Consider the following statements out of which one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).
3

then change in total energy of satellite will be (Assume the


Assertion (A): The centre of mass of body may lie where
mass of earth to be M) there is no mass.
Reason (R): Centre of mass of a system lie nearer to lighter
(1)
3GM m

4r
part of the system.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
(2)
GM m

2r

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
(1)
(3)
GM m
of (A).
8r

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
(4)
GM m
(2)
4r explanation of (A).
2. If the ratio of acceleration due to gravity on surface of earth (3) Only (A) is true but (R) is false.
and mars is α and ratio of their radii is β, then ratio of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
respective escape speeds on their surface is
−−− 6. The angular speed (ω) of a body having moment of inertia l,
(1)
changes according to expression, ω = 2 (t – t2). The
√2αβ

(2)

−−
√αβ
variation of torque (τ) with time (t) is best represented by


α
(3) √
β


−−
(4) √
αβ
(1)
2

3. When net external force on a system is zero, then


(1) Velocity of centre of mass remains unchanged
(2) Total linear momentum of system remains unchanged
(3) Total linear momentum of system may change
(2)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
4. →
If two vector is given as A
ˆ
= î − 2 ĵ + 6k and
→ → →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
B = i − 2j + k , then the vector product (A × B ) will be
equal to

(1) ˆ ˆ
5 i + 10 j
(3)

(2) ˆ ˆ
5 i − 10 j

(3) ˆ ˆ
10 i + 5 j

(4) ˆ ˆ
10 i − 5 j

(4)

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

7. Three-point masses each of mass m are placed at the 11. Which graph among the given options shows the most
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The moment of appropriate variation of acceleration due to gravity (g) with
inertia of system about axis COD, will be distance from centre of earth (where R is radius of earth)

(1)

(2)

(1) 2ma2

(2) 2

3
ma
2

(3) 5

4
ma
2

(3)
(4) 7

4
ma
2

8. A wheel is rotating at the rate of 33 rev/min. If it comes to


stop in 20 s, then magnitude of angular acceleration of
wheel will be
(1) π rad/s2

(2) 11π rad/s2 (4)

(3) 11π

200
rad/s2

(4) π

200
rad/s2
12. A liquid wets the solid surface if angle of contact is
9. Two particles of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R.
The gravitational potential on line joining the particles (1) Equal to 120°
where the gravitational field equals zero will be (2) Equal to 150°
(1) (3) Less than 90°
−20Gm

(4) Equal to 100°


(2)
−8Gm

(3)
−12Gm

(4)
−16Gm

10. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3


N, when placed at particular point of a hypothetical planet.
The magnitude of gravitational field intensity at that point
will be
(1) 180 N/kg
(2) 20 N/kg
(3) 50 N/kg
(4) 100 N/kg

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

13. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly 15. The venturi-meter works on
viscous liquid. The curve which shows the most appropriate
(1) Bernoulli’s principle
variation of speed of ball (v) as a function of time (t) will be
(2) Pascal’s law
(3) Huygen’s principle
(4) Stoke’s law
(1)
16. Which of the following quantities remain constant in motion
of a planet around sun in an elliptical orbit?
(1) Speed
(2) Angular speed
(3) Kinetic energy
(2)
(4) Angular momentum
17. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density,
how much would a body weigh halfway down from the
surface of earth if it weighs 250 N on surface?
(1) 250 N
(2) 125 N
(3)
(3) 175 N
(4) 145 N
18. The bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 N/m2. The pressure
required to increase the density of water by 0.1% is

(1) 2 × 103 N/m2


(4)
(2) 2 × 106 N/m2

(3) 2 × 105 N/m2


14. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross sectional (4) 2 × 107 N/m2
tube PQ (as shown in figure) from end P to end Q. If KP and
KQ are kinetic energies per unit volume of fluid at P and Q 19. A uniform steel rod of cross-sectional area A, uniform mass
respectively, the correct relationship between KP and KQ is density ρ and length L is suspended so that it hangs
vertically. The stress at mid point of rod is

(1)
ρgL

ρgL
(2) 2

ρgL
(3)
A

ρgL
(4) 2A

20. Two wires of same material have length and radius as (L, r)
and (2L, ) . If they are subjected to same load then, the
r

(1) KP = KQ ratio of their young’s modulus will be


(2) 2KP = KQ (1) 1 : 2

(3) KP > KQ (2) 2 : 3

(4) KP < KQ (3) 4 : 1


(4) 1 : 1

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

21. A rod elongates by l when a body of mass M is suspended 26. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a vertical plane
from it. The elastic potential energy stored in the wire will be about a fixed horizontal axis passing through B as shown in
figure.
(1)
M gl

(2) Mgl
(3) 2Mgl
(4) Zero
22. A wire of length L, area of cross-section A is hanging from
fixed support. The length of wire changes to L1, when a
load of certain mass M0 is suspended from its free end. If
young’s modulus of material is Y, then the correct value of
M0 will be The rod begins rotating from rest. The angular velocity (ω)
at angle θ is given by
L1
(1) −−
AY
( + 1) 6g
g L (1) √
L
sin (
θ

2
)

L1
(2) AY
( − 1)
−−
6g
g L (2) √
L
cos (
θ

2
)

Ag L1
(3) (1 − )
−−
(3)
6g
Y L
√ sin θ
L

Ag L1
(4) ( + 1)
−−
6g
Y L
(4) √
L
cos θ

23. An ice skater having moment of inertia I rotating with


27. Two particles A and B are initially at rest, move towards
angular speed ω suddenly open arms, which reduces her
each other under mutual force of attraction. At an instance
angular velocity to . The change in moment of inertia of

4 when speed of A is v, then the speed of B if mass of particle


dancer is A is m while that of particle B is 2m, will be

(1) I (1) v
3

(2) 2v
(2) 4I

3 v
(3) 2

(3)
2I

3
(4) 3v
(4) Zero 28. A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of earth with
24. → time period T. If d is density of the earth and G is universal
A force, F
ˆ
= 3j N acts at origin. The torque due to this constant of gravitation, then the correct expression for time
force about a point whose position vector is ˆ
2k m, will be period, T will be
−−

(1)

(1) 6ĵ Nm √
Gd

(2) ˆ
Nm
−−−
6i
(2)


3Gd

(3) −6ĵ Nm −−−−


(3) √
4Gdπ

(4)
3
ˆ
−6k Nm
−−−
25. A constant torque of 100 N m turns a wheel having moment (4)
4Gd

of inertia 300 kg m2 about an axis passing through centre.


Starting from rest, its angular velocity after 2 s will be 29. In a gravitational field, the gravitational potential is given
by, J/kg (where x ≠ 0). The gravitational field
−K
V =
(1) rad/s
2 2
x
3
intensity at point (2, 0, 3) m is
(2) rad/s
3

2 (1) +K

4
ˆ
i

(3) 1 rad/s
(2)
+K

(4) 5 rad/s
2

(3)
−K ˆ
i
2

(4)
−K

4

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

30. The time period of a geostationary satellite is 24 h, at a 34. A square glass plate of length 10 cm and thickness 0.4 cm,
height 6 RE (RE is radius of earth) from surface of earth. weighs 40 g in air. It is held vertically such that its lower
The time period of another satellite whose height is RE from edge rests on water surface. The difference between the
apparent weight and actual weight of glass plate will be
surface will be


(Given surface tension of water = 0.073 N m–1)
(1)
48 2
√ h
7 7 (1) 0.392 N

− (2) 0.407 N
(2)
7 7
√ h
48 2
(3) 0.015 N


(3)
48

2
h (4) 0.075 N
5 5



35. As shown below, in a reservoir is 10 m deep. A horizontal
(4) pipe having cross-sectional area of 10–3 m2 passes
48 5
√ h
5 2

through reservoir 5 m below the water surface as shown in


31. Two equal and opposite forces each of magnitude F is figure. A plug secures the pipe opening. (Assume the area
applied along a rod of transverse cross sectional area A. of reservoir to be too large)
The tangential stress to a section PQ inclined at an angle θ
to transverse section as shown in figure is

Based on above information, match the entries in column-I


(1) F sin θ

A
and column-II.
Column-
(2) F cos θ Column-I
A II
The force (in N) required to hold plug in
(3) F
sin (2θ) (A) (P) 0.01
2A place.
(4) F 2 The velocity of efflux (in m/s) as soon as
cos θ
(B) (Q) 50
A
the plug is removed
32. The stress versus strain graph for wires of two materials A
The volume flow rate of water (in m3/s)
and B are as shown in figure. If YA and YB are the Young’s (C) that flow out of pipe as soon as the plug (R) 10
moduli of the materials, then is removed

(1) A → Q, B → R, C → P
(2) A → Q, B → P, C → R
(3) A → R, B → Q, C → P
(4) A → R, B → P, C → Q
36. Consider the following statements.
Statement (A): When two masses come closer, their
gravitational potential energy decreases.
(1)

YA = √3 YB Statement (B): If linear momentum of an object is constant,
then its angular momentum about any point remains

(2) YB = √3 YA constant.
Statement (C): Pressure is not a vector quantity.
(3) YA = YB
Statement (D): Centre of mass and centre of gravity may
(4) YA = 3YB
coincide if gravitational field is uniform.
Based on above information, pick the correct option.
33. A steel wire of diameter 3 mm has a breaking strength of 4 × (1) Only statements (A) and (B) are correct.
105 N, then the breaking strength of similar steel wire of
diameter 1.5 mm will be (2) Only statements (B) and (C) are correct.
(3) Only statements (A) and (D) are correct.
(1) 2.3 × 105 N
(4) Only statements (A), (C) and (D) are correct.
(2) 1 × 105 N

(3) 4.6 × 105 N

(4) 3 × 105 N

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

37. At what height from surface of earth, the acceleration due to 42. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water is five
gravity will be th of the value of g on the surface of earth.
1 times that of another drop, then their respective surface
area ratio will be
4

(1) R
(1) 5 : 3
(2) 2R
(2) 25 : 9
(3) R

4 (3) 25 : 1

(4)
3R (4) 25 : 137
4

43. A viscous liquid having coefficient of viscosity η, flows


38. The correct dimensional formula for universal gravitational between two parallel plates along the x-axis. The difference
constant is between the velocity of two layers separated by distance dy
(1) [M
−1 3
L T
−2
]
is dv. If A is the area of each plate and F denotes the
viscous force, then Newton’s law of viscosity may be written
as
(2) [ML
3
T
−2
]

(1) F dy

(3) [M
−1 3
L T ]
2
A
= −η ×
dv

(4) [M
−1
L
−3
T
−2
] (2) F

A
= −η ×
dv

dy

39. If two pieces of metal when immersed in a liquid have equal (3) F =
−η
×
dv

upthrust on them, then


A dy

(1) Both pieces must have equal weight


−η dy
(4) F =
A
×
dv

(2) Both pieces must have equal densities


44. The maximum load that a wire can sustain is W. If the wire is
(3) Both pieces must have equal volumes cut to half its length, the maximum load it can sustain is
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) W

40. A vessel contains a liquid which has a constant (2) W

2
acceleration a0 in horizontal direction. The free surface of
water gets sloped with horizontal at an angle of (where g is (3) W

acceleration due to gravity)


(4) 2W
a0
(1) tan
−1
( )
g
45. For equilibrium of the system as shown in figure, value of
mass m should be
g
(2) tan
−1
(
a0
)

a0
(3) cos
−1
(
g
)

g
(4) sin
−1
(
a0
)

(1) 9 kg
41. A thin wire is bent in form of ring of radius r. The ring is (2) 3 kg
placed horizontally on the surface of soap solution and then
raised slowly. The upward force necessary to break the (3) 1 kg
vertical film formed between ring and solution is (Assume (4) 5 kg
the surface tension to be T)
(1) 4πrT
(2) 2πrT
(3) 3πrT
(4) 5πrT

CHEMISTRY

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

46. Which among the following is/are eclipsed conformation of 49. Consider the given reaction
ethane?
Cu /523 K

CH4 + O2 −−−−−→ Product (A)


100 atm

Major product (A) is


(1) HCHO
(2) CH3COOH
(3) HCOOH
(4) CH3OH

50. Consider the given compounds


(a) Pentane
(b) 2-Methylbutane
(c) 2,2-Dimethylpropane
The correct order of boiling point of the above compound is,
(1) (a) > (c) > (b)
(2) (b) > (a) > (c)
(3) (a) > (b) > (c)
(4) (c) > (b) > (a)
Choose the correct option.
(1) (a) and (c) only 51. Consider the following reaction,
V2 O5
(2) (b) and (c) only n − Hexane −−−−−−−−−→ Product (A)
773 K, 10−20 atm
(3) (a) and (d) only
Major product (A) is
(4) (b) and (d) only
47. Given below is the sequence of the reactions, major product
(1)
[B] is
(C6 H5 CO)2 O2

CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr −−−−−−−→ [A]

Zn / dil HCl (2)


−−−−−−→ [B]

(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH


(3)
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH3

(3)
(4)
(4) CH3 – CH = CH2

48. On electrolysis of sodium salt of acetic acid, the product


obtained at anode is/are
(a) CO2
(b) H2
(c) C2H6
Choose the correct option.
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

52. Consider the following reactions 54. Consider the following reaction,

Major product (A) is


Major product (A) and (B) respectively are,

(1)
(1)

(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(2)
(3)

(3)
(4)

55. Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct option.
(4) List-II
List-I
(Relation between ΔH and
(Reactions)
ΔU)
53. The correct order of boiling point and melting point of given N2(g) + 3H2(g) →
a. (i) ΔH = ΔU − RT
1

compounds respectively are 2NH3(g) 2

PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) +
b. (ii) ΔH = ΔU + RT
Cl2(g)
c. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (iii) ΔH = ΔU – 2RT
1
CO(g) + O2 (g)
2
d. (iv) ΔH = ΔU
→ CO2 (g)

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)


(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) (a) > (b) ; (a) > (b) (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) (b) > (a) ; (a) > (b) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) (a) > (b) ; (b) > (a) 56. Consider the following species.
(4) (b) > (a) ; (b) > (a)

The aromatic species are


(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

57. Consider the given reaction 60. The correct order of stability of given radicals is

(1) •CH3 > •CH2CH3 > •CH(CH3)2 > •C(CH3)3

(2) •CH2CH3 > •CH3 > •CH(CH3)2 > •C(CH3)3


Major product (A) is
(3) •C(CH3)3 > •CH(CH3)2 >•CH2CH3 > •CH3

(1) (4) •C(CH3)3 > •CH2CH3 > •CH(CH3)2 > •CH3

61. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.10 g of an


organic compound gave 0.08 g of AgBr. The percentage of
bromine in organic compound is
(1) 23.5%
(2)
(2) 69.3%
(3) 42.5%
(4) 34.0%
62. Consider the following sequence of reactions,

(3) CH2 = CH2 + B r2 −→



CCl 4 ⎛
A
⎞ alc.

−→


B

KOH
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

NaNH 2 ⎛ ⎞
−−−−−−−→ C
(1 equivalent) ⎝ ⎠

Major product (C) is


(4)
(1) H2C = CH2

(2) CH2 = CHBr

58. Consider the following sequence of reactions, (3) HC ≡ CH


(4) CH3CH2NH2

63. The correct order of decreasing priority of given functional


groups in IUPAC nomenclature is
Major product (C) is
(1) –SO3H > –COOR > –COOH > –CHO
(1) CH3CHO
(2) –COOR > – SO3H > –CHO > –COOH
(2) CH2 = CH2
(3) –COOH > – SO3H > –COOR > –CHO
(3) CH3 – OH
(4) –COOR > – SO3H > –COOH > –CHO
(4) HCOOH

59. IUPAC name of given compound is 64. The sodium fusion extract is boiled with iron (II) sulphate
and then acidified with concentrated sulphuric acid. The
formation of Prussian blue colour confirms the presence of
nitrogen.
Prussian blue colour is due to the formation of
(1) Na2[Fe(CN)5(H2O)]

(2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3. xH2O


(1) 2-Ethyl-5-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
(3) Fe(SCN)3
(2) 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(4) Na3[Fe(CN)5(H2O)]
(3) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
(4) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

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65. Consider the given reaction, 68. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
CaC2 + H2 O → (A) + (B) (Compounds) (Common names)
gas

The product (B) is a. (i) Acetophenone


(1) H2

(2) C2H2
b. (ii) Anisole
(3) C2H6

(4) CH4

66. On complete combustion, 0.126 g of an organic compound


gave 0.099 g of carbon dioxide and 0.0507 g of water. The c. (iii) Thiophene
percentage composition of carbon in the organic compound
is
(1) 63.27%
(2) 21.42% d. (iv) Furan
(3) 42.84%
(4) 15.86%
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
67. Consider the following reaction
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
⎛ ⎞
CH3 – C ≡ CH + HBr → Product A
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
⎝ ⎠
(2 equivalents)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Major product (A) is
69. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(1) Assertion (A): For an adiabatic expansion process, work
done by the system is equal to change in internal energy
Reason (R): There is no heat exchange between system
and surrounding in an adiabatic process
(2)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct
(2)
explanation of (A).
(4) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
70. When 10 moles of an ideal gas is compressed reversibly
from 100 L to 10 L at constant temperature. The entropy
change during the process is
(1) +46.06 R
(2) –R
(3) –23.03 R
(4) –46.06R

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

71. Given below are two statements: 75. Which among the following is most reactive towards
Statement I: Both heat and work are state function. electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction?
Statement II: Pressure and heat capacity are intensive
properties
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. (1)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (2)
72. Consider the given reaction
2A(g) + 3B(g) → 5C(g)

The change in internal energy is –10 kJ and change in


entropy is –30 J K–1, the change in Gibbs free energy at
300 K is (3)
(1) +19000 J
(2) –1000 J
(3) –19000 J
(4) +1000 J (4)

73. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition is 76. Consider the following molecules
(1) q = 0, w < 0, ΔU > 0
(2) q < 0, w < 0, ΔU > 0
(3) q = 0, w = 0, ΔU = 0
(4) q > 0, w > 0, ΔU > 0 The molecule(s) which will show tautomerism is/are
74. Match thermodynamic condition in list-1 with spontaneity (1) (a) and (b) only
condition in list-2 and choose the correct answer
(2) (b) only
List-1 List-2 (3) (a) and (c) only
Spontaneous at all (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(a) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0 (i)
temperatures
77. Consider the given reactions,
Non spontaneous at all
(b) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0 (ii)
temperatures S(s) +
3

2
O2 (g) → SO3 (g) + x kcal

(c) (iii) Spontaneous, if T >


ΔH 1
ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0 SO2 (s) + O2 (g) → SO3 (g) + 2y kcal
ΔS 2

The heat of formation of SO2 is


(d) (iv) Spontaneous, if
ΔH
ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0 T <
ΔS

(1) x + y
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (2y – x)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) x + 2y
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) –(x + 2y)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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78. Given below are two statements: 83. Consider the following sequence
Statement I: When a system is at equilibrium, the entropy is
maximum.
Statement II: When a system is at equilibrium, ΔStotal is
zero
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Major product (C) is

79. Consider the following statements,


(a) On conversion of diamond to graphite, entropy
increases
(b) If ΔG is positive, the reaction is non spontaneous
qr ev
(1)
(c) T
is independent of path
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (c) only
(2)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
80. Enthalpy change for the reaction,
4H(g) → 2H (g) is –869.6 kJ
2

The dissociation energy of H-H bond is

(1) 157.6 kJ mol–1


(3)
(2) 434.8 kJ mol–1

(3) 217.4 kJ mol–1

(4) 326.5 kJ mol–1

81. In a process, 600 J of heat is absorbed by the system and (4)


250 J of work is done by the system, change is internal
energy during the process is
(1) 100 J
84. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.16g of an
(2) 850 J organic compound gave 46 mL of N2 measured over H2O
(3) 350 J at 15°C and at a pressure of 755 mm Hg. Percentage of
nitrogen in given compound is (approx.)
(4) 250 J (Given aqueous tension of H2O = 15 mm of Hg)
82. Consider the following reaction, (1) 59%
2+ +
Hg /H

CH3 – C ≡ CH + H2 O −−−−−→ (A) ⇋ (B) (2) 33%


333 K

(3) 3.4%
Major product (B) is
(4) 14%
(1) CH3CH2CHO

(2) CH3CH2CH2OH

(3) CH3COCH3

(4) CH3 CH2 COOH

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85. Given below are two statements: 88. Consider the following reaction
Statement I: Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to
compounds containing nitrogen in nitro compounds.
Statement II: Percentage composition of halogens are
estimated using carius method
Major product (A) is
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1)

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect


(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
86. Consider the following sequence

(2)

Major product (C) is

(1)
(3)
(2) Cl – CH2 – CH = CH2

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Cl

(4)
(4)
87. Consider the following reaction,
CH3 – CH = CH– CH3

(i) O3

−−−−−−→ Major Product (A) 89. Given below are two statements:
(ii) Zn /H2 O
Statement I: Rate of reaction of alkanes with halogens
Major product (A) is follows the order, F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.
Statement II: Halogenation of alkanes proceeds via free
(1) HCHO radical mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(2) CH3CHO
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(3) CH3CH2CH2CHO (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) CH3COOH (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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90. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Column chromatography is based on the
principle of differential adsorption.
Statement II: Thin layer chromatography is a type of
partition chromatography.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

BOTANY

91. The process which makes major difference between tomato 94. Which combination of hormones can be applied to
and maize plants is artificially induce flowering in the pineapple plant?
(1) Glycolysis (1) GA3 and ABA
(2) Calvin cycle (2) Auxin and C2H4
(3) Photorespiration (3) Kinetin and ABA
(4) Respiration
(4) Ethephon and GA3
92. In mitochondrial matrix, the enzyme that catalyses the
conversion of end product of glycolysis into acetyl CoA 95. The cell organelle that is responsible for aster formation in
requires animal cell duplicates during
(a) G0 phase
(1) Magnesium ions (b) G1 phase
(2) Cadmium ions (c) S phase
(d) Interkinesis
(3) Ferric ions (e) G2 Phase
(4) Cobalt ions The correct ones are
93. In T.W. Engelmann experiment, Cladophora a green alga (1) c and d only
was placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria. The
(2) a and b only
purpose of using aerobic bacteria was to
(3) c and e only
Measure the amount of light absorbed by Cladophora at
(1)
different wavelengths. (4) b and d only
(2) Detect the sites of oxygen evolution by the green algae.
(3) Measure the amount of glucose stored as starch
(4) Identify the part of the algae that could release nitrogen.

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96. Which of the following statements is not true? 101.Identify the correct statement regarding the S phase of
interphase
Absorption maxima for chlorophyll b and carotenoids is
(1)
in the range of 400-500 nm. Centrosome begins to move towards opposite poles of
(1)
the cell
Rate of O2 release during photosynthesis is maximum
(2) (2) No cell organelle gets duplicated
when the action spectrum of photosynthesis is lowest.
Action spectrum of photosynthesis corresponding (3) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(3) closely to the absorption spectra of chlorophyll a shows Nuclear division and separation of daughter
that it is the chief pigment. (4)
chromosomes takes place
Accessory pigments help to make photosynthesis more
(4) 102.Arrange the events in a sequential manner that occur
efficient by absorbing different wavelength of light
during Calvin cycle and mark the correct option.
97. During the conversion of two molecules of glyceraldehyde- (a) Utilisation of ATP for regeneration of RuBP.
3-phosphate into 1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid. Which of the (b) CO2 combines with ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate
following is formed? (c) Reduction of 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(1) H2O (1) b → a → c

(2) ATP (2) b → c → a


(3) a → c → b
(3) NADH+ H+
(4) c → b → a
(4) ADP
103.Which statement is correct for Krebs cycle?
98. In most higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the
growth of the lateral (axillary) buds. This phenomenon can It starts with the condensation of acetyl group with three
(1)
be removed/inhibited by carbon molecule and water to yield citric acid.
(1) Decapitation of the apical buds. After isomerisation of citrate into isocitrate and then
(2) oxalosuccinic acid two successive steps of
Treatment of apical bud with sterile filtrate of Gibberella
(2) decarboxylation occur.
fujikuroi.
(3) Application of minute quantity of ABA to axillary buds. There is only one point in the cycle where NAD+ is
(3)
reduced to NADH + H+
Removal of the plant hormone like cytokinins from the
(4)
apical buds. The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the TCA cycle
(4)
requires the continued replenishment of pyruvic acid
99. Which of these statements is incorrect?
104.Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
In anaerobic organisms, glycolysis is the only process in
(1) (1) Auxin – Stimulates root formation
respiration.
on stem cuttings
Anaerobic respiration occurs in cytoplasm and
(2) (2) Gibberellin – Elongate and improves
mitochondria.
apple shape
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner (3) Cytokinin – Induce dormancy of buds,
(3)
mitochondrial membrane seeds and storage
+ organs
(4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD (4) Ethylene – Promotes development of
that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
lateral roots and growth of
100.Some cells of adult animals like heart cells do not divide root hairs
further, as they exit a phase of cell cycle to enter an inactive
stage. That particular phase is (1) (1)

(1) M Phase (2) (2)

(2) S phase (3) (3)


(4) (4)
(3) G1 phase

(4) G2 phase

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105.Match the Column-I with Column-II. 110.Along with auxins, extract from which components can be
Column-I Column-II used to proliferate a mass of undifferentiated cells in a
nutrient medium?
(a) Leptotene (i) Also known as dictyotene stage (a) Meristematic tissues
Condensation and coiling of (b) Sterile filtrate of Gibberella fujikuroi
(b) Zygotene (ii) (c) Yeast
chromatin fibres begins
(d) Coconut milk
Two homologous chromosomes form
(c) Diakinesis (iii) (e) Autoclaved herring sperm DNA
a pair
(1) Only a, b and e
(d) Diplotene (iv) Terminalization of chiasmata
Select the correct option from the following. (2) All except b
(1) (a) (ii); (b) (i); (c) (iii); (d) (iv) (3) Only b and e
(2) (a) (ii); (b) (iii); (c) (iv); (d) (i) (4) Only c and d
(3) (a) (iii); (b) (ii); (c) (iv); (d) (i) 111. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
statements and select the correct option.
(4) (a) (i); (b) (ii); (c) (iii); (d) (iv)
Assertion (A) – During oxidation within a cell, all the
106.Prophase of mitosis can be characterised by energy contained in respiratory substrates is not
(a) Untangling of chromosomes immediately released free into the cell.
(b) Condensation of chromosomal material Reason (R) – Energy is released in a series of slow step-
(c) Congression wise reactions controlled by enzymes and is trapped in form
(d) Spireme stage of ATP.
(e) Formation of interzonal fibres Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Select the correct ones (1)
explanation of (A).
(1) a, b, c and e Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
(2) a, b and d explanation of (A).

(3) b, c and e (3) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(4) c, d and e (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

107.The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks 112.Both auxin and cytokinin promote
the end of (1) Cell division
(1) Metaphase (2) Shedding of leaves
(2) Anaphase (3) Seed dormancy
(3) Prophase (4) Senescence
(4) Telophase
113.Which plant growth regulator inhibits longitudinal growth
108.Select the odd one w.r.t. plant growth inhibitor. but stimulates transverse growth of seedlings?

(1) Dormin (1) ABA

(2) ABA (2) Gibberellins

(3) Zeatin (3) Ethylene

(4) Abscission II (4) Cytokinin

109.Which of the following is an adenine derivative? 114.The first natural cytokinin was isolated from

(1) Dormin (1) Degraded product of autoclaved herring sperm DNA

(2) ABA (2) Unripe maize grains or kernels

(3) NAA (3) Human urine

(4) Kinetin (4) Tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings


115.It has been observed that the carpel producing
parthenocarpic fruits show higher production of
(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Ethylene

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116.Cells at the shoot and root tip shows all the given features, 121.The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks
except the start of a phase of the cell cycle that does not include
(1) Dense protoplasm (1) Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores
(2) Large nucleus Completion of condensation of chromosomal material to
(2)
form a compact mitotic chromosome
(3) Protoplasmic modification
(3) The alignment of chromosomes at the equator of the cell
(4) Primary cell wall
(4) Movement of centrosomes to opposite poles
117.With reference to the factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not 122.Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome
correct? clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei during
There is a linear relationship between incident light and (1) Anaphase
(1) CO fixation at low light intensities.
2 (2) Metaphase
Water is a major limiting factor influencing the rate of (3) Prophase
(2)
photosynthesis
(4) Telophase
Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05%
(3) 123.During cytokinesis, a furrow in the plasma membrane
can enhance CO2 fixation rate.
develops and divides the cell cytoplasm into two in
Optimum temperature in C3 plants is 20-25°C and for
(4) (1) Chlamydomonas
C4 plants is 30-45°C
(2) White blood cells
118.Read the following statements and select the correct
option. (3) Mature RBCs
Statement (A): Within the leaves, the mesophyll cells have (4) Cladophora
a large number of chloroplasts that are responsible for CO2
fixation. 124.In chloroplast, stroma lamellae lacks
Statement (B): Within chloroplasts, stroma is the site for (1) PS I and NADP reductase enzyme
light reaction, while the chemosynthetic pathway occurs in
the membranes. (2) NADP reductase and P680
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct (3) Water splitting complex and PS I
(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (4) Electron transport system and oxygen evolving complex
(3) Only statement (B) is correct 125.C3 plants are similar to C4 plants as both
(4) Only statement (A) is correct Have components that are necessary for carboxylation,
119.Select the correct statement w.r.t. chemiosmotic hypothesis. (1) reduction and regeneration reaction for synthesis of
starch
As protons move through the photosystems, electrons
(1) Have ability to adapt to dry tropical regions and higher
are transported across the membrane. (2)
temperatures
+
(2) The enzyme that reduces NADP into NADPH, removes Have primary CO2 acceptor as a 3-carbon molecule
proton from the stroma. (3)
phosphoenolpyruvate present in mesophyll cells
Within the chloroplast, protons in the stroma always
(3) Shows photosynthetic saturation at CO2 concentration
increase in number (4)
above 360 μlL–1 in low light intensity.
CF1 particle of the ATP synthase is a transmembrane
(4) channel that allows movement of protons across 126.Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. C4 pathway.
thylakoid membrane
It requires the presence of mesophyll cells and bundle
120.The most dramatic period of the cell cycle involves (1)
sheath cells.
A major reorganisation of virtually all components of the The initial or the first product of this pathway is a four-
(1) (2)
cell carbon compound.
Restoration of chromosome number during sexual The pyruvic acid formed due to decarboxylation reaction
(2) (3) is the primary CO acceptor that forms C acid.
reproduction 2 4
Movement of homologous chromosome to the opposite PEP carboxylase is the enzyme that converts
(3)
poles of cell (4) atmospheric CO into oxaloacetic acid.
2
(4) Formation of dyad of cells and cell organelles

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127.In both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation, 131.Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) Less than seven percent of the energy in glucose is statements and select the correct option.
released Assertion (A) : Growth is measured by a variety of
(b) Net gain is 2ATP parameters such as fresh weight, dry weight, length, area,
(c) Decarboxylation occurs, leading to CO2 release volume and cell number but not by measuring the increase
in protoplasm.
(d) The reducing agent NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+
Reason (R) : Growth at cellular level is principally a
(e) Pyruvic acid is the common substrate for lactic acid and
consequence of increase in the amount of protoplasm and
alcohol fermentation
protoplasm is difficult to measure directly.
In the light of the above statement select the correct ones.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) a, b and d only (1)
explanation of (A)
(2) b, c and e only
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2)
(3) a, b, d and e only explanation of (A)
(4) c, d and e only (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

128.Substrate level phosphorylation is (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

(1) Addition of phosphate group to ATP 132.Select the correct sequential order of cell cycle.

Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons (1) G1, G2, S, M


(2)
removed during substrate oxidation
(2) M, S, G2, G1
(3) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
(3) G1, S, G2, M
Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a
(4)
substrate to ADP (4) S, G1, G2, M
129.Select the incorrectly matched pair. 133.Mark true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and
(1) Complex I – NADH dehydrogenase select the correct option.
(2) Complex II – Converts fumarate into (a) Identity of chromosome is lost as discrete elements
succinate during telophase.
(b) Animals never show equational division in haploid cells
(3) Complex III – Ubiquinol is oxidised by
(c) Second stage of prophase I is long-lived as compared to
transferring its electron
third stage
to Cyt C
(d) Homologous chromosomes remain linked at the sites of
(4) Complex IV – Cytochrome c oxidase crossing over by the end of pachytene
(1) (1) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(2) (2) (1) T F F T


(2) T T F T
(3) (3)
(3) F T T F
(4) (4)
(4) T F T F
130.Read the following statements and select the correct
option. (1) (1)
Statement A : Gibberellins increase the length of axis.
(2) (2)
Statement B : Gibberellic acids used to speed up the
malting process in brewing industry. (3) (3)
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (4) (4)
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

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134.Select the incorrect match from the following.


Exchange of genetic material
(1) Pachytene – between two homologous
chromosomes
(2) Recombinase – Activity is seen in Zygotene
Dissolution of synaptonemal
(3) Diplotene –
complex
(4) Diakinesis – Represent transition to metaphase

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

135.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. meiosis.


In both diakinesis and prophase II, nucleolus and
(1)
nuclear envelope disintegrate by the end of the stage
The bivalent chromosomes aligns on the equatorial
(2)
plate during metaphase II
It increases the genetic variability in the population of
(3)
organisms from one generation to the next
The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister
(4) chromatids remain associated at their centromeres
during anaphase I

ZOOLOGY

136.In an adult human, under normal conditions, the value of 137.Select the correct match w.r.t compatible blood groups of
pO2 present in deoxygenated blood of pulmonary artery is donor and recipient for blood transformation
equal to the value of pCO2 in Donor Recipient
(1) O− A+
(1) Atmospheric air
(2) AB+ B−
(2) Tissues
(3) Alveoli (3) A+ AB−
(4) Deoxygenated blood flowing through systemic vein (4) B+ O−

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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138.The chronic disorder which is characterised by decreased 143.Select the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t.
respiratory surface and whose one of the major causes is humans
cigarette smoking is Transport of O2 by RBCs in blood : 97% : : Transport of CO2
(1) Asthma by RBCs in blood : ____

(2) Emphysema (1) 70%

(3) Occupational respiratory disorder (2) 3%

(4) Allergy (3) 20-25%


(4) 7%
139.During swallowing of food, __A __ is covered by epiglottis
to prevent entry of food into __B __. Select the option which 144.Kidneys are situated between the levels of _____ vertebrae
correctly represents A and B. close to the dorsal inner wall of the abdominal cavity.
A B Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(1) Gullet Sound box (1) T10 and L1
(2) Glottis Food pipe (2) T12 and L3
(3) Pharynx Food pipe
(3) L5 and S1
(4) Glottis Larynx
(4) T10 and L2
(1) (1)
145.Assertion (A): The human heart is myogenic.
(2) (2)
Reason (R): The nodal musculature of human heart has the
(3) (3) ability to generate action potentials without any external
stimuli.
(4) (4) In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
140.Which of the following options represents the correct set of Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
factors which are favourable for the formation of (1)
explanation of (A)
oxyhaemoglobin?
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) High H+ concentration and higher temperature
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3)
(2) Low pO2 and high pCO2 explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) High pO2 and higher temperature
146.Read the following statements carefully.
(4) High pH and lower temperature
Statement A: Lungs possess alveoli which do not collapse
141.How many of the substances given in the box below are even after forceful expiration.
reabsorbed actively by the tubular epithelial cells in the Statement B: The volume of air remaining in the lungs
PCT of nephron? even after a forcible expiration is called residual volume.

Glucose, amino acids, Na+, urea, water (1) Both statements A and B are correct
Select the correct option. (2) Only statement A is correct
(1) Three (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Two (4) Only statement B is correct
(3) Four 147.In cortical nephrons,
(4) Five (1) DCT is absent whereas PCT is present
142.Which of the following does not participate in the formation Efferent arteriole emerging from glomerulus forms loop
of filtration membrane through which ultrafiltration occurs in (2)
of Henle
a nephron?
Loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the
(1) The epithelium of Bowman's capsule (3)
medulla
(2) Basement substance (4) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced
(3) Brush border epithelium of collecting duct
(4) The endothelium of glomerular blood capillaries

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148.Which of the following options represents the location of 152.Choose the correct option w.r.t cells that make 20-25% of
regulatory centre that reduces the duration of inspiration the total leucocytes in a normal adult human
and moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre?
(1) Play an important role in immune response of the body
(1) Medulla oblongata
(2) Categorised as granulocytes
(2) Pons
(3) Phagocytose the foreign organisms
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Secrete histamine and serotonin
(4) Cerebrum
153.Choose the correct statement.
149.In humans, cartilage is absent in
In mammals, right atrium receives the oxygenated blood
(1)
(1) Initial bronchioles from pulmonary vein.
(2) Sound box In fishes, gills perform the oxygenation of blood and
(2)
deoxygenated blood enters the heart.
(3) Epiglottis
In birds, a single ventricle is present which pumps out
(4) Alveoli (3)
mixed blood.
150.Select the correct match. In amphibians, the left atrium receives deoxygenated
(4)
(1) Branchial respiration – Adult Rana tigrina blood.
(2) Cutaneous respiration – Pheretima 154.In hepatic portal system, the hepatic portal vein carries
(3) Pulmonary respiration – Prawn blood from
(4) Cutaneous respiration – Human (1) Kidney to the liver

(1) (1) (2) Intestine to the liver

(2) (2) (3) Liver to heart

(3) (3) (4) Liver to intestine

(4) (4) 155.In humans, systemic circulation does not include

151.Match column I and column II w.r.t. functions of renal (1) Left ventricle
tubules. (2) Aorta
Column I Column II
(3) Left atrium
(a) Descending limb (i) Maximum
of loop of Henle reabsorption of (4) Right atrium
water and
electrolytes 156.Stroke volume can be best described as
(b) Distal convoluted (ii) Conditional Volume of blood that remains in each ventricle after
(1)
tubule reabsorption of ventricular systole.
Na+ and H2O Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle of heart
(2)
(c) Ascending limb of (iii) Concentrates the per minute
loop of Henle filtrate (from 300 (3) Cardiac output × Heart rate
mOsmolL–1 to
Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle during a
1200 mOsmolL– (4)
cardiac cycle
1)
157.Which among the following is a correct match?
(d) Proximal (iv) Dilutes the filtrate When enough blood is pumped out
convoluted tubule (from 1200
(1) Heart attack – by the heart to meet the needs of
mOsmolL –1 to the body
300 mOsmolL–1) (2) Angina – Congestion of lungs
Select the correct option. (3) Cardiac arrest – Heart stops beating
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) Decreases thickness of blood
(4) Atherosclerosis –
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) vessels

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) (1)


(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

158.Which of the following conditions/factors can decrease the 164.In hemodialysis, blood drained from a convenient artery is
cardiac output? pumped into a dialysing unit after adding ‘heparin’ in it.
Select the correct option which is true for heparin.
(1) Neural signals through parasympathetic nerves
(1) Released by only cells that are devoid of nucleus
(2) Strenuous exercise and workout
Secreted by granulocytes that make up 0.5 to 1% of
(3) Neural signals through sympathetic nerves (2)
the total WBCs
(4) Release of adrenal medullary hormones
(3) It is a coagulant, present in the serum of blood
159.In a standard ECG, which of the following events occurs just (4) Formed by eosinophils in red bone marrow of humans
after the Q wave?
165.The process of release of urine involves
(1) Depolarisation of the atria
(1) Contraction of the urethral sphincters
(2) Repolarisation of the ventricles
Activation of the stretch receptors present on the walls of
(3) Initiation of ventricular contraction (2)
the urinary bladder
(4) End of ventricular systole
(3) Passing of sensory messages from CNS to urethra
160.Which of the following is not a part of renal tubule? (4) Relaxation of smooth muscles of the urinary bladder
(1) A hairpin shaped Henle’s Loop
166.Afferent arteriole which forms glomerulus is a branch of
(2) Bowman’s capsule
(1) Peritubular capillaries
(3) A straight tube in which DCTs open
(2) Renal artery
(4) PCT and DCT
(3) Renal vein
161.For hemodialysis of uremic patients, all of the following are (4) Vasa recta
present in the dialysing fluid, except
167.Maximally, how many molecules of O2 are carried by one
(1) Nitrogenous wastes
molecule of red coloured iron containing respiratory
(2) Glucose pigment present in human blood?
(3) Electrolytes (1) Six
(4) Water (2) Five
162.Match column I with column II w.r.t. animals and their (3) Four
excretory structures.
(4) Three
Column I Column II
(a) Amphioxus (i) Nephridia 168.Under normal physiological conditions, in humans, every
100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around X mL of O2
(b) Pheretima (ii) Protonephridia
to the tissues whereas every 100 mL of deoxygenated
(c) Prawn (iii) Malpighian tubules blood delivers approximately Y mL of CO2 to the alveoli.
(d) Periplaneta (iv) Green glands Identify X and Y respectively and select the correct option.
Select the correct option.
(1) 4, 5
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) 5, 4
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) 10, 20
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) 20, 10
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
163.Select the correct statement among the following w.r.t adult
human under normal physiological conditions.
On an average, 35 – 60 gm of urea is excreted out per
(1)
day
In 100 mL of blood, 12 – 16 gm of haemoglobin is
(2)
present
(3) 2.0 to 2.5 litres of urine is excreted out per day

(4) Average breathing rate is 22 – 36 times min–1

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

169.Identify A, B, C and D w.r.t. below given figure and select the 173.The condition ‘erythroblastosis foetalis’ can be avoided by
correct option. administering ‘X’ to the Rh –ve mother immediately after 'Y'.
Select the option which correctly represents 'X' and 'Y'
respectively.

(1) Rh antigen, Conception for the 2nd time

(2) Rh antibodies, Delivery of the Ist Rh –ve child


(3) Anti-Rh antigens, pregnancy for the first time

(4) Anti-Rh antibodies, Delivery of the Ist Rh+ve child

174.Select the correct statement w.r.t lymph.


(1) It carries all the proteins present in the blood.
(2) It has same mineral distribution as that of blood plasma.
(1) A – Endothelium of blood capillary (3) It is devoid of lymphocytes and immune cells.
(2) B – Squamous epithelium of alveolar wall It is collected by lymphatic system that drains it back into
(4)
the major arteries.
(3) C – Basement substance
175.Chordae tendinae in the human heart prevents
(4) D – RBCs in blood capillary
(1) Flow of blood from left atrium to right atrium
170.Observe the following reaction.
'A'
(2) Back flow of blood from right atrium to vena cava
CO2 + H2 O ⇌ H2 CO3

Enzyme ‘A’ is present in (3) Back flow of blood from ventricles to atria

(1) WBCs and blood plasma (4) Flow of blood from left ventricle to aorta

(2) RBCs and blood plasma 176.All of the following are basis of differences between veins
and arteries, except
(3) Platelets and serum
(1) Presence of endothelium
(4) RBCs and WBCs
(2) Direction of blood flow
171.Assertion (A): Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the
production of less toxic nitrogenous wastes for conservation (3) Diameter of lumen
of water. (4) Presence of valves
Reason (R): Elimination of most toxic nitrogenous waste
requires least amount of water for its elimination. 177.Read the following statements.
In light of the above statements, select the correct option. Statement A: Both ADH and angiotensin II are
vasoconstrictors and have same effects on blood vessels
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct which cause increase in the glomerular blood pressure.
(1)
explanation of (A) Statement B: Aldosterone is released from adrenal cortex
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false whereas ADH is secreted from hypothalamus.
Select the correct option.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
explanation of (A)
172.In human kidney, the ‘X’ are arranged in an intricate manner (3) Only statement A is correct
which leave some minute spaces called filtration slits or slit (4) Only statement B is correct
pores. Here ‘X’ represents
(1) Endothelial cells of glomerulus
(2) Squamous epithelial cells of Henle’s loop
(3) Cuboidal cells of DCT
(4) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes

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AIM720 Program for NEET-2025_PST-4A

178.How many of the following statements is/are correct? 180.Which of the following factors primarily cannot affect the rate
(a) Exchange part of human respiratory system is the site of of diffusion of gases at alveoli?
diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric
(1) The reactivity of gases
air.
(b) Pleural fluid present in between the double layered (2) Solubility of the gases
pleura reduces friction on the lung surface.
(3) Thickness of the membranes involved in diffusion
(c) Alveoli and their ducts are not the part of conducting
zone of the respiratory system. (4) Concentration gradient of gases
(d) In humans, any change in the volume of thoracic cavity
will be reflected in pulmonary cavity.
Select the correct option.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
179.Match column I with column II.
Column I Column II
(a) IC (i) ERV + RV
(b) FRC (ii) TV + IRV
(c) TLC (iii) VC + RV
(d) VC (iv) ERV + TV + IRV
Select the correct option.
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

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