13-04-2025

2701CMD303276240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A block weighing W is held against a rough vertical wall by applying a horizontal force F. The
minimum value of F needed to hold the block is (if )

(1) Less than W

(2) Equal to W
(3) Greater than W
(4) Data is insufficient

2) Which of the following is not equal to watt

(1) Joule/second
(2) Ampere × volt
(3) (ampere)2 × ohm
(4) Ampere/volt

3) A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated about its
axis, then

(1) A current will be induced in a coil

(2) No current will be induced in a coil
(3) Only an e.m.f. will be induced in the coil
(4) An e.m.f. and a current both will be induced in the coil

4) Which two of the following five physical parameters

have the same dimension?
(a) Energy Density
(b) Refractive index
(c) Magnetic field
(d) Young’s modulus
(e) Electric field

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) and (e)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (e)

5) A car moves from A to B with a uniform speed v1 and returns to A with a uniform speed v2. The
average speed for this round trip is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A body of mass 2kg, moving on a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 4 m/s, comes to rest
after 2s. If one wants to keep this body moving on the same surface with a velocity of 4 m/s, the
force required is

(1) Zero
(2) 2 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 8 N

7) Starting from rest, a body slides down at 45° inclined plane in thrice the time it takes to slide
down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and
the inclined plane is

(1) 8/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 8/9
(4) 1/4

8) If a body moves with a constant speed in a circle

(1) No work is done on it

(2) No force acts on it
(3) No acceleration is produced in it
(4) Its velocity remains constant

9) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1.5% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth's surface would

(1) Decrease by 2%
(2) Remain unchanged
(3) Increase by 3%
(4) Increase by 1%

10) A source of light is placed at a distance of 1 m from a photocell and cut off potential is found to
be V0. If the distance is doubled, the cut off potential will be

(1) 2V0
(2) V0/2
(3) V0
(4) V0/4

11) Longitudinal waves cannot

(1) Have a unique wavelength

(2) Transmit energy
(3) Have a unique wave velocity
(4) Be polarized

12) How does the speed v of sound in air depend on the pressure P at constant temperature:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If a graph is plotted taking the temperature in Fahrenheit along the Y-axis and the
corresponding temperature in Celsius along the X-axis, it will be a straight line

(1) Having a positive intercept on the Y-axis

(2) Having a positive intercept on the X-axis
(3) Passing through the origin
(4) Having a negative intercepts on both the axis

14) The quantity PV/kT represents

(1) Mass of the gas

(2) Kinetic energy of the gas
(3) Number of moles of the gas
(4) Number of molecules in the gas

15)

(1) 160°C
(2) 250°C
(3) 100°C
(4) 80°C
16) Equation of a continuity is :

(1) Valid for streem line flow

(2) Based on conservation of mass
(3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(4) vBoth 1 and 2 are wrong

17) In the figure shown there are two semicircles of radii r1 and r2 in which a current i is flowing.

The magnetic induction at the centre O will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Assertion: Kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by a photosensitive surface depends upon
the intensity of incident photon.
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is possible with frequency of incident photon
below the threshold frequency.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If assertion and reason both are false

19) Points A and B are situated perpendicular to the axis of a 2cm long bar magnet at large
distances X and 3X from its centre on opposite sides. The ratio of the magnetic fields at A and B will
be approximately equal to

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 2 : 9
(3) 27 : 1
(4) 9 : 1

20) A metallic ring is attached with the wall of a room. When the north pole of a magnet is brought
near to it, the direction of induced current in the ring will be, when observe from above the ring

(1) First clockwise then anticlockwise

(2) In clockwise direction
(3) In anticlockwise direction
(4) First anticlockwise then clockwise

21) In general in an alternating current circuit

(1) The average value of current is zero

(2) The average value of square of the current is zero
(3) Average power dissipation is zero
(4) The phase difference between voltage and current is zero

22) The specific charge of an electron is

(1) 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb

(2) 4.8 × 10–10 stat coulomb
(3) 1.76 × 1011 coulomb/kg
(4) 1.76 × 10–11 coulomb/kg

23) The size of an atom is of the order of

(1) 10–8 m
(2) 10–10 m
(3) 10–12 m
(4) 10–14 m

24) Which of the following option is miss match :

(1) Electric field - Newton/columb

(2) Gravitational field - Newton/Kg
(3) Magnetic field - Newton/Ampear
(4) Electric potential - Joule/columb

25)

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If assertion and reason both are false

26) A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 60o . The number of
images formed are

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

27) By Huygen's wave theory of light, we cannot explain the phenomenon of

(1) Interference
(2) Diffraction
(3) Photoelectric effect
(4) Polarisation

28) Current I in the circuit will be :–

(1) 5/40 A
(2) 5/50 A
(3) 5/10 A
(4) 5/20 A

29) Two forces acting in the opposite directions have a resultant of 10 N. If they act at the right
angles to each other, the resultant is 50 N. The magnitude of the forces are
(1) 40 N, 30 N
(2) 30 N, 20 N
(3) 50 N, 40 N
(4) 35 N, 25 N

30) A body starts from rest from the origin with an acceleration of 3 m/s2 along the x-axis and 4 m/s2
along the y-axis. Its distance from the origin after 2s will be

(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 20 m

31) Two cars A and B are travelling in the same direction with velocities v1 and v2 (v1 > v2). When the
car A is at a distance d behind the car B driver of the car A applied the brake producing a uniform
retardation a. There will be no collision when

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Three identical metal balls each of radius R placed touching each other on a horizontal surface
such that an equilateral triangle is formed, when the center of three balls are joined. The center of
mass of system is located at the

(1) At surface of a ball

(2) Center of one of the balls
(3) Line joining centers of any two balls
(4) Point of intersection of medians

33) Four similar point masses (each of mass m) are placed on the circumference of a disc of mass M
and radius R. The M.I. of the system about the normal axis through the centre O will be:-
(1) MR2 + 4mR2
(2) 1/2MR2 + 4mR2
(3) MR2 + 8/5mR2
(4) None of these

34) The average acceleration in one time period in a simple harmonic motion is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

35) A uniform rod of mass m, length L, area of cross-section A and Young Modulus Y hangs from the
ceiling. Its elogation under its own weight will be

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition the specific heat of water is

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Infinite
(4) Less than one

37) In a parallel-plate capacitor with plate area A and charge Q, the force on one plate because of
the charge on the other is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = –a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m
and charge q0 = q/2 is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y << a) along
the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is proportional to

(1) y
(2) -y
(3) 1/y
(4) -1/y

39)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A 25 watt, 220 volt bulb and a 100 watt, 220 volt bulb are connected in series across a 220 volt
lines. Which electric bulb will glow more brightly

(1) 25 watt bulb

(2) 100 watt bulb
(3) First 25 watt and then 100 watt
(4) Both with same brightness

41) A steady current I goes through a wire loop PQR having shape of a right angle triangle with PQ
= 3x, PR = 4x and QR = 5x. If the magnitude of the magnetic field at P due to this loop is

find the value of k.

(1) 8
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) None of these

42) A bar magnet is placed upright on a floor (so that the axis of the magnet is vertical). A copper
ring is held above the magnet, with its plane horizontal, and released. The copper ring falls in such a
manner that its axis always coincides with that of the magnet. What will be the acceleration with
which the ring will fall? Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) Less than 10 m/s2
(3) More than 10 m/s2
(4) The answer will depend upon which pole of the magnet is up

43) If instantaneous current is given by amperes, then the r.m.s. value

of current is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Positive rays are very identical to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The uppermost expected energy of the electrons at absolute zero is called

(1) Fermi-energy
(2) Emission energy
(3) Work function
(4) Potential energy

CHEMISTRY

1) The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is the product and the colour is?

(1) Mn2O4, black

(2) KMnO4, purple
(3) Mn2O3, brown
(4) K2MnO4, green

3) Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O ?

(1) Ca < Al < C < O < F

(2) Al < Ca < O < C < F
(3) Al < O < C < Ca < F
(4) C < F < O < Al < Ca
4) Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic
condition?

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Ammonium salt gives brown colour with alkaline solution of Nessler’s reagent to form iodide of
Millon’s base. The formula of this compound is:–

(1) NH2–Hg–OHg–I
(2) NH2–O–Hg–HgI
(3) K2HgI4
(4) NH2–Hg–I

+
6) Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3,4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H
ion concentration in the mixture?

(1) 1.11 × 10–4 M

(2) 3.7 × 10–4 M
(3) 3.7 × 10–3 M
(4) 1.11 × 10–3 M

7) In the following reactions,

the products (A) and (C) are respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-ethylhex-3-en-5-ynoic-acid
(2) 2-hydroxy-3-ethnl-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoicacid
(3) 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoicacid
(4) 2-hydroxy-4-methyl-3-ethnyl-hex-3-en-5-ynoicacid

9) Among the following carbocation,s which one is most stable

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Among the following, the one which is non-aromatic :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

11) Which has maximum enol content?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) When 20 mL of M/20 NaOH are added to 10 mL of M/10 HCl, the resulting solution will

(1) Turn blue litmus red

(2) Turn phenolphthalein solution pink
(3) Turn methyl organge red
(4) Will have no effect on either red or blue litmus

13) The ratio of the radii of two Bohr orbits of H-atom is 4 : 1, what would be their nomenclature:–

(1) K and L
(2) L and K
(3) N and L
(4) Both (2) and (3)

14) The different between the heat of rection at constant pressure and constant volume for the
reaction

at 25°C in KJ is

(1) –7.43
(2) +3.72
(3) –3.72
(4) +7.43
15)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)

(1) CH3OH
(2) HCOO–Na
(3) CH3CH2OH
(4) C2H6

17) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of
XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

(1) 20, 30
(2) 30, 20
(3) 40, 30
(4) 60, 40

18) The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273K when 10gm glucose (P1), 10 gm urea(P2) and
10 g sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water is

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P3 > P1 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P2 > P3 > P1

19) Statement I: Lactose has β -glycosidic linkage between β -D-galactose and β -D-glucose
Statement II : All dissccharides are reducing in nature

(1) Both statement-I and Statement-II is correct

(2) statement-I is wrong Statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is wrong
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II is wrong

20) The standard enthalpy of formation of CS2(l) will be ; given that the standard enthalpy of
combustion of carbon (s), sulphur(s) and CS2(l) are –393.3, –293.72 and –1108.76 kJ mol–1
respectively is

(1) –128.02 kJ mol–1

(2) +12.802 kJ mol–1
(3) +128.02 kJ mol–1
(4) –12.802 kJ mol–1

21) Among the ligands NH3, en, CN– and CO, the correct order of their increasing field strength is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In the coupling reaction involving benzene diazonium chloride to form orangedye, and yellow
dye the media used is

(1) Acidic, basic

(2) Basic, acidic
(3) Acidic, acidic
(4) Basic, basic

23) Which of the following are electrophile :

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and D

24) Assertion:– B2 molecule is diamagnetic.

Reason:– The highest occupied molecular orbital in B2 molecule is of -type

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct but Reaon is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion and Reason are correct but Reaon is the correct explanation of Assertion
(4) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect
25) The rate constant K1 and K2 for two different reactions are 1016 e–2000/T and 1015 e–1000/T,
respectively. The temperature at which K1 = K2 is

(1) 1000 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 1000/2.303 K
(4) 2000/2.303 K

26) Phenyl acetylene when reacted with dil. H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4 then major product will be
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The reason for the stability of Gd3+ ion is

(1) Half filled 4f subshell

(2) Completely filled 4f subshell
(3) Possess the genral electronic configuration of noble gases
(4) Empty 4f subshell

29) The IUPAC name of ionisation isomer of complex [Co (NH3)4Cl2] Br

(1) Tetraamminedichloridocobalt(II) bromide

(2) Tetraamminedichloridocobalt(III) bromide
(3) Tetraamminebromidochloridocobalt(III) chloride
(4) Tetraminecchloridobromidocobalt(III) chloride

30)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The decreasing order of stability of following cations is:

(1) S > R > Q > P

(2) P > Q > R > S
(3) Q > R > S > P
(4) R > S > P > Q

32) The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ/gm eq. The heat released
when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is :

(1) 57.0 kJ
(2) 11.4 kJ
(3) 28.8 kJ
(4) 34.9 kJ

33) Which of the following combination leads to formation of π bond (Molecular axis is x axis)
(1) If A, B and C options are correct
(2) If A & B both are correct
(3) If B & D both are correct
(4) If A & C both are correct

34) The correct order of atomic radii is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) The solubility of CaF2 is 2 × 10–4 mol/lit. Its solubility product (KSP) is

(1) 2 × 10–4
(2) 4 × 10–3
(3) 8 × 10–12
(4) 3.2 × 10–11

36) Compound-A is treated with NaNO2 and HCl at 0°C followed by treatment with Cu2Br2/HBr to
prepare Bromobenzene. Therefore Compound-A and the name of reaction are respectively

(1) Benzene, Gattrmann reaction

(2) Aniline, sandmeyer reaction
(3) Nitrobenzene, Baltz-Shiemann reaction
(4) Toulene, Etard’s reaction

37)
The product B is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

38) The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of AgNO3, NaNO3 and NaCl are : 116.5, 105.2 and
110.3 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The limiting molar condictivity of AgCl in S cm2 mol–1 is

(1) 101.4
(2) 121.6
(3) 99.0
(4) 130.6

39)

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

40) The ratio of energies of first orbits of

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16

(3)

(4)

41) In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved
from 0.75 g of sample, neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is

(1) 37.33
(2) 45.33
(3) 35.33
(4) 43.33

42) The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen of a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
number of their molecules is :

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 7 : 32
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 32 : 7

43)

(1) A–III, B–V, C–IV, D–I

(2) A–V, B–II, C–IV, D–III
(3) A–II, B–V, C–IV, D–I
(4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–V

44)
Schemes; A, B and C are:–

(1) Simple hydration

(2) Hydroboration, mercuration–demercuration, hydration
(3) Hydration, hydroboration, mercuration– demercuration
(4) Mercuration–demercuration, hydration, hydroboration

45)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is mismatched?

(1) Wheat — Belongs to Poaceae family

(2) Housefly — Belongs to the order Diptera
(3) Humans — Belongs to the class Mammalia
(4) Mango — Belongs to the family Sapindales

2) In a taxonomical hierarchy as we go from species to kingdom :

(1) The number of common characters goes on decreasing

(2) The number of common characters goes on increasing
(3) The number of characters may increase or decrease
(4) All are incorrect

3) Which of the following pairs belongs to the same kingdom?

(1) Mycoplasma and Euglena

(2) Golden algae and Green algae
(3) Puccinia and Albugo
(4) Lichens and Alternaria

4) Identify around structure ‘A’ in this diagram

(1) dsDNA
(2) Plasmid
(3) Spore
(4) Cosmid

5) Which flagella of Dinoflagellate lies in a furrow between the wall plates

(1) Longitudinal
(2) Transverse
(3) Linear
(4) Both (1) and (2)

6) Which of the following option is correct w.r.t Bryophyta?

(1) Multicellular independent sporophyte

(2) Non – motile antherozoids
(3) Zygotic meiosis
(4) Little economic importance

7) Identify the above figure and choose the right option Above given figure represents
(1) Marchantia – Liverworts
(2) Funaria – Gametophyte
(3) Sphagnum – Gametophyte
(4) Equisetum – Sporophyte

8) Gymnosperm are called naked seeded plants due to

(1) Absence of integument around ovule

(2) Absence of seed coat around seed
(3) Absence of ovary wall around ovule
(4) Both 1 & 2

9) Monadelphous character is found in :

(1) Brassicaceae (Mustard)

(2) Malvaceae (Chinarose)
(3) Poaceae (Grass)
(4) Solanaceae (Potato)

10)

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5

(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5
(3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

11) In monoadelphous condition

(1) Filaments united in multiple groups
(2) Stamens united into one bunch
(3) Anthers are fused but filaments are free
(4) Both anthers and filaments are fused

12) Which one is false about monocot stem?

I. Vascular bundles - scattered, conjoint, close
II. Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
III. Peripheral vascular bundles are larger than centrally located ones
IV. Ground tissue is not differentiated into cortex, pericycle, pith, etc

(1) I, IV only
(2) I, II and III only
(3) IV only
(4) III only

13) Abaxial surface of the dorsiventral leaf generally bears

(1) Less stomata than adaxial epidermis

(2) More stomata than adaxial epidermis
(3) Equal number of stomata with adaxial epidermis
(4) Hairs to absorb the minerals

14) Plant tissue system classified on the basis of

(1) Structure
(2) Location
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

15) Prokaryotic cells are generally ____ and multiply___ than the eukaryotic cells

(1) Smaller, slower

(2) Larger , slower
(3) Smaller, faster
(4) Larger, faster

16) Which of the following is act as cementing layer between neighbouring cells.

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Middle lamella
(4) Tertiary cell wall

17) Identify the cell organelle given below and select which one is an important function
respectively?

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

(2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(3) Golgi body, site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(4) Mitochondria, site of aerobic respiration

18) If the 2n = 20 in plant cell then how many chromosomes present in each daughter cell after
meiosis-I and meiosis -II respectively

(1) 20 and 10
(2) 10 and 10
(3) 10 and 5
(4) 20 and 20

19) Which of the following is correct regarding the given figure?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Centrosome is

(1) Constricted regions of metaphase chromosomes

(2) An organelle usually containing to cylindrical structure
(3) The central region of some cells
(4) Double membrane bound organelles
21) Fill in the blanks: -
1. Light saturation occurs at __a__ per cent of full sunlight.
2. There is a __b__ relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rates at low light intensities.

(1) a–2-5%, b–sigmoid

(2) a–50%, b–linear
(3) a–10%, b–sigmoid
(4) a–10%, b–linear

22) Which alphabet represents the Light saturation point in the given graph?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A and B
(4) D

23) Which of the following is not a feature of C4 plants?

(1) They tolerate higher temperature

(2) They lack a process called photorespiration
(3) They have greater productivity of biomass
(4) They show C3 cycle in mesophyll cells

24) Identify D in the given figure

(1) Light
(2) Chlorophyll P 700
(3) ATP
(4) Chlorophyll P 680
25) Glycolysis takes place in

(1) All living cells

(2) Eukaryotic cells only
(3) Prokaryotic cells only
(4) None of the above

26) How many ATP are produced by the complete oxidation of two molecules of isocitrate by ETS
only?

(1) 24
(2) 11
(3) 30
(4) 22

27) By the aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose, how many CO2 molecules produced in the
mitochondria but not from the TCA cycle?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 12

28) In some biochemical reactions, two redox equivalents in the form of hydrogen atoms comes out
from PGAL and transferred to NAD+ , site of this process is :-

(1) Stroma of chloroplast

(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Mitochondrial matrix
(4) Outer membrane of mitochondria

29) Match the following:

(1) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d, E-e

(2) A-e, B-d, C-c, D-b, E-a
(3) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-e, E-b
(4) A-b, B-c, C-a, D-e, E-d

30) Which of the following events in plants is/are affected by interaction of more than one plant
growth regulators?

(1) Dormancy in seeds / buds

(2) Abscission and senescence
(3) Apical dominance
(4) All of the above

31) The male gametes in angiosperms are produced from the haploid

(1) Generative cell of pollen grain

(2) Vegetative cell of pollen grain
(3) Microspore mother cell
(4) Cells of middle layers of the anther

32) Assertion(A): At maturity, a typical embryo sac in angiosperms is said to be 8-nucleate and 7-
celled.
Reason(R): A mature embryo sac has a small central cell with one nuclei and the three antipodal
cells, two synergids and one egg cell with one nucleus each.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

33) Select the incorrect statement regarding Mendelian laws of inheritance.

(1) Factors occur in pairs

(2) The phenotype in F1 generation may or may not resemble either of the two parents
(3) Characters are controlled by factors
(4) Alleles do not show any blending and characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation

34) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Female bees are developed from eggs by means of parthenogenesis

(2) In male honey bee sperms are produced by mitosis
(3) There is no contribution of male honey bee to produce male progeny
(4) Queen honey bees are diploid

35) In which of the following disorders, mental retardation is a common feature

(1) Thalassemia and Turner’s syndrome

(2) Phenylketonuria and Down’s syndrome
(3) Haemophilia and phenylketonuria
(4) Cystic fibrosis and Turner’s syndrome

36) In bacteria which of the following act as catalyst during translation

(1) 23s rRNA

(2) 28s rRNA
(3) 16s rRNA
(4) 18s rRNA

37) Cistron and gene both are segments of DNA but cistron is necessarily

(1) Codes for adapter RNA

(2) Codes for a polypeptide
(3) Codes for tRNA
(4) Codes for rRNA

38) Mark the incorrect statement for DNA fingerprinting

(1) It involves identifying differences in some specific regions

(2) Has immense applications in the field of genetic biodiversity
(3) Is technique to find out variations in individuals of a population at DNA level
(4) Is not effective in determining population and genetic diversity

39) The sequence of which chromosome was completed only in May 2006

(1) Chromosome 1
(2) Sex chromosomes
(3) Smallest gene containing called TDF
(4) Found in males but not in females

40) The correct statement about flocs is

(1) They are masses of bacterial filaments only

(2) They form during primary treatment of waste water
(3) They contain useful anaerobic microbes
(4) Masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments

41) Microbes are used for commercial production of certain chemicals. The correctly matched pair
w.r.t. commercial acid producer is

(1) Citric acid : obtained from a bacterium

(2) Butyric acid : obtained from a bacterium
(3) Acetic acid : obtained from a fungus
(4) Lactic acid : obtained from a fungus

42) A J-shaped growth curve depicts

(1) Exponential growth when conditions are limited
(2) Exponential growth when conditions are unlimited
(3) Logistic growth when conditions are limited
(4) Logistic growth when conditions are unlimited

43) Which of the following is most appropriately define commensalism

(1) One species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed.
(2) Both species are harmed
(3) Fitness of both species is significantly lower in the presence of another species
(4) Both species are benefitted

44) T.S. of young dicot stem shows that the _______ is outermost protective layer

(1) Epidermis
(2) Cortex
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pericycle

45) The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

46) All living members of which class is ectoparasite on some fishes?

(1) Turbellaria
(2) Chondrichthyes
(3) Cephalopoda
(4) Cyclostomata

47) The testes are situated ____ the abdominal cavity within a pouch called ____.

(1) Inside, testicular lobules

(2) Outside, scrotum
(3) Outside, vas deferens
(4) Inside, scrotum

48) Which of the following statement is incorrect about development of cockroach

(1) On an average female produces 9-10 ootheca, each contain 14-16 eggs
(2) The development is paurometabolous
(3) The nymph grows by moulting about 7-8 times to reach adult form
(4) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroach have wings

49) The age group of ___________ years is quite vulnerable to STDs

(1) 10 to 19
(2) 50 to 60
(3) 17 to 27
(4) 15 to 24

50) In frogs, testis are attached to kidney by double fold peritoneum called_______.

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Mesovarium
(3) Mesentry
(4) Mesentron

51) Gene of interest was inserted at tetR gene by using Sal I in pBR322. The recombinant plasmid
will exhibit susceptibility to

(1) Tetracycline
(2) Tetracycline & Ampicillin
(3) Ampicilin only
(4) All broad-spectrum antibiotics

52) Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second
sound is heard when

(1) AV node receives signal from SA node

(2) AV valves open up
(3) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(4) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.

53) The key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution

(1) Branching descent

(2) Natural selection
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Mutation

54) Arachidonic acid has ______ carbon atom including carboxyl carbon

(1) 20
(2) 19
(3) 16
(4) 17
55) Select the correct option

(1) HMM = Tail + short arm

(2) LMM = Tail + Head
(3) HMM = Head + short arm
(4) LMM = Head

56) Convention for naming in Restriction Enzymes first letter of the name come from

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Strain
(4) None of these

57) Lactational amenorrhea is effective only up to a maximum of ________ months.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Eight

58) Which of the following is common function of adrenal glands and pancreas in human

(1) Regulation of anabolic rate

(2) Constriction of blood vessels
(3) Synthesis of urea and uric acid
(4) Regulation of glucose level in blood

59) The knee joint in between the thigh bone and tibia is a

(1) Hinge joint

(2) Gliding joint
(3) Pivot joint
(4) Fixed joint

60) How much oxygen is delivered to tissue by 100 ml of oxygenated blood under normal
physiological condition?

(1) 10 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 4 ml

61) Evidence of evolution from fossils is known as

(1) Paleontological evidence

(2) Embryological evidence
(3) Physiological evidence
(4) Biochemical evidence

62) Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of

(1) Non-competitive inhibition

(2) Negative feed back
(3) Allosteric inhibition
(4) Competitive inhibition

63) Respiration in adult frog is by

(1) Buccopharyngeal cavity

(2) Skin
(3) Lungs
(4) All of these

64)

(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-1, B-2, C-2, D-4

65) Which of the following statement is not true about Ti plasmid

(1) It is used to introduce foreign genes into dicot plant cells

(2) It may trigger the production of antibodies in plant cells
(3) It is naturally found in the agrobacterium tumifaciens
(4) It contain T - DNA

66) Mark the correct statements

(1) Uremia may lead to kidney failure

(2) Nitrogenous waste moves against concentration gradient in hemodialysis
(3) Filtered blood is returned to artery after performing hemodialysis
(4) Cell Mediated immunity is not responsible for graft rejection

67) In which of the following process/method, transposons are used?

(1) Autoradiography
(2) Gene sequencing
(3) PCR
(4) RNAi

68) Number of sub units present in adult haemoglobin

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 6

69) Which molecular diagnosis can be used to detect the antibodies synthesised against the
pathogen

(1) PCR
(2) Southern blotting
(3) Autoradiography
(4) ELISA

70)

(1) A-III, B- I, C- II, D-IV

(2) A-II, B- III, C- IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B- III, C- IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B- II, C- IV, D-III

71) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called

(1) Blastula
(2) Gastrula
(3) Morula
(4) None of these

72) When there is migration of a section of population to another place multiple times is considered
as

(1) Gene flow

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Genetic shift
(4) Speciation

73) Cnidarians polyp form is _A__ & medusa form is _B_ identify A & B respectively

(1) Free living & sessile

(2) Sessile & Free living
(3) Sessile & Sessile
(4) None of these

74)

(1) 1-c,2-b,3-a,4-d
(2) 1-b,2-c,3-d,4-a
(3) 1-a,2-b,3-c,4-d
(4) 1-d,2-a,3-b,4-c

75) Statement-I:– Adenosine and guanosine are nitrogenous bases

Statement-II:– DNA contains phosphodiester bonds

(1) Both statements are incorrect

(2) Only Statement I is correct
(3) Only Statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are correct

76) Which of the following causes vasodilation

(1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ANF
(4) Angiotensin

77) Which of the following is not symptoms of amoebiasis

(1) Abdominal Pain & cramps
(2) Stool with mucous & blood clot
(3) Constipation
(4) External bleeding

78) The amount of air that is left in lungs even after forcible expiration is

(1) IRV
(2) Tidal volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Vital capacity

79) Sarcolemma is a membrane of

(1) Nerve fibre

(2) Cartilage
(3) Skeletal muscle fibre
(4) Bone

80) Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is
wrong?

(1) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity

(2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature
(3) Enzymes are highly specific.
(4) Most of the enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.

81) The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA technique was getting insulin into
matured form using which bonds

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Peptide
(3) Ionic
(4) Disulphide

82) In human cranium is formed by

(1) Eight bones

(2) Ten bones
(3) Twelve bones
(4) Fourteen bones

83) Golden rice is rich in

(1) Vit - A
(2) Leusine
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Iron

84) Which of the following hormone binds with membrane bound receptor

(1) FSH
(2) Estrogen
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Progesterone

85)

(1) 1- a and b, 2- c and d

(2) 1- a and c, 2- b and d
(3) 1- a and d, 2- b and c
(4) None of these

86) Frog differ from humans in possessing

(1) Nucleated RBC

(2) Thyroid as well as parathyroid gland
(3) Paired cerebral hemisphere
(4) Closed Circulatory system

87) Statement I - During implantation blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of uterus
Statement II - Uterine cells divide after implantation rapidly and cover the blastocyst once it gets
attached to uterine wall

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect

88) Which epithelium has limited role in secretion and absorption

(1) Cuboidal
(2) Columnar
(3) Ciliated
(4) Compound

89) What is not present in the simple stirred tank bioreactor

(1) Foam breaker

(2) Temperature control system
(3) Sampling port
(4) Small volume culture

90) Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

(1) Round worms (Aschelminths) are pseudo-coelomates

(2) Molluscs are acoelomates
(3) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(4) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 1 4 4 3 3 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 1 2 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 4 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 4 2 1 4 1 2 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 4 1 1 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 4 1 2 1 4 1 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 1 3 1 1 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY