15-04-2025

7501CMD303031240028 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle moves along a straight line in such a way that its acceleration is increasing at the rate
of 2 m/s3. Its initial acceleration and velocity were zero. Then, the distance which it will cover in the
3rd second is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Displacement-time graph of an object is given. It's velocity-time graph can be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Match the following

Currents r.m.s values

(A) x0 sinωt (i) x0

(B) x0 sinωt cosωt (ii)

(C) x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt (iii)

(1) (A → i), (B → ii), (C → iii)

(2) (A → ii), (B → iii), (C → i)
(3) (A → i), (B → iii), (C → ii)
(4) None

4) Five bulbs each have same voltage rating 220 V are connected as shown in the figure. The total
power consumed in the circuit is

(1) 20 W
(2) 50 W
(3) 60 W
(4) 100 W

5) Two bodies, A and B, collide as shown in Figures a and b below.

Which statement is true?

(1) They exert equal and opposite forces on each other in (a) but not in (b).
(2) They exert equal and opposite force on each other in both (a) and (b).
The forces are equal and opposite to each other in (a), but only the components of the forces
(3)
parallel to the velocities are equal in (b).
The forces are equal and opposite in (a), but only the components of the forces perpendicular to
(4)
the velocities are equal in (b)

6) The charge stored on the capacitor shown in the circuit diagram at steady state is :
(1) Zero
(2) 250 μC
(3) 750 μC
(4) 1200 μC

7) A particle rotates in circular path starting from rest. If angular acceleration is 4 rad/s2 then find
time after which angle between net acceleration and tangential acceleration will be 45°?

(1)
sec

(2)
sec
(3) 2 sec
(4) 4 sec

8) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force

that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

9) Which electric field is responsible for the proton’s trajectory as shown below ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) East
(4) West

11) A plane EM wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric
field component of the wave at a particular point of space and time E = 6 V/m along y-direction. Its
magnetic field component B at this point would be

(1) 2 × 10–8 T along z-direction

(2) 6 × 10–6 T along x-direction
(3) 2 × 10–8 T along y-direction
(4) 6 × 10–8 T along z-direction

12) Velocity of light -

(1) Always constant

(2) Increases when medium changes
(3) Decreases when medium changes
(4) Depends on electric and magnetic properties of medium

13) A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1V
the resistance in ohm needed to be connected in series with the coil will be :–

(1) 99995
(2) 9995
(3) 103
(4) 105

14) In a vernier callipers 5 vernier scale divisions are equal to 4 main scale divisions. One main scale
division is equal to 5 mm. A screw gauge with pitch equal to least count of above vernier callipers is
designed. Number of divisions on circular scale of this screw guage is equal to 100. Least count of
this screw is

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.001 mm
(4) 0.0001 mm

15) An experiment with convex lens gives certain result which is represented by a student in the

shown graph. What would be the power of the lens used ?

(1) 0.2 D
(2) 1 D
(3) 0.1 D
(4) 20 D

16) The end of a capillary tube with a radius r is immersed into water. What amount of heat will be
evolved when the water rises in the tube ? If surface tension of water ‘T’ and density of water = ρ.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Sixty four spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal
velocity 1.5 ms–1. If these drops coalesce to form a big spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big
drop is :-
(1) 8 ms–1
(2) 16 ms–1
(3) 24 ms–1
(4) 32 ms–1

18)

Four identical hollow cylindrical columns, support a big structure of mass M. The inner and outer
radii of a column are R1 and R2 respectively. Assuming the load distribution to be uniform the
compressional strain of each column is :-
(where Y is Youngs modulus of the column)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If gravitational force between planet and the satellite depends on where r is orbital radius. If
v0 is orbital velocity then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In a certain region of space, the potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – y2 + z2]. The electric field at
the point (1,1,1) has magnitude = :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21)

The magnetic field existing in a region is given by

A square loop of edge l and carrying current I is placed with its edges parallel to the x-y axis. The
magnitude of the net magnetic force experienced by the loop is :-
(1) 3B0Il
(2) 2B0Il
(3) B0Il

(4)

22) In the given figure net magnetic field at O will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Four small identical bar magnets each of magnetic dipole moment M are placed on vertices of a
square of side a such that diagonals of the square coincide with perpendicular bisectors of

respectively magnets. The net magnetic field at the centre of the square is:-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The graph is showing the photo current with the applied voltage of a photoelectric effect

experiment. Then :-
(1) A & B will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
(2) B & C have same intensity and A & B have same frequency
(3) A & C will have same frequency and B & C have same intensity
(4) A & C will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency

25)

A proton and an electron are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let λp and λe denotes the
de Broglie wavelength of protons & electron, respectively then,

(1) λe = λp
(2) λe < λp
(3) λe > λp
(4) none of these

26) A gamma ray photon creates an electron-positron pair. If the rest mass energy of an electron is
0.5MeV and the total K.E. of the electron-positron pair is 0.78 MeV, then the energy of the gamma
ray photon must be :-

(1) 0.78 MeV

(2) 1.78 MeV
(3) 1.28 MeV
(4) 0.28 MeV

27) The radius of Germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be thrice the radius of . The number of
nucleons in Ge are -

(1) 263
(2) 243
(3) 253
(4) 272

28)
Find value of F so that acceleration of block is 6 m/sec2 towards right ?

(1) 30 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 100 N

29) The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
The angle of minimum deviation is :-
(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A

30) A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal length 10 cm and an objective of focal length 4
cm. Calculate the magnification, if an object is kept at a distance of 5 cm from the objective so that
final image is formed at the least of distinct vision (20 cm) :-

(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 10
(4) 13

31) Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of

inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A particle of mass m = 5 units is moving with a uniform speed v = units in the x–y plane
along the line y = x + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum about orgin is :-

(1) zero
(2) 60 unit
(3) 7.5 unit
(4) 40 unit

33) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote
holes and electrons respectively. The material is:-

(1) a n-type semiconductor

(2) a p-type semicoductor
(3) a insulator
(4) a metal

34) Avalanche breakdown is due to :

(1) Collision of minorty charge carrier

(2) Increases in depletion layer thickness
(3) Decreases in depletion layer thickness
(4) None of these

35) In a pure silicon (ni = 1016/m3) crystal at 300 K, 1021 atoms of phosphorus are added per cubic
meter. The new hole concentration will be :-

(1) 1021 per m3

(2) 1019 per m3
(3) 1011 per m3
(4) 105 per m3

36) Which of these are forward biased ?

(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV)

(1) I, II and IV
(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, III and IV
37) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by equations
y1 = 4 sin (10t + ϕ)
y2 = 5 cos(10 t) What is the phase difference between their velocities ?

(1) ϕ
(2) –ϕ

(3)

(4)

38) Starting from the origin, a body oscillates simple harmonically with a time period 2 sec. After
what time will its kinetic energy will be 75% of the total energy ?

(1)
sec.

(2)
sec.

(3)
sec.

(4)
sec.

39) One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process as shown in the figure. Find the

molar specific heat of the gas in the process :- R is a gas constant

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Assertion:- The triple-point of water is a standard fixed point in modern thermometry.
Reason:- Melting point of ice and the boiling point of water change due to change in pressure but
triple-point of water does not change.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

41) One mole of a gas mixture is heated under constant pressure, and heat required Q is plotted
against temperature difference acquired. Find the value of γ for mixture :-

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/2
(4) 2/3

42) Which of the following group have different dimension :-

(1) Potential difference, EMF, voltage

(2) Pressure, stress, young's modulus
(3) Heat, energy, work-done
(4) Electric dipole moment, electric flux, electric field

43) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,
are:-

(1) MT–2
(2) M2LT–3
(3) ML3T–1
(4) LT–3

44)

A glass tube of 100 cm length is filled with water. The water can be drained out slowly at the bottom
of the tube. If a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is brought at the upper end of the tube
and the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, then the total number of resonances obtained will be

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

45) Ligth of wavelength 9000A° is incident on a thin glass plate of R.I = 1.5 such that angle of
refraction into the plate is 60°. calculate the smallest thickness of plate which will make it appear
dark by reflection.
(1) 0.6 mm
(2) 0.4 mm
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 0.3 mm

CHEMISTRY

1) When benzyl methyl ether is reacted with excess of HI then products will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion : 1-Butene and But-2-ene are position isomer.

Reason : Both compound have different position of double bond

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3) The correct name and product of given reaction are respectively.

(1)

Kolbe's reaction,
Gatterman reaction,

(2)
 Gatterman Koch reaction,

(3)

(4)

Gatterman aldehyde synthesis reaction,

4) In which reaction benzene will not be formed as major product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Compare the rate of electrophilic substitution reaction :

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) a > c > d > b
(3) a > c > b > d
(4) a > d > b > c

6) Which of the following disaccharide is a non-reducing sugar ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following give Bad smell when treated with CHCl3 / KOH?

(1)

(2) CH3 – NH – CH3

(3)

(4)

8) Reagent for above reaction is :-

(1) Zn–Hg/HCl
(2) HI
(3)
(4) Above all

9)

Give structure of (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which of the following is dehydrated at the fastest rate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Arrange the following in the correct order of reactivity towards SN1 :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II

12) Rochelle salt is :

(1) Aqueous copper sulphate
(2) Concentrated copper sulphate
(3) Sodium potassium tartarate
(4) Ammonical solution of AgNO3

13)

The product C is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?

(1)

2Methyl-3-phenylpentane

(2)
5-Oxohexanoic acid
(3) Br—CH2—CH=CH 1-Bromo-prop-2-ene

(4)

4-Bromo-2,4-di-methylhexane

15) Statement - I : The Cl–, Br– and CN– nucleophiles can easily introduced in the benzene ring by
treating the diazonium salt in the presence of Cu (I) ion. This reaction is called Sandmeyer reaction.
Statement - II : The yield in Sandmeyer reaction is found to be better than Gattermann reaction.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

16) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)](NO3)3 and [Co(NH3)5NO3] (NO3)2.H2O.

The above given compounds are example of

(1) Linkage isomer

(2) Solvate isomer
(3) Optical isomer
(4) Coordination position isomer.

17) Assertion : B2 and C2 both exists in vapour state.

Reason : s-p intermixing of orbitals take place in both B2 and C2.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

18) Incorrect statement among the following is

(1) The most common oxidation state of titanium is +4

(2) V2O5 on reaction with alkalies forms
(3) Ionisation energy of Mn+ is lower than Cr+
(4) For d-block metals higher oxidation state stability decreases down the group.

19) The order of ΔHeg of given cations O+, S+, Se+, Te+ is :-

(1) O+ > S+ > Se+ > Te+

(2) O+ > S+ > Te+ > Se+
(3) S+ > O+ > Se+ > Te+
(4) S+ > Se+ > Te+ > O+

20) Assertion(A):- After splitting of d-orbitals during complex formation the orbitals form two set of
orbitals t2g and eg in octahedral field.
Reason(R):- Splitting of d-orbitals occurs only in presence of strong field ligand such as CN–.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

21) Which of the following ion(s) is/are oxidising in nature?

(i)
(ii)

(iii)

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) only (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) only (iii)

22) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

(A) XeO3 (p) Planar and lone pair present on central atom

Planar and lone pair is not present on central

(B) CF4 (q)
atom

Non-planar and lone pair is not present on central

(C) XeF2 (r)
atom

Non-planar and lone pair is present on central

(D) CO2 (s)
atom
(1) (A)→(s), (B)→(r), (C)→(p), (D)→(q)
(2) (A)→(p), (B)→(q), (C)→(r), (D)→(s)
(3) (A)→(s), (B)→(q), (C)→(r), (D)→(p)
(4) (A)→(q), (B)→(r), (C)→(p), (D)→(s)

23) Which among the following acts as the strongest oxidising agent?

(1) CrO3
(2) V2O5
(3) MoO3
(4) WO3

24) Consider the following statements :-

I. Group 17 elements have high negative electron gain enthalpies.
II. Noble gases have large positive electron gain enthalpies.
III. The E.N of any given element is always constant.
IV. The valence of representative elements is always equal to the number of electrons in the outer
most orbitals.
Choose the option with correct statements :-

(1) I and II only

(2) I and II only
(3) Only IV
(4) Only III

25) Assertion (A) : Formal charges do not indicate real charge separation within the molecule.
Reason (R) : Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a number of
possible Lewis structure for a given species.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

26) Statement I : CFT is an electrostatic model which considers the metal ligand bond to be ionic.
Statement II : The degeneracy of d-orbitals is maintained if a spherically symmetrical field of
negative charges surrounds the metal atom/ion.

(1) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement I and II both are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

27) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
–3
(a) [Fe(CN)6] (i) 5.92 BM
3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6] (ii) 0 BM
4–
(c) [Fe(CN)6] (iii) 4.90 BM
2+
(d) [Fe(H2O)6] (iv) 1.73 BM
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

28) Which of the following configuration is/are possible for inner orbital octahedral complex.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) only C
(4) C, D

29) Which of the following represents the correct order of metallic character of the given elements ?

(1) Si < Be < Mg < K

(2) Be < Si < Mg < K
(3) K < Mg < Be < Si
(4) Be < Si < K < Mg

30) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A :- The alkali metals and their salts impart characteristic colour to reducing flame.
Reason R :- Alkali metals can be detected using flame tests.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer form the options given
below

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

31) , configuration is wrong according to :-

(A) Hund (B) Pauli (C) Aufbau

(1) Only A
(2) Both B & C
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B & C

32) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium . If some amount of

argon gas is added to the reaction mixture at constant pressure then

(1) Dissociation of PCl5 increases

(2) Formation of PCl5 increases
(3) There is no effect on equilibrium
(4) Equilibrium constant value increases

33) Half life and completion time of reaction :

A(1M) 2B are :

(1) 500 min, 750 min

(2) 500 sec, 750 sec
(3) 500 sec, 1000 sec
(4) 500 sec, 50 sec

34) In the electrolysis of aqueous CdSO4 solution by passing 2A current for 8 minute find volume of
product at anode (at STP)

(1) 28 mL
(2) 14 L
(3) 112 L
(4) 56 mL
35) According to collision theory of chemical reaction, rate of reaction can be expressed as rate =
PZABe–Ea/RT, ZAB represents.

(1) The fraction of molecules with energies more than Ea.

(2) Steric factor
(3) Threshold energy
(4) The collision frequency of reactants, A and B

36) Statement-1: The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the presence of a catalyst.
Statement-2: A catalyst participating in the reaction, forms different activated complex and lowers
down the activation energy but the difference in energy of reactant and product remains the same.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.

(2) Statement-1 is correct and statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect and statement-2 is correct.

37) Eo of some elements are given as :

Fe+3 + e– → Fe+2 ; E° = 0.77 V

Sn+4 + 2e– → Sn+2 ; E° = 0.1 V
Among these elements strongest reductant is :

(1) Sn+2
(2) Fe+2
(3) Mn+2
(4) I–

38) Which of following is not Lewis acid?

(1) BF3
(2) AlCl3
(3) H+
(4) NH3

39) Which solution in not a buffer solution?

(1) NaCN (2 mole) + HCl (1 mole) in 5 L

(2) NaCN (1 mole) + HCl (1 mole) in 5 L
(3) NH3 (2 mole) + HCl (1 mole) in 5 L
(4) CH3COOH (2 mole) + KOH (1 mole) in 5 L

40) Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A and 2 mol B is 240

torr then there is a :
(1) negative deviation from Raoult's law
(2) Positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) No deviation from Raoult's law
(4) Cannot be decided

41) The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.6 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) which has a molar mass
of 342.3 g, is :

(1) 22 × 1023
(2) 9.91 × 1023
(3) 11 × 1023
(4) 44 × 1023

42) Statement-I : Dilute H2SO4 is added with preparing standard solution of ferrous ammonium
sulphate to prevent the hydrolysis of ferrous salt.
Statement-II : KMnO4 is reducing agent and Mohr's salt is oxidising agent in titration of both
Mohr's salt and KMnO4.

(1) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is wrong

(2) Statement-I is wrong and Statement-II is true
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Both statements are wrong

43) In the reaction Br2 → 2BrO3–.

(1) Total 5 mole electron transffered by 1 mole Br2

(2) Total 6 mole electron transffered by 1 mole Br2
(3) Total 10 mole electron transffered by 1 mole Br2
(4) Total 12 mole electron transffered by 1 mole Br2

44) Heat of formation of 2 moles of NH3 (g) is –90 kJ; bond energies of H – H and N – H bonds are
435 kJ and 390 kJ mol–l respectively. The value of the bond energy of N ≡ N will be:

(1) –472.5 kJ
(2) –945 kJ
(3) 472.5 kJ
(4) 945 kJ mol–1

45) At 0°C, ice and water are in equilibrium and ΔH = 6 kJ mol–1. For this process :
H2O(s) ⇌ H2O(l)
ΔS and ΔG for conversion of ice into liquid water at 0°C are

(1) 2.19 J K–1 mol–1 and 0

(2) 0.219 J K–1 mol–1 and 0
(3) 21.9 J K–1 mol–1 and 0
(4) 0.0219 J K–1 mol–1 and 0

BIOLOGY

1) Taxonomy based on chemical constituent of plants is called :-

(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Classical taxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(4) Karyotaxonomy

2) Consider the following statements:-

(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

3) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes - Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid - bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella - help in formation of conjugation tube
(4) Capsule - help in locomotion

4) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals ?

(1) Halophiles
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Thermus aquaticus
(4) Methanogens

5) Which is not true for the heterocyst of Nostoc :-

(1) Intercalary position

(2) Site of nitrogen fixation
(3) Nitrogenase enzyme present
(4) Photosynthesis

6) Inclusion bodies are :-

(1) Store food material in periplasmic space
(2) Not membrane bounded
(3) Exist in cyanobacteria only
(4) Stores only nitrogen & phosphate

7) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all correct ones
only :-
(a) Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperms, the male and female gametophyte do not
have an independent free living existence.
(b) In some pteridophytes, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte for variable
period.
(c) Zygote is the first cell of sporophyte generation
(d) Bryophytes do not play any role in plant successon occuring on bare rock or soil or terrestrial
habitat.

(1) b, c and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b and c

8) Match the following figures of organisms with their body forms :

Figure Body form

(A) (i) Unicellular

(B) (ii) Colonial

(C) (iii) Filamentous

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii

(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i

9) Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the plant body in case of

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

10) Main function of prop root is :-

(1) Water absorption

(2) Climbing
(3) Provide support
(4) Reproducing

11) Select wrong statement about pneumatophores:-

(1) Help to get oxygen for respiration

(2) Grow in swampy areas plants
(3) are positively geotropic
(4) Found in rhizophora

12) Root hairs develop from the region of :–

(1) Elongation zone

(2) root cap
(3) Meristematic zone
(4) Maturation zone

13) Match the placental types column - I with their examples column - II

Column - I Column - II
 A. Basal i. Tomato

B. Marginal ii. Pea

C. Free central iii. Sun flower

D. Axile iv. Dianthus

(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
(4) A - i B - iii, C - iv, D - ii

14) Assertion (A): In racemose type of inflorescence, flowers are borne in a acropetal order.
Reason (R): In cymose type of inflorescence, flowers are borne in a basipetal order.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

15) Read the following statements and find out the correct statements).

Xylem parenchyma is only living component of xylem and phloem fibre (bast fibre) is only dead
(1)
component of the phloem.
(2) The structure and function of the tissues would also be dependent on the location.
On the basis of their structure and location, there are three types of tissues systems, namely,
(3)
dermal, fundamental and conducting tissue system.
(4) All of the above.

16) In a dorsiventral leaf, location of palisade tissue and phloem is respectively on the________
surfaces:-

(1) adaxial and abaxial

(2) adaxial and adaxial
(3) abaxial and adaxial
(4) abaxial and abaxial

17) G.N. RAMACHANDRAN, an outstanding figure in the field of protein structure, was the founder
of the ‘Madras school’ of conformational analysis of biopolymers. His discovery of the triple helical
structure of collagen published in Nature in —————- and his analysis of the allowed conformations
of ——————through the use of the ‘Ramachandran plot’ rank among the most outstanding
contributions in structural biology.
(1) 1953,RNA
(2) 1954, Proteins
(3) 1859, Triglycerides
(4) 1809, DNA

18) Diplotene can lasts for months or years in:

(1) oocytes of all vertebrates

(2) oocytes of all invertebrates
(3) oocytes of some vertebrates
(4) spermatocytes of all vertebrates

19) (I) The vacuoles are bounded by single membrane called _____(A)_____.
(II) The concentration of ions is _____(B)_____ in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.

(1) A-Plasma membrane; B-Lower

(2) A-Tonoplast; B-Lower
(3) A-Tonoplast; B-Higher
(4) A-Tonoplast; B-Equal

20) Following are the events occurs during meiosis:

(A) Appearance of chiasmata
(B) Synapsis
(C) Assembly of meiotic spindle
(D) Recombinase enzyme activity
Choose the correct sequence :-

(1) A B C D
(2) B D A C
(3) D C B A
(4) B C A D
21) Diplotene is marked by :-

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Formation of recombination nodules

22) Enzymes for Kreb's cycle are situated in

(1) Mitochondrial Matrix

(2) Outer mitochondria membrane
(3) Inner mitochondria membrane
(4) Perimitochondrial space

23)

Match the following.

Color
Pigment
(in chromatogram)

A chl-a i Bright or blue green

B chl-b ii yellow

C xanthophyll iii yellow green

D carotenoids iv yellow to yellow orange

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

24)

Choose the correct option for given diagram :-

(1) Graph showing the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a, b and carotenoid

(2) Graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis
 Graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of
(3)
chlorophyll a
(4) Carotenoids protect to chlorophyll a from photooxidation

25) Maximum ATP can be produced by complete oxidation of one molecule of

(1) F-6-P
(2) F-1, 6-BisP
(3) Glucose
(4) Sucrose

26) Conversion of pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol requires the presence of :-

(1) Carboxylase
(2) Dehydrogenase only
(3) Decarboxylase and dehydrogenase
(4) Phosphatase

27) A - Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell.

B - Process is independent of oxygen.
C - It can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
Choose the correct option for given statements A to C :-

(1) Krebs cycle

(2) Link reaction
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Fermentation

28) 2(C51H98O6) + 14502→ 102CO2+ 98 H2O + Energy

RQ for the given reaction will be :-

(1) More than one

(2) Equal to RQ of carbohydrate
(3) Less than RQ of proteins
(4) More than RQ of organic acid

29) Match the following plant growth regulators (PGRs) with their physiological effects :-

PGRs Physiological effects

(A) Auxins (i) Increase the absorption surface of root
(B) Ethylene (ii) Increase tolerance of plants to stresses
(C) Cytokinins (iii) Root initiation in stem cutting
(D) Abscisic Acid (iv) Delay of leaf senescence
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii

30) Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling:-

(1) a and c - arithmetic, b and d - geometric

(2) a and c - geometric, b and d - arithmetic
(3) a and d - geometric, b and c - arithmetic
(4) a and d - arithmetic, b and c - geometric

31) Read the following statements :-

(A) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(B) Used to prepare weed free lawn.
(C) Promotes the abscission of old mature leaves and fruits.
The above functions are carried out by :-

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) ABA
(4) Cytokinin

32) Fossilization of pollen grains is helped by

(1) Compatible protein

(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Pectin

33)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.
Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

34) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

35) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
organisms.

36) With respect to ABO blood groups, how many genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, are
possible in the population of human being?

(1) 6 and 4
(2) 4 and 6
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 4 and 8

37) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when
yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds:-

YR Yr yR ry

YR F J N R
 Yr G K O S

yR H L P T

ry I M Q U
A plant of 'H' type will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants
of:-
(1) Type M
(2) Type J
(3) Type P
(4) Type N

38) In ribosome polypeptide chain elongate in which direction.

(1) N-termine to C-termine

(2) C-termine to N-termine
(3) Any direction
(4) 3' to 5' direction

39) Correctly identify the components of transcription process labelled A, B and C in figure given
below and select right options about them.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) In tropical rain forest maximum biodiversity is found due to :-

(1) Moderate temp. throughout the year

(2) Rain fall
(3) Very low temperature
(4) More than one option are correct
41) Amensalism can be represented as :

(1) Species A (–); Species B (0)

(2) Species A (+); Species B (+)
(3) Species A (–); Species B (–)
(4) Species A (+); Species B (0)

42) Choose the odd one out w.r.t. parasitism

(1) Parasitites show adaptations like loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity
(2) Parasite may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of host
(3) Life cycles of ectoparasites are more complex
(4) Brood parasitism is seen in birds

43) The total annual net productivity of whole biosphere is :

(1) 70 billion ton

(2) 7 million ton
(3) 170 billion ton
(4) 70 million ton

44) The sobriquet "The Evil Quartet" is used to describe.

(1) Four major benefits from biodiversity

(2) Four major causes for biodiversity losses.
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over exploitation, Alien species invasions, Co-existence
(4) Four minor losses from Ecosystem

45) Out of the four major causes of biodiversity loss, which one is responsible for extinction of
Steller’s sea cow?

(1) Co-extinction
(2) Alien species invasions
(3) Over-exploitation
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation

46) Read the following statements (A-D) which are related to cockroach and find out the true (T) and
false (F) statements :-
(A) Cockroaches are included in class insecta of phylum arthropoda.
(B) Head of cockroach lies anteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal body axis.
(C) Each thoracic segment bears a pair of wings and legs.
(D) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites (tergites ventrally and
sternites dorsally)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) T T F T
(2) T F F T
 (3) T F F F
(4) T T F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47)

(1) All these animals are true coelomates

(2) All have segmented body
(3) These are dioecious animals with indirect development
(4) All are bilateral symmetrical, triploblastic animals.

48) (a) They are are ectoparasite

(b) Mouth without jaw
(c) Scale less skin
(d) 6-15 pairs of gill slits
Above mention features are shown by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49) Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?

(1) Ureotelic mode of excretion

(2) Four - chambered heart
(3) Internal fertilisation
(4) Nucleated RBCs

50)
Which of the following having alternate arrangement of fibroblast & fibres ?

(1) Ligament & duramater

(2) Tendon
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium

51) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Tight junctions :- help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(2) Adhering junctions :- perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
Gap junctions :- Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the
(3)
cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
(4) Gap Junction :- Found in epithelium of air sac.

52)

In multicellular animals a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances perform a
specific function such an organization is called.

(1) Tissue
(2) Organ
(3) Body
(4) Organ system

53) See the following figure & identify the correct option:

(1) P-Glucose, Q-Adenine, R-Uridine

(2) P-Ribose, Q-Adenine, R-Uridine
(3) P-Glucose, Q-Adenosine, R-Uracil
(4) P-Ribose, Q-Adenylic acid, R-Uracil

54) Find out the incorrect statement regarding structure of proteins?

(1) Straight chain of amino acids are linked by peptide bonds

(2) Protein molecules of secondary structure are spirally coiled.
(3) Protein of 2° structure are highly folded to give a globular appearance.
(4) β-pleated sheet shows zig-zag structure.
55) What should be added to nucleoside to yield a nucleotide ?

(1) Sugar
(2) Phosphoric acid
(3) Nitrogenous Base
(4) Monosaccharide

56) Select the correct pair of alkaloids among the following.

(1) Abrin and codeine

(2) Morphine and codeine
(3) Morphine and abrin
(4) Ricin and codeine

57) A research student was using pBR322 as cloning vector. He ligated gene of interest at Sal I site.
Based on this, choose the correct option.

(1) Non-transformants will grow on both ampicillin and tetracycline containing medium
(2) Transformants will grow on ampicillin containing medium
(3) Non-recombinants will not grow on tetracycline containing medium
(4) Recombinants will not grow on ampicillin containing medium

58) What is not present in the simple stirred-tank bioreactor ?

(1) Foam breaker

(2) Temperature control system
(3) Sampling port
(4) Sparger

59) Complete the analogy w.r.t. DNA isolation.

Bacteria : Lysozyme :: Fungus :_______

(1) Cellulase
(2) Chitinase
(3) Amylase
(4) DNAse

60) A vector should have selectable marker gene because

(1) It helps in selectively permitting the growth of non-transformants

(2) It is required for origin of replication
(3) It helps in selection of recombinants
(4) It helps in marking useful gene in the vector

61) Microinjection is a method by which the recombinant DNA is injected :

(1) Directly into the nucleus of an animal cell
(2) By the help of low temperature
(3) By the help of Silver particles
(4) By the help of Tungsten particles.

62) Assertion (A): PCR is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients.
Reason (R): For chemical safety testing, transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make
them less sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

63) Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Pvu I restriction site is present in ampicillin resistant part of pBR322.

In electrophoretic apparatus, separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the
(2)
DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV rays.
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is considered as natural genetic engineer of plants.
(4) In the gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments resolve according to base sequence.

64) Number of trophic hormones secreted by Pars distalis?

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 1

65) (A) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions

(B) Suppreses the immune response
(C) Stimulates RBC production
The above statements are true for which hormone?

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Melatonin
(3) Cortisol
(4) Aldosterone

66) Which type of hormone primarily regulate gene expression and chromosome function?

(1) Peptide hormones

(2) Amino Acid derivative
(3) Steroid hormones, T3 , T4
(4) Both (1) and (2)
67) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering _______ after delivery of first child :

(1) Steroid
(2) Rh Antigen
(3) Antibiotic
(4) Anti Rh antibody

68) Assertion : Atherosclerosis makes the lumen of arteries narrower.

Reason : It is caused by deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol & fibrous tissues on the lumen wall.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

69)

Read the following

A. Purkinje fibres are made up of neurons
B. Heart is derived from Mesoderm
C. A-V septum is muscular whereas inter ventricular septum is fibrous
D. Second heart sound is associated with closure of semilunar valves
E. Parasympathetic activity increases heart rate
Choose correct option :

(1) A is correct only

(2) C and E are only incorrect
(3) B and D are correct
(4) All are correct

70) Minimum reabsorption occurs in which segment of nephron?

(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle

(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Distal convoluted tubule
(4) Collecting duct

71) All of the following are involved in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood, except

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Collecting duct
(4) Bowman’s capsule

72) Uricotelic mode of excretion is exhibited by :

(1) Clarias
(2) Salamandra
(3) Calotes
(4) Ornithorhynchus

73) Sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes are eliminated through

(1) Liver
(2) Lungs
(3) Sebaceous glands
(4) Sweat glands

74) A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to :

+
(1) O2 and H ions
+
(2) CO2 and Na ions
+
(3) CO2 and H ions
(4) CO2 and O2

75) Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Fitness according to Darwin refers only to reproductive fitness.

(2) Due to continental drift, North Africa joined South Africa
(3) There is a one inter disulphide bond between one heavy and one light chain of antibody
(4) Sertoli cell provides nutrition to dividing germ cells

76) During his journey Darwin observed an amazing diversity of creatures small black birds later
called Darwin finches. These variety of birds were observed on which Island.

(1) South Africa

(2) South America
(3) Galapagos
(4) Australia

77) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

(1) Gene Flow

(2) Genetic Drift
(3) Mutation
(4) Random mating

78) Statement I : Dinosaur disappeared from earth approximately 65 million years ago
Statement II : First mammals were similar to shrews

Statement I Statement II
 (1) True True

(2) True False

(3) False True

(4) False False

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Mark the incorrect statement :

(1) Coke is diacetylmorphine

(2) Erythroxylum coca is native of South America
(3) Smoking increase level of carboxy Hb in blood
(4) Alcohol damages nervous system

80) "Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released". Given statement is
true for which cell ?

(1) T-killer
(2) T-helper
(3) Macrophage
(4) B-lymphocyte

81) In oogenesis process meiosis-II complete.

(1) Before ovulation

(2) Before puberty
(3) After completion of zygote formation
(4) After entry of sperm in ovum

82) Statement I : Embryo's heart is formed after one month of pregnancy.

Statement II : Formation of major organ systems, limbs and external genitalia occur by end of 1st
trimester.

(1) Both I and II correct

(2) I correct, II incorrect
(3) I incorrect, II correct
(4) Both I and II incorrect

83) 2n = 16 is in a primary spermotocyte which is in metaphase of first meiotic division. What shall
be the total number of chromatids in each of the secondary spermotocyte?

(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 32
(4) 8

84) Match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles:

Bioactive substance Role

(i) Statin (A) Removal of oil stains

(ii) Cyclosporin A (B) Removal of clots from blood vessels

(iii) Streptokinase (C) Lowering of blood cholesterol

(iv) Lipase (D) Immunosuppressive agent

Choose the correct match:

(1) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
(2) i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C
(3) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
(4) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A

85) Na+ - K+ pump in axolemma transports :

(1) 3 Na+ out and 2K+ in

(2) 3 Na+ in and 2K+ out
(3) 2 Na+ out and 3K+ in
(4) 2 Na+ in and 3K+ out

86) How many of the following functions are performed by the hypothalamus ?
Hunger, Circadian rhythm, thirst, synthesis of oxytocin, synthesis of release and inhibitory factors,
Regulation of body temperature, balance & equilibrium.

(1) Eight
(2) Seven
(3) Six
(4) Five

87) Which one of the following technique is include in-vivo fertilization.

(1) ZIFT
(2) IUT
(3) ICSI
(4) GIFT

88) An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around haemoglobin causes :

(1) Haemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules

(2) An increase in the affinity of haemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules.
(3) Haemoglobin to denature
(4) An increase in the binding of H+ by haemoglobin

89) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissue respectively :

(1) 40, 159, 45

(2) 40, 0.3, 45
(3) 104, 159, 40
(4) 104, 0.3, 45

90) Statement-I : Thoracic vertebrae, Ribs and Sternum together form the rib cage.
Statement-II : Last 2 pairs (11 and 12 ) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore called
Floating ribs.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is False
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is Ture
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are True
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 2 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 2 2 4 2 3 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 4 4 1 1 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 1 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 4 1 3 4 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
a = 2t
v = t2

Distance travelled in 3rd sec

= x 3 – x2 =

2)

3)

(1) Equation x = x0 sinωt

rms value
(2) Equation x = x0 sinωt cosωt

rms value
(3) x = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt
=

rms value =

4) Let the resistance of 100W bulb is R

then
then resistance of 50W bulb = 2R
& resistance of 25W bulb = 4R
then equivalent circuit will be balanced what stone bridge.
 Total power consumed in circuit will be

8)

The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

10) The direction of current in the solenoid is anti-clockwise as seen by observer. On

displacing it towards the loop a current in the loop will be induced in a direction so as to
oppose the approach of solenoid. Therefore the direction of induced current as observed by

the observer will be clockwise.

11)

Here, E = 6V/m, c = 3 × 108 ms–1

E is along the y-direction and the plane e.m. wave propagate along x-direction. Therefore, B should
be in a direction perpendicular to both x and y-axis. Using vector algebra should be along x-
direction. Since B is along the z-direction.
Thus, magnetic field component B would be 2 × 10–8 T along z-direction.

12) NCERT XII Pg#276

v=

14) 5 V.S.D = 4 MSD

1VSD = MSD

L.C. =1MSD – 1VSD =

 For screw guage LC = = 0.01 mm

16)

Here, the work done by surface tension force is being converted into gravitational potential
energy and heat.
so WFs = Ug + heat
⇒ (2πr) (T) × (h) = mg h/2 + heat {h/2 because of P. E. of com.}

⇒2πT×r×

= + heat

get heat evolved =

17)

VBig = 24 m/sec.

18) Area of cross-section of each column A = π

Tension inz each column =

strain in each column = = =

19) Fg = FCP ⇒

20)

21) The magnetic force near side ad is

The magnetic force on wire ab and cd is equal and opposite. The magnetic field near side bc is
The net force on the loop = F = F2 – F1

=
= B0Il

23) On equitorial position field due to magnet pair cancel each other.

24) Saturation current is proportional to intensity while stopping potential increases with
increase in frequency. Hence A & B same intensity. B & C same frequency. Therefore, the
correct option is (1)

26) Energy required for pair production

+ KE of e– – p+ (pair)
= Energy of g-photon
∴ Eγ = 1.00 MeV + 0.78 = 1.78 MeV

28) Question
In this question we have to find the value of force 'F' so that the block can have an
acceleration of 6m/mc2 towards night.

Given here
mass of block = 5kg
acceleration of block = 6m/s2 (forwards right) Angle at which force acts, θ = 60° (with
horizontal)
horizontal force towards left = 20N

Concept
Newton's second law of motion

Formula
Inet = Ma

visual -Ib - Resolving the force 'F' into its compounds

Calculation
since the acceleration is towards right
(Fnet) along horizontal
⇒ Fcos60° – 20 =5 × 6
⇒ Fcos160° = 30+20

⇒
⇒ F = 100N
(Note: the weight and vertical component of force 'F' gets balanced by normal force N)

Conclusion
Hence, option (4) is correct

29) μ =
∵ μ = cot (A/2)

∴ cot (A/2) =

⇒ cos (A/2) = sin

⇒ 90° – A/2 =
⇒ δm = 180° – 2A

30) For objective lens

⇒ vo = 20 cm

Now M =

31) mass of each disk

m= M
so I = Isqure - 4Ihole

=
 = MR2 – 10 mR2 [∵ ]

32) 1. What is asked

We need to determine the magnitude of angular momentum of a particle moving along the line
y = x + 4 with uniform speed v = about the origin.

2. Concept
Based on the concept of "Angular Momentum of a Particle Moving in a Straight Line"

3. Formula Used
The angular momentum L of a particle about a point is given by:
L = mvd

where:

A. m = mass of the particle

B. v = velocity of the particle
C. d = perpendicular distance of the line of motion from the origin

4. Calculation

We draw line by solving equation

y = n + 4 comparing with
c=4 y = mn + C
m = tanθ = 1
θ = 45º
from ΔABO

d = 4 sin 45º

d=
m = 5unit
L = mvd
=
L = 60 unit
Final Answer is (2) 60 unit.

33)
Nh >> Ne
So, p–type semiconductor

36)

If VP – VN = +ve then diode is F.B.

38)

39)

PV2 = constant
x=2

41)

Slope →

1 × CP = 25

= 3 ⇒ γ = 3γ – 3 ⇒ 2γ = 3 ⇒ γ = 3/2

43) and =
 ⇒

So

44) =

CHEMISTRY

46)

48) It is Gatterman Koch reaction.

49)

50)

in presence of edg rate of ESR is increased.

51)

52) NCERT XII / Part II / Page-393

53)

54)

A→ ,B→

55)

NCERT XII, 11.4.4-b-3, Pg # 331

56)

Reactivity towards SN1 ∝ Stability of carbocation

59)
3-Bromopropene ← Right IUPAC naming

63)

Cr+ has attained stable half filled electronic configuration.

Stability of elements in higher oxidation state increases down the group.
66) Answer - Option(2)
Explanation - To determine which ions are oxidizing agents, we need to look at the standard
reduction potential (E∘ ) values provided for each ion
Concept - The correct answer is 2. only (ii).
A species acts as an oxidizing agent when it readily accepts electrons. This means it itself gets
reduced. A positive standard reduction potential (E∘ ) indicates that the reduction reaction is
favorable.
• V2+: E∘ = -1.18 V. The negative sign indicates that the oxidation of V2 + to V is favored, not the
reduction. V2 + is more likely to act as a reducing agent.
• Mn3 +: E∘ = +1.57 V. The positive sign indicates that the reduction of Mn3+ to Mn2+ is favored.
Mn3+ readily accepts electrons and is a good oxidizing agent.
• Cr2+: E∘ = -0.91 V. The negative sign indicates that the oxidation of Cr2+ to Cr is favored, not
the reduction. Cr2+ is more likely to act as a reducing agent.

72)

as per CFT

74) Metallic character increases down the group and decreases along the period.

75) The alkali metals and their salts impart characteristic colour to oxidizing flame.

79) Product at anode is O2 gas

1F = 1 geq of O2 =

Here charge =
∴ 10–3 F = 5.6 L × 10–3 = 0.056 L O2 = 56 mL

80) For A + B → Products

Rate = PZABe–Ea/RT
ZAB = Collision frequency of reactants, A and B.
e–Ea/RT = Fraction of molecules with energies equal or greater than Ea.

81) Presence of catalyst does not affect enthalpy of reactants and enthalpy of products.

82) SRP ↓ Reducing power ↑

83) Due to presence of lone pair at nitrogen, it acts as Lewis base.

84) This is actually a solution of weak acid HCN with salt NaCl (having spectator ions only).

86) Number of moles of sucrose

 Number of moles of hydrogen atom = 0.075 × 22
Number of atoms of hydrogen = 0.075 × 22 × 6.023 × 1023
= 9.9 × 1023

89)
ΔHreaction = Σ(BE)reactants – Σ(BE)products
= –90=[(BE)N ≡ N + 3(BE)H—H] – [6(BE)N—H]
–90 = x + 3 × 435 – 6 × 390
x = 945 kJ mol–1

90) ΔG = 0,
∴ ΔH – TΔS = 0

BIOLOGY

92)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

93) Option 1: Correct. Mesosomes are invaginations of the plasma membrane in bacteria,
involved in cellular processes like cell respiration.
Option 2: Incorrect. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules, not involved in bearing
photosynthetic pigments.
Option 3: Incorrect. Flagella are involved in locomotion, not in the formation of conjugation
tubes.
Option 4: Incorrect. Capsules protect bacteria and help in avoiding immune responses, not in
locomotion.

94) NCERT (XI) Pg # 19

96)

NCERT XI Pg. # 128

100)

Correct Answer:
3. Provide support
 Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A. Prop roots act as pillar-like structures that support large, spreading trees by anchoring them
to the ground.
B. These roots grow from the branches, penetrate the soil, and help in stabilizing the plant.

109) (A) Tonoplast ➔ The vacuole is surrounded by a single membrane called the
tonoplast.
(B) Higher ion concentration ➔ The vacuole maintains a higher concentration of ions than
the cytoplasm, helping in osmoregulation and storage.

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

113) NCERT XI Pg # 210

114) NCERT-XI Pg#137

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 155, 156

116) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 230

117) Module Pg. # 205

118)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 237

119) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 175, 176, 177

120) NCERT - XI, Pg - 242 fig. 15.4

121) NCERT-XI Pg. # 248, 249

123)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23,24

124)
 NCERT-XIIth, Page 26 (E), 27 (H)

125)

It is the diagrammatic representation of a test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
organisms.

126) The correct answer is: 1. 6 and 4

The ABO blood group system is determined by the presence of A, B, and O alleles. The possible
genotypes are:

A. AA
B. AO
C. BB
D. BO
E. AB
F. OO

The possible phenotypes based on these genotypes are:

A. A (from AA or AO)
B. B (from BB or BO)
C. AB (from AB)
D. O (from OO)

So, there are 6 possible genotypes and 4 possible phenotypes.

127) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

129) NCERT-XIIth Pg# 109, fig.6.10

131) Amensalism is an interaction where one species is harmed (-) and the other is unaffected
(0). This means that one species suffers due to the presence of the other, but the second
species is not positively or negatively impacted by the interaction.
An example of amensalism is when a large tree shades out smaller plants, preventing them
from getting sunlight, which harms the smaller plants but does not affect the tree.

133) NCERT XII Pg.#243

135) NCERT 12th class – pg.no. 223

136) NCERT XI Pg. # 111-112

138)

NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 56, 57

 139)

A. There is three chambered heart in frog and four chambered heart in humans.
B. There is internal fertilisation in humans and external fertilization in frog.
C. RBC are enucleated in humans where RBC in frog are nucleated.
D. Both humans and frog excrete urea (ureotelic) as nitrogenous waste.

140)

NCERT Page No. # 103

141)

NCERT Page No.# 102

142)

NCERT-XI-104

147) NCERT Page 199

148) NCERT Page 204

149) NCERT Page 201

158)

NCERT Page No. # 288