15-04-2025

2701CMD303278240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Position of a particle in a rectangular-co-ordinate system is (3, 2, 5). Then its position vector will
be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

2) A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally m in south-west
direction. The displacement of the person from the origin will be

(1) 10 m along north

(2) 10 m long south
(3) 10 m along west
(4) Zero

3) A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v. The force on the body
is mv2/r and is directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this force in moving the body
over half the circumference of the circle

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

4) A block of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 20N be acted on the
body so that it will acquired a kinetic energy of 40J after moving 4m

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 120°
5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R are placed in contact with each other. The
gravitational attraction between them is proportional to

(1) R2
(2) R-2
(3) R4
(4) R-4

7) Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1 has
crosssectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by
on applying force F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount

(1) F
(2) 4F
(3) 6F
(4) 9F

8) If pressure at half the depth of lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is
the depth of the lake [P0 =105 N/m2]

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 30 m

9) If the pressure and the volume of certain quantity of ideal gas are halved, then its temperature

(1) Is doubled
(2) Becomes one-fourth
(3) Remains constant
(4) Is halved

10) A particle starts S.H.M. from the mean position. Its amplitude is A and time period is T. At the
time when its speed is half of the maximum speed, its displacement y is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A tuning fork makes 256 vibrations per second in air. When the velocity of sound is 330 m/s,
then wavelength of the tone emitted is

(1) 0.56 m
(2) 0.89 m
(3) 1.11 m
(4) 1.29 m

12)

(1) 9 × 103 N
(2) 9 × 10–3 N
(3) 103 N
(4) 9 × 10–2 N

13) The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I = 3t2 + 2t + 5. The charge flowing
through the cross- section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 sec is

(1) 22 C
(2) 20 C
(3) 18 C
(4) 5 C

14) Three electric bulbs of 200 W, 200 W and 400 W are shown in figure The resultant power of the
combination is

(1) 800 W
(2) 400 W
(3) 200 W
(4) 600 W

15)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A magnet of magnetic moment M and pole strength m is divided in two equal parts, then
magnetic moment of each part will be

(1) M
(2) M/2
(3) M/4
(4) 2M

17) In an ac circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100 t) volts, I = 100 sin The
power dissipated in circuit is

(1) 104 watt

(2) 10 watt
(3) 2.5 watt
(4) 5 watt
18) Two vertical plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° with each other. A ray of light
travelling horizontally is reflected first from one mirror and then from the other. The resultant
deviation is

(1) 60°
(2) 150°
(3) 180°
(4) 240°

19) Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R are given charges Q1, Q2, Q3
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3 is

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 : 9
(4) 1 : 8 : 18

20) A point mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of radius R and mass M. at a distance R/2 from
the centre of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is

(1) GMm/R2
(2) -GMm/R2
(3) Zero

(4)

21) The law, governing the force between electric charge is known as

(1) Ampere's law

(2) Ohm's law
(3) Faraday's law
(4) Coulomb's law

22) Under the influence of the Coulomb field of charge +Q, a charge –q is moving around it in an
elliptical orbit. Find out the correct statement(s)

(1) The angular momentum of the charge –q is constant

(2) The linear momentum of the charge –q is constant
(3) The angular velocity of the charge –q is constant
(4) The linear speed of the charge –q is constant

23) Electric field (E) and current density (J) have relation

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A coil of area 80 square cm and 50 turns is rotating with 2000 revolutions per minute about an
axis perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.05 tesla. The maxmum value of the emf developed in it is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume of a gas is 9/7. Then the
number of degrees of freedom of gas molecule is:

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 8

26) Light takes time t1 to travel a distance x1 in air and the same light takes time t2 to travel to
distance x2 in a medium. The critical angle for that medium is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The least count of a vernier callipers is 0.01 cm and its positive zero error is 0.02 cm. While
measuring the length of a rod, the main scale reading is 4.8 cm and sixth division on vernier scale is
in line with a marking on the main scale. Calculate the length of the rod.
(1) 4.80 cm
(2) 4.84 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 4.88 cm

28) For a certain metal incident frequency v is twice of threshold frequency v0 and electron comes
out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 108 cm/sec. If the value of incident frequency is 5 times that of
threshold frequency , then the maximum velocity of the photoelectrons in
cm/sec will be

(1)

(2) 2 × 108
(3) 8 × 108
(4) 20 × 108

29) In the circuit given the current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 10 mA
(2) 6.67 mA
(3) 5 mA
(4) 3.33 mA

30) What is the ratio of wavelength of radiations emitted when one electron in hydrogen atom jump
from fourth orbit to second orbit and from third orbit to second orbit:

(1) 27 : 25
(2) 20 : 27
(3) 20 : 25
(4) 25 : 27

31) A sonometer wire of length 114 cm is fixed at both the ends. Where should the two bridges be
placed so as to divide the wire into three segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio
1:3:4?

(1) 24 cm and 72 cm
(2) 72 cm and 96 cm
(3) 18 cm and 72 cm
(4) 18 cm and 24 cm

32) Two toroids A and B have the total number of turns 3n and n respectively with average radii r
and 3r respectively. If both toroids carries equal amounts of current, then ratio of magnetic field
inside the core of
toroidis:

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

33) In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c voltage source are all connected in series when L is
removed from the circuit the phase difference between the voltage and current is / 3 If instead C is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again / 3 the power factor of the circuit is:

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 1/2

(4)

34) The radii of circular orbits of two satellite A and B of the earth, are 4R and R respectively speed
of satellite A is 3v, then the speed of satellite B will be:

(1) 3v/4
(2) 6v
(3) 12v
(4) 3v/2

35) A projectile is thrown with velocity v making an angle with the horizontal. It just crosses the
top of two poles, each of height H, after 2 sec and 8 sec, respectively. The time of flight is:

(1) 4 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 8 sec

36) Acceleration of Both the blocks will be:

(1) 0.8 m/s2

(2) -0.8 m/s2
(3) 1.2 m/s2
(4) 0 m/s2

37)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The coordinate of the centre of mass of a system as shown in figure:–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work
done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y =1 m is:

(1) 20 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 5 J
(4) 25 J

40) A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface
tension of water is 0.07 Nm-1, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is:

(1) 19.8 mN
(2) 198 N
(3) 1.98 mN
(4) 99 N

41) In the circuit shown below, the current in the 1 resistor is:

(1) 1.3 A. from P to Q

(2) 0.13 A, from Q to P
(3) 0 A
(4) 0.13 A, from P to Q

42) A torch bulb rated 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in fig. The emf of the cell needed to make

the bulb glow at full intensity is:

(1) 4.5 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 2.67 V
(4) 13.5 V

43) A parallel plate capacitor with oil between plates dielectric constant of oil K = 2 has a
capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor becomes

(1)

(2) 2C

(3)

(4) C/2

44) A plano convex lens ( = 1.5) has radius of curvature 10 cm. It is silvered on its plane surface.
Find focal length after silvering:-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 25 cm

45) Two concentric conducting spheres are of radii r1 and r2. The outer sphere is given a charge q.

The charge q’ on the inner sphere will be (inner sphere is grounded) :-

(1) q
(2) -q

(3)

(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion (A):– Potassium dichromate is obtained by treating the solution of sodium dichromate
with
potassium chloride.
Reason (R):– Sodium dichromate is less soluble than potassium dichromate.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

2) Choose the incorrect statements

When rhombic sulphur is heated above 369 K temperature, it transforms into monoclinic
(1)
sulphur
(2) Both rhombic and monoclicnic sulphur are soluble in carbon disulphide.
(3) At 369 K, both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur are stable
(4) In vapour state, S2 exhibits diamagnetism

3) In the following reaction sequence

The product (B) will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Statement–I:– In thin layer chromatogrpahy, amino acids may be detected by spraying the plate
with ninhydrin solution.
Statement–II:– Distillation under reduced pressure is used to purify liquids having very high boiling
points and those, which decompose at or below their boiling points.

(1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct

(2) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are incorrect
(3) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect
(4) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct

5) Match the structures given in List–I with their common names given in List–II.

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

6) Statement–I:– The solution which resist change in pH on dilution or with addition of small amount
of acid or base is called buffer solution.
Statement–II:– A mixture of benzoic acid and sodium benzoate acts as buffer solution.

(1) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–I is correct

(2) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is correct
(3) Both Statement–I and II are correct
(4) Both Statement–I and II are incorrect

7) Kh (hydrolysis constant) of ammonium benzoate can be calculated by the formula:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Statement–I:– Sn2+ is reducing while Pb+4 is oxidising.

Statement–II:– Due to inert pair effect, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV).

(1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct

(2) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are incorrect
(3) Statement–I is correct but Statement–I is incorrect
(4) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct

9) If dipole moment of HCl is 1.0 D and H–Cl bond length is 125 pm then percentage ionic character
in HCl will be (Given : 1 D = 3.33 × 10–30 C m)

(1) 32.25%
(2) 16.65%
(3) 22.75%
(4) 42.21%

10) The correct order of bond strength among the species is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Statement–I:– The commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by mixing in it some copper
sulphate and pyridine.
Statement–II:– Methanol is more acidic than water

(1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct

(2) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are incorrect
(3) Statement–I is correct but Statement–I is incorrect
(4) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct

12) Consider the following reaction:

Major product (A) and (B) are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Assertion (A):– Boiling point of ethanol is higher than methoxymethane and propane.
Reason (R):– Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in alcohols which lacks in ethers and
hydrocarbons.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

14) Match List–I with List–II

(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv

(2) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv

15) When H2S is passed through an ammoniacal salt solution (Z), a white precipitate is obtained.
The (Z) can be a

(1) Nickel salt

(2) Cobalt salt
(3) Zinc salt
(4) Manganese salt

16) Consider the following statements.

(a) Lyophobic sol can be prepared by mixing dispersed phase and dispersion medium together.
(b) Lyophobic sols are irreversible sols.
(c) Lyophobic sols are stabilised by charge on colloidal particles.
The correct statements are

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

17) A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10–2sec–1. How much time will it take for 20g
of the reactant to reduce to 5g?

(1) 693.0 sec

(2) 238.6 sec
(3) 138.6 sec
(4) 346.5 sec

18) For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as

The progress of the reaction can be best described by

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All are correct

19) Assertion (A):– Addition of an inert gas at constant pressure to the following reaction at
equilibrium

favors the reaction in forward direction.

Reason (R):– Addition of an inert gas at constant pressure to gaseous equilibrium does not alter its
equilibrium state.

(1) Assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason are false statements

20)

(1) If both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

21) Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Werner’s theory?

(1) Primary valency is the same thing as oxidation state

(2) Secondary valency is the same thing as coordination number
(3) Secondary valencies are satisfied by negative ions only
(4) Secondary valencies are directional whereas primary valencies are non-directional

22) V2O5 reacts with alkalies as well as acids to give

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Composition of mischmetal is

(1) 5% of a lanthanoid metal, 95% of iron and traces of S, C, Ca and Al

(2) 95% of an actinoid metal, 5% of iron and traces of S, C, Ca and Al
(3) 95% of a lanthanoid metal, 5% of iron and traces of S, C, Ca and Al
(4) 95% of a transition metal, 5% of iron and traces of S, C, Ca and Al

24) A cell is set up as shown in the figure. It is observed that EMF of the cell comes out to be 2.36 V.
Which of the given statements is not correct about the cell?

(1) Reduction takes place at magnesium electrode and oxidation at SHE.

(2) Oxidation takes place at magnesium electrode and reduction at SHE
(3) Standard,electrode potential for Mg2+/Mg will be –2.36 V.
(4) Electrons flow from magnesium electrode to hydrogen electrode.

25) Which of the following is/are function(s) of salt - bridge ?

It completes the electrical circuit with electrons flowing from one electrode to the other through
(1)
internal circuit and a flow of ions between the two compartments through external circuit
It completes the electrical circuit with electrons flowing from one electrode to the other through
(2)
external wires and a flow of ions between the two compartments through salt - bridge
(3) It minimises the liquid - liquid junction potential
(4) Both (2) and (3)

26) The decreasing order of basicity of following aniline derivatives is

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) S > R > Q > P
(4) R > S > Q > P

27) One mole of N2H4 loses 10 mole of electrons of form a new compound y: Assuming that all the
nitrogen appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of N in y? (There is no change in
the oxidation state of H.)

(1) -1
(2) -3
(3) +3
(4) +5

28)
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively

(1) Oxidizing in (I) and reducing in (II)

(2) Reducing in (I) and oxidizing in (II)
(3) Reducing in (I) and (II)
(4) Oxidizing in (I) and (II)

29) Vapour pressure of a solution of heptane and octane is given by the equation :
psol (mm Hg) = 32 + 63 x
where x is the mole fraction of heptane. Vapour pressure of pure heptane will be

(1) 32 mm Hg
(2) 95 mm Hg
(3) 47.5 mm Hg
(4) 63 mm Hg

30) The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0×105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298
K and 5 atm pressure is :

(1) 4.0 × 10-4

(2) 4.0 × 10-5
(3) 5.0 × 10-4
(4) 4.0 × 10-6

31) Which one of following groups includes all extensive properties ?

(1) volume, energy, entropy

(2) energy, pressure, volume
(3) pressure, b.pt., density
(4) mass, volume, pressure

32) The heat of ionisation of a weak acid (HX) is 3 kJ/mol, and the heat of neutralisation of HCl by
NaOH is -57 kJ equiv–1, the heat of neutralisation of HX by NaOH would be

(1) -60 kJ
(2) -19 kJ
(3) -54 kJ
(4) None of these

33) Atomic mass of an element is not necessarily a whole number because

(1) It contains electrons, protons, and neutrons

(2) It exists in allotropic forms
(3) It contains isotopes
(4) Atoms are no longer indivisible

34)

(1) i)–b, ii)–d, iii)–a, iv)–c

(2) i)–a, ii)–b, iii)–c, iv)–d
(3) i)–d, ii)–c, iii)–b, iv)–a
(4) i)–c, ii)–d, iii)–a, iv)–b

35) The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step
as shown below:

This is because:

(1) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom

(2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(3) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
(4) Oxygen is more electronegative

36) The I1, I2, I3, I4 values of an element “M” are 120 kJ/mole, 600 kJ/mole, 1000 kJ/mole and 8000
kJ/mole. Then the formula of its sulphate is
(1) MSO4
(2) M2(SO4)3
(3) M2SO4
(4) M3(SO4)2

37) In the conversion of starch to ethyl alcohol, the following enzymes are used

(1) Invertase, Zymase, Emulsin

(2) Maltase, Zymase, Emulsin
(3) Diastase, Maltase, Zymase
(4) Invertase, Diastase, Zymase.

38) Propanone on reaction with alkyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis will produce

(1) Primary alcohol

(2) Secondary alcohol
(3) Tertiary-alcohol
(4) Carboxylic acid

39) Dehydration of the following in increasing order is

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) II < III < IV < I
(3) I < III < IV < II
(4) None of these.

40) Assertion : Aromatic aldehydes and ketones undergo electrophilic substitution reaction at meta-
position.
Reason : Carbonyl group activates the ring towards electrophilic substitution reactions.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

41) Identify Z in the following reaction sequence

(1) CH3COOH
(2) CH3MgI
(3) CH3COCl
(4) ClCH2COOH.

42)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Geometrical isomers
(3) Epimers
(4) Anomers.

43) Assertion : Maltose is a reducing sugar while sucrose is not.

Reason : Maltose has a hemiacetal linkage while no such linkage is there in sucrose.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

44) Which of the following molecules is expected to have the greatest resonance stabilization?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Which among the following pairs shows –R effect?

(1) –OH and –OCH3

(2) –NH2 and NHCH3
(3) –COOH and –CN
(4) –NHCOCH3 and –NO2

BIOLOGY

1) A higher category with assemblage of sweet potato and potato family and exhibiting a few similar
characters; is equivalent to

(1) Canidae
(2) Muscidae
(3) Primata
(4) Insecta

2) Select the kingdom(s) which having both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Animalia

3) Study the given pidigree chart of a family for a particular trait in which the shaded ones represent
the trait.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the chart ?
I. The trait may be autosomal recessive
II. Trait may be XR
III. The individual represented by F1(IV) can be homozygous for that particular allele which is
responsible for the trait
IV. The trait under study cannot be X-linked dominant

(1) All I, II, III and IV

(2) I and IV only
(3) IV only
(4) I, II and IV only

4) Artificial system of classification was not acceptable

because

(1) It was based on vegetative characters only

(2) It was based on natural affinities among the organisms
(3) It gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics

(4) It considered reproductive characters only

5) Select the incorrect statement about eukaryoti mRNA/ post-transcriptional modification

(1) It has 5 ' UTR and 3 ' UTR

(2) 3 ' tailing takes place in nucleus
(3) 5 ' cap helps in efficient translation
(4) Splicing helps in removing of exons and joining of introns

6) Inflorescence with basipetal arrangement of flowers is characteristics of _______ family which is

also characterised by ______.

(1) Mustard, parietal placentation

(2) Pea, vexillary aestivation
(3) Brinjal, epipetalous stamens
(4) Petunia, zygomorphic flowers

7) Assertion (A): DNA is genetic material.

Reason (R): The unit of inheritance are genes.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

8) Fruit of mango

(1) Is simple and fleshy developed from inferior ovary

(2) Is aggregate and fleshy that developed from inferior ovary
Is simple and fleshy that developed from monocarpellary
(3)
superior ovary
(4) Is drupe with outer hard and stony pericarp

9) Consider the given statements

A – The ground tissue system mainly consists of complex tissue
B – In dicot root, the limiting layer of stele has thick walled parenchymatous cells
C – Vascular bundles are found scattered in the monocot stem

(1) All are correct

(2) A and C are correct
(3) Only A is incorrect
(4) Only C is incorrect

10) Select the incorrect match

Column–I Column–II
(1)
Lysosome Active at basic pH
(2) Ribosome No membrane bound
(3) Mitochondria Contains double stranded DNA
(4) Golgi apparatus Packaging materials

11) Movement of chromosomes to spindle equator happens in a particular phase of mitosis. Which of
the following phase comes before this phase?

(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase
(3) Anaphase–I
(4) Prophase

12) In which of the following stage of meiosis, bivalent chromosomes first time clearly appears as
tetrads?

(1) Zygotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

13) According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, during photosynthesis, the protons move from _____ to
synthesize ATP

(1) Matrix to intermembrane space

(2) Stroma to intermembrane space
(3) Lumen to stroma
(4) Lumen to intermembrane space of chloroplast membranes
14) Find odd one out w.r.t. quantitative inheritance

(1) Eye colour in Drosophila

(2) Human height
(3) Human skin colour
(4) None of these

15) Sickle cell anaemia is

(1) Sex linked recessive

(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) Autosomal dominant
(4) Sex linked dominant

16) Read the following statements and select the correct

ones.
a. Dinucleotide are linked by 5 ' – 3 ' phosphoester linkage
b. The base pairing confers stability of DNA helix
c. A typical nucleosome has 200 bp of DNA helix
d. The replication is conservative process

(1) a, b & c
(2) b & c
(3) a & d
(4) Only a & b

17) Constitutive gene of lac operon is

(1) i-gene
(2) z-gene
(3) Promotor
(4) Operator

18) Development of zygote depends on the life cycle of

an organism. Zygote undergoes mitosis in
A. Most of algae
B. Bryophytes
C. Angiosperms

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both B and C are correct
(4) Both A and C are correct
19)

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) B and C

20) Select the incorrect match

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In a plant if egg has 10 chromosomes then what will be the number of chromosomes in the cells
of root of that plant?

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 40

22) If sewage water is more polluted then

(1) BOD of water is less

(2) Organic matter of water is more
(3) Only autotrophic bacteria are present in water
(4) DO (Dissolved Oxygen) of water is more

23) A biological control being developed for use in the treatment of several plant diseases is

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis

(2) Baculoviruses
(3) Penicillium
(4) Trichoderma
24) The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating examples of mutualism are found in

(1) Plant-Plant relationship

(2) Fungi-fungi relationship
(3) Plant-animal relationship
(4) Animal-animal relationship

25) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with
simultaneous synthesis of

(1) ATP
(2) GTP
(3) NADH
(4) FADH2

26) Awareness of the surroundings and responding to external stimuli by prokaryotic organisms is
called

(1) Consciousness
(2) Unconsciousness
(3) Self consciousness
(4) Sensitivity

27) Enzymatic breakdown of the stored starch to simple sugars during seed germination is promoted
by

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Ethylene

28) Assertion (A) : Plasmids are double stranded extra chromosomal DNA
Reason (R) : Plasmids are possesed by eukaryotic cells only

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

29) The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription, in which only one DNA strand is transcribed. Both the strands do not act as template
because of all, except

(1) They would code for two different protein

(2) Two RNA molecules produced will be complementary to each other
(3) Double stranded RNA can be formed
 This would simplify the genetic information transfer
(4)
machinery

30) Felidae represents group of related

(1) Families
(2) Genera
(3) Orders
(4) Classes

31) 10% law is not applicable for

(1) Producer  Herbivore  Parasite

(2) Phytoplankton  Zooplankton  Fish
(3) Detritus  Producer  Predator
(4) Producer  Herbivore  Carnivore

32) According to HGP, Y-chromosome in human beings has least number of genes, the value is

(1) 2968
(2) 14
(3) 231
(4) 4000

33)

Total number of reduced coenzymes produced in mitochondrial matrix from one glucose is

(1) 4 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2

(2) 8 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2
(3) 10 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2
(4) 5 NADH + H+ & 1 FADH2

34) How many of the given below features are associated with racemose inflorescence?
a. Flowers arise laterally
b. Unlimited growth of main axis
c. Formation of flowers is unrestricted
d. Arrangement of flowers is basipetal

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

35) Vascular cambium in dicot roots is

(1) Is partly primary and partly secondary in origin

(2) Formed by cell of pericycle and cells of conjuctive tissue
(3) Absent, as roots do not grow secondarily
(4) Formed by intrafascicular cambium

36) Quasi-fluid nature of the biomembranes is shown by

features/phenomenon like
(a) Repair
(b) Growth
(c) Secretion

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) only
(4) All (a), (b), (c)

37) All of the following phenomenon may occur twice in meiosis, except

(1) Spindle formation

(2) Chromosome decondensation
(3) DNA duplication
(4) Centriole duplication

38) Citrus seeds have

(1) Apomictic embryo

(2) Only single embryo
(3) Zygotic embryo
(4) Both (1) and (3)

39) Choose the incorrect statement regarding F2 generation of Mendelian dibybrid cross.

(1) Phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) Parental phenotypic ratio is 9 : 1
(3) Recombinant phenotypic ratio is 3 : 3
(4) Frequency of plants with one dominant allele is 100%

40) How many phenotypic categories are produced in F2 generation for a character which is
controlled by two polygenes?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

41) Curd formation is done by

(1) Leuconostoc
(2) Streptococcus
(3) Yeast
(4) Lactobacillus

42) Which condition promotes the rate of decomposition by microbes?

(1) Acidic pH
(2) Temperature less than 10°C
(3) Reduced aeration
(4) Nitrogen rich detritus

43) Post transcriptional modifications includes all, except

(1) Addition of 7mG cap

(2) Addition of poly A sequence
(3) Splicing of introns
(4) Addition of UTRs in m-RNA

44) Chemical used to prevent rejection reactions in organ transplant is

(1) Streptokinase
(2) Cyclosporin A
(3) Statins
(4) Tissue plasminogen activator

45) Find out the correct statement

(1) In dicots stem, vascular bundles are closed

(2) Dicot root is polyarch with small or no pith
(3) In dicot stem, water cavity is absent
(4) In dicot leaf, vascular bundles are collateral conjoint and open

46) Type of respiration used by most of the aquatic arthropods and molluscs

(1) Cutaneous
(2) body surface
(3) Lungs
(4) branchial

47) Which formed elements reduction in their number can lead to group of clotting disorders

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Leucocytes
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Lymphocytes
48) Which of the following is true for Adhering junction?

(1) Facilitate the cells to communicate

(2) Provide support to basement membrane
(3) Stop leaking substance across the tissue
(4) Cementing to keep neighbouring cells together

49)

(1) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-v, 4-iv

(2) 1-iv, 2-v, 3-iii, 4-ii
(3) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-v
(4) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii

50) The extraction of DNA from a gel piece is known as

(1) Spooling
(2) Elution
(3) PAGE
(4) Annealing

51) Which of the following statements about ovaries is not true?

(1) Ovaries are responsible for the production of several steroid hormones.
(2) Each ovary is about 4 to 6 cm in length
(3) Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall.
(4) Ovaries are primary female sex organ

52) Same structure develope along different direction due to different adaptations needs are called
as :

(1) Vestigial structure

(2) Atavism
(3) Homoplastic organs
(4) Homologous structure

53) A portion of human respiratory system which is common passage for food and air?
(1) Pharynx
(2) Alveoli
(3) Lung
(4) Heart

54) _____ integrates information received from the semicircular canals of the ear

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons

55) What is the osmolarity (in mosmol L–1) in the cortex and inner medulla region?

(1) 300 and 600 respectively

(2) 600 and 300 respectively
(3) 1200 and 300 respectively
(4) 300 and 1200 respectively

56) Variety of beaks of finches that Darwin found in Galapagos Islands is an example of

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Analogous organ

57)

(1) i - M; ii - P; iii - N; iv - O
(2) i - P; ii - M; iii - N; iv - O
(3) i - N; ii - P; iii - O; iv - M
(4) i - P; ii - O; iii - N; iv - M

58) Assertion : Oxytocin is called 'birth hormone'.

Reason : In female it stimulates a vigorous contraction of skeletal muscle of uterus at the time of
child birth.
 Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

59)

(1) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

(2) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

60) What would occur to the rate of enzyme-controlled reaction for every 10°C rise in temperature

(1) The rate doubles

(2) Decrease by half
(3) No effect
(4) First increases then decreases

61)
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
(2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

62) Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called ________

(1) Medical transformation of pregnancy

(2) Median terminal pregnancy
(3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(4) None of these

63)

(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

(2) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(4) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

64) Origin of universe could be explained by

(1) Big bang theory

(2) Theory of chemical evolution
(3) Panspermia theory
(4) Special creation theory

65) Inactive Bt toxin is converted into an active form of toxin at

(1) Acidic pH
(2) Alkaline pH
(3) Neutral pH
(4) None of these

66) This process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Natural selection
(3) Founder effect
(4) None of these

67) Which of the following enzyme is used in PCR?

(1) Endonuclease
(2) Ligase
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Peptidase

68) The correct match is -

(1) I - A; II - B, F; III - C, D, E
(2) I - A; II - E, F; III - B, C, D
(3) I - B; II - E, F; III - A, C, D
(4) I - B; II - A, F; III - C, D, E

69) Use of bioresources by multinational companies without proper authorization from the countries
or people concerned without compensatory payment is termed as

(1) Biopiracy
(2) Biowar
(3) Bioweapon
(4) Biotech

70)
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(4) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

71) Closure of semilunar valve is due to

(1) Decrease in ventricular pressure

(2) Decrease in atrial pressure
(3) Increase in ventricular pressure
(4) Increase in atrial pressure

72) Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thruingiensis does not kill the producer because the toxin is

(1) Inactive protoxin form

(2) Rapidly secreted outside
(3) Inactivated by an antitoxin
(4) None of the above

73) Which of the following statement is incorrect about sea walnut (ctenophora)

(1) They are diploblastic animals

(2) They exhibit tissue level organization
(3) They undergo indirect development
(4) Fertilization is internal

74)

(1) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

75) In which diseased condition the lips and finger nails may turn grey to bluish in colour
(1) Malaria
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Filariasis

76) A flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax is

(1) Rib
(2) Sternum
(3) Scapula
(4) Clavicle

77) Which of the following structure is haploid?

(1) Spermatozoa
(2) Spermatogonium
(3) Primary oocyte
(4) Primary spermatocyte

78) Match the column

(1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

79) QRS complex indicates

(1) Ventricular depolarization

(2) Atrial depolarization
(3) Ventricular repolarization
(4) Atrial repolarization

80) Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder.

Reason : One of the major causes of emphysema is Tobacco chewing.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
(2) Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

81)

(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

(2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
(3) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
(4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

82) Match the following

(1) 1-e, 2-f, 3-c, 4-b

(2) 1-e, 2-f, 3-a, 4-d
(3) 1-e, 2-f, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-f, 2-e, 3-b, 4-a

83) The zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) could be transferred into the fallopian
tube is referred as

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) AI
(4) Intra-uterine insemination

84) Pars intermdia secrete

(1) GH
(2) ACTH
(3) FSH
(4) MSH

85) Which structure arise from testes and opens to bidder’s canal?

(1) Sperm
(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Oviduct
(4) Cloaca

86) Micturation process is initiated by _______.

(1) Stretching of urinary bladder

(2) Stretching of ureter
(3) Sensory signal from cerebellum
(4) Motor signal from cerebellum

87) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue“ and blood and
bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of

(1) Leucopenia
(2) Leucoplakia
(3) Leukemia
(4) Leukorrhea

88) Age-related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures
is

(1) Gout
(2) Osteoporosis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Diabetes insipidus

89) Which gland is called master gland?

(1) Pituitary
(2) Thumus
(3) Thyroid
(4) Adrenal
90) A functional ADA cDNA is produced by using ____ vector.

(1) Ti plasmid
(2) A. tumefaciens
(3) Reteroviral
(4) E.coli
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 2 4 1 2 3 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 3 2 1 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY