17-04-2025

2701CMD303281240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass and radius are released simultaneously from the
top of an inclined plane. Which one will reach first?

(1) Solid sphere

(2) Hollow sphere
(3) Both at the same time
(4) Depends on friction

2) The variation of acceleration (a) and displacement (x) of the particle executing SHM is indicated
by the following curve :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3) A gas expands from 2 L to 5 L at constant pressure of 3 atm. The work done by the gas is:

(1) 300 J
(2) 456 J
(3) 900 J
(4) 1000 J

4) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms a real image at 40 cm. The object distance is:

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

5) The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300%. The velocity increases by:

(1) 2 times
(2) 3 times
(3) 4 times
(4) 5 times

6) A wire has resistance 10 . If it is stretched to double its original length, its new

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 80
(4) 160

7) The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of conservation of:

(1) Mass
(2) Energy
(3) Momentum
(4) Charge

8)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. To keep the resonance frequency
unchanged, the new inductance should be:

(1) Increased by 2 L
(2) Reduced by L
(3) Reduced by 3/4 L
(4) Increased to 4 L

10) Assertion : Two metallic spheres are charged to the same potential. One of them is hollow and
another is solid, and both have the same radii. solid sphere will have lower charge than the hollow
one.
Reason : Capacitance of metallic spheres depend on the radii of spheres

(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason false

11) Ratio of radius of gyration of a hollow sphere to that of a solid cylinder of equal mass, for
moment of Inertia about their axis AB as shown in figure is . The value of x is

(1) 34
(2) 51
(3) 67
(4) 17

12) The centre of mass of a body :-

(1) Lies always outside the body

(2) May lie within, outside of the surface of the body
(3) Lies always inside the body
(4) Lies always on the surface of the body
13)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which of the following circuits is reverse - biased?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Statement (I) : Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids.

Statement (II) : Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble impurities.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

16) wire of length 'L' and radius 'r' is clamped rigidly at one end. When the other end of the wire is
pulled by a force f, its length increases by 'I'. Another wire of same material of length '2L' and radius
'2r' is pulled by a force '2f'. Then the increase in its length will be:

(1) 2I
(2) 4I
(3) I
(4) I/2

17) In the given circuit, the current (I) through the battery will be:

(1) 1A
(2) 2.5A
(3) 2A
(4) 1.5A

18) The position vector of a particle related to time t is given by:

The direction of net force experienced by the particle is:

(1) Positive x-axis

(2) Positive y-axis
(3) Positive z-axis
(4) In x-y plane

19) A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic process. The total work done in the process is:

(1) 100 J
(2) Zero
(3) 300 J
(4) 200 J

20) A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the ratio 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture
is 30o C. The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases (Kargon/Khydrogen) is:
(Given: Atomic Weight of Ar = 39.9)

(1) 39.9/2
(2) 2
(3) 39.9
(4) 5:3

21) A block of mass 5 kg is suspended with two strings, as shown in figure. Find the tension in each

sting, if the system is in equilibrium. (Take, g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Choose the only false statement from the following

(1) In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap

(2) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators
(3) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature
(4) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature

23) A metal ball does not rebound when struck on a wall, whereas a rubber ball of same mass when
thrown withthe same velocity on the wall rebounds. From this it is inferred that

(1) Change in momentum is same in both

(2) Change in momentum in rubber ball is more
(3) Change in momentum in metal ball is more
(4) Initial momentum of metal ball is more than that of rubber ball

24) According to Newton’s third law of motion, the action and reaction forces

(1) Must act on the same body

(2) Must act on the different bodies
(3) Must be unequal in magnitude
(4) Must be equal in magnitude and act in the same direction

25) All components of the electromagnetic spectrum in vacuum have the same

(1) Energy
(2) Speed
(3) Wavelength
(4) Frequency

26) In a vernier calliper, one main scale division is 1 mm and 20 division of the vernier scale coincide
with 18 division of the main scale. The least count of the calliper is

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.2 mm

27) The moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and radius R about PQ axis will be :-

(1) MR2
(2) MR2/2
(3) 3/2MR2
(4) 2MR2

28) Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is
(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

29) A point mass m is placed at the centre of the square ABCD of side a units as shown below. The
resultant gravitational force on mass m due to masses m1 and m2 placed on the vertices of square is

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

30) Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface is 10 ms–2 and at the surface of
mars, it is 4.0 ms–2. A 60 kg passenger goes from th earth to the mars in a spaceship moving with a
constant velocity. Neglect all other objects in the sky. Which curve best represents the weight (net

gravitational force) of the passenger as a function of time?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

31) A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal
diameter at 2 rad s–1. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 ×10–5 T and
electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 , then the maximum induced current in the coil will be:

(1) 1.5 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 0.25 A

32) As the temperature of water increases, its viscosity

(1) Remains unchanged

(2) Decreases
(3) Increases
(4) Increases or decreases depending on the external pressure

33) If the mass and diameter of a planet are twice that of earth, then the time period of oscillation of
seconds pendulum on this plane will be

(1)

(2)

(3) 1 s
(4) 2 s

34) If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given

by

(1) 200

(2) 50

(3) 100
(4) 400

35) A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volts is connected across R and C as shown in figure below. The
voltage across R is 12 volts. The voltage across C is:

(1) 8V
(2) 16V
(3) 10V
(4) Not possible to determine unless values of R and C are given

36) The length and breadth of a rectangle are (5.5 0.1)cm and (2.5 0.1)cm respectively.
Calculate area of the rectangle with error limit.

(1) (13 0.8)cm2

(2) (14 0.8)cm2
(3) (13 0.6)cm2
(4) (14 0.1)cm2

37) The equation of motion of a projectile is: Given that g = 10 ms–2, what is the
range of the projectile?

(1) 18 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 20 m

38) A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As result,
the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of the electrons is doubled, the
radius of the circular path will be :-

(1) 2.0 cm
(2) 0.5 cm
(3) 4.0 cm
(4) 1.0 cm

39) Light of wavelength 4000 Å falls on a photosensitive metal and a negative 2V potential stops the
emitted electrons. The work function of the material (in eV) is approximately:

(1) 1.1
(2) 2.0
(3) 2.2
(4) 3.1
40) Starting from the origin, a body oscillates simple harmonically with a period of 2 s. After what
time will its kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy?

(1) 1/4 s
(2) 1/3 s
(3) 1/12 s
(4) 1/6

41) A container is filled with water ( 4 / 3) upto height 1m. find out diameter of disc at top of

water surface from light is coming out.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is 8 and the distance between the two lenses
is 54 cm. The focal length of eye lens and objective lens will be respectively.

(1) 6 cm and 48 cm
(2) 48 cm and 6 cm
(3) 8 cm and 64 cm
(4) 64 cm and 8 cm

43) When a current of 4 A flows within a battery from its positive to negative terminal, the potential
difference across the battery is 12 volts. The potential difference across the battery is 9 volts when a
current of 2 A flows within it from its negative to its positive terminal. The internal resistance and
the e.m.f. of the battery are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44) A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a temperature T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of

mass 100 gm, filled with 170 gm of water at room temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of
the system is found to be 75°C. T is given by: [Given : room temperature = 30°C, specific heat of
copper = 0.1 cal/gm°C]

(1) 825°C
(2) 800°C
(3) 885°C
(4) 1250°C

45) Three identical rods, each of length L, are joined to form a rigid equilateral triangle. Its radius of
gyration about an axis passing through a corner and perpendicular to the plane of triangle is :-

(1) L/2

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion (A) : Basicity of orthoboric acid in aqueous medium is one.

Reson (R) : It has one replaceable hydrogen.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
2)

(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii

(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(3) A–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
(4) A–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv

3) Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Assertion (A) : The C–X bond cleavage in haloarenes is difficult than haloalkanes, (where ‘X’ is
halogen)
Reason (R) : In haloarenes, the C–X bond acquires a partial double bond character due to resonance.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

5) A mixture of an alkyl halide and aryl halide gives an alkylarene when treated with sodium in dry
ether, this reaction is called

(1) Fitting reaction

(2) Wurtz reaction
(3) Wurtz-Fitting reaction
(4) Finkelstein reaction

6) Statement I : Products predominate over reactants for the reaction of H2 with O2 at 500 K with KC
= 2.4 × 1047.
Statement II : Equilibrium mixture contains appreciable concentration of both reactants and
products which has KC = 4.8 × 10–31

(1) Both statement I and statement Ii are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is inorrect but statement II is correct

7) Consider the following statements.

a. L actose i s composed of β -D-galactose and
β -D-glucose
b. Amylose is water soluble component of starch
c. Lactose does not reduce Tolen’s reagent
The correct statements are

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c

8) Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is

(1) +4
(2) +6
(3) +2
(4) +10

9) From the given compounds identify the number of molecules having permanent dipole moment at
room temperature. [XeF2, NH3, NF3, CO2, H2O]

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) 1 M substance decomposes by zero order kinetics with rate constant of 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 then half
life of reaction will be

(1) 10 s
(2) 50 s
(3) 69.3 s
(4) 6.93 s

11) Coordination entity that absorbs lowest wavelength of light in the visible region is

2+
(1) [Ni(H2O)6]
 4–
(2) [Ni(NO2)6]
2+
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Ni(CN)6]

12) Assertion (A) : Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason (R) : Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by
phthalimide.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

13) A single compound of the structure

is obtained from ozonolysis of

which of the following compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14)

(1) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii

(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i

15) Assertion (A) : A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal proportions will have zero optical
rotation.
Reason (R) : In 100% racemic mixture, the rotation du to one isomer will be cancelled by the rotation
due to other isomer

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

16) KMnO4 gets decomposed at 513 K to form

(1) MnO2 and KO2 only

(2) K2MnO4 and Mn only
(3) K2MnO4, MnO2 and O2 only
(4) K2MnO4 and O2 only

17) The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are int he ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 and the f ΔH for XY is
300 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of Y2 is

(1) 200 kJ mol–1

(2) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 300 kJ mol–1
(4) 350 kJ mol–1

18) Which among the following is the structure of lactose?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The quantity of electricity required to convert 0.02 mol of 4 MnO-4 into Mn2+ is [1F = 96500 C]

(1) 4825 C
(2) 19300 C
(3) 2412.5 C
(4) 9650 C

20) For redox reaction

What are coefficient a,b and c respectively ?

(1) 4, 2, 1
(2) 2, 4, 1
(3) 3, 2, 2
(4) 1, 2, 4

21) Which of the following set of oxides contain only amphoteric oxides ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) XeF4 is square planer and sp3d2 hybrid

3 2
(2) PCl5 doesn’t show sp d hybridisation in solid state
(3) Bond length order C–C > C=C > C C
 Dipole moment order
(4)
CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl

23) can be correct order of

(1) Reducing power

(2) Oxidising power
(3) Basic nature
(4) All of the above

24)
In the above reactions product A and product B respectively are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In which of the following lone pair of electron is delocalised ?

(A) Pyridine
(B) Aniline
(C) Pyrole
(D) Benzyl amine

(1) (A), (B)

(2) (B), (C)
(3) (B), (C), (D)
(4) (C), (D)

26)
Identify product B in above reaction sequence
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which of the following is least reactive towards hydrolysis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (molecular weight 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of
density1.12g/ml. The molarityof thesolutionis :-

(1) 2 M
(2) 2.50 M
(3) 4.00 M
(4) 1.00M

29)

(1) X = Ni, Y = Fe
(2) X = Ni, Y = Zn
(3) X = Fe, Y = Zn
(4) X = Zn, Y = Ni

30) Intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in :-

(1) p-nitrophenol
(2) o-nitrophenol
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) H2O2

31) On heating Ln (Lanthanoid) with carbon produced compound(s) is/are :-

(1) LnC2
(2) Ln2C3
(3) Ln3C
(4) All of these

32) Cinnamaldehyde can be obtained by Aldol condensation of :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) The stability of +2 oxidation state among Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increase in the sequence

(1) Pb < Sn < Ge < Si

(2) Sn < Pb < Ge < Si
(3) Ge < Sn < Si < Pb
(4) Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
34) Number of possible isomer for the complex [Co(NH3)3Cl3] will be -

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

35) Which of the following compound on reaction with conc. HNO3+ conc. H2SO4 give sufficient
amount of meta product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36)
Product in the above reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Following graph is shown by :-

(1) KCl
(2) CH3COONa
(3) HCl
(4) HNO2

38) In Maxwell and Boltzmann energy distribution curve :

Area ABCD shows :-

(1) e-Ea/RT
(2) Fraction of molecules having sufficient energy for reaction
(3) k/A (Here A = Arrhenius constant, k = rate constant)
(4) All of above

39) Which of the following pair can form acidic buffer solution

(1) HNO3 and CH3COOH

(2) KOH and CH3COONa
(3) HNO3 and CH3COONa
(4) NaOH and NH4OH

40) Heat of neutralization of HNO3 by NaOH is –13.7 Kcal. If heat of neutralization of HNO2 by
NaOH is –11 Kcal then calculate the energy of dissociation of HNO2?

(1) 2.7 KJ
(2) 11.34 KJ
(3) 0.642 KJ
(4) 24.7 KJ
41)

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) If the A and R both are false

42)

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) If the A and R both are false

43) Among the following select covalent solid :-

(a) Ice
(b) Iron
(c) Diamond
(d) SiO2 (quartz)

(1) a, b and c
(2) c and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) Only 'a'

44)

(1) Co
(2) Ni
(3) Cu
(4) Zn

45) Which among the following can act as acid and base both?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following factor does not affect the rate of photosynthesis directly?

(1) Temperature
(2) Light
(3) Water
(4) Carbon dioxide

2) Which of the following features, cannot be regarded as defining feature of life forms?

(1) Consciousness
(2) Reproduction
(3) Metabolism
(4) Cellular organisation

3) Which of the following shows isogamy?

P. Spirogyra
Q. Pinus
R. Porphyra
S. Solanum

(1) Both P & R

(2) P, Q & R
(3) Only P
(4) All; P, Q, R & S

4) Mature sieve element differ from xylem vessels in:

(1) Possessing nucleus

(2) Providing mechanical strength
(3) Being multicellular
(4) Possesses a peripheral cytoplasm

5) In a majority of flowering plants:

(1) Pollen tube enters in female gametophyte through germ pore

(2) Generative cell divides meiotically
(3) All nuclei in mature embryo sac are genetically similar
(4) PEN undergoes successive meiotic divisions to give rise to free nuclei
6) Phenotype of an individual is reflected by the contribution of each allele, i.e., the effect of each
allele is additive in/for:

(1) Flower colour in sweet pea

(2) Cotyledon colour in pea
(3) Skin colour in humans
(4) Plant height in garden pea

7) Sporophyte is multicellular but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives

nourishment from it in the life cycle of

(1) Ficus, Sphagnum

(2) Marchantia
(3) Ulothrix, Funaria
(4) Spirogyra, Marchantia

8) Which of the following microbe can be used in rice fields to replenish soil nutrients and to reduce
dependence on chemical fertilisers?

(1) Glomus
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Oscillatoria
(4) Trichoderma

9) If you are given a piece of young stem of a plant from your school garden, after microscopy of T.S.
which of the following anatomical character would you as certain whether it is a monocot stem or a
dicot stem?

(1) Polyarch xylem

(2) Type of vascular bundles
(3) Endarch xylem
(4) Secondary permanent tissue

10) The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions
because

(1) They does not need water for the syngamy of motile female and male gametes
(2) Prothallus requires cool, damp and shady places to grow and need water for fertilization
(3) They are frequently grown as ornamentals
(4) More than one option is correct

11) Which of the following Mendelian disorder is a quantitative problem of synthesising few -globin
molecules?
(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Phenylketonuria

(1) (a) & (c)

(2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) Only (c)
(4) (a), (c) & (d)

12) Thermoacidophilic archaebacteria may survive in hot springs as they possess

(1) Cellulosic cell wall

(2) Characteristic cell wall
(3) Lipoproteinous plasma membrane
(4) Mucilaginous sheath

13) Pinus plant differs from Eucalyptus in

(1) Having non - integumented megasproangiun

(2) Absence of ovary wall
(3) Presence of non-motile male gametophytes
(4) Both (1) and (2)

14) Select the statement which explains term 'predation'.

(1) One organism is benefited, other is unaffected

(2) Organisms feed over dead organic matter
(3) Animals and detrivores feed over organic remains
(4) Organisms feed upon other living organisms

15) Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by

(1) Nucleoprotein particles

(2) Lichen
(3) Small sized cellular particles
(4) Free RNA particles

16) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Leaf is a lateral outgrowth of stem and arranged Basipetal order

(2) Aleurone layer seperates endosperm from embryo
(3) Stamens are free in polyadelpous condition
(4) Petals are fused in polypetalous condition

17) It is believed that communities with less diversity tend to be

(1) More productive and more resistant

(2) More variable and more resistant
(3) Less productive and less variable
(4) More variable and less productive

18) The period occupied by a cell between post mitotic gap phase (G1) and pre-mitotic gap (G2)
phase is characterised by

(1) Reformation of ER, golgi complex and nucleolus

(2) Movement of chromatids to opposite poles
(3) Duplication of centrioles in cytoplasm
(4) Initiation of assemble of mitotic spindle

19) Mark the the mis-matched pair:

(1) Sporozoans - Endoparasites

(2) Gonyaulax - Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglena - Chryosphytes
(4) Slime moulds - True walled spores

20) Mark the correct statement(s) w.r.t. post fertilisation structure and events in flowering plants.
(a) Integuments - Pericarp
(b) Muturation of ovule - Seed
(c) Maturation of ovary - fruit
(d) Micropyle - Hilum

(1) (a) & (c)

(2) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(3) Only (a), (b)
(4) Only (b), (c)

21) Edible part of plant is root and endosperm respectively in

(1) Potato, groundnut

(2) Carrot, mango
(3) Sweet potato, strawberry
(4) Turnip, coconut

22) Seed coat is membranous and fused with the pericarp in

(1) Mango
(2) Sunflower
(3) Maize
(4) Coconut

23) Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(1) × 174 phage – Contain 3.3 × 109 bp

(2) RNA polymerase II – Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(3) YAC, BAC – Vectors used in HGP
(4) Split gene – Genes have interupted coding sequences

24) In which of the following processes both electron donors and final electron acceptors are organic
compounds?

(1) Aerobic respiration

(2) Fermentation
(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Both (2) & (3)

25) Biomass of consumers may be even more than that of primary producers in

(1) Teak forest

(2) Grassland ecosystem
(3) Sea ecosystem
(4) Deciduous forest

26) Members of Kingdom Fungi show great diversity in

P. Pigmentation
Q. Morphology and habitat
R. Cell wall composition
S. Fertilization process

(1) Only P
(2) Only Q
(3) Both P & R
(4) Both R & S

27) In lac operon, ability of the repressor protein to bind the operator gene and prevent
transcription depends on the absence of

(1) Glucose
(2) Allolactose
(3) ß-galactosidase
(4) Transacetylase

28) If both of the loci are linked completely then what would be the genotypic ratio in F2 generation
for a dihybrid cross?

(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

29) When proteins and fats are used in respiration, then RQ is equal to
(1) One
(2) Zero
(3) Infinite
(4) Less than one

30) Consider the following (P to S) and find out the correct sequence of taxonomical categories.
P. Petunia
Q. Polymoniales
R. Dicotyledonae
S. Solanaceae

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) How many maximum different types of gametes can be formed by the genotype AaBBCc?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

32)

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Read the given statements regarding tissue culture and choose the incorrect one

(1) Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube is called explant
(2) It was learnt by scientist during 1950’s
(3) The meristem can be grown in vitro to obtain virus free plants
(4) The nutrient medium does not contain carbon source and inorganic salts

34) A DNA sample has 18% of guanine. What would be the percentage of other bases in this sample?
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Read the given statements and select the option stating
which ones are true (T) or false (F)?
P. Cytokinins were discovered from the autoclaved herring sperm DNA
Q. ABA increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses
R. Ethylene prevents senescence
S. The discovery of each of the five major groups of PGR have been accidental

(1) P(T), Q(T), R(F), S(T)

(2) P(F), Q(T), R(F), S(T)
(3) P(F), Q(F), R(T), S(T)
(4) P(T), Q(T), R(F), S(F)

36) Choose the wrong statement for chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

(1) They oxidise various inorganic substrate such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia
(2) They play great role in recycling of nutrients
(3) They utilize solar energy
(4) They can prepare their food from inorganic substrate

37) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) Methanogens are present in alimentary canal of several ruminant animals

(2) Methanogens are responsible for production of biogas
(3) Methanogens are present in gut of several non– ruminant like cow and bufalloes
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) In the following cross, the character indicated by males (darkened squares) and females

(darkened circle) is _____.

(1) X–linked dominant

(2) X–linked recessive
(3) An autosomal dominant
(4) An autosomal recessive

39) Consider the following sequence on m-RNA AUGGCAGUGCCA. Assuming that genetic code is
overlap then how many number of codon may be present on this genetic code
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 11

40) Meselson & Stahl grew E.coli in a medium containing

15
(1) NH4Cl
(2) Cl
(3) NH4
(4) NaCl

41) Vacuole in a plant cell:–

(1) Lacks membrane and contains air

(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids only
(4) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances

42) The actual path followed for catabolism of glucose molecule in the process of aerobic respiration
for production of 36 or 38 ATP would be

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Which of the following is not produced by the endoplasmic reticulum?

(1) Lipids
(2) Proteins
(3) Monosaccharides
(4) Steroidal Hormones

44) Triplet nature of codon was deciphered by work of

(1) Gamow
(2) Crick
(3) Nirenberg
(4) Harshey and Chase
45)

(1) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
(4) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

46) Assertion: In humans the menopause occurs at approximately 50 years of age.

Reason: Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of abnormal reproductive phase.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

47) In the given diagram A and B are

(1) Trachea, alveoli

(2) Larynx, bronchiole
(3) Larynx, alveoli
(4) None of these

48) Which one of the following is incorrect match :

(1) Ammonotelic– Aquatic insect

(2) Ureotelic– Frog
(3) Uricotelic– Cockroach
(4) Ureotelic– Birds
49) How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart :

(1) Decrease both heart rate and cardiac output

(2) Heart rate is increases without affecting the cardiac output
(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increases
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

50) Match the column-I (Component) with column-II (% of the total cellular mass) and identify the
correct options.

(1) A–V; B–II; C–III; D–IV; E–I

(2) A–II; B–V; C–I, D–III; E–IV
(3) A–III; B–I; C–IV; D–V; E–II
(4) A–V; B–IV; C–III; D–II; E–I

51)

(1) 1-a,2-b,3-c,4-d
(2) 1-b,2-d,3-e,4-a
(3) 1-b,2-d,3-c,4-e
(4) 1-b,2-c,3-e,4-d

52) Filtrate is termed as “urine” in

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct
53) ________facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules.

(1) Tight junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Adhering junction
(4) Ligament

54) Select the correct option for the given diagram

(1) Vasectomy
(2) Sterilisation
(3) A type of contraceptive method
(4) All of these

55) During parturation, coordinated contraction of myometrium in response to ‘a’ from the ‘b’ help
expulsion of foetus

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

56) Stability is something related to___of the molecule

(1) Activation Energy

(2) Chemical reaction
(3) Active site
(4) Energy status

57) Respiratory Rythm center is present in

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebrum

58) The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated around

(1) 20 billion years ago

(2) 4.5 billion years ago
(3) 3 billion years ago
(4) None of these

59) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

(1) A-IV, B- III, C-II, D-I

(2) A-III, B- IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B- II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B- III, C-I, D-II

60) _________is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion

(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis

(2) ELISA
(3) PCR
(4) Autoradiography

61) During ice age, between 75,000-10,000 years ago ______ arose.

(1) Homo Habilis

(2) Modern Homosapiens
(3) Homo erectus
(4) Neanderthal man

62) Which part of brain is excluded in brain stem

(1) Pons
(2) Mid brain
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

63) For normal fertility

 50 % sperms have normal shape and size &
(1)
50 % of them must show vigorous motility.
40 % sperms have normal shape and size &
(2)
60 % of them must show vigorous motility.
At least 60 % sperms must have normal shape and size and at least &
(3)
40 % of them must show vigorous motility
30 % sperms have normal shape and size &
(4)
40 % of them must show vigorous motility.

64)

(1) A–I, B–VI, C–II, D–V, E–III

(2) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–VI, E–VII
(3) A–I, B–VII, C–III, D–V, E–II
(4) A–II, B–V, C–VII, D–I, E–IV

65)

(1) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I

(2) A–III,B–II, C–I, D–IV
(3) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

66) Infertility cases either due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to
very low sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by

(1) Artificial insemination (AI)

(2) Embryo Transfer
(3) GIFT
(4) ZIFT

67) About ____mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.

(1) 10
(2) 3000
(3) 1
(4) 65

68) Animals having bilateral symmetry, triploblastic, organ system level of organisation with
segmented body.

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Chordata
(4) All of these

69) In which step of PCR, primers are used ?

(1) Denaturation
(2) Annealing
(3) Extension
(4) Polymerization

70) The acute chest pain is____while sudden stoppage of heart is_____

(1) Angina Pectoris; Cardiac arrest

(2) Angina; heart attack
(3) heart failure; Angina Pectoris
(4) Heart attack; cardiac arrect

71) Find incorrect statement

(1) P-wave represents the depolarisation of the atria

(2) T-wave represents the depolarisation of ventricles
(3) QRS-complex represents depolarisation of ventricles
(4) The end of the T-wave marks the end of ventricular systole
72) Adrenaline is secreted by

(1) Adrenal medulla

(2) Testis
(3) Pancreas
(4) Liver

73) Store house of Ca2+ in muscle is

(1) Sarcoplasm
(2) Sarcomere
(3) Sarcolemma
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

74) The association area of cerebral cortex are responsible for complex functions like

(1) Intersensory associations

(2) Memory
(3) Communications
(4) All the above

75) Which of the following part of adrenal gland secretes cortisol:

(1) Zona glomerulosa

(2) Zona fasiculata
(3) Zona reticularis
(4) Adrenal medulla

76) Blood pressure lowering Hormone:

(1) Angiotensin II
(2) Renin
(3) ANF
(4) ADH

77) Assertion (A) : The scrotum acts as tempertaure regulator for testes.
Reason (R) : Testes are intra-abdominal in adult male.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is false
78)

(1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv

(2) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
(3) A-iii; B-i; C-ii; D-iv
(4) A-iii; B-i; C-iv; D-ii

79) In IUT, embryo is transferred into

(1) Uterus
(2) Cervix
(3) Fimbrae
(4) Fallopian tube

80) Development in P.americana is

(1) Hemimetabolous
(2) Paurometabolous
(3) Holometabolous
(4) Ametabolous

81) The first human like being the hominid was called

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Homo erectus
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Cromagnon

82) In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is __a__ and left end is __b__.

a b
(1)
Reducing Non - Reducing
(2) N-terminal C-Terminal
(3) C-Terminal N-Terminal
(4) Non-reducing Reducing
83) Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in____

(1) Osmotic balance of body fluids

(2) Oxygen transport in the blood
(3) Clotting of blood
(4) Defence mechanism of body

84) The presence of glucose in urine is called

(1) Hemoglobinuria
(2) Albuminuria
(3) Glycosuria
(4) Uremia

85) In human male, secretions of which gland helps to lubricate copulatory organ?

(1) Bulbourethral
(2) Bowman
(3) Paraurethral
(4) Bartholin

86) Statements on immunity:

I. B cells produce antibodies.
II. T cells are part of cell mediated immunity.
III. Tendons connect skin to bones.
Correct statements:

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of the above

87) Human Health & Disease:

I. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium
II. AIDS is caused by retrovirus
III. Ringworm is a viral infection
Choose the correct statements:

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) All three

88) Which of the following blood vessels carry oxygenated blood?

(1) Pulmonary artery

(2) Pulmonary vein
(3) Vena cava
(4) Hepatic vein

89) Which of the following is a vestigial organ in humans?

(1) Appendix
(2) Liver
(3) Kidney
(4) Heart

90) Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Blood
(4) Skeletal muscle
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 4 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 2 1 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 1 4 4 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 2 3 2 2 1 4 1 1 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY