English

(1001CMD303016240002) *1001CMD303016240002* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 27-04-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ADVANCE NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNA

Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 24 pages.

N2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
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16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

 2 English

Topic : VECTOR

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 6. → →
A, → are :-
B and C

1. Out of the following set of forces, the resultant

of which cannot be zero :
(1) 10, 10, 10
(2) 10, 10, 20 (1) Concurrent vectors

(3) 10, 20, 20 (2) co-initial vectors

(4) 10, 20, 40 (3) Both (1) and (2)

2. Two force each of 1000 N magnitude are applied (4) Parallel vectors
on a body as shown. The resultant force will be :- 7. The maximum and minimum magnitude of the
resultant of two given vectors are 17 units and 7 unit
respectively. If these two vectors are at right angles
to each other, the magnitude of their resultant is :-
(1) 14 (2) 16
(1) 1000 N (3) 18 (4) 13
(2) 1000 3N
√
8. A vector of length ℓ is turned through the angle θ
(3) 500 3√
about its tail. What is the change in the position
(4) 500 N vector of its head ?

3. If a vector A → makes angle α , β and γ , (1) ℓ cos ( θ /2)

respectively, with the X, Y and Z axes, then
(2) 2 ℓ sin ( θ /2)
sin2 α +sin2 β +sin2 γ =
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 ℓ cos ( θ /2)
(3) 2 (4) 3 (4) ℓ sin( θ /2)
4. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5i^ + 0.8j^ + ck^ , 9. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector,
then the value of 'c' is :- then magnitude of difference is :
(1) 1 (1) √ 2 (2) √ 3
(2) √ 0.11 1
(3) (4) √ 5
(3) √ 0.01 √ 2
10. If |→v1 + →v2 | = |→v1 − →v2 | then -
(4) √ 0.39
(1) →v1 is parallel to →v2
5. How many minimum number of coplanar vectors
(2) →v1 = →v2
having different magnitudes can be added to give
zero resultant ? (3) |→v1 | = |→v2 |

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (4) →v1 and →v2 are mutually perpendicular
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^
→ = 3i^ + 6j^ − 2k, 15. Force 3N, 4N and 12N act at a point in mutually
11. If A the direction cosines of the
→ are :-
vector A perpendicular directions. The magnitude of the
resultant force is :
3 6 2 3 6 −2
(1) , , (2) , ,
7 7 7 7 7 7 (1) 19 N
6 2 3 2 3 6
(3) , , (4) , , (2) 13 N
7 7 7 7 7 7
12. θx and θ y are the angle made by a vector A → with
(3) 11 N
positive x and positive y-axis respectively.
Which set of θ x and θ y is /are not possible ? (4) 5 N

(1) 60°, 60° 16. What is the maximum number of rectangular

components into which a vector can be split in
(2) 45°, 60° its own plane ?
(3) 30°, 45° (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) Infinite
(4) 45°, 45°
17. The unit vector along 2i^ − ^j is :-
13. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the
^ ^ ^ ^
figure have the resultant force only along (1) 2i − j (2) 2i − j
the y-direction, magnitude of the minimum 2 5
^ ^ ^ ^
additional force needed is :- (3) 2i − j
(4) 2i − j
√ 3 √ 5
18. What happens, when we multiply a vector by 2 ?
(1) direction reverses and unit changes

(2) direction reamins same and magnitude is doubled

(3) direction remains unchanged and unit changes

√ 3
(4) none of these
(1) N (2) √ 3N
4 19. Find the angle between the vectors ^i + ^j and ^i − ^j :-
(3) 0.5 N (4) 1.5 N
(1) 30° (2) 60°
14. If the resultant of all these forces are zero vector,
then find magnitude of P & Q :- (3) 120° (4) 90°
20. A particle moves with a velocity 6i^ − 4j^ + 3k^ m/s
under the influence of a constant force
→ = 20i^ + 15j^ − 5k^ N. The instantaneous power
F
applied to the particle is :-
(1) 9 N and 15 N (2) 20 N and 16 N (1) 35 J/s (2) 45 J/s
(3) 20 N and 10 N (4) 9 N and 9 N (3) 25 J/s (4) 195 J/s
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21. If P→ ⋅ Q
→ = P Q, then angle between P
→ and Q
→ is : 28. Find the torque of a force F→ = 2i^ + ^j + 4k^ acting
(1) 0° (2) 30° at the point →r = 7i^ + 3j^ + k^ :-
^ ^ ^
(3) 90° (4) 60° (1) 14i − 38j + 16k

22. If a vector 2i^ + 3j^ + 8k^ is perpendicular to the ^

(2) 4i^ + 4j^ + 6k
vector 4j^ − 4i^ + α k^ . Then the value of α is :-
(1) – 1 (2) 1/2 ^ ^ ^
(3) −14i + 38j − 16k
(3) – 1/2 (4) 1
^ ^ ^
^ ^ ^ ^ (4) 11i − 26j + k
23. What is the component of 5i + 2j along i + j ?
1 ^ ^ 3 ^ ^ 29. If are unit vectors along X, Y & Z
(1) (i + j ) (2) (i + j )
2 2 axis respectively, then tick the wrong statement:
5 ^ ^ 7 ^ ^
(3) (i + j ) (4) (i + j )
(1) ^ ^
i.i = 1
2 2
^ →

a^ + b∣∣ = √3 , then angle between a

→
24. If ∣
& b is:- ^ ^ ^
∣
(2) i ×j =k
(1) 0° (2) 30° ^ ^
(3) i.j = 0
(3) 60° (4) 90°
^ ^ ^
25. → = 4i^ + 3j^ + 12k^
The angle subtended by the vector A (4) i × k = −i

with the x axis is : 30. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are

3 4 represented by the two vectors ^i + 2j^ + 3k^ and
(1) sin−1 ( ) (2) sin−1 ( )
13 13 ^ ^ ^
3i − 2j + k. What is the area of parallelogram:-
4 3 (1) 9 (2) 8 √3
(3) cos−1 ( ) (4) cos−1 ( )
13 13
(3) 3 √8 (4) 192
26. 100 coplanar forces each equal to 10 N act on a body. → = 3i^ + ^j + 2k^ and → = 2i^ − 2j^ + 4k^
31. If A B then
Each force makes angle π with the preceding → ×B → ∣ will be :
50 value of ∣∣A ∣
force. What is the resultant of the force
(1) 8 √2 (2) 8 √3
(1) 1000 N
(3) 8 √5 (4) 5 √8
(2) 500 N
32. → × B)
The angle between vectors (A → and (B
→ × A)
→ is :-
(3) 250 N (1) Zero (2) π
(4) Zero (3) π /4 (4) π /2
33. If→ ⋅B
A → = |A→ × B|
→, then angle θ between vector
27. → = 2i^ + 4j^ and B
If vectors A → = 5i^ + P ^j are parallel
→ and B
A → is -
to each other find value of P is :-
(1) 2.5 (2) 10 (1) 0º (2) π /4
(3) 20 (4) 15 (3) π /2 (4) π
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34. → and B
The resultant of A → makes an angle α 38. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a
→ and β with B
with A → then point is 16N. If the resultant force is 8N and its
direction is perpendicular to smaller force, then
(1) α < β if A≠B
the forces are :
(2) α < β if A<B (1) 6N & 10N
(3) α < β if A>B (2) 8N & 8N
(3) 4N & 12N
(4) α < β if A=B
(4) 2N & 14N
35. If → = 3i^ + ^j + 2k^
A and → = 2i^ − 2j^ + k^ ,
B then 39. What is the angle between the forces (x + y) and
which of the following is correct :-
(x – y) if their resultant is √ 2(x2 + y 2 ) ?
→ +B
→ = 5i^ − ^j + 3k ^
(1) A
(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 60° (4) 90°
(2) A → = ^i + 3j^ + k^
→ −B
40. Given that A→ +B → =C → and that C
→ is perpendicular

(3) → ⋅B
A → =6 → . Further if |A|
to A → = |C|
→ , then what is the angle

between A → and B →?
(4) all of the above
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) (1) π radian (2) π radian
4 2

36. From fig., the correct relation is :- (3) 3 π radian (4) π radian
4
41. → makes equal angles with x, y and z axis.
Vector A
Value of its any one of the components (in terms
of magnitude of A→ ) will be :-

A A
(1) (2)
(1) → +B
A → +E
→ = →0 √ 3 √ 2

→ −D
→ = −A
→ (3) 3A (4) √ 3
(2) C √

A
(3) → +E
B → −C
→ = −D
→ 42. Find a vector having magnitude double of 3i^ + 4j^
(4) All of the above and direction same as 5i^ + 12j^ :-
^ ^ 10 ^
Figure shows three vectors →a , →b and →c , where R (1) 5i + 12j (2) (3i + 4j^)
37.
13 13
is the mid-point of PQ. Then which of the
following relations is correct? (3) 10 (5i^ + 12j^) (4) None
13
43. If →a 1 and →a 2 are two non collinear unit
vectors and if |a→1 + a→2 | = 3, then the value
√

of (a→1 − a→2 ). (2a→1 + a→2 ) is-

3
(1) 2 (2)
(1) →a + →b = 2→c (2) →a + →b = →c 2
1
(3) →a − →b = 2→c (4) →a − →b = →c (3) (4) 1
2
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44. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the following 48. A vector is represented by 3i^ + ^j + 2k^ . Its length
vectors 2i^ + 2j^ − k^ and 6i^ − 3j^ + 2k^ ? in XY plane is :
^
i + 10j^ − 18k
^ (1) 2
(1)
5√17 (2) √ 14
^ ^ ^
i − 10j + 18k (3) √ 10
(2)
5√17 (4) √ 5

^ ^ 49. Column I shows some vector equations. Match

i − 10j^ − 18k
(3) → and
5√17 Column I with the value of angle between A
^
→ given in Column II.
B
i + 10j^ + 18k
^
(4) Column I Column II
5√17
A. → × B|
|A → = |A
→ ⋅ B|
→ P. Zero
If →
∣A →∣ → →
45. ∣ × B ∣ = √3 A . B , then the value of
→
∣A →∣
∣ + B∣ is :
B. → ⋅B
A → =0 Q. π
2

AB
1/2
C. → + B|
|A → = |A
→ − B|
→ R. π
(1) (
2
A + B + 2
) 4
√ 3 D. → +B
A → =C
→ and A + B = C S. π
(2) A + B
(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
2 2 1/2
(3) (A + B + √ 3AB)
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
→ B→ and C
→ are vectors each having a unit magnitude. (3) A-R, B-Q, C-Q, D-P
46. A,
→ +B
If A → +C→ = 0, then A→ ⋅B→ +B → ⋅C→ +C → ⋅A
→ will
(4) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
be :-
3
50. Given below are two statements :
(1) 1 (2) – Statement I : Two null vector have same direction.
2
1 → ×B
Statement II : A → lies in the plane of A
→ +B
→
(3) – (4) 0
2
In the light of the above statements, choose the
47. A parallelogram is formed with →a and →b as the most appropriate answer from the options given
→ →
sides. Let d1 and d2 be the diagonals of the below :
parallelogram. Then a2 + b2 = ..... :-
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(1) d12 + d22 (2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
(2) d12 – d22 incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
(3) (d12 + d22)/2
correct.
(4) (d12 – d22)/2 (4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.
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Topic : ATOMIC STRUCTURE UPTO SPECTRUM

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 58. Which of the following element has the maximum
density of nucleus ?
51. Calculate the angular momentum of N-shell? 14 N
(1) 7

(1) 2h (2) h (3) h (4) 3h 31 P

π 2π π π
(2) 15

16 O
52. In two elements AZ11 X1 and AZ22 X2 . A1 ≠ A2 and Z1 ≠ Z2 (3) 8

but A1–Z1 = A2–Z2. These elements are :- (4) All have same density
(1) Isotonic 59. The number of photons of light having wave
(2) Isobaric number ‘x’ in 2J of energy source is -
(1) 2hcx (2) hc 2 2x
(3) Isotopic (3) (4)
2x hcx hc
(4) Isoprotonic 60. If the mass of neutron is assumed to be half of its
53. NH4+ & CH4 are : original value where as that of proton is assumed
to be triple of its original value then the atomic
(1) Isotopes
mass of 12
6 C will be :-
(2) Isobars
(1) Same
(3) Isoelectronic
(2) 25% more
(4) Isosters
(3) 50% more
54. The radius of third shell of Be+3 ion is R, then
(4) 75% more
radius of its 6th shell will be :-
61. Ratio of time period of electron in first and 4th orbit
(1) 2R (2) R (3) 4R (4) R
2 4
of H-atom would be :-
55. Which of the following species has minimum 1 1 16 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
specific charge ? 4 16 1 64
62. Nucleus of tritium contains :-
(1) He+2 (2) Be+3
⊕ (1) 1p, 2n, 1e – (2) 1p, 1e –
(3) He+ (4) Li
(3) 1p, 2n (4) 1p
56. The mass of cathode ray particle is :
63. Electron in the H-atom jump from some higher
(1) Same for different gases level upto 3rd energy level. If six spectral lines
(2) Different for different gases are possible for the transition, find the initial
position of electron.
(3) Minimum for H2 gas
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 12
(4) Different for same gases 64. K.E. of an electron in second orbit of H-atom is
57. Bohr's theory is not applicable to :- ______ than the K.E. of third orbit of H-atom.
(1) He (2) Li+2 (1) less (2) more
(3) He+ (4) H-atom (3) equal (4) none
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65. If the following transitions in hydrogen atoms, 72. The mass of a proton is :
the one which gives an absorption line of highest (1) 1.007 a.m.u
frequency is :-
(2) 1.672 × 10 – 24g
(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) n = 3 to n = 8
(3) 1.672 × 10 – 27kg
(3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 8 to n = 2
(4) All of the above
66. Find out the distance between 2nd & 3rd orbit of
H-atom :- 73. For any anion X – 1, the mass number is 14. If anion
have 8 electron, then the number of neutron in X2 :
(1) 2.7 Å (2) 1.2 Å
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 7 (4) 5
(3) 4 Å (4) 0.529 Å
11
74. 5 B , 13 39 40
6 C , 19 K , 20 Ca ; belongs to which series ?
67. The increasing order for the values of e/m
(1) Isoelectronic
(charge/mass) is :-
(2) Isodiapher
(1) e, p, n, α (2) e, p, α , n (3) Isotonic
(3) n, p, α , e (4) n, α , p, e (4) None of these
68. The ratio of velocity of Ist orbit for He+ to Be+3 75. On the basis of Bohr's model, the radius of the
will be :- 3rd orbit is :-
(1) Equal to the radius of first orbit
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
(2) Three times the radius of first orbit
69. If the kinetic energy (KE) of hydrogen electron
is 3.4 eV then electron is present in which of the (3) Nine times the radius of first orbit
following excited state :- (4) 1/3 times the radius of first orbit
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 4th 76. Which of the following relations is correct for
70. Which of the following electron transition will release first three orbits of H-atom :-
a photon of largest wavelength in a hydrogen atom :- (1) v1 : v2 : v3 = 6 : 3 : 2
(1) n = 1 to n = 2 (2) E1 : E2 : E3 = 1 : 4 : 9
(2) n = 4 to n = 1 (3) r1 : r2 : r3 = 1 : 2 : 3
(3) n = 2 to n = 3 (4) All of the above
(4) n = 2 to n = 1 77. Which excited state of Be+3 has the same orbit
71. Which of the following is correct ? radius as that of ground state of hydrogen ?
(1) Specific charge of cathode ray does not depend (1) third (2) second
on nature of gas. (3) first (4) fifth
(2) Nature of anode ray depend on nature of gas. 78. What is the separation energy for Be+3 in the first
(3) Cathode rays and anode rays deflect in electric excited state :-
& magnetic field. (1) 13.6 eV (2) 27.2 eV
(4) All of these (3) 40.8 eV (4) 54.4 eV
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79. 84. The volume of an atom is about :-
(1) 10 – 5 times to volume of nucleus
(2) 10 – 15 times to volume of nucleus
(3) 10+5 times to volume of nucleus
Five lowest energy level of H-atom are shown in (4) 10+15 times to volume of nucleus
the figure. Then the total absorption and emmision 85. The energy of e – in nth orbit of H – atom is :
lines are respectively:-
13.6 13.6
(1) 10 and 4 (2) 4 and 14 (1) − eV (2) − eV
n4 n3
(3) 4 and 10 (4) 14 and 4 13.6 13.6
(3) − eV (4) − eV
n2 n
80. The energies E1 and E2 of two electromagnetic
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
radiations are 100 eV and 50 eV respectively.
Correct relation is – 86. e/m value of α particle is :-
(1) λ 1 = 2 λ 2 (2) ν 1 = 3 ν 2 9 × 107
(1) c/kg
(3) 2 λ 1 = λ 2 (4) ν 2 = 2 ν 1 2
(2) 9 × 107 c/kg
81. Select isoelectronic set :-
(a) Na+, H3O+, NH4+ (3) 9 × 107
c/kg
4
(b) CO3 – 2, NO3 – , H2CO3
9 × 107
(c) P – 3, HCl, C2H5 – , PH3 (4) c/kg
8
(d) F – , Ne, Na+ 87. Existence of positively charged nucleus was
(1) a, b, d established by :-
(2) b, c, d (1) Positive ray analysis
(3) a, b, c (2) α -ray scattering experiment
(4) a, b, c, d (3) X-ray analysis
82. How much energy would be required by an (4) Discharge tube experiment
electron while moving from ground state to 3rd 88. The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 × 10 – 34 Js.
excited state of He+ ion. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms – 1. Which value
(1) 40.8 eV (2) 10.2 eV is closest to the wavelength (in nanometres) of a
quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015 s – 1 ?
(3) 51 eV (4) 48.35 eV
35 Cl
(1) 3 × 107 (2) 2 × 10 – 25
83. Choose the false statement about 17
(3) 5 × 10 – 18 (4) 3.75 × 101
(1) It is an isotope of chlorine
89. The difference between nth and (n + 1)th
(2) It contains (17p + 17e + 18n) Bohr's radius of H atom is equal to 5 times of
(3) It is isodiapher with 13
6 C radius of 1st orbit. The value of n is :-
(4) It is isotonic with 37
17 Cl (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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90. The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground 95. A 124 W bulb converts only 15% of the energy
state of hydrogen to the electron in first excited supplied to it into visible light of wavelength 640 nm.
state of Be3+ is :- How many photons are emitted by the light bulb in
(1) 1 : 4 one second ?

(2) 1 : 8 (1) 4 × 10 – 19 (2) 6 × 1019

(3) 1 : 16 (3) 8 × 1018 (4) 3 × 10 – 19

(4) 16 : 1 96. Wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is 91 nm.

What is energy of its one quantum?
91. A single electron in an ion has ionisation energy
(1) 1.36 eV
equal to 217.6 eV. What is the total number of
neutrons present in that ion is :- (2) 1240 eV
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 9 (3) 13 eV
92. If the radius of first Bohr's orbit is 'a' (for H-atom), (4) 13.6 eV
what is the radius of first Bohr's orbit for Li+2 97. Energies of three transitions are E1, E2, E3 such that
(1) 3a (2) 27a E3 = E1 + E2. If the wave length of the radiations
are λ 1, λ 2 and λ 3 respectively then :-
(3) a × (27) – 1 (4) a × (3) – 1
93. Arrange the following wavelengths ( λ ) of given (1) λ 3 = λ 1 λ 2 (2) λ 3 = λ 1 λ 2
λ1 + λ2 λ1 − λ2
emissions lines of H-atom in increasing order. (3) λ 3 = λ 1 + λ 2 (4) λ 3 = λ 1 + λ 2
λ1 λ1 λ2
(A) n = 3 −→ n = 1
λ 98. A certain electronic transition from an excited state
(B) n = 12 −→3 n = 10 to the ground state of the H atom in one or more
λ
(C) n = 5 −→2 n = 3 steps gives three lines in ultra violet region of the
λ spectrum, how many lines does this transition
(D) n = 22 −→4 n = 20
produce in visible region :-
Choose the correct option :
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 0
(1) λ 4 < λ 3 < λ 2 < λ 1
99. Calculate the ratio of difference in energy between
(2) λ 4 < λ 2 < λ 3 < λ 1 the first and second bohr orbit to that between
(3) λ 1 < λ 2 < λ 3 < λ 4 second and third bohr orbit :-
(4) λ 1 < λ 3 < λ 2 < λ 4 (1) 4/9 (2) 1/3 (3) 27/5 (4) 1/2
94. Electronic transition in H-atom takes from n2 to 100. The energy of nth shell for ZA(+Z–1) can be given by :-
n1 shell such that :- (1) En for A(+ Z – 1) = Z2 × En for H
3n2 + 2n1 = 22
2n2 – 2n1 = 8 (2) En for A(+ Z – 1) = Z × En for H
What will be the total number of lines in ultra (3) En for A(+ Z – 1) = 1
× En for H
violet region ? Z2
1
(1) 10 (2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 6 (4) En for A(+ Z – 1) = × En for H
Z
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Topic : THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION (UPTO EUBACTERIA), ANIMAL TISSUE

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 104. Match column I with column l1, and choose the
correct combination from the options given
101. Consider the following four statement (I-IV) and below :-
select the option which includes all the correct Column-I Column-II
ones only :- Phylogenetic Chemical constituents
(I) The number of species that are known and (a) (1)
system of plants
described range between 1.7-1.8 billion. Numerical Based on all observable
(II) In binomial nomenclature each name has two (b) (2)
taxonony characters
components the generic name and the specific Based on evolutionary
(c) Cytotaxonomy (3)
epithet relationships
(III) The scientific name of mango is written as Based on chromosome
mangifera Indica (d) Chemotaxonomy (4) number, structure and
(IV) Classification is the process by which behaviour
anything is grouped into convenient categories (1) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
based on some easily observable characters.
(2) a-3, b-2 , c-4, d-1
(1) statements II and III
(2) statement I, III and IV (3) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(3) statement II and IV (4) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(4) statements III and IV
105. How many of the followings are taxa ?
102. How many structures are not associated with
bacterial cell ? Dogs, Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Rice, Plants,
(a) Golgi body Wood, Mango, Leaves, Jointed legs.
(b) Ribosome (1) Eight
(c) Circular double stranded DNA
(d) Naked genetic material (2) Six
(e) Fimbriae
(f) Mitochondria (3) Seven
(g) Endomembrane system (4) One
(h) Presence of plasmid
(i) Chloroplast 106. Select the correct sequence of taxonomic categories
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Six (4) Seven of mango in ascending order :-

103. Read the following statements : (1) Mangifera → Anacardiaceae → Dicotyledonae

(i) Classification is a single step process. → Sapindales → Angiospermae
(ii) Classification involves hierarchy of steps in (2) Mangifera → Anacardiaceae → Sapindales
which each step represents a rank or category.
(iii) Taxon is a unit of ecological hierarchy. → Dicotyledonae → Angiospermae
(iv) Solanaceae represents a species. (3) Angiospermae → Dicotyledonae → Sapindales
(v) Group of individual organisms with → Anacardiaceae → Mangifera
fundamental similarities considered as species.
How many of the above statements are correct ? (4) Angiospermae → Sapindales → Anacardiaceae
(1) Five (2) Three (3) Two (4) One → Dicotyledonae → Mangifera
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107. Statement-I : In Two-kingdom classification 110. Which of the following disease is not caused by
Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra were placed bacteria ?
together under kingdom plantae. (1) Tetanus (2) Small pox
Statement-II : The Two-kingdom classification
did not differentiate between the heterotrophic (3) Cholera (4) Citrus canker
fungi and autotrophic green plants. 111. Bacteria mainly reproduce by :
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct. (1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is (2) Conjugation
incorrect.
(3) Binary fission
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
(4) Symbiosis
correct.
112. Six kingdom classification was given by :
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
(1) Aristotle (2) Carl Woese
108. Statement-I: Mesosomes are the extensions of plasma
membranes in bacteria. (3) Carolus Linnaeus (4) A.P.de candolle
Statement-II: Mesosomes are helpful in photosynthesis. 113.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Which of following option is correct about given
109. Math the following :- diagramatic sketch?
Glycocalyx found in (1) Division in a Mycoplasma cell
A Capsule I
form of loose sheath. (2) Binary fission in a bacterial cell
Composed of filament,
B Flagella II (3) Meiosis in a bacterial cell
hook and basal body
(4) Formation of gametes in Eubacteria
Small bristle like fibres
C Fimbriae III 114. Most extensive metabolic diversity present in :-
sprouting out of the cell
Glycocalyx which is (1) Bacteria (2) Plantae
D Slime layer IV (3) Animalia (4) Fungi
thick and tough
115. Chemotaxonomy is based on :
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(1) Information of chromosome number, structure
(2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV and behaviour.
(2) Chemical constituents of plants
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(3) All observable characters
(4) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I (4) Only sexual characters
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116. Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae families are included 121. In addition to genomic DNA many bacteria have
in order : small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA,
(1) Poales (2) Sapindales called as -

(3) Polymoniales (4) Dicotyledonae (1) Ribosome (2) Lysosome

117. ICBN stands for :- (3) Plasmid (4) Mesosome

(1) International committee for biological naming 122. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus are absent in :-

(2) International code for botanical nomenclature (1) Protista (2) Monera

(3) International code for biological nomenclature (3) Fungi (4) Animalia

(4) International code for biological naming 123. Bacterial structure with respiratory enzymes is :-

118. Which classification is easily carried out by (1) Mesosome

using computers ?
(2) Plasmid
(1) Artificial classification
(2) Practical classification (3) Nucleoid
(3) Numerical classification
(4) Ribosome
(4) Natural classification
124. Main component of bacterial cell wall is :-
119. Founder of Binomial nomenclature is :
(1) Peptidoglycan
(1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Ernst Mayr
(3) R.H. Whittaker (4) Lamarck (2) Hemicellulose
120. Identify the diagrams labelled as A, B and C (3) Cellulose
respectively :-
(4) Chitin
125. Which kingdom has organisms with heterotrophic
mode of nutrition only ?
(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi
126. Main criteria of two kingdom system of classification is :-

(1) Bacilli, Spirilla and Vibrio (1) Presence or absence of cell wall

(2) Cocci, Bacilli and Vibrio (2) Autotrophic or heterotrophic nutrition

(3) Bacilli, Spirilla and Cocci (3) Cell structure

(4) Spirilla, Bacilli and Vibrio (4) Reproduction
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127. Which is incorrect with respect to basis of 131. According to "Carl Woese" archaebacteria belong
classification given by Whittaker ? to domain :-
(1) Phylogeny (1) Monera
(2) Protista
(2) Cell type
(3) Plantae
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Archaea
(4) Pigmentation 132. Modern taxonomy involves :-
128. Assertion :- Biological concept of species was (1) External and internal structure
given by Ernst mayr.
(2) Cell structure and development process
Reason :- Mayer is considered as Mendel of
20th century. (3) Ecological information
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason (4) All of the above
is a correct explanation of the Assertion 133. Two kingdom classification does not distinguish
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason between :-
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion (1) Eukaryote and prokaryote
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false (2) Unicellular and multi-cellular organisms
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false (3) Photosynthetic (green algae) and
129. Assertion :- Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics non-photosynthetic (fungi) organisms
that the members within the taxon share. (4) All the above
Reason :- The number of common characterstics goes 134. All the unicellular eukaryotes were included in which
on decreasing from species to kingdom. of the following kingdoms, in the five kingdom
classification, proposed by R.H. Whittaker ?
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion (1) Monera
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (2) Protista
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Fungi
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(4) Plantae
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false
135. Scientific name of mango and brinjal are based on
130. Sexual classification of plants was given by :- agreed principle and criteria which are provided in :-
(1) Carolus Linnaeus (1) ICZN
(2) Ernst Mayr (2) ICNB
(3) Bentham and Hooker (3) ICBN
(4) Theophrastus (4) Both (2) & (3)
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SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I ) 139. Find the "C" from the shows figure :-

136. Study the given statements carefully and give the

answer :-
(A) A genus is a group of related species which
has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera
(B) Families are characterised on the basis of
both vegetative and reproductive features of Select the answer :-
plants species.
(1) Chemosynthesis
(C) Felidae and canidae are the families of cat
and dog respectively (2) Photosynthesis
(D) To determine relations in higher taxa is more (3) Absorption
difficult in comparison to lower taxa.
(4) Ingestion
How many statements are correct ?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 140. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct
137. How many statements are not correct ?
(A) Biological names are generally in Latin and ones only
written in italics. (a) Frankia is a example of filamentous bacteria
(B) Taxonomic categories are not distinct biological (b) Rhodospirillum is a example of symbiotic
entities and merely morphological aggregates. nitrogen fixing bacteria
(C) Genera Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in (c) Rhizobium fixes nitrogen in root nodules of
the family Solanaceae. leguminous plants.
(D) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the (d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are example of
number of common characteristics goes on increasing nitrogen fixing bacteria.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Option :
138. Read the following table carefully and select the
(1) Statements b, c and d
correct option for W, X, Y, Z.
Common Name Biological Name Family Order (2) Statements a, b and c
Wheat Triticum aestivum X Y
Mango W Z Sapindales
(3) Statements c and d

(1) W = Oryza sativa, X = Poaceae, (4) Statements a and c

Y = Poales, Z = Anacardiaceae 141. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics
(2) W = Magifera indica, X = Anacardiaceae, due to changes in their :
Y = Sapindales, Z = Poaceae
(1) Ribosome
(3) W = Oryza sativa, X = Sapindales,
Y = Poaceae, Z = Poales (2) Plasmids

(4) W = Mangifera indica, X = Poaceae, (3) Nucleus

Y = Poales, Z = Anacardiaceae (4) Nucleoid
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142. Assertion : In binomial nomenclature, the 147. Consider the followings :-

generic name and specific epithet are separately Solanum tuberosum, Mangifera indica, Triticum
underlined when hand-written. aestivum, Solanum nigrum, Panthera leo,
Reason : Underlining these words indicate their Panthera pardus, Solanum melongena, Panthera
latin origin. tigris, Musca domestica.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason How many family, genus and species are
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. represented by above set of organisms ?
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (1) 5, 5, 5 respectively
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (2) 5, 5, 9 respectively
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (3) 9, 6, 5 respectively
is the correct explanation of Assertion. (4) 6, 5, 9 respectively
143. Select incorrect statement with respect to bacteria :- 148. Assertion :- Family has a group of related order
(1) Have very complex structure and class.
Reason :- Order is the assemblage of related
(2) These are characterised by the presence of
a rigid cell wall classes which exhibit a more similar characters.
(3) These can be flagellated or non-flagellated (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
(4) All bacteria possess plasma membrane which is a correct explanation of the Assertion
is selectively permeable in nature (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
144. Nucleoid in bacteria is/has :- is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(1) Naked linear DNA (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(2) Double stranded circular DNA without histone (4) Both Assertion & Reason are false
(3) Linear DNA with histone
(4) Circular DNA with histone 149. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
145. In five kingdom classification, organisms like (1) Practical significance of taxonomy is -
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Amoeba and identification of unknown organism
Paramoecium are included in the kingdom. (2) Systematic is derived from latin word 'Systema'
(1) Monera (3) Tautonyms are valid in botany
(2) Protista
(3) Protista and Animalia (4) Linnaeus used "systema naturae" as the title
(4) Monera and Protista of his publication
146. Arrange the following different taxa in descending 150. In which of the following system of classification
sequence according to their rank :- give equal weightage to both vegetative and
(A) Poaceae (B) Sapindales reproductive characters ?
(C) Solanum (D) Dicotyledonae (A) Artificial classification
(B) Natural classification
(1) C → A → B → D
(C) Numerical classification
(2) D → C → B → A (D) Practical classification
(3) C → B → A → D (1) A and C (2) B and C
(4) D → B → A → C (3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D
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Topic : THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION (UPTO EUBACTERIA), ANIMAL TISSUE

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 157. Cells lining the blood capillaries are called :-
(1) Oxyntic cells (2) Endothelial cell
151. Where among the following you would expect to
find brush bordered epithelium ? (3) Haemocytes (4) Parietal cell
(1) Gall bladder (2) Trachea 158. Epithelium founds in PCT of nephron ?
(3) Alveoli (4) Pericardium (1) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
152. The tissue shown below is found in :- (2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(3) Glandular columnar epithelium
(4) Steriociliated cuboidal epithelium
159. An epithelial tissue which has thin, flat cells
(1) Tubular part of nephron (PCT & DCT) arranged edge to edge, so as to appear like closely
(2) Gastrointestinal tract (GIT) packed tiles, is found at :
(1) Inner lining of stomach
(3) Alveoli of lungs
(2) Outer covering of intestine
(4) All of these (3) Ovary
153. Endothelium is made up of :- (4) Inner lining of fallopian tube
(1) Squamous cells 160. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
(2) Columnar cells exocrine gland and their secretion :-
(3) Cuboidal cells (1) Digestive enzymes are secretion of these glands
(4) Stratified epithelium (2) These glands secretes their secretion through
154. Primary function of squamous epithelium is :- ducts or tubes.
(1) Diffusion (2) Secretion (3) Milk, Saliva and Oil are secreted by exocrine
glands.
(3) Support (4) Transport
(4) These glands secrete their secretion directly
155. Skin is connected with under laying muscle with
into the fluid bathing the gland.
the help of :
(1) Loose connective tissue 161. Which type of epithelium tissue is found in wall
(2) Dense connective tissue of blood vessels and airsacs of lungs?
(3) Tendon (1) Simple squamous
(4) ligament (2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple columnar
156. Nasal septum is made up of :- (4) Pseudostratified
(1) Elastic cartilage 162. Which junction facilitate the cells to communicate
(2) White fibrous cartilage with each other
(3) Hyaline cartilage (1) Interdigitation (2) Desmosome
(4) Calcified cartilage (3) Tight junction (4) Gap junction
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163. Which is not a function of bones ? 169. In which of the following connective tissue, cells
(1) Protection of vital organs does not secrete fibres of structural proteins ?
(1) White fibrous cartilage
(2) Secretion of hormones and enzymes (2) Blood
(3) Haemopoiesis (3) Adipose connective tissue
(4) Muscles attachment (4) Bones
170. Out of following tissue power of regeneration
164. Due to tiles like appearance simple squamous
least or absent in ?
epithelium is also known as :
(1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue
(1) Tessellated epithelium
(3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
(2) Germinal epithelium
171. Function of diffusion and filteration performed by?
(3) Pavement epithelium (1) Transtitional epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium (2) Stratified epithelium
(3) Simple squamous
165. Except which glands rest all of glands are multicellular ?
(4) Simple cuboidal
(1) Goblet cell (2) Paneth cell
172. Epithelium that is made of a single thin layer of
(3) Salivary gland (4) Both (1) and (2) flattened cells with irregular boundaries :-
166. Humerus and muscles are connected with : (1) Simple squamous
(1) Ligament (2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Transitional
(2) Tendon
(4) Compound squamous
(3) Areolar CT 173. Maximum amount of matrix is present in :-
(4) Panniculus carnosus (1) Areolar Connective tissue
167. The germinal epithelium of mammalian ovary is : (2) Muscles
(1) Squamous epithelium (3) Epithelial tissue
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (4) Nerve tissue
(3) Columnar epithelium 174. Collagen fibres are secreted by :-
(4) Cartilage (1) Histiocytes (2) Fibroblast
168. Which of the following tissue is found in epidermis (3) Mast cells (4) Macrophages
of skin:- 175. The excess of nuterients which are not used
(1) Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium immediately are converted into fats and stored in :-
(2) Transitional epithelium (1) Areolar tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium (3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Simple squamous epithelium (4) Dense irregular connective tissue
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176. Which of the following statements(s) regarding 180. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
cell junctions is/are correct ? certain type of connective tissue. Identify the
(1) Tight junctions help to stop substances parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right
from leaking across a tissue option about them.
(2) Adhering junctions perform cementing to
keep neighbouring cells together
(3) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate
with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small
molecules and sometimes big molecules
Options :
(4) All of the above Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
177. Which epithelium provide protection against (1) Macrophage
Collagen
Fibroblast Mast cell
chemical and mechanical stresses and also play a fibres
limited role in secretion and Absorption :- Collagen
(2) Mast cell Fibroblast Macrophage
fibres
(1) Simple columnar epithelium
Collagen
(2) Compound epithelium (3) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
fibres
(3) Glandular epithelium Collagen
(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast
fibres
(4) Transitional epithelium
178. Which of the following represents tendon ? 181. Which statement is correct regarding the epithelia
of small intestine and PCT ?
(1) Both are having simple columnar epithelia
(1) (2)
with microvilli
(2) Both are having stratified columnar
(3) Both are having simple epithelia with microvilli
(3) (4) (4) Both are having stratified epithelia but cells
are of different shapes
182. Read the following statements and find out the
incorrect statement :-
179. Type of loose connective tissue which is mainly
located beneath the skin ? (1) The structures of the cells vary according to
their function
(1) Dense regular connective tissue (2) The epithelial cells are compactly packed
with little intercellular matrix
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Main function of compound epithelium is
(3) Adipose tissue secretion and absorption
(4) The inner lining of pancreatic duct is covered
(4) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium by compound epithelium
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183. Assertion :- Connective tissues are named SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II )

because of their special function of linking and
supporting. 186. Identify A, B and C in the given figures and choose
Reason :- Connective tissue provide linking and the correct combination of options :-
supporting other tissues/organ of the body.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1) A-Goblet gland, B-Multicellular gland,
C-Simple Columnar epithelium
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) A-Multicellular gland, B-Unicellular gland,
184. Statement-I : Fibre and fibroblast are loosly C-Squamous epithelium
packed in the dense connective tissue. (3) A-Unicellular gland, B-Multicellular gland,
Statement-II : Tendon & Ligament are example C-Multilayered cells
of dense irregular connective tissue. (4) A-Flattened cell, B-Multilayered cell,
C-Transitional epithelium
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct. 187. Read the following A-D statements -
(A) Bones support and protect softer tissue and organs.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is (B) The bone cells (Osteocytes) are present in the
incorrect. spaces called lacunae.
(C) The limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs,
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is serve weight bearing functions.
correct. (D) The bone marrow in some bones is the sites of
production of blood cells.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect. How many of the above statements are correct :
185. How many statements are true in the following? (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body
188. Read the following statements and find out how
cavities, ducts and tubes.
many of these are related to given figure :-
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed
with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep
a. Multilayered epithelium
neighbouring cells together.
b. Limited role in secretion and absorption
(1) Two c. Main function is to provide protection against
(2) Three chemical and mechanical stresses
d. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist
(3) Four
surface of buccal cavity and pharynx
(4) One (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
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189. Read the statements regarding matrix of 193. How many statements are true in the following ?
connective tissue :- (i) In epithelial tissue, cells are compactly packed
(a) Cells of connective tissue secrete modified with little intercellular space.
triglycerides. (ii) Simple epithelium forms linning of body cavity,
(b) Matrix of connective tissue accumulate duct and tubes
between cells and fibres.
(iii) Connective tissue is most commonly found and
(c) Matrix act as a ground substance.
widely distributed tissue in the body.
Choose the correct statements :-
(iv) Salivary gland is an example of unicellular gland
(1) only a (2) only b and c
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
(3) only a and c (4) a, b and c
194. Select the odd one in following series ?
190. Match the following columns :- Areolar tissue ; Blood ; Neuron ; Tendon
Column I Column II
A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Neuron
B Adipose tissue 2 Only collagen fibres (3) Blood (4) Tendon
C Ligament 3 Loose connective tissue 195. Bones have a ______ and _____ ground substance
D Tendon 4 Both collagen & elastic fibre rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres :-
(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2 (1) Soft ; pliable (2) Soft ; non-pliable
(2) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4 (3) Hard ; pliable (4) Hard ; non-pliable
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1 196. Match the columns :-
(A) Unicellular gland (1) Tight junctions
(4) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4
Facilitate rapid
191. Eustachian tube is supported by :- (B) (2) Gap junctions
transfer of ions
(1) Hyaline cartilage Stopping of leakage of
(C) (3) Compound epithelia
(2) White fibrous cartilage substance

(3) Calcified cartilage Providing protection to

(D) (4) Goblet cell
underlying tissues
(4) Elastic cartilage
(5) Simple epithelia
192. Identify the following diagram, this represents which
type of epithelium and found in which structure ? (1) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 5
(2) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
(3) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3
197. Identify the incorrect matching pair ?
(1) Fibroblast - largest in size
(1) Simple squamous, wall of blood vessels
(2) Macrophages - phagocytosis of bacteria
(2) Simple cuboidal, ducts of glands
(3) Mast cell - secretion of histamine, heparin and
(3) Simple columnar, lining of stomach and intestine serotonin
(4) Ciliated epithelium, bronchioles (4) Monolocular adipocytes - present in brown fat
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198. Following is the list of secretions of glands :- 200. Statement-I : Matrix of Cartilage is solid & pliable
Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive and resist compression.
enzyme, growth hormone.
Statement-II : Cartilage is present in tip of nose,
How many of the above are secretion of exocrine
gland ? outer ear joint, between adjacent bones of vertebral
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Six (4) Seven column.

199. Assertion :- Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
packed in the dense connective tissues.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
Reason :- In the dense regular connective tissues
the collagen fibres are present in rows. incorrect.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. correct.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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