English

(1103CMD303001230013) *1103CMD303001230013* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 11-06-2023

PRE-MEDICAL : Nurture
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 25 pages.

Q2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2023

 2 English

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 7. If y = |x − 1|, then y-x graph is :-

1. Find θ for sin θ = cos θ , if 180o < θ < 360o

(1) 135o (2) 315o

(1) (2)
o o
(3) 225 (4) 150

2. The greatest value of the function

7 sin θ − 24 cos θ is

(1) 12 (2) 13
(3) 25 (4) 17 (3) (4)
3. A metallic disc is being heated. Its area at any
time t is given by A = 5t2 + 4t + 8. Calculate rate
→
of increase in area at t = 3s. 8. In the given figure, a
→
+b +c
→
is
(1) 30 m2/s
(2) 34 m2/s
(3) 28 m2/s
(4) 20 m2/s
4. Calculate the area enclosed under the curve
f(x) = x2 between the limits x = 2 and x = 3
(1) 5 19 (1) →
2a (2)
→
(2) 2b
3
→ →
17 (4) 8 (3) 2c (4) →
a +b
(3)
3
→
→
5. The distance between points (a + b, b + c) 9. If resultant of two vectors a and b shown in
and (a - b, c - b) is :- the figure is √7b, then value of b is :-
a
(1) 2 a2 + b2
√

(2) 2 √ b 2 + c2

(3) 2√2b

(4) √
a2 − c2

6. The coordinates of a particle moving in XY- (1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

plane vary with time x = a cos ω t, 2
→ → →
y = a sin ω t. The locus of the particle is a : 10. The resultant of A and B is perpendicular to B .
→ →
(1) Straight line What is the angle between A and B ?
(2) Circle A B
(1) cos−1 ( ) (2) cos−1 (− )

(3) Parabola B A
A A
(4) Ellipse (3) sin−1 ( ) (4) sin−1 (− )
B B
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→ → →
→ →
11. The resultant of A and B . On reversing 14. If a +b +c = 0. The angle between
→ → →
the vector B , the resultant becomes →
R 2 . What is
→
a and b , b and c
→
are 150o and 120o,
2 2
the value of 2(R1 + R2 )? respectively.
→

(1) 4(A2 + B2)

→ →
(2) A2 − B2 Then, the magnitude of vectors a b , and c are
(3) 2(A2 + B2) in ratio of:
(4) 2(A2 − B 2)
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 : √ 3
12. In the given figure, O is the centre of the
regular pentagon ABCDE. Five forces each of (3) √ 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : √ 3 : 1

magnitude F0 are acted as shown in the figure. 15. How many minimum number of coplanar
The resultant force is :- vectors having different magnitudes can be
added to give zero resultant ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
→ →
16. If A +B is a unit vector along y-axis and
→ →
A = ˆi − ˆj + kˆ , then what is B ?

(1) ˆ ˆ (2) ˆ ˆ
j +k j −k

(3) ˆi + ˆj + kˆ (4) 2jˆ − ˆi − kˆ

(1) 5 F0 (2) 5 F0 cos72°
17. eˆ r
is unit vector along radius of a circle shown in
(3) 5 F0 sin72° (4) zero
figure. eˆ r can be represented as:
13. Five forces 2N, 3N, 5N, 3N and 2N
√ √

respectively act at a particle P as shown in the

figure.

(1) cos θ ˆi + sin θ ˆj (2) sin θ ˆi + cos θ ˆj

(3) cos θ ˆi − sin θ ˆj (4) − cos θ ˆi + sin θ ˆj

The resultant force on the particle P is.
18. What vector must be added to the other vectors
(1) 10 N making angle 60° with x-axis. ˆi − 2jˆ + 2kˆ and 2iˆ + ˆj − kˆ , so that the resultant

(2) 10 N making angle 60° with y-axis. may be a unit vector along y-axis?
ˆ ˆ
(3) 20 N along y-axis (1) 2iˆ + ˆj − k (2) −3iˆ + 2jˆ − k

(4) None of these (3) −2iˆ − ˆj − kˆ (4) 3iˆ − 2jˆ − kˆ

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→ → → →
19. Find the direction cosines of vector (a − b ), if 23. What is the projection of B on A ?
→
a = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ and b = 2iˆ + 2jˆ + 3kˆ
→
→ → →
(1) A ⋅ B (2) A ⋅ B̂
1 −2 →
(1) 0, , (3) B ⋅ Â (4) Â ⋅ B̂
√ 5 √ 5
(2) 0, 0, 0 3 ∣→ → ∣ ∣→ → ∣
24. If ∣A × B ∣ = ∣A . B ∣ , then the angle
4∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

1 −2 2 → →
(3) , , between A and B will be:
√ 5 √ 5 √ 5
(4) 1, 1, −1
(1) 30o (2) 45o (3) 60o (4) 53o
25. The vector → = 6i^ + 2j^ + 5k^
B is parallel to the
20. Three forces are acting on a particles as shown
→
in the figure. To have the resultant forces only vector A = 3iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ if S =
along the y-direction, the magnitude of the
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
minimum additional force needed is :-
→
ˆ ˆ
a = (2iˆ − 2jˆ + k) and b = (iˆ − 2jˆ + k)
→
26. If .
→
→ →
If c = a ×b . Find the magnitude of
→
→ →
a +b +c .
(1) 34 units (2) √ 34 units

(3) 23 units (4) √ 23 units

→
a = 2iˆ − ˆj + kˆ , b = ˆi + 2jˆ − 3kˆ
→
27. If and
ˆ
c = 3iˆ − yjˆ + 5k are coplanar.
→

(1) 0.866 N (2) 1.732 N Find the value of y.

(3) 0.5 N (4) 4 N (1) 2 (2) 3
→
21. Let A = ˆiA cos θ − ˆjA sin θ , be any vector. (3) 4 (4) 5
→ →

Another vector B which is normal to A is: 28. If vectors

→
(1) ˆiB cos θ + ˆjB sin θ A = cos ω tiˆ + sin ω tjˆ and
ˆ
→
ωt ˆ ωt ˆ
(2) iB sin θ + ˆjB cos θ B = cos i + sin j
2 2
(3) ˆiB sin θ − ˆjB cos θ are functions of time, then the value of t at which
they are orthogonal to each other is :
(4) ˆiA cos θ − ˆjA sin θ
(1) t = 0 (2) π
t =
22. →
→
4ω
A parallelogram is formed with a and b as the
π
sides. Let → d 1 and → d 2 be the diagonals of
(3) t = (4) t = π
2ω ω
the parallelogram. The value of a2 + b2 is :- 29. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal
d12 + d22
to the magnitude of difference of the two
(1) d12 + d22 (2)
2
vectors, the angle between these vectors is :-
(3) (d1 + d2 ) 2
(4) d12 + d22 + d1 d2 (1) 0o (2) 90o (3) 45o (4) 180o
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30. If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ⩽ t ⩽ 1 is :
7 36. If 2 cos 2 θ = 3, then θ =?
(2) 29 m/s
√

(1) m/s
2 (1) 30° (2) 90­° (3) 45° (4) 15°
(3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s dy
37. y = cos(x)3, find =?
31. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at dx
a point is 16N. If the resultant force is 8N and (1) 3x2 sinx3 (2) – 3x2 sinx3
its direction is perpendicular to smaller force, (3) x2 sinx3 (4) – x2 sinx3
then the forces are :
38. d 100
(1) 6N & 10N (2) 8N & 8N (e ) =. . . . . . . . . . .?
dx
(3) 4N & 12N (4) 2N & 14N (1) e100 (2) 0
32. A vector of length ℓ is turned through the angle (3) 100 e99 (4) None of these
θ about its tail. What is the change in the
dy
position vector of its head ? 39. y = x3 – cos x + ln (x), find =?
dx
(1) ℓ cos ( θ /2) (2) 2 ℓ sin ( θ /2) (1) 1 (2) 1
3x2 + sin x + 3x2 − sin x +
x x
(3) 2 ℓ cos ( θ /2) (4) ℓ sin ( θ /2)
(3) 1 (4) 1
→ → →
−3x2 + sin x − 3x2 + sin x −
33. Given that A + B + C = 0. Out of these three x x
dy
vectors two are equal in magnitude and the 40. y = 5x3/2, find =?
dx
magnitude of the third vector is 2 times that of
√

(1) 5 √x (2) 5x5/2

either of the two having equal magnitude. Then
the angles between vectors are : (3) 15 (4) None
√x
2
(1) 30o, 60o, 90o (2) 45o, 45o, 90o
41. x−3/2 dx =?
(3) 45o, 60o, 90o (4) 90o, 135o, 135व
∫

−−
→ −−
→ 2 −2
34. If adjacent sides AB and AD of parallelogram (1) +c (2) +c
√ x √ x
ABCD 2iˆ + 4jˆ − 5kˆ and ^i + 2j^ + 3k^
( ) ( )
(3) 2 √x + c (4) −2√x + c
−−
→
respectively then length of diagonal AC is:
d2y
(1) 3 unit (2) 4 unit 42. If y = sin x + cos x then is :-
dx2
(3) 5 unit (4) 7 unit (1) sin x – cos x (2) cos x – sin x
35. A unit radial vector r̂ makes angles of α = 30o (3) – (sin x + cos x) (4) None of these
relative to the x-axis, β = 60o relative to the y- 43. The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the
axis, and γ = 60o relative to the z-axis.The vectors
vector r̂ can be written as: → = 4i^ + 3j^ + 6k^ and B
→ = 2i^ − 3j^ + 2k^ is :
A
1ˆ √3ˆ √ 3ˆ 1
(1) i + j (2) i + ˆj 1 ^ ^ 1 ^ ^
2 2 2 2 (1) [8i + 6k] (2) [6i + 8k]
10 10
√ 2ˆ 1 ˆ
(3) i + j (4) None of these (3) 1 ^ ^ ^ (4) 1 ^ ^
3 [6i + 6k + 6j ] [6j + 8k]
√3
10 10
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44. ^
If a unit vector is represented by 0.3i^ − 0.4j^ + ck, 48. The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2.
then the value of 'c' is : The slope of graph at point P is :
(1) √ 0.75 (2) √ 0.25

(3) √ 0.01 (4) √ 0.39

45. x = a ( θ + sin θ )
y = a (1 − cos θ )
dy
Here a is constant. The value of is equal to
dx
(1) sin ( θ /2) (2) cos ( θ /2)
(1) 1

(3) tan ( θ /2) (4) cot ( θ /2)

(2) 2

46. (3) 3
(4) 4
49. Which graph represent the following equation
y = kx2, where k is constant.

Which equation represents the above graph?

(1) y=
2 (2) y = e – x (1) (2)
x
1
(3) y= (4) y = x2
x2
47. y = sin x, the y - x graph of given equation ?
(3) (4)

(1)
50. Which of the following statement is not correct
for following straight line graph :-

(2)

(3)

(1) Line (2) has negative y intercept

(2) Line (1) has positive y intercept
(4) (3) Line (2) has positive slope
(4) Line (1) has negative slope
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SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 58. On analysis, a certain compound was found to
contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of 254:80.
51. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in The formula of the compound is :
the ratio 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of (At mass 1 = 127, O= 16)
the two gases in the mixture? (1) IO (2) I2O
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 16 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(3) I5O2 (4) I2O5
52. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen
and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives C, 59. 2nd separation energy of an electron in H atom
38.71% and H,9.67%. The empirical formula of (1) 27.2 eV (2) 1.51 eV
the compound would be (3) 3.4 eV (4) 13.6 eV
(1) CHO (2) CH4O 60. How much energy would be required by an
(3) CH3O (4) CH2O electron while moving from ground state to 3rd
53. The weight of one atom of Uranium is 238 amu. excited state of He+ ion.
Its actual weight is ......g. (1) 40.8 eV (2) 10.2 eV
(1) 1.43 × 2026 (2) 3.94 × 10 – 22 (3) 51 eV (4) 48.35 eV
(3) 6.99 × 10 – 23 (4) None of these 61. Select iso electronic set
54. Density of a gas STP is 1.43 g L – 1. What is its (a) Na+ , H3 O+ , NH4+
molecular weight? (b) CO−2 −
3 NO3 , HCO3
−

(c) P −3 , HCl, C6 H6 , P H3
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 64 (d) N −3 , O−2 , F
55. When 100 g of ethylene polymerizes to (1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
polythylene according to equation.
nCH2 = CH2 → (−CH2 − CH2 −)n =,. The weight (3) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c
of polyethylene produced will be 62. Naturally occuring boron has two isotopes whose
n atomic weights are 10.00 (I) and 11.00 (II).
(1) g (2) 100 g
2
Atomic weight of natural boron is 10.80. The
(3) 100 (4) 100n g
g percentage of isotopes (I) and (II) respectively is
n
56. Air contains nearly 20% oxygen by volume. The (1) 20 and 80
volume of air needed for complete combustion
(2) 10 and 20
of 100 mL of acetylene will be
(1) 500 mL (2) 100 mL (3) 15 and 75
(3) 250 mL (4) 1250 mL (4) 30 and 70
57. An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of 63. For any H like system, the ratio of velocities of
oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24.The electron in I, II & III orbits i.e. V1 : V2 : V3 will
empirical formula of the oxide is be
(1) M2O (2) M2O3 (1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
(3) MO (4) M3O4 (3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
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64. Rutherford's α -particles scattering experiments 70. An organic compound on analysis was found to
led to the conclusion that contain 0.032% sulphur. The molecular mass of
(1) mass and energy are related the compound, if its molecule contains two
sulphur atoms is
(2) the mass and the positive charge of an atom
are concentrated in the nucleus (1) 200 (2) 2000
(3) neutrons are present in the nucleus (3) 20,000 (4) 2,00,000
(4) atoms are electrically neutral 71. In a clinical laboratory, a sample of urine
65. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10 – 34 Js. containing 0.120 g of urea NHCONH2 (M.Wt.60)
The speed of light is 3 × 1017 nm s – 1. Which was treated with excess of nitrous acid. The urea
value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a reacted according to the following equation
quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 1015 s – 1? NH2 CONH2 + 2HNO2 → CO2 + 2N2 + 3H2 O.
(1) 75 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) 50 The gas formed was passed through aqueous
66. In the reaction,N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 ratio by sodium hydroxide and final volume is measured
volume of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This at STP. What was the volume?
illustrates
(1) 89.6 cc (2) 179.2 cc
(1) definite proportions
(3) 44.8 c (4) 22.4 cc
(2) multiple proportions
72. How many grams of water are produced by the
(3) reciprocal proportions complete combustion of 1.00 litre at STP of
(4) gaseous volumes methane?
67. 12 L of H2 and 11.2 L of Cl2 are mixed and (1) 1.00 (2) 1.00
×2 × 2 × 18
22.4 22.4
exploded. The composition by volume of
(3) 1.00 (4) 1.00 × 2
mixture is × 18
22.4 × 2 22.4 × 18
(1) 24 L of HCl (g) 73. The moles of silver chloride formed on mixing
(2) 0.8 L Cl2 and 20.8 L HCl (g) 250 ml of 0.l M AgNO3 with 400 ml of 0.l M
(3) 0.8 L H2 and 22.4 L HCl (g) NaCl is
(4) 22.4 L HCl (g) (1) 0.10 (2) 0.05
68. Which one of the following gas contains the (3) 0.025 (4) 0.2
same number of molecules as 16 g of oxygen? 74. The amount of a given product calculated to be
(1) 16 g of O3 (2) 16 g of SO2 obtained in a chemical reaction that goes to
completion is
(3) 32 g of SO2 (4) All the above
(1) The percent efficiency of the reaction
69. The number of gram atoms of sulphur that
represents 0.5 mole of sulphuric acid is (2) The yield of the reaction
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) The theoretical yield of the reaction
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.9 (4) None of the above
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75. 100 g potassium hydrogen carbonate on strong 80. What is the energy in joule of a photon of light
heating gives 69 g of a solid residue. The with wavelength 4 × 103 nm?
equation which represents the reaction is (1) 7.5 × 10 – 20 (2) 5 × 10 – 20
(1) KHCO3 → K2 CO3 + H2 O + CO2
(3) 2 × 10 – 10 (4) 2.5 × 10 – 10
(2) 2KHCO3 → K2 CO3 + H2
81. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a
(3) 1 1 1 photoelectron of zero velocity from the surface
KHCO3 → K2 CO3 + H2 O + CO2
2 2 2 of the metal the wavelength of incident light
(4) 2KHCO3 → KOH + 2CO2 should be
76. The wrong statement among the following is (1) 2700 Å (2) 1700 Å
(1) The mass of neutron is of the order 10 – 27 (3) 5900 Å (4) 3100 Å
kg.
82. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(2) Mass of neutron is 1840 times the mass of
(1) In the hydrogen spectrum least energetic
electron.
series is Pfund series.
(3) The minimum real charge on any particle
which can exist is 4.8 × 10 – 10 coulomb. (2) The lines of longest wavelength in the
Balmer series correspond to the transition
(4) Proton is ionised hydrogen atom. between n = 3 and n = 2 levels.
77. The electronic configuration of a dispositive (3) The dark lines in a spectrum are produced
metal in M2+ is 2, 8, 14 and its atomic weight is by existing gases to very high energy
56 amu. The number of neutrons in its nucleus levels.
would be
(4) The wave number of infinity line in Lyman
(1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 42 series of hydrogen spectrum is 9R/3.
78. Which is not characteristic of Planck's quantum 83. The wavelength of radiation emitted by
theory of radiation? hydrogen when compared to He+ is
(1) Radiation is associated with energy. (1) 2 times that of He+ ion
(2) Energy is neither absorbed nor emitted in (2) 3 times that of He+ ion
whole number or multiples of quanta.
(3) 4 times that of He+ ion
(3) The magnitude of energy associated with
(4) Same as that of He+ ion
quanta is proportional to the frequency.
(4) Radiation energy is neither emitted nor 84. When electronic transition occurs from an higher
energy to a lower energy state with energy
absorbed continuously but in small packets
difference equal to expressed in electron volts
called quanta.
the wavelength of line emitted is approximately
79. The ratio of the energy of photon 2000 Å equal to
wavelength radiation to that of 4000 Å radiation is 12375 12375
(1) Å (2) × 10−8 cm
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 ΔE ΔE
12375 (4) Either of these
(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) × 10−10 m
ΔE
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85. The binding energy of the electron in the lowest 92. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has
orbit of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The a density.1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98%
energies required in eV to remove an electron H2SO4 by weight?
from three lowest orbits of the hydrogen atom are (1) 1.84 M (2) 81.4 M
(1) 13.6, 6.8, 8.4 eV
(3) 18.4 M (4) 184 M
(2) 13.6, 10.2, 3.4 eV
93. 0.25 mol of P4 molecules contains ___ atoms.
(3) 13.6, 27.2, 40.8 eV
(1) 1.764 × 1023
(4) 13.6, 3.4, 1.5 eV
(2) 6.02 × 1019
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) (3) 6.023 × 1023
86. Bohr's model violates the rules of classical (4) 8.086 × 1023
physics because it assumes that 94. In the reaction,
(1) All electrons have same charge. 4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 4NO (g) + 6H2 O (l)
(2) The nucleus has same charge. When 1 mol of ammonia and 1 mol of O2 are
made to react to completion then:
(3) Electrons can revolve around the nucleus.
(1) 1.0 mol of H2O is produced
(4) A charged particle can accelerate without
emitting radiant energy. (2) 1.0 mol of NO will be produced
87. If the speed of electron in the Bohr's first orbit of (3) All the ammonia will be consumed
hydrogen atom is X, the speed of the electron in (4) All the oxygen will be consumed
the third Bohr's orbit is
95. Millikan's oil drop method is used to determine:
(1) X/9 (2) X/3 (3) 3X (4) 9X
(1) Velocity of electron
88. The hydrated salt Na2CO3 n H2O undergoes 63%
loss in mass on heating and becomes anhydrous. (2) Mass of electron
The value of n is: (3) Charge of electron
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10 (4) e/m ratio of electron
89. The vapour density of a mixture having NO2 and 96. The radius of hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å. The
N2O4 is 27.6. The mole fraction NO2 in the
radius of Li2+ is of
mixture is:
(1) 1.6 (2) 0.8 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.6 (1) 1.27 Å (2) 0.17 Å

90. A compound possess 8% sulphur by mass.The (3) 0.57 Å (4) 0.99 Å

least molecular mass is: 97. The relationship between energy E, of the
(1) 200 (2) 400 (3) 155 (4) 355 radiation with a wavelength 8000 Å and the
91. Number of moles of a solute per kilogram of a energy of the radiation with a wavelength 16000
solvent is called : Å is:
(1) Normality (2) Formality (1) E1 = 2E2 (2) E1 = 4E2
(3) Molality (4) Molarity (3) E1 = 6E2 (4) E1 = E2
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98. An electron is moving in Bohr's fourth orbit, its
de-Broglie wavelength is X. What is the
circumference of the fourth orbit ?
(1) 2 λ (2) 2/ λ

(3) 3 λ (4) 4 λ
99. Which one of the following grouping represents a
collection of isoelectronic species? (At. numbers
Cs-55, Br-35)
(1) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+
(2) N3 – , F – , Na+
(3) Be, Al3+, Cl –
(4) Ca2+, Cs2+, Br
100. The velocity of an electron in the second shell of
hydrogen atom is:
(1) 10.94 × 106 ms – 1
(2) 18.88 × 106 ms – 1
(3) 1.888 × 106 ms – 1
(4) 1.094 × 106 ms – 1

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SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 106. Which of the following are the functions

associated with mesosomes ?
101. Who among the following is/are the British
1. DNA replication
Zoologist.
(1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Matthias Schleiden 2. Cell wall formation

(3) Theodore Schwann (4) Both (2) and (3) 3. Protein synthesis

102. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. Prokaryotic cell 4. Respiration

(1) Respresented by Bacteria, BGA, 5. Distribution of DNA to daughter cells
Mycoplasma or PPLO
(1) 1,2 & 4 (2) 2 & 3
(2) Generally smaller and mutiply more
(3) 1,4,5 (4) All except 3
slowely than eukaryotic cell
107. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(3) May vary greatly in shape and size
Plasmodesmata
(4) They lacks membrane bound organelles
(1) They are cytoplasmic connections between
103. How many of the following are found in cell adjacent plant cells
wall of Algae.
(2) They are characteristic of unicellular plants
Peptidoglycan, Cellulose, Chitin, Mannans,
Calcium carbonate (3) They pass through cell wall and middle
lamella
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(4) They contain fine tubule called as
104. Phospholipids of plasma membrane have Desmotubule
(1) Polar Head towards inner side and 108. A membraneless cell organelle which is absent
Hydrophobic tails towards outer sides in Higher plant is
(2) Non polar head composed of lipids and (1) Ribosome (2) Centriole
polar tail of phospholipids
(3) Mitochondria (4) Plastid
(3) Polar head protected from aqueous
environment 109. The red colour of tomatoes is due to the presence
of
(4) Non polar tail of hydrocarbons protected
from aqueous environment (1) Aleuroplast (2) Elaioplast
105. Select the incorrect match (3) Chloroplast (4) Chromoplast
1. Typical bacteria - 5 to 10 μ m 110. Which one is not common in between
2. Nerve cell - Long and Columnar mitochondria and chloroplast.
3. Smallest cell - Mycoplasma (1) Double membrane structure
4. Bacillus - Rod shaped (2) Semi autonomous
(1) 1 & 2 (2) 1 & 3 (3) Storage of starch
(3) 2 & 3 (4) 1 & 4 (4) Presence of circular ds- DNA
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111. The bacterial envelope consists of three layered 117. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
structure. Which layer or layers are structurally svedberg unit
similar to that of the eukaryotes (1) Indirect measure of density and size
(1) Glycocalyx (2) Cell wall (2) Indirect measure of density and shape
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Cell membrane (3) Direct measure of density and size
112. Assertion : Metacentric chromosome has two (4) Direct measure of density and shape
equal arms
Reasons : Centromere is located at mid of the 118. Which of the following cytoskeleton structure
chromosome. are involved in formation of spindle fibres
(1) Both A & R are true & R is correct (1) Microfilaments
explanation of A (2) Microtubules
(2) Both A & R are true & R is not correct (3) Both (1) and (2)
explanation of A
(4) Intermediate filaments
(3) A is true, R is false
119. Number of microtubules present in the transverse
(4) Both A & R are false section of a eukaryotic flagella are
113. All of the following have their own DNA except. (1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 20 (4) 27
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast 120. The process of oxidative phosphorylation occurs
(3) Nucleus (4) Peroxisome in/at
114. Lysosomes are (1) Chloroplast stroma
(1) Active at pH 7 (2) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(2) Are not polymorphic (3) Intermembrane space
(3) Are packaged by Rough Endoplasmic (4) F1 particles
Reticulum 121. Select the wrong statement
(4) Active when H+
pump from cytoplasm in (1) Flagella cause movement either in cell or in
lumen of lysosome surrounding fluid
115. Chromatin contains (2) Cilia works like Oars
(1) DNA & basic proteins only (3) Flagella are longer than cilia
(2) DNA & RNA only (4) Have 9+2 arrangement
(3) DNA, RNA, Histone and non-histone 122. Which of the following cells do not have nucleus
proteins
(1) Prokaryotic cell
(4) DNA & Histone proteins only
(2) Mature sieve tube cells
116. How many chromosome in a human cell have
Nucleolar organizer region (3) Mature erythrocytes
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (4) All of these
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123. Select the structure found in plant cell but absent 129. In which of the following phases nucleolus
in animal cell cannot seen under microscope
(1) Glyoxysomes (1) Prophase only
(2) Peroxisomes (2) Anaphase & telophase only
(3) Cell wall (3) Both metaphase & anaphase
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) Both prophase & metaphase
124. The phase which marks the end of cell cycle is 130. In which phase of mitosis the number of
(1) G2 phase (2) Anaphase chromosome is seen to be double but no nucleus
(3) Telophase (4) Cytokinesis at all.
(1) Metaphase (2) Telophase
125. At which phase of cell cycle morphology of
chromosome is most easily studied (3) Prophase (4) Anaphase
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase 131. How many no. of division required for a cell to
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase reach 32 cells
(1) 32 (2) 31
126. During G0 phase of cell cycle
(1) Cells remain metabolically inactive (3) 16 (4) 8
(2) Cells do not proliferate unless they are 132. Assertion : Cell division restore the nucleo-
called on to do so cytoplasmic ratio
Reason : Cell growth results in disturbing the
(3) Cells cannot divide even occasionally just ratio between chromosome and nucleus.
to replace the cells lost due to injury.
(1) A & R are true & Reason is correct
(4) Both (1) and (2) explanation of assertion
127. Match the following and choose correct option. (2) A & R are true & Reason is not correct
a. Equational division (i) Prophase explanation of assertion
b. Most active phase (ii) S phase (3) A is true but reason is false
c. Duplication of centriole (iii) Interphase (4) Both A & R are false.
Initiation of condensation 133. Microtublues that radiates out from centrosome
d. (iv) Mitosis
of chromatin are called as
(1) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i (1) Asters (2) Centriole
(2) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii (3) Kinetochore (4) Centromere
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv 134. Synthesis of secondary cell wall occurs
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i (1) Outer to middle lamella
128. Which phase of cell cycle is most dramatic (2) Inner to cell membrane
(1) M-phase (2) G1 phase (3) Outer to primary wall
(3) G2 phase (4) S phase (4) Inner to primary wall
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135. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. eukaryotic cilia 141. Select the organelle that synthesize another
(1) They are covered with plasma membrane organelle containg hydrolytic enzymes

(2) Arrangement of microtubules is 9 + 2 (1) Mitochondria

(3) The core is called axoneme consists of (2) Lysosome

microtubules (3) Golgi Bodies
(4) Axoneme has 9 doublets of central (4) Nucleus
microtubules 142. The form of Lysosome containing Inactive
SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) enzymes
(1) Primary lysosome
136. Which of the following organelle involve in
Photorespiration (2) Secondary lysosome
(1) Peroxisome (2) Glyoxysome (3) Residual bodies
(3) Sphaerosome (4) Polysome (4) Autophagic vacuoles
137. Some of the enzymes which are associated in 143. Centrifugal cytokinesis
converting fats into carbohydrates are present in (1) Occurs by cleavage furrow
(1) Ribosome (2) Glyoxysome (2) Occurs by cell plate formation
(3) Peroxisome (4) Liposome (3) Occurs in plants
138. The chromatin material which takes darker stain (4) Both (2) and (3)
in interphase is called 144. E.coli divides in 20 minutes. If a culture
(1) Euchromatin containing 1000 cells of E.coli is grown for 1
(2) Heterochromatin hour, how many cells will be there after 1 hour ?
(3) Primary constriction (1) 20,000 (2) 16,000
(4) Satellite body (3) 8,000 (4) 4,000
139. How many eukaryotic organelles are 145. Assertion : The complete disintegration of the
semiautonomous nuclear membrane marks the start of prophase
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Reason : Chromosomes are thickest & shortest in
140. Select the wrong statement with respect to this phase
centriole
(1) A & R are true & reason is correct
(1) Composed of 9 peripheral triplet fibrils of explanation of assertion
tubulin (2) A & R are true & reason is not correct
(2) Have cart wheel appearance explanation of assertion
(3) Form basal body of cilia and flagella (3) A is true but reason is false
(4) Radial spoke connecta triplets to each other (4) Both A & R are false
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146. A cell has 30 Chromosomes and 30 pg of DNA 149. The RER in the cell synthesized a protein which
in G1 phase. How many chromosomes & DNA would be later used in building the plasma
membrane. But it is observed that the protein in
content are present in G2 phase
the membrane is slightly different from the
(1) 30 chromosomes, 60 pg protein made in the RER. The protein was
(2) 30 chromosomes, 30 pg probably modified in another cell organelle.
Identify the organelle in the given diagram.
(3) 60 chromosomes, 60 pg
(4) 60 chromosomes, 30 pg
147. Higher plants are different from animals in
having
(1) Centrosome
(2) Amphiastral mitosis
(1) D (2) B
(3) Kinetochores
(3) A (4) C
(4) Anastral mitosis
150. Here 'S' stands for sedimentation coefficient then
148. Identify the labelled part A, B, C and D in given what are [A] & [B] for eukaryotic cell.
figure of chloroplast :

A B C D
Stroma
1. Stroma Thylakoid Granum
lamella
Stroma
2. Cytosol Thylakoid Granum
lamella
3. Cytoplasm Granum Thylakoid Stroma
Stroma
4. Stroma Thylakoid Granum
lamella

(1) 1 (1) A - 40S, B - 60S

(2) 2 (2) A - 60S, B - 40S
(3) 3 (3) A - 80S, B - 60S
(4) 4 (4) A - 40S, B - 80S
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SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 154. How many statements are incorrect for Bone:-
(A) Bones have hard and non-pliable ground
151. In the given diagram of a section of bone tissue, substance
certain parts have been indicated by alphabets. (B) Collagen fibres are present in matrix
Select the answer in which these alphabets have (C) Osteoblasts are present in lacunae
been correctly matched with the parts which they (D) Bone is a specialised connective tissue
indicate. (E) They serve weight-bearing function
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2
155. Bones have a hard and nonpliable ground
substance rich in .......(a)....... salts and .......
(b)....... fibres :-
(1) a : Magnesium, b : elastin
(2) a : Calcium, b : collagen
(3) a : Phosphorous, b : reticulin
(1) A-Interstitial lamellae, B-Nerve, C- (4) a : Calcium, b : elastin
Canaliculi, D-Haversian canal 156. Select the correct matching pair
(2) A-Interstitial lamellae,B-Osteocytes, C-
Haversian system,D-Canaliculi
(3) A-Interstitial lamellae, B-Osteocytes, C-
Nerve,D-Blood vessels
(4) A-Interstitial lamellae,B-Osteocytes, C-
Haversian canal, D-Endosteum
152. The major inorganic component of vertebrate
bone is :
(1) sodium chloride
(2) calcium carbonate
(1) A-Osteocyte, B-Lacuna, C-Canaliculi,
(3) calcium phosphate D-Cytoplasmic process
(4) magnesium phosphate (2) A-Lacuna, B-Osteocyte, C-Canaliculi,
153. Haversian canal present in which part of bone ? D-Cytoplasmic
process
(1) Metaphysis
(3) A-Osteocyte, B-Lacuna, C-Cytoplasmic
(2) Diaphysis
process, D-Canaliculi
(3) Epiphysis (4) A-Canaliculi, B-Cytoplasmic process,
(4) All C-Osteocyte, D-Lacuna
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157. Given below are two statements one is labelled 159. Assertion : Skeleton of sponges made up of
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as spicules.
Reason : Spicules provide structural support and
Reason (R).
potentially defense against predators.
Assertion (A) : Fasciola, Taenia and Planaria are
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the
classified as platyhelminthes. reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason (R) : Fasciola, Taenia and Planaria are assertion.
bilaterally symmetrical animals. (2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
In the light of the above statements, choose the is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
correct answer from the options given below – (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (4) Both assertion & reason are false.
the correct explanation of (A) 160. The correct sequence of flow of water through
body of sponges is :-
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
correct explanation of (A) (4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum
158. Given below are two statements one is labelled 161. Cellular grade of organisation is found in :-
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (1) Sponges (2) Coelentrates
Reason (R). (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Ctenophora
Assertion (A) : Aschelminthes are called as 162. Identify the figures A, B and C and select the
round worms. correct option.
Reason (R) : Their body is circular in cross
section.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given
below –
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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163. Which cells line the cavity of spongocoel 167. Consider the following statements :-
(1) Pinacocyte (2) Porocyte Obelia typically has
(3) Choanocytes (4) Cnidocytes A. A radially symmetrical body
B. A gastrovascular body
164. Diagrams below are indicating the outline of
C. Both a polyp and medusoid form
medusa and polyp forms.
(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) B and C are correct
(3) A and B are correct
Which of the following set of cnidarians exist in (4) A and C are correct
both forms and exhibit metagenesis?
168. Consider the following characteristics of
(1) Hydra and Obelia organisms:-
(2) Obelia and Physalia A. Diploblastic body
B. Possessing Medusoid form
(3) Obelia and Adamsia
C. Presence of both intracellular and extracellular
(4) Physalia and Adamsia digestion.
165. Diagrams of some animals are given below. Which of the above are characteristics of Hydra ?
Identify the common characters in them. (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) A, B and C
169. Free-swimming larva of coelenterate is
(1) Planula
(2) Cydippid
(3) Parenchymula
(4) Amphiblastula
(1) Presence of cnidoblasts 170. Infective stage of Taenia solium for primary host is-
(2) Presence of ciliary comb plates (1) Cysticercus
(3) Extracellular and intracellular digestion (2) Onchosphere
(4) Bioluminescence (3) Hexacanth
166. Choose the wrong statement with respect to (4) Bladder worm
Coelenterata.
171. Excretory structures ........ help in
(1) Radial symmetry osmoregulation and excretion in the members of
(2) Coelom is absent phylum platyhelminthes
(3) Segementation is absent (1) Nephridia (2) Flame cells
(4) Cellular level of organisation (3) Collar cells (4) Renette cells
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172. Choose incorrect statement regarding phylum 176. The cross section of the body of an invertebrate
platyhelminthes - is given below. Identify the animal which has
(1) They have dorso ventrally flattened body this body plan
(2) All are endoparasite found is animal
including human being
(3) bilateral symmetry, triploblastic
acoelomate animal
(4) have organ level of organization
173. How many of the following feature are not related
with phylum platyhelminthes - (1) Cockroach (2) Roundworm
(i) Some member like planaria passes high (3) Taenia (4) Earthworm
regeneration capacity
(ii) Specialised cells called flame cell help in 177. Identify the figure with its correct name and
osmoregulation & respiration. phylum.
(iii) have bilateral symmetry triploblastic coelomete
(iv) mostly are endoparasite
(v) Hooks & suckers are present in parasite form.
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
174. Fasciola and Taenia are the members of phylum
platyhelminthes bearing which of the following
characters ? (1) Sycon - Porifera
(1) They have organ level of organisation (2) Aurelia - Coelenterata
(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation (3) Pleurobrachia - Ctenophora
and excretion
(4) Tapeworm - Platyhelminthes
(3) They have dorso-ventrally flattened body
178. Filariasis is caused by-
(4) All of the above
(1) Trichivella (2) Ancylostoma
175. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom,
which of the following features have evolved for (3) Enterobius (4) Wuchereria
the first time in phylum platyhelminthes ? 179. How many of the following are correct match
A. Metameric segmentation regarding Aschelminthes.
B. Organ level of organisation (i) Habitat - Aquatic or Terrestial or parasitic or
C. Closed circulatory system free-living
D. True coelom (ii) Body - Circular in cross section
E. Bilateral symmetry (iii) Level of organisation - organ system
Select the correct answer - (iv) Symmetry - Radial
(1) B and E (2) A, B, C and D (v) Coelom - True coelomate
(3) A, C and D (4) only A and B (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
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180. The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called 185. In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminths show:
round worms, having numerous distinguishable (1) Absence of body cavity
character, but which of the following can not be
(2) Bilaterial symmetry
considered as their character?
(1) These are pseudocoelomate animals (3) Radial symmetry
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical (4) Presence of pseudocoel
(3) Organ system level of body organisation SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )
(4) Round worms are monoecious.
181. ...... helps in swimming in Annelida. 186. _____ in earthworm perform the function similar
to flame cells in tape worm.
(1) Parapodia (2) Nephridia (1) Parapodia (2) Nephridia
(3) Sucker (4) Metamers (3) Metameres (4) Ganglia
182. Which of the following statement is incorrect 187. The body segments in earthworm are called as
about Annelida?
(1) Comb plates (2) Spicules
(1) They are triploblastic metamericaly
segmented coelomate animals (3) Metameres (4) Ganglia
(2) They possess both longitudinal and circular 188. See the following diagrams carefully these
muscles which help in locomotion animals are :-
(3) A closed circulatory system is present
(4) All are monoecious only
183. The animal represented in diagram shows
following characters choose the correct ones

(a) It is dioecious (1) Sycon, Leucosolenia

(b) It is monoecious (2) Hydra, Aurelia
(c) Parapodia present
(3) Nereis, Hirudinaria
(d) Closed circulatory system
(e) Metameric segment absent (4) Fasciola, Taenia
(1) A, C, D (2) B, C, D 189. Hirudinaria is
(3) B, C, D, E (4) A, B, C, D, E (1) omnivorous (2) carnivorous
184. Aquatic annelids like ___A____ possess (3) herbivorous (4) sanguivorous
___B____ appear doges ___C____ which help 190. A student brought home a strange animal which
pin ___D____. he found outside under a rock. It had moist skin, a
complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and
have metameric segments. Identify the phylum of
the animal.
(1) Porifera (2) Annelida
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
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191. Consider the following characteristic features. 194. Identify the given diagram A, B and C for
(a) Closed vascular system phylum :-
(b) External fertilisation
(c) Dioecious
(d) Double ventral nerve cord
All the above features characterise
(1) Leech (2) Earthworm A B C
(3) Sandworm (4) Bloodworm 1 Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes Annelida
192. Read the following feature. 2 Platyhelminthes Annelida Aschelminthes
(A) Neurogenic heart 3 Annelida Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
(B) Haemocoel
4 Annelida Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes
(C) Parapodia, setae, muscles are
locomotory structures 195. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
(D) Presence of atoke and epitoke matching :-
Which of the following is/are characteristic
feature of Nereis?
(1) Only A
(2) A and C only
(3) C and D only
(1) a – sexually, b – asexually
(4) A, C & D
(2) a – asexually, b – sexually
193. Which of the following features is not correct for
the above creature : (3) a – asexually, b – parthenogenetically
(4) a – sexually, b – parthenogenetically
196. Select the symmetry shown by the two given
animals A and B

(1) Comb plates (External rows)

(2) Cnidoblast
(3) Sexes are not separate
(4) Digestion is both extracellular and
intracellular (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4)
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197. Deuterostome coelom is :-
(1) Pseudocoel
(2) Schizocoel
(3) Enterocoel
(4) Hemocoel
198. First time complete digestive system with
different mouth and anus is found in
(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Coelenterata
199. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
(i) Organ systems in different group of animals
show various patterns of complexities.
(ii) The digestive system in platyhelminthes has
only a single opening to the outside of the body
that serve as both mouth and anus, and is hence
called complete.
(iii) In open type of circulatory system, the blood
is pumped out of the heart and the cells and
tissues are directly bathed in it.
(iv) In closed type, the blood is circulated
through a series of vessels of varying diameters
(arteries, veins and capillaries).
(1) Only (i)
(2) Both (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) All of these
200. Select the total number of organism from the
following which are sessile:
Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla, Hydra,
Jelly fish, Earthworm
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
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