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General Medicine Test (PPSC 2025)

1 Which of the following best characterized the terminal stage of anemia?
Bradycardia with shallow respiration
Tachycardia with deep respiration
Increase blood viscosity
Cyanosis and normal respiration

2 Which of the following is not a primary pathophysiological consequence of anemia?

Tissue anoxia
Hypertension due to blood viscosity
Peripheral circulatory failure
All of the above

3 Which clinical pathology finding is most consistent with anemia?

Increase PCV
Decrease PCV, RCB, Hb
Elevated CRT
A&C

4 Deficiency of vitamin B12 cause which type of anemia

Normocytic
Microcytic
Macrocytic
None of the above

5 Which of the following statement is correct?

Microcytic anemia has high MCV and is associated with B12 deficiency
Macrocytic anemia has low MCV and is typically caused by Fe deficiency
Microcytic anemia has low MCV and is associated with Fe deficiency
Macrocytic anemia has normal MCV and is associated with renal diseases

PREPARED BY: DR AWAIS BIN NISAR – VO (L&DD PUNJAB)

6 Pericardiocentesis is performed at the ___ intercostal space on left side of body
2nd 3rd
3rd 4th
4th 5th
None

7 Most common bacterial cause of endocarditis in cattle is

Staph spp.
Arcanobacter pyogens
Clostridia spp.
All of above

8 Severe ____ is a hallmarks lab finding in case of pericarditis

Anemia
Leukopenia
Leukocytosis
All of the above
9 A cow presented with elbow abduction, pain, fever (103-106F) and muffled heart sounds.
What could be the most likely diagnosis?
Endocarditis
Pericarditis
Myocarditis
All of the above

10 Bovine myocarditis can be caused by which of the following viral agent?

Toxoplasma spp.
Sarcocystis spp.
Clostridial spp.
None of the above
11 In cattle, complete esophageal obstruction is emergency due to
Dysphagia
Failure to eructate and leading to tympany
Increase risk of gastric rupture
All of the above
12 Choke case showing protrusion of the tongue, extension of the head, and grinding of the
teeth with excess salivation is clinical feature in which of the following spp.?
Horse
Cattle
Both
None of the above

13 Acepromazine aids in esophageal obstruction relief in horse by

Stimulating excess saliva production
Increasing gastric motility
Neutralizing acid reflux
None of the above

14 In bloat, cow must be relieved by trocarization through the left ___fossa

Lumbar
Paralumber
Sublumbar
None of the above

15 Sympathetic nervous system is part of ______ system

Somatic nervous system
Autonomic nervous system
Central nervous system
All of the above

16 Which condition is characterized by a total absence of motor system perception?

Anesthesia
Hypoesthesia
Paresis
All of the above

17 Paraplegia affects
Entire body
One side of the body
Forelimbs only
Hind limbs, bladder & rectum

18 Hypomagnesemic tetany leads to

Progressive limb paralysis
Loss of pain perception
Severe excitability and convulsions
All of the above

19 Inflammation of urinary bladder is

Urethritis
Ureteritis
Cystitis
None of the above

20 A common predisposing factor for cystitis

Dehydration
Excess urination
Urine stagnation
All of the above

21 Best supportive care for cystitis includes

Dietary protein restriction
Bladder massage
Free access to water
Sodium bicarbonate therapy
22 Key pathological feature of encephalitis is
Neuronal hyperplasia
Demyelination of neurons
Leukocyte accumulation in CNS
All of the above

23 Parasitic encephalitis in cattle is associated with which of the following

Toxoplasmosis
Neosporosis
Trypanosomiasis
All of the above

24 The following condition which is not associated to viral encephalitis in cattle is

Rabies
Louping ill
Malignant catarrhal fever
Coenurosis

25 Which bacterial species commonly causes dermatitis in cattle, horses, and sheep?
Streptococcus equi
Dermatophilus congolensis
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
All of the above

26 A common secondary bacterial pathogen in dermatitis across all species is

Pasteurella multocida
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli
Clostridium chauvoei

27 Which ectoparasite is primarily responsible for photosensitive dermatitis in horses?

Demodex spp.
Culicoides spp
Psoroptes spp.
None of the above

28 Footrot in sheep is caused by

Fusobacterium necrophorum
Dematophilus pedis
Dichelobacter nodosus
All of the above

29 Which viral disease of small ruminants is associated with dermatitis?

Bovine papillomatosis
Contagious ecthyma
Johne’s disease
None of the above

30 Which dermatitis-causing mite infestation is common in food animals?

Sarcoptes spp.
Demodex spp.
Ixodes spp.
None of the above

31 Which skin layers are primarily affected in dermatitis?

Epidermis
Deeper layers, blood vessels, and lymphatics
Hypodermis
Subcutaneous fat
32 Which diagnostic method is essential for identifying parasitic and bacterial causes of
dermatitis?
Skin scrapings and bacterial culture
Hematology
Biochemical analysis
Radiography
33 What is a key component of supportive treatment for allergic dermatitis?
Corticosteroids
Antihistamine
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
A&B

34 What is the typical size range of wheals in urticaria?

0.5 to 5 cm in diameter
5 to 10 cm in diameter
1 to 2 mm in diameter
None of the above

36 What is the most common site for metallic objects to settle after ingestion in cattle?
Omasum
Abomasum
Reticulum
Rumen

37 Which external factor can contribute to deeper penetration of a foreign object in TRP?
Increased water intake
Cold weather
Parturition
High-fiber diet
38 Which type of animals are most commonly affected by Traumatic ReticuloPeritonitis
(TRP)?
Free-range dairy animals
Pasture-raised beef cattle
Young calves
Confined dairy animals given pre-mixed feed
39 A lactating Nili-Ravi buffalo was transported over a long distance in a truck. Two days
after arrival, she became anorexic, showed arching of the back, and had a decreased
ruminal motility. On examination, her temperature was 104°F, pulse rate was 82/min, and
deep abdominal palpation behind the xiphoid elicited a sharp jerk. The farmer noticed a
grunting sound when the animal attempted to defecate. What is the best initial treatment
approach?
Immediate surgical ruminotomy
High-fiber diet and laxatives
Restrict movement and feed a cylindrical bar magnet
None of the above

40 Which skin lesion is a small, fluid-filled, acellular, circumscribed elevation that contains
serum or lymph?
Papule
Vesicle
Nodule
None of the above

41 How does nitrite and CO poisoning contribute to edema formation?

Lymphatic blockage
Hypoxic endothelial damage
Increased plasma protein levels
All of the above

42 What is the key difference between anasarca and ascites?

Anasarca is localized, whereas ascites is generalized.
Anasarca involves internal organs, while ascites affects soft tissues.
Ascites causes pitting edema, while anasarca does not.
None of the above

43 Which of the following best describes the nature of fluid in edema?

Cloudy, high in bacteria and cells
Straw-colored, clear, and free from proteins and cells
Thick, coagulated, and dark red
Pus-filled with a high leukocyte count
44 What is the dose of Furosemide (Lasix) for large animals in the treatment of edema?
2-3 mL
10-15 mL
20-25 mL
30-35 mL

45 Which vitamin deficiency is primarily associated with polioencephalomalacia in

ruminants and poultry?
Vitamin A
Thiamine + Vitamin E
Vitamin D
Vitamin B complex

46 Bacterial origin encephalomalacia is caused by which bacterial toxin?

C. botulinum
Clostridium perfringens type D
E. coli
All of the above

47 Enzootic ataxia in lambs and calves is caused by a deficiency of which minerals?

Selenium & Zinc
Copper & Cobalt
Magnesium & Calcium
Iron & Phosphorus

48 Which drug can lead to thiamine breakdown by producing substrates for thiaminase?
Piperazine
Levamisole
Thiabendazole
All of the above
49 Inner most layer of meninges is
Dura-matter
Arachnoid
Pia-matter
Sub arachnoid

50 Pasteurellosis-associated meningitis is most commonly seen in which species?

Horses
Cattle
Dogs
Goats

51 Warble fly larvae migrate through which structure, potentially causing meningitis?
Lungs
Liver
Skull and spinal cord
Kidneys

52 What is the recommended dose of chloramphenicol for treating meningitis?

1-3 mg/kg IM
4-10 mg/kg IM
15-20 mg/kg IM
25 mg/kg IM

53 Which of the following is NOT a common cause of enteritis in animals?

Bovine viral diarrhea
Tuberculosis
Colibacillosis
Arsenic poisoning

54 Why are antidiarrheal medications often not recommended for bacterial enteritis?
They cause excessive dehydration
They are ineffective against bacteria
They may delay the elimination of the causative organism
They increase the risk of enterotoxemia

55 Which of the following is not considered common cause of colic in horses?

Excessive water intake after exercise
Sudden change in diet
Regular deworming program
Wind sucking

56 Which intestinal parasite is strongly associated with spasmodic colic in horses?

Tapeworms
Strongyloides
Trichostrongylus
Oxyuris

57 Enteroliths in horses are primarily formed due to

Excessive fiber intake
Deposition of minerals around a foreign body
Bacterial fermentation in the intestine
Increased secretion of gastric acid

58 Which nematode is known for causing severe damage to the intestinal arteries in horses?
Oxyuris equi
Strongylus vulgaris
Parascaris equorum
Trichostrongylus axei

59 What is the most common exogenous pyrogen responsible for fever in bacterial
infections?
Peptidoglycan fragments from Gram-positive bacteria
Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) from Gram-negative bacteria
Mycolic acids from Mycobacterium species
Exotoxins released by Clostridium species
60 How does phospholipase A2 contribute to fever?
Increases calcium influx
Produces PGE2
Enhances leukocyte migration
Blocks cyclooxygenase

61 Which of the following option correctly enlists the dose rates of antipyretic drugs?
Flunixin meglumine: 2.25 mg/kg, Diclofenac sodium: 1.1–2.2 mg/kg, Ketoprofen: 2–4 mg/kg
Ketoprofen: 1.1–2.2 mg/kg, Flunixin meglumine: 2.25 mg/kg, Diclofenac sodium: 2–4 mg/kg
Diclofenac sodium: 2–4 mg/kg, Flunixin meglumine: 2.25 mg/kg, Ketoprofen: 1.1–2.2 mg/kg
Diclofenac sodium: 2.25 mg/kg, Flunixin meglumine: 1.1–2.2 mg/kg, Ketoprofen: 2–4 mg/kg
62 Which factor makes ruminants more susceptible to hyperthermia compared to other
animals?
Inability to sweat efficiently
Higher metabolic rate
Excessive heat production
All of the above
63 What is the critical point temperature in hyperthermia, beyond which nervous activity
and respiratory center function are depressed, leading to sudden death?
106°F
107°F
108°F
110°F

64 Which of the following is an inorganic cause of toxic hepatitis in farm animals?

Copper
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloroform
All of the above
65 Histoplasmosis is a fungal disease that can cause
Enteritis
Hepatitis
Nephritis
Meningitis

66 Dietary hepatic necrosis is primarily linked to a deficiency of

Vitamin E
Vitamin A
Iron
Zinc

67 Which bacterial disease causes hemolytic jaundice by intravascular hemolysis?

Clostridial myositis
Leptospirosis
Johne’s disease
Tuberculosis

68 Which of the following poisons can cause hemolytic jaundice in horses?

Selenium
Phenothiazine
Lead
Aflatoxin

69 Which of the following can cause extrahepatic biliary obstruction in farm animals?
Babesiosis
Copper toxicity
Fatty liver disease
None of the above

70 Which enzyme is commonly used for diagnosing hepatic disease in animals?

Creatine kinase (CK)
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)

71 Which condition is a sequela of African Horse Sickness (AHS)?

Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Hydrothorax
Pyothorax

72 Congenital ichthyosis, a cause of hyperkeratosis in cattle, is also known as

Scaly dermatitis
Fish scale disease
Keratoconjunctivitis
None of the above

73 Which of the following is a clinical consequence of conditional Vitamin A deficiency?

Hypocalcemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Photosensitization
None of the above

74 Which layer of the epidermis is primarily affected in hyperkeratinization?

Stratum basale
Stratum spinosum
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum

75 Objective evidence of disease is

Symptoms
Signs
Sequelae
All
76 Dictyocaulus arnifieldi is associated with laryngitis in which species?
Cattle
Sheep
Goat
None of the above

77 In acute or subacute arthritis, which of the following is commonly used?

Cold applications
Warm applications or rubifacients
Counter irritants
Cryotherapy

78 Which of the following diseases are known cause of myositis in cattle?

Blackleg disease
Lumpy skin disease
BEF
A&C

79 Encephalitis affects
Only the spinal cord
Both brain and spinal cord
Only the brain
Peripheral nerves

80 Neutrophil left shift indicates

Decreased neutrophil production
Increased mature neutrophils
Increased immature neutrophils in blood
None of the above

81 What is the dose rate of gentamicin for treating peritonitis in horses?

1.0-2.0 mg/kg IV
2.2-3.3 mg/kg IV
4.0-5.0 mg/kg IV
0.5-1.5 mg/kg IV

82 Which pathogens are responsible for pleuropneumonia in sheep and goats?

Pasteurella multocida and E. coli
Clostridium sp. and Salmonella sp.
Mycoplasma sp. and Haemophilus sp.
None of the above

83 What is the causative agent of Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

Adenovirus
Pesti virus
Morbili virus
None of the Above

84 Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of rhinitis in sheep?

Bluetongue virus infection
Oestrus ovis infestation
Sheep pox virus infection
All of the above are causes

85 How does nasal discharge differ in bacterial vs. viral infections?

Bacterial: serous, viral: purulent
Both cause purulent discharge
Bacterial: purulent, viral: serous
None of the above

86 Which of the following is an inhalant expectorant?

Ammonium carbonate
Eucalyptus oil
Chlorpheniramine maleate
None of the above

87 Which expectorant type decreases bronchial secretion viscosity and aids removal?
Stimulant expectorants
Saline expectorants
Inhalant expectorants
All of the above
88 Which factor makes dairy cattle more prone to simple indigestion than beef cattle or
sheep?
Higher fiber digestion capacity
Less exposure to dietary changes
Greater variability in feed quality and intake
Increased rumination efficiency

89 Abomasal displacement is commonly associated with

Severe fever and acute abdominal pain
Chronic diarrhea and persistent hypoglycemia
Post-parturition, ketonuria
Sudden onset of bloat and rumen stasis

90 What is the chemical formula of Epsom salt?

NaCl
CuSo4.10H2O

K₂SO₄·7H₂O

MgSO₄·7H₂O

91 What is the role of Epsom salt in the treatment of simple indigestion?

Provides essential vitamins for digestion
Acts as a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
Neutralizes stomach acid
Acts as an antimicrobial agent

92 Inflammation of gums is
Stomatitis
Glossitis
Palatitis
None of the above
93 What is the key endotoxin responsible for endotoxic toxemia in Gram-negative bacterial
infections?
Peptidoglycan derivatives
Lipid-A component of LPS
Teichoic acids
All of the above

94 Sub-normal temperature is associated to

Endotoxic toxemia
Exotoxic toxemia
Metabolic toxemia
A&B

95 Which of the following is a cause of secondary (free-gas) bloat in cattle?

Excessive fermentation of lush pasture
Deficiency of dietary fiber
Physical obstruction of eructation due to foreign bodies
Rapid swallowing of feed without chewing

96 Which treatment is effective for frothy bloat?

High-fiber diet to stimulate rumination
Acidifiers to reduce rumen pH
Vegetable oils and mineral oils
All of the above

97 Common site of urolithiasis in bulls is

Bladder
Proximal sigmoid flexure
Pelvic urethra
Vermiform appendage

98 Which type of urolith is most common in horses?

Silica
Urates
Carbonate, Phosphate
Magnesium Phosphate

99 Which type of urolithiasis is commonly associated with hematuria?

Renal calculi
Ureteral calculi
Urethral calculi
Cystic calculi

100 Flunixin meglumine belongs to which drug category?

Diuretic
Steroid
Bronchodilator
None of the above

101 To regulate slaughter of animals in Punjab, Animals Slaughter Control Act was
established in
1963
1979
2014
None of the above

102 Nitrite/Nitrate poisoning antidote is

Atropine sulfate
Ca.Na EDTA
Sodium thiosulfate
Methylene Blue
103 Myasthenia gravis is example of which type of hypersensitivity?
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

104 Cell mediated hypersensitivity is which type of hypersensitivity?

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

105 Which of the WBCs increases in parasitic infection?

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
All of the above