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ISTQB Agile Tester Exam - Answer

The ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Exam covers essential concepts in Agile software development, emphasizing the role of testers in collaboration with developers and business representatives. It includes topics such as Agile principles, testing methods, and the importance of continuous integration and feedback. The exam consists of multiple chapters with questions designed to assess understanding of Agile practices and the responsibilities of testers within Agile teams.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
18 views139 pages

ISTQB Agile Tester Exam - Answer

The ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Exam covers essential concepts in Agile software development, emphasizing the role of testers in collaboration with developers and business representatives. It includes topics such as Agile principles, testing methods, and the importance of continuous integration and feedback. The exam consists of multiple chapters with questions designed to assess understanding of Agile practices and the responsibilities of testers within Agile teams.

Uploaded by

hodung.nguyen
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Exam

Summary for ISTQB Agile Tester Foundation Level


Chapter 1: Agile Software Development (13 questions from this Chapter)
• The tester should remember the basic concept of Agile software development based on the Agile
Manifesto.
• The tester should understand the advantages of the whole-team approach and the benefits of early and
frequent feedback.
• The tester should recall Agile software development approaches.
• The tester should be able to write testable user stories in collaboration with developers and business
representatives.
• The tester should understand how retrospectives can be used as a mechanism for process improvement in
Agile projects.
• The tester should understand the use and purpose of continuous integration.
• The tester should know the differences between iteration and release planning, and how a tester adds value
in each of these activities.
Chapter 2: Fundamental Agile Testing Principles, Practices, and Processes (12 questions from this
Chapter)
• The tester should be able to describe the differences between testing activities in Agile projects and non-
Agile projects.
• The tester should be able to describe how development and testing activities are integrated in Agile
projects.
• The tester should be able to describe the role of independent testing in Agile projects.
• The tester should be able to describe the tools and techniques used to communicate the status of testing in
an Agile project, including test progress and product quality.
• The tester should be able to describe the process of evolving tests across multiple iterations and explain
why test automation is important to manage regression risk in Agile projects.
• The tester should understand the skills (people, domain, and testing) of a tester in an Agile team.
• The tester should be able to understand the role of a tester within an Agile team.
Chapter 3: Agile Testing Methods, Techniques, and Tools (15 questions from this Chapter)
• The tester should be able to recall the concepts of test-driven development, acceptance test-driven
development, and behavior-driven development.
• The tester should be able to recall the concepts of the test pyramid.
• The tester should be able to summarize the testing quadrants and their relationships with testing levels and
testing types.
• For a given Agile project, the tester should be able to work as a tester in a Scrum team. The tester should
be able to assess quality risks within an Agile project.
• The tester should be able to estimate testing effort based on iteration content and quality risks.
• The tester should be able to interpret relevant information to support testing activities.
• The tester should be able to explain to business stakeholders how to define testable acceptance criteria.
• Given a user story, the tester should be able to write acceptance test-driven development test cases.
• For both functional and non-functional behavior, the tester should be able to write test cases using black
box test design techniques based on given user stories.
• The tester should be able to perform exploratory testing to support the testing of an Agile project.
• The tester should be able to recall different tools available to testers according to their purpose and to
activities in Agile projects.
Chapter -1: Agile Software Development
Q.1: (Level K1) Match the following agile software development approaches on the top with their
corresponding descriptions on the bottom.
1) Extreme Programming
2) Scrum
3)Kanban
i. Embraces five values to guide development like – Communication, Simplicity, Feedback, Courage,
and Respect
ii. Divides the project into short iterations called sprints.
iii. Optimizes the ‘flow’ of work in a value-added chain.
A. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
B. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
D. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (B) is True – as Kanban closely relates to the value-added chain and Scrum goes with the short
iterations of the project.
Q. 2: (Level K1) Out of the following which two statements are TRUE in respect of the Exploratory
Testing?
1. Exploratory testing encompasses concurrent learning, test design, and execution.
2. Exploratory testing is carried out by the developers.
3. Exploratory test cases should be automated for maximum benefit.
4. Exploratory testers should have a prior knowledge of the system under test.
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is True – as exploratory testing encompasses concurrent learning, test design, and execution.
Statement (2) is False – as exploratory testing is carried out by testers.
Statement (3) is False – as automation of exploratory testing is not feasible as test design and execution
takes place in parallel.
Statement (4) is True – as testers require good understanding of the usage of the system and how to know
when the system has failed.
Q. 3: (Level K1) Out of the following which one is the characteristic of the iterative development
model, which differentiates it from other development models?
A. Close collaboration between developers and testers.
B. Short iteration of development cycles.
C. Use of automation testing.
D. Testers involved in exploratory testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this can happen in other traditional development methods as well.
Option (B) is True – as agile project consists of short iterations of development as against a long
development cycle in conventional methods.
Option (C) is False – as automation testing is also likely to take place in other traditional development
methods based on the requirements of the project.
Option (D) is False – as exploratory testing is also likely to take place in other traditional development
methods.
Q. 4: (Level K1) One of the Core Agile principles “Business people and developers must work
together daily throughout the project” relates to which of the following Agile Manifesto values?
A. Individuals and Interactions.
B. Working software.
C. Customer collaboration.
D. Responding to change.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as collaborating directly with the customer improves the likelihood of understanding
exactly what the customer expects and likely to make the project successful.
Q. 5: (Level K1) Out of the following which statement best reflects one of the values of the Agile
Manifesto?
A. Responding to change allows the Agile team to develop relevant, a helpful product that people
want to use.
B. The team should try to automate all unit test cases to reduce regression testing effort.
C. Business representatives should participate in all project activities.
D. Testers should work collaboratively with Business and developer team.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as project teams that can respond quickly to customers, product users and the market,
in general, are able to develop relevant, helpful products that people want to use.
Option (B) is False – as it is a normal practice in agile development, but it is not one of the values in the
Agile Manifesto.
Option (C) is False – as it is a normal practice in agile development, but it is not one of the values in the
Agile Manifesto.
Option (D) is False – as it is a normal practice in agile development, but it is not one of the values in the
Agile Manifesto.
Q. 6: (Level K1) Match the Agile manifesto statements (1-4) below with its correct value (i-iv).
1. Responding to change
2. Customer collaboration
3. Individuals and interactions
4. Working software
i. Can help teams work most effectively.
ii. Improves the likelihood of understanding what the customer requires
iii. Provides the opportunity to give the development team rapid feedback.
iv. Can help teams develop a relevant product that the customer wants.
A. 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – ii, 4 – i
B. 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iv
C. 1- iv, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iii
D. 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – iv, 4 – i
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as the project teams which can respond quickly develop relevant products that the
customers want;
Close collaboration with the customer help in understanding the customer’s requirements better;
As Agile development is people-centered through continuous communication and interaction teams can
work most effectively;
From the customer’s perspective, working software is useful and valuable and it provides an opportunity to
give the development team rapid feedback;
Q. 7: (Level K1) Out of the following which one is NOT the Agile Manifesto statement of values?
A. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
B. Responding to change over following a plan.
C. Processes and tools over individuals and interactions.
D. Working software over comprehensive documentation.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as the Agile Manifesto consists of four key values like:
1) Individuals and Interactions over processes and tools;
2) Working software over comprehensive documentation;
3) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation;
4) Responding to change over following a plan
Q. 8: (Level K1) Which alternative is the BEST description of when to stop testing (release criteria) in
an Agile Project?
A. All test cases have been executed.
B. The probability of remaining faults has been reduced to a level that may be acceptable to the customer.
C. The achieved test coverage is considered enough.
D. The iteration/sprint is finished.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as the coverage limit is justified by the complexity of the included functionality, its
implementation, and the risks involved.
Q. 9: (Level K2) One of the new Agile teams have agreed to use the “Power of Three” concept to take
advantage of the whole team approach.
Which out of the following statements relates to this?
A. The concept involving Scrum master, Developers, and Tester in all feature discussions.
B. The concept of involving Testers, Developers, and Business Representatives in all feature discussions.
C. The concept involving DBA, Developers, and Architect in all feature discussions.
D. The concept involving Scrum master, Business Representatives, and Tester in all feature discussions.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (B) is True – as “Power of Three” refers to the concept of involving Testers, Developers, and
Business Representatives during discussions or meetings in which product features are presented, analyzed,
or estimated.
Q.10: (Level K2) Out of the following which activities are not consistent with Agile’s “Whole Team
Approach”?
A. Testers working with the team in user story creation.
B. Product owner working on testing tasks.
C. Testers working on non-testing tasks.
D. Product owner and developers having a discussion regarding user story.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this is consistent with “Whole Team Approach”, testers work in collaboration with
the product owner and developers for user story creation.
Option (B) is False – as this is consistent with Agile’s “Whole Team Approach”, the product owner can help
the testers with testing tasks.
Option (C) is False – as this is consistent with Agile’s “Whole Team Approach”, testers work on non-testing
task based on their skill-sets.
Option (D) is True – as this is not consistent with Agile’s “Whole Team Approach”, testers should be an
essential part of all discussions.
Q. 11: (Level K2) Out of the following which can be used to take advantage of the whole team
approach in Agile development?
A. Daily stand-up meeting.
B. Continuous integration.
C. Test Driven Development.
D. Pairing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as the whole-team approach is supported through the daily stand-up meetings involving
all members of the team, where work progress is communicated and any impediments to progress are
highlighted.
Option (B) is False – as continuous integration has nothing to do with the whole team approach.
Option (C) is
False – as Test-driven development has no relation with the whole team approach.
Option (D) is False – as in pairing two team members (e.g., a tester and a developer, two testers, or a tester
and a product owner join together at one workstation to perform a testing or other sprint task) is not an
example of the whole team approach.
Q. 12: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT a benefit of the “Whole Team Approach”?
A. Enhancing communication and collaboration within the team.
B. Enabling the various skill sets within the team to be leveraged.
C. Making quality everyone’s responsibility.
D. Specialized testers not required.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (D) is True – as specialized testers are essentially required on agile projects.
Q. 13: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO activities represent tasks and responsibilities that
are consistent with the whole team approach in Agile projects?
A. Testers create user stories for the team.
B. Testers are responsible to test functional requirements and developers are responsible to test non-
functional requirements.
C. Testers collaborate with other team members for tasks related to building infrastructure and designing for
testability.
D. Every team member of the Agile team takes responsibility for testing tasks.
E. Testers prioritize and estimate the user stories.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as the team works together to create user stories.
Option (B) is False – as this depends on the skillset of the team; developers may take on the task of non-
functional testing.
Option (C) is True – as testers collaborate with the team on all tasks.
Option (D) is True – as quality is everyone’s responsibility and all team members should work together to
ensure that the desired quality levels are achieved.
Option (E) is False – as the team collaborates to prioritize and estimate the user stories.
Q. 14: (Level K2) Who is responsible for the quality of the product in Agile projects?
A. Testers as they are testing the product before it reaches the real customer.
B. Developers as they are developing the product based on the requirements.
C. Business Analyst as they are responsible for writing the acceptance criteria for the product.
D. The whole team has responsibility for the quality of the product.
E. The product owner as they specify the customer requirements to the team.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – As testers help the team in testing tasks but they are not responsible for quality as in
traditional project development methods
Option (B) is False – As developers develop the stories and help the team in automation
Option (C) is False – As Business Analyst creates the acceptance criteria with the help of the team
Option (D) is True – As in agile projects, quality is the responsibility of the whole team
Option (E) is False – As the Product owner represents the business and provides frequent feedback to the
team
Q. 15: (Level K2) The statement – Agile development is very “people-centered” relates to Out of the
following which Agile Manifesto values?
A. Individuals and Interactions over processes and tools;
B. Working software over comprehensive documentation;
C. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation;
D. Responding to change over following a plan;
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as agile development put a strong emphasis on Individual communication and
interaction as against relying on tools or processes so that the teams can function most effectively.
Q. 16: (Level K2) Out of the following which is a benefit of the agile process promoting early and
frequent feedback?
A. The total number of defects found In the project is much higher than on traditional software development
projects such as the waterfall.
B. There is less rework because customers see the product regularly.
C. It is easy to determine the developer who introduces the most defects when integrating code
D. There is enough time to complete all features scheduled for the given iteration.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (B) is True – as mistakes/rework get drastically reduced due to the involvement of the cross-
functional team of competent people.
Q. 17: (Level K2) Out of the following which is an advantage of holding the whole team responsible
for the product quality?
A. Companies no longer need to recruit and train software testing specialists.
B. Test automation tasks are now the responsibility of the development team instead of the test team.
C. Role barriers are eliminated and team members contribute to project success based on their unique skills
and perspectives.
D. Project costs are lower because the need for a specialized test team is eliminated.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as every member of the team is fully accountable for the success of the project
Q. 18: (Level K2) Out of the following which can be used to draw advantage of early and frequent
feedback in Agile projects?
A. Involving business representatives in team planning meeting.
B. Involving testers in non-testing tasks based on their skillsets.
C. Asking Developer to work on automation tasks.
D. Asking the customer to see the product regularly.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as the task is not related to receiving early and frequent feedback.
Option (B) is False – as the task is not related to receiving early and frequent feedback.
Option (C) is False – as the task is not related to receiving early and frequent feedback.
Option (D) is True – as the customer checks the product early and regularly there is less chance for
requirement misunderstandings which is the main benefit of early and frequent feedback.
Q. 19: (Level K2) Out of the following which is a benefit of early feedback in agile projects?
A. It helps to manage the team better.
B. It helps the team to deliver better quality software to the customer.
C. Early feedback results in fewer changes to the software.
D. Early feedback reduces the cost of the overall development cycle
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as the capability of the team members is quite transparent to everyone and it is easy to
manage the team better.
Option (B) is False – as early feedback avoids misunderstandings in requirements but not necessarily results
in better quality of software.
Option (C) is False – as more changes may be coming up due to early feedbacks.
Option (D) is False – as more testing may be required due to frequent changes.
Q. 20: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT a benefit of early feedback?
A. Avoiding requirements misunderstandings.
B. Clarifying customers requests, making them available for customer use early.
C. Early discovery and resolution of bugs.
D. Early feedback reduces costs because it decreases the amount of time needed for testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (D) is True – as more testing might be required due to frequent changes.
Q. 21: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements are true?
1. Early feedback can only be achieved by Continuous Integration
2. Early and frequent feedback helps manage the team better since the capability of the team is transparent to
everyone.
3. Early and frequent feedback helps the team find the high severity bugs early.
4. Early and frequent feedback enables the Agile team to build a product which reflects what the customer
wants.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is False – as continuous integration is one way to provide a quick feedback, but it is not the
only way.
Statement (2) is True – as it is easy to check the work done in an iteration and see how it can be improved.
Statement (3) is False – as bugs can be found early but not necessarily the high severity defects.
Statement (4) is True – as customers indicate if requirements are not met early, and can modify the
functionality requirements if required.
Q. 22: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements are true?
1. Early feedback helps the team focus on the features with the highest value or associated risk so they are
delivered to the customer first.
2. Early feedback reduces the time needed for system testing because the quality problems are discovered
and resolved early.
3. Early feedback helps in avoiding requirement misunderstanding because the customer sees the product
regularly
4. Early feedback gives the testers more time to work on the features in the next iteration because they spend
less time testing the features in the current iteration.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement – (1) is True – as frequent customer feedback maintains a focus on the features with the highest
business value or associated risk.
Statement – (2) is False – as more system testing might be required due to frequent changes.
Statement – (3) is True – as the customer is checking the product early and regularly there is less chance of
requirement misunderstanding.
Statement – (4) is False – as testers will work on the features included in the current iteration. If they
complete their testing, they will extend their help to the remaining team members.
Q. 23: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements are true?
1. Early feedback results in in-consistent project momentum.
2. Early feedback ensures that the product better reflects what the customer wants
3. Early feedback reduces the time needed for testing because there are no requirement’s misunderstandings.
4. Early feedback helps to find quality problems early.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement – (1) is False – as early feedback results in consistent project momentum.
Statement – (2) is True – as clarifying customer feature requests and making them available to the customer
early will produce a better product meeting the expectations of the customer.
Statement – (3) is False – as early feedback can result in more changes and requiring more and more testing.
Statement – (4) is True – as early and frequent feedback results in quality issues found early.
Q. 24: (Level K1) Out of the following which roles are NOT defined according to the Scrum software
development approach?
A. Scrum Master
B. Product Owner
C. Development Team
D. Testing Team
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as Scrum Master is a role defined in Scrum. It is the Scrum Master’s responsibility to
ensure that Scrum practices and rules are implemented and followed and to resolve any violations, resource
issues, or other impediments that could prevent the team from following the practices and rules.
Option (B) is False – as Product Owner role is defined in Scrum. The Product Owner represents the
customer and generates, maintains, and prioritizes the product backlog.
Option (C) is False – as the development team is responsible for developing and testing the product. The
team is self-organized and is cross-functional.
Option (D) is True – as there is no separate role defined for the Testing team. The development team cover
both developer and tester roles and are responsible for development and testing of the product.
Q. 25: (Level K1) Match the following terms on the top with their corresponding best agile software
development on the bottom.
1. Pair Programming, Test-First Programming
2. Backlog, Sprints
3. Work-in-progress limit, Lead time
i. Kanban
ii. Extreme Programming (XP)
iii. Scrum
A. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
B. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
D. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as Pair Programming, Test First Programming are primary practices for Extreme
Programming; Backlog, Sprints are the instruments & practices for scrum; Work-in-progress limit and lead
time are the instruments for Kanban;
Q. 26: (Level K1) Out of the following which is NOT related to the ‘Scrum’ software development
approach?
A. Sprint
B. Definition of Done
C. Lead Time
D. Product Backlog
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as it is true that Scrum divides a project into iterations (called sprints) of fixed length.
Option (B) is False – as it is true that Definition of Done is the appropriate criteria for sprint completion
decided by the scrum team.
Option (C) is True – as Lead time is used in Kanban to optimize the continuous flow of tasks.
Option (D) is False – as it is true that the product owner manages a prioritized list of planned product items
(called the product backlog).
Q. 27: (Level K1) Out of the following which is NOT one of the values to guide development in
Extreme Programming?
A. Simplicity
B. Quality
C. Courage
D. Feedback
E. Communication
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (C) is True – as quality is not the value in Extreme Programming development, five values to guide
development are communication, simplicity, feedback, courage, and respect.
Q. 28: (Level K1) Out of the following which is NOT related to a ‘User Story’?
A. Story Acceptance criteria.
B. Story point.
C. Story priority.
D. Story Entry criteria.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this is related to the user story, Story Acceptance criteria are collaboration defined
by business representatives, developers, and testers for each user story.
Option (B) is False – as this is related to the user story, a Story point is assigned to each user story In the
poker planning session.
Option (C) is False – as this is related to the user story, each user story is assigned a priority by the business
users during release planning.
Option (D) is True – as there are no Story Entry criteria.
Q. 29: (Level K1) Who is responsible for writing the ‘user story’ in Agile projects?
A. It is the tester’s responsibility to write the user stories.
B. It is the scrum master’s responsibility to write the user stories for the team.
C. It is the product owner’s responsibility to write the user stories for the team.
D. User stories are written collaboratively by developers, testers, and business representatives.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (D) is True – as in the Agile environment, user stories are written to capture requirements from the
perspectives of developers, testers, and business representatives. The collaborative authorship of the user
story can use techniques like brainstorming and mind mapping.
Q. 30: (Level K3) During an iteration planning meeting, the team is sharing their thoughts about a
user story. The product owner advises that the customer should have one screen to enter information.
The developer explains that there are technical limitations for the feature, due to the amount of
information needed to be captured on the screen. Another developer says that there are risks about
performance as the information will be stored in an external offside database.
Out of the following which would best represent a tester’s contribution to this discussion?
A. The tester advises that the screen for the user story needs to be a single page to reduce test automation
effort.
B. The tester advises that usability is more important than performance.
C. The tester advises that performance acceptance criteria should standard maximum of 1 secondary data
storage.
D. The tester advises that the user story needs acceptance criteria to be testable.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (D) is True – as it is essential to define an acceptance criterion against which the application must be
tested.
Q. 31: (Level K3) During an iteration planning meeting, the team is sharing their thoughts about a
user story. The tester has asked the following to the product owner to add more clarity to the business
value of the feature. Out of the following which questions don’t add any value to the discussion?
A. The tester advises that the non-functional characteristics should be defined for the user story.
B. The tester advises that the user story needs acceptance criteria that is testable.
C. The tester asking open-ended questions regarding the missing details.
D. The tester advises that usability is more important than performance.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A)
is False – as this is important to the discussion. The tester contributes by ensuring that the user story contains
all non-functional requirements details.Option (B) is False – as this is important to the discussion. The tester
contributes by ensuring that the team creates acceptance criteria for the user story.
Option (C) is False – as this adds value to the discussion. It is the responsibility of the tester to ask all
questions about the missing functionality which may result in the complexities of the product being
discussed, which could have been skipped by the team earlier.
Option (D) is True – as this is not adding any value to the discussion, the reason being the quality
characteristics are prioritized by the product owner.
Q. 32: (Level K3) In an iteration planning meeting, the team is discussing a user story for the new
interface which will be integrated to external applications in later iterations. After the discussion, the
developers confirmed that they have enough information to start with their development work. The
tester is not clear about some of the functionality which may be required for integration testing later.
What should the tester do in this situation?
A. As the Integration testing will be done later, the tester can confirm the functionality with the business
representatives later.
B. The tester can collaborate with the developers to find out about the missing functionality once the coding
is finished.
C. The tester should ask open-ended questions to business representatives to confirm the acceptance criteria
and the missing functionality as it may impact the testing.
D. The tester should not worry about the missing details as it is the team responsible to provide all the
details to the tester.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as the tester should confirm the functionality In the planning meeting, not later.
Option (B) is False – as the tester should ask questions to confirm the functionality In the planning meeting.
Option (C) is True – as it is the responsibility of the tester to ask all questions about the missing
functionality which may result in the complexities of the product being discussed, which could have been
skipped by the team earlier.
Option (D) is False – as the tester should make sure that all information is available for testing the story.
Q. 33: (Level K3) In an iteration planning meeting, the team is discussing a user story. The product
owner advises that sensitive customer data is captured as part of the story and should be encrypted.
The developer explains that the encryption could result in an increase in development time. Out of the
following which would best represent a tester’s contribution to this discussion?
A. The tester advises that encryption will increase the testing effort as there is more development required.
B. The tester advises that the priority of the story should be increased.
C. The tester advises that more performance testing will be required for the user story.
D. The tester advises that the user story needs testable acceptance criteria for the encryption functionality.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as it is not necessary that the increase in development effort will increase the testing
effort.
Option (B) is False – as the product owner will prioritize the story, the tester alone doesn’t decide that.
Option (C) is False – as changes to performance testing requirements will be decided by the team, not by the
tester alone.
Option (D) is True – as the tester should ensure that there is testable acceptance criteria for all of the
functions of the user story.
Q. 34: (Level K2) Out of the following which BEST describes a tester participating in a retrospective
meeting?
A. As a tester participating in a retrospective meeting, I should bring in topics that are related to testing only.
All other topics will be covered by different participants.
B. As a tester, I participate in a retrospective meeting as an observer, ensuring that the meeting follows the
retrospective rules and agile values.
C. As a tester participating in a retrospective meeting, I should provide feedback and input on all activities
conducted by the team in the sprint.
D. As a tester, I should only attend and participate in a retrospective meeting if I have any feedback and
input related to activities conducted by the team in the sprint.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Tester participates the retrospective meeting not as an observer but he/she remains the ears and eyes of the
entire team in the sprint and remains responsible for providing inputs to the team and feedback on all
activities.
Q. 35: (Level K2) Out of the following which demonstrates effective use of the testing quadrant?
A. When communicating test ideas, the tester can refer to the matching test quadrant, so that the rest of the
team will better understand the purpose of the test.
B. The tester can use the types of tests described in the testing quadrants as coverage metric, the more tests
covered from each quadrant, the higher the test coverage.
C. The team should pick a number of tests expected from each quadrant, and the tester should design and
execute those tests to ensure all levels and types of tests have been executed
D. The tester can use the testing quadrants during risk analysis; with the lower level quadrants representing a
lower risk to the customer.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
It is the responsibility of the tester to select tests from a testing quadrant and communicate with the team
with clear objective of doing particular tests.
Q. 36: (Level K2) One of the Agile teams are using the “Start, Stop, Continue” exercise for their
iteration retrospective.
Out of the following which one is from the “Stop” list?
A. Communicating better with each other.
B. Accepting the story with incomplete requirements.
C. Increase the coverage of Automation tests.
D. Improve the performance of the test environment.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as it is from the “continue” list
Option (B) is True – as it is from the “stop” list. The team should stop accepting the stories without
complete requirements.
Option (C) is False – as it is from the “start” list
Option (D) is False – as it is from the “start” list
Q. 37: (Level K2) Out of the following which could be raised in the retrospective meeting?
i. Frequent environment related issues are slowing down testing. A root cause analysis of the environment
issues is required.
ii. A new tool is needed for the team to better manage user stories.
iii. Automation coverage of unit tests should be increased to improve overall quality.
iv. The team should plan for some social activity after the end of each iteration.
A. i, ii, iii
B. i & iii
C. i, ii, iv
D. i, ii, iii, iv
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as it could be raised as a process improvement.
Statement (ii) is True – as it could be raised as a process improvement, this could improve the efficiency of
the team.
Statement (iii) is True – as it could be raised as a process improvement.
Statement (iv) is True – as it could be raised; team activities can result in better communication and team
efficiency.
Q. 38: (Level K2) Out of the following which items should NOT be raised during a retrospective
meeting?
A. Test data creation taking a long time. There should be an automated process to create test data.
B. Developers not finishing the development activities on time.
C. The percentage of automation tests need to be increased to reduce regression risks.
D. The test environment is slow and frequently unavailable for testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this should be raised as a process improvement.
Option (B) is True – as the retrospective meeting is not meant to point fingers at individuals or groups.
Option (C) is False – as this should be raised as a process improvement.
Option (D) is False – as this should be raised as a process problem and bottleneck.
Q. 39: (Level K2) Out of the following which BEST describes a tester’s contribution in a retrospective
meeting?
A. As a tester participating in a retrospective meeting, I should only be concerned about the test-related
improvement decisions focused on test effectiveness
B. As a tester, I should I should give feedback only on the automation tasks so that I can improve test
effectiveness
C. As a tester, I should provide feedback on all activities conducted by the agile team during all the
completed sprints.
D. As a tester, I should give feedback only on the development task so that I can improve test effectiveness
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
All team members, including testers, should provide input and feedback on both testing and non-testing
activities in retrospective meetings.
Q. 40: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT the purpose of retrospective meetings held at the
end of each iteration?
A. To discuss the team velocity and the ways to improve it.
B. To discuss the things In the iteration which were successful.
C. To discuss the things In the iteration which can be improved.
D. To discuss how to incorporate the improvements and retain the success in future iterations.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is correct – as it is false to say that the purpose of the retrospective meeting is not to discuss team
velocity or ways to improve it.
Option (B) is incorrect – as it is true to say that one of the purposes of a retrospective meeting is to find out
the things which were successful.
Option (C) is incorrect – as it is true to say that one of the purposes of a retrospective meeting is to find out
the things which can be improved.
Option (D) is incorrect – as it is true to say that one of the purposes of a retrospective meeting is to
incorporate the improvements in future iterations.
Q. 41: (Level K2) Out of the following which items should NOT be raised during a retrospective
meeting?
A. There should be more emphasis on unit testing in the future, to improve overall quality.
B. The build process is manual and takes too long. Research and implementation of an automated build
framework should be done.
C. Tester XYZ is struggling to find defects. Test design training is required for this resource.
D. Automated regression test suites are taking too long to run. A review of the tests, to eliminate redundant
or unnecessary tests, is required.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
It is too late to suggest inadequacy of training related to a
resource being the bottleneck.
Q. 42: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are reasons why automation is essential to agile
projects?
i. So that teams maintain or increase their velocity
ii. To prevent the test team from becoming bored with manual, repetitive tasks
iii. To retest all test cases from previous iterations
iv. To eliminate regression in the product due to high code churn
v. To ensure that code changes do not break the software build
A. i and iv
B. i and v
C. iii and iv
D. ii and v
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as automation is quite essential for maintaining the tempo of work in agile projects.
Statement (v) is True – as automation is helpful in maintaining the health of the software build during
changes in the code.
Q. 43: (Level K2) What is the correct sequence of activities for the Continuous Integration process?
i. Compile
ii. Static code analysis
iii. Deploy
iv. Unit test
V. Integration test
vi. Report
A. i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
B. ii, i, iv, iii, v, vi
C. ii, i, iv, v, iii, v
D. v, ii, iii, iv, vi, i
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Continuous integration process consists of the following automated activities:
# Static code analysis: Executing static code analysis and reporting the results
# Compiling: Compiling and linking the code, generating the executable files
# Unit testing: Executing the unit tests, checking code coverage and reporting the test results
# Deployment: Installing the build into a test environment
# Integration testing: Executing the integration tests and reporting the results
# Reporting: Posting the status of all activities to a publicly visible location or emailing the status to the
team.
Q. 44: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are the benefits of Continuous Integration?
1. It allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.
2. It gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.
3. Eliminate the need for a System test after the new changes are introduced.
4. The code check-in process is fast with continuous integration.
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is True – as continuous integration finds integration problems earlier, also conflicting changes
when multiple people check in code at the same time are found In the process.
Statement (2) is True – as continuous integration results provide the development team feedback on their
code.
Statement (3) is False – as system testing is still required after the continuous integration.
Statement (4) is False – as code check-in is slow after continuous integration as additional automated tests
are executed during the process.
Q. 45: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are risks to the Continuous Integration process?
1. Continuous Integration increases the manual testing activities.
2. It increases the regression risk associated with developer code refactoring.
3. Continuous integration tools have to be introduced and maintained.
4. Test automation requires additional resources and can be complex to establish.
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is False – as continuous integration reduces repetitive manual testing activities.
Statement (2) is False – as continuous integration reduces the regression risk associated with developer code
refactoring due to the rapid re-testing of the code base after each small set of changes.
Statement (3 & 4) are True – as these are risky for the continuous integration process.
Q. 46: (Level K1) The tester collaborates with the team on which of the two following activities during
release planning?
A. Specify the definition of “done”.
B. Creating testing tasks for user stories.
C. Testing of user stories.
D. Test strategy for all test levels, addressing test scope and technical risks.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as it is an activity during release planning
Option (B) is False – as it is an activity during iteration planning
Option (C) is False – as it is an activity during iteration planning
Option (D) is True – as it is an activity during release planning
Q. 47: (Level K1) Out of the following which TWO activities will the tester be involved in during
iteration planning?
1. Discuss the Test approach and test plan with the Team.
2. Help break down user stories into smaller and more detailed tasks.
3. Estimate testing tasks generated by new features planned for this iteration.
4. Support the clarification of the user stories and ensure that they are testable.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is False – as this is expected during release planning.
Statement (2) is True – as this is expected during iteration planning.
Statement (3) is True – as this is expected during iteration planning.
Statement (4) is False – as this is expected during release planning.
Q. 48: (Level K1) Which one of the following activities will a tester be involved with during iteration
planning?
A. Discuss the Test approach and test plan with the Team.
B. Determining the testability of the user stories.
C. Estimate testing tasks generated by new features planned for this iteration.
D. Support the clarification of the user stories and ensure that they are testable.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this is expected during release planning.
Option (B) is False – as this is expected during release planning.
Option (C) is True – as this is expected during iteration planning.
Option (D) is False – as this is expected during release planning.
Q. 49: (Level K1) The business advises during iteration 5 planning that they require changes to the
system delivered in iteration 3. Of the following activities, which would need to be done first to
minimize the introduction of regression risk when this feature is changed?
A. Review and update all manual and automated tests impacted by this change to meet the new acceptance
criteria.
B. Write new manual and automated tests for the feature and add them to the regression test suite.
C. Automate all test cases from the previous iteration and add them to the automated regression test suite.
D. Increase the amount of test automation around the system to include more detailed test conditions.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
When a feature is changed, a revised acceptance criterion is formulated, and all tests are revised to meet the
new requirements.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> <<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Chapter -2: Fundamental Agile Testing Principles, Practices, and Processes


Q. 50: (Level K2) In one of the Agile projects there is heavy use of test automation, Which out of the
following TWO techniques should testers use more for their manual testing?
i. Exploratory testing techniques.
ii. Static testing techniques.
iii. Structure-based techniques.
iv. Error guessing techniques.
A. i and iv
B. i and iii
C. ii and iv
D. ii and iii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as exploratory testing techniques will be ideal for manual testing.
Statement (ii) is False – as static testing techniques are used for testing code or requirements before starting
the manual testing.
Statement (iii) is False – as structure testing should be covered in automated tests.
Statement (iv) is True – as error testing techniques will be ideal for manual testing.
Q. 51: (Level K2) Which out of the following is the purpose of hardening or stabilization iterations in
Agile projects?
A. It is used to resolve any lingering defects and other forms of technical debts.
B. It is used for customer testing so the team can get the feedback on product quality.
C. It is used to finish any pending automation tasks to achieve desired test coverage. D. It is used for the
team to work on process improvement activities.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as the bugs creeping out of previous iterations are a form of Technical Debt. Hardening
or stabilization iterations occur periodically
to resolve technical debt in Agile development.Option (B) is False – as the purpose of hardening or
stabilization iterations is not for customer testing.
Option (C) is False – as the purpose of hardening or stabilization iterations is not to catch up on automation
tasks.
Option (D) is False – as the process improvement activities happen in parallel with iteration activities.
Q. 52: (Level K2) Out of the following which test activities is typically done during agile projects, but
is not as common on traditional projects?
A. Testers prepare detailed test strategy to address all testing activities during each iteration.
B. Testers spend a lot of time creating, executing and maintaining automated tests and results.
C. Testers use defect based techniques to find defects.
D. Testers used risk-based testing as one of the test strategies.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as lightweight documentation is favored in Agile projects.
Option (B) is True – as test automation occurs at all levels in most agile teams. In Agile projects testers
focus on automating, executing and maintaining tests on integration, system, and acceptance level. In
traditional projects, testers do not have the same focus on automation.
Option (C) is False – as defect based techniques such as software attacks and error guessing are used in
traditional projects also.
Option (D) is False – as risk-based testing techniques are used in traditional projects also.
Q. 53: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements are true on agile projects?
Select TWO options.
A. Testers should work closely with developers while retaining an objective outlook.
B. Test managers do not exist in organizations doing agile development.
C. There is no difference between what testers and developers do on agile projects.
D. Developers should rely on testers to create the automated regression tests.
E. A selection of users may perform beta testing on the product after the completion of a series of iterations.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The basic hypothesis of agile projects is a joint collaboration between testers, developers, and business
stakeholders being a homogeneous cross-functional team operating for a common goal.
Q. 54: (Level K2) Consider the following work products used by Agile team for development and
testing activities:
i. Quality risk catalogues.
ii. Test Results log.
iii. User stories.
iv. Automated unit tests.
Which out of the above are Test work products?
A. i and ii
B. ii only
C. i and iii
D. All of the above.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as it is one of the Test work products.
Statement (ii) is True – as it is one of the Test work products.
Statement (iii) is False – as it is one of the business-oriented work products, not a Test work product.
Statement (iv) is False – as these are the developer work products, not a Test Work product.
Q. 55: (Level K2) Out of the following which combination of activities should occur in an Agile
project?
i. Functional verification testing of user stories developed in the previous iteration.
ii. Tester, developer, and business representative working collaboratively to determine whether the feature is
fit for use.
iii. Re-running the automated unit tests and feature verification tests from the current iteration and previous
iteration.
iv. System test level entry and exit criteria.
A. ii and iv
B. i and ii
C. ii and iii
D. ii only
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is False – as features should be verified in the same iteration in which they are developed.
Statement (ii) is True – as this is required in an Agile project as part of feature validation testing.
Statement (iii) is True – as this is required in an Agile project as part of regression testing which is a parallel
process throughout the iteration.
Statement (iv) is False – as this is not required in Agile project. Test level entry and exit criteria are more
closely associated with sequential lifecycle models.
Q. 56: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements are true on Agile projects?
A. Feature verification testing, which is often automated, may be done by developers or testers.
B. Regression testing can be done by the business users either at the close of each iteration, after the
completion of each iteration, or after a series of iterations.
C. Feature validation testing is usually manual and can involve developers, testers, and business
stakeholders working collaboratively
D. Acceptance testing can be done by developers, testers, and business stakeholders working collaboratively
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as feature verification testing involves testing against the user story’s acceptance
criteria and is done by developers or testers.
Option (B) is False – as regression testing should be done by the tester, not the business user.
Option (C) is True – as feature validation testing involves developers, testers, and business stakeholders
working collaboratively to determine whether the feature is fit for use.
Option (D) is False – as acceptance testing is done by the client.
Q.57: (Level K2) Consider the following activities:
i. Strict enforcement of system test level entry and exit criteria.
ii. Collaboration between tester, developer, and business stakeholders to define acceptance criteria.
iii. Functional verification testing of user stories developed in the previous iteration.
Out of the following which combination of these activities should occur in an Agile project?
A. ii only
B. i and ii
C. ii and iii
D. iii only
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The basic hypothesis of agile projects is a joint collaboration between testers, developers, and business
stakeholders being a homogeneous cross-functional team defining and operating on common acceptance
criteria.
Q.58: (Level K2) Out of the following which statements about independent testing on agile projects is
FALSE?
A. There can be a risk of losing test independence for organizations introducing agile.
B. Independent testers will find more defects than developers regardless of the test level.
C. Independent testing can be introduced at the end of a sprint.
D. The independent test team can be part of another team.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
It is a misconception that Independent testers are more efficient than developers.
Q. 59: (Level K2) Out of the following which testing tasks should NOT be taken by the independent
testing team on Agile projects?
A. System Integration testing.
B. Test data creation.
C. Non Functional testing
D. User story acceptance testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as Independent testing team can work on the test levels like system integration testing
that might not fit well within a sprint.
Option (B) is False – as Independent testing team can work on test data creation which is an iteration-
independent activity.
Option (C) is False – as Independent testing team can work on non-functional testing which is an iteration-
independent activity.
Option (D) is True – as user story acceptance testing involves working closely with developers and other
team members so there is a chance to lose test independence.
Q. 60: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements are true for independent test teams on
agile projects?
1. Independent test Teams can be used for creating and supporting test environments and data.
2. Independent testers can work on all the iteration testing activities.
3. Independent test teams can work as ‘on demand’ testers In the final days of each sprint.
4. Independent testers can work on all the iteration automation activities.
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is True – as independent test teams can work on the iteration-independent activities like
creating and supporting test environments and data
Statement (2) is False – reason being, if the team will work on the iteration testing activities with the Agile
team, then there is a chance to lose test independence.
Statement (3) is True – as independent test teams can provide an objective, unbiased evaluation of the
software at the end of a sprint.
Statement (4) is False – reason being, if the team will work on the automation testing activities with the
developers, then there is a chance to lose test independence.
Q. 61: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO testing tasks can be taken by the independent
testing team on agile projects?
A. Non Functional testing.
B. Story level testing activities.
C. System Integration testing.
D. Story level automation activities.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as an independent testing team can work on non-functional testing which is an
iteration-independent activity.
Option (B) is False – as story level testing involves working closely with the developer so there is a chance
to lose test independence.
Option (C) is True – as an independent testing team can work on the test levels like system integration
testing that might not fit well within a sprint.
Option (D) is False – as automation testing activities involve working closely with the developer so there is
a chance to lose test independence.
Q. 62: (Level K2) The Test manager wants to introduce Independent testing for one of the Agile
teams. Out of the following which is a good approach?
A. Engage the independent test team in iteration planning activities.
B. Engage the independent test team In the release planning to understand the risk.
C. Engage the independent team carrying out test levels that might not fit well within a sprint.
D. Engage the independent test team for the automation tasks in the sprints.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as testers working on the iteration should be engaged in iteration related activities, not
the independent test team.
Option (B) is False – as testers working on the iteration should be engaged in release planning, not the
independent test team.
Option (C) is True – as an independent testing team can carry out test levels e.g. system integration testing,
that might not fit well within a sprint.
Option (D) is False – as developers and testers work collaboratively to do the automation task in the sprints
Q. 63: (Level K2) Out of the following which is an example of an independent test team in Agile
project?
A. On-demand Testers working In the final days of each sprint.
B. Testers implementing and updating test strategy.
C. Testers working on iteration automation activities.
D. Testers working with the team to write the user story.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as on-demand testers working on final days of each sprint can provide an objective,
unbiased evaluation of the software.
Option (B) is False – as testers working on the test strategy is not an example of an independent test team as
a lot of collaboration is required with the team for this task.
Option (C) is False – as testers working on iteration automation activities is not an example of an
independent test team as a lot of collaboration is required with the team for this task.
Option (D) is False – as testers working on user stories is not an example of an independent test team as a lot
of collaboration is required with the team for this task.
Q. 64: (Level K2) Out of the following which statements about Independent testing on Agile projects is
False?
A. Independent testing can be introduced at the start of a sprint.
B. An Independent test team can be part of another team.
C. There is a risk of losing test independence in Agile teams.
D. An Independent test team can carry out test levels that might not fit within a sprint.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is correct – as it is false to say that in the start of iterations there is more of a need for testers to
work closely with developers; so there is a chance to lose test independence.
Option (B) is incorrect – as it is true that this option is satisfied when there are some specialized testers
working on iteration independent or long-term activities like developing an automated test tool or non-
functional testing etc.
Option (C) is incorrect – as it is true that this can happen when testers work closely with developers.
Option (D) is incorrect – as it is true that independent testing team can carry out test levels e.g. system
integration testing, that might not fit well within a sprint
Q. 65: (Level K2) Out of the following which is best at showing the team’s progress against estimates?
A. Burndown charts.
B. Automation logs.
C. The agile task board showing user story and task progress.
D. Defect tracking tools.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
As per the definition of Burndown chart, it is a graphical representation of work left to do versus time. That
is, it is a run chart of outstanding work by a team working on agile projects.
Q. 66: (Level K1) The term “Agile task board” relates to Out of the following which?
A. A chart showing the progress of each user story with their current status.
B. A chart showing the sum of estimates of the work delivered across iterations.
C. A chart showing the number of defects discovered during a given period.
D. A chart showing the amount of work left to be done, versus the time allocated for the iteration
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True- as agile task boards are used to provide an instant, detailed visual representation of the
user stories and the whole team’s current status.
Option (B) is False- as this is a velocity chart, not the Agile task board.
Option (C) is False- as this is a defect discover rate chart, not the Agile task board.
Option (D) is False- as this is a burn-down chart, not the Agile task board.
Q. 67: (Level K1) Out of the following which is NOT used as Agile metric?
A. Burndown chart.
B. Velocity Chart.
C. Code Churn chart.
D. Daily Status report.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is incorrect – as it is true that Burndown chart is one of the Agile metrics. It shows the amount of
work left to be done, versus the time allocated for the iteration.
Option (B) is incorrect – as it is true that Velocity chart is one of the Agile metrics. It shows the sum of the
estimates of the work delivered across iterations. This may be used while selecting the stories for the next
iteration.
Option (C) is incorrect – as it is true that Code Churn is one of the Agile metrics. It shows the number of
defects discovered during a given period. This may be used as criteria for stopping the testing.
Option (D) is correct – as it is false to say that daily status is not one of the Agile metrics. The team shares
the status in the daily stand-up meetings.
Q. 68: (Level K2) In an Agile project, out of the following which would best denote product quality at
the end of iteration 6 of a new system release consisting of 8 iterations?
A. No severity 1 or 2 defects were detected during system testing of iteration 6, which allowed the teams to
move into iteration 7.
B. The results of a customer beta test on the iteration 6 software release indicate that the system works
correctly and that it has improved productivity.
C. The agile team has been successfully tracking to estimates, with limited variance showing on the burn
down charts for all iterations to date.
D. All story cards in scope for each iteration, up to the current iteration, have been marked as “Done”, but
with some technical debt being incurred.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
One of the best metric for product quality is the customer satisfaction by increased productivity. Customer
satisfaction could be through beta testing of the final releases.
Q. 69: (Level K2) In the final days of sprint tests, execution is blocked due to a test environment
related issue which is escalated to the environment team.
What is the BEST action point from a Tester’s point of view?
A. There is nothing the tester can do so he should start working on test case preparation for stories which
can be included in the next sprint.
B. This is a blocker and should be communicated in the daily stand-up meeting so the team can help resolve
the issue or look for alternative solutions to finish testing.
C. Environment downtime can be used effectively to work on the automation of test cases.
D. The tester should document this so it can be raised in the retrospective as this may impact the testing for
the current sprint.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as tester alone can’t determine the stories for the next sprints. They should be
addressed by the entire team during sprint planning.
Option (B) is True – as issues that may block test progress should be communicated In the daily stand-up
meetings so the whole team is made aware of the issue(s) and can work together to find a suitable
solution(s).
Option (C) is False – as automation activities are planned in parallel to testing activities, not during
downtime.
Option (D) is False – as retrospectives cover topics such as the process, people, organizations, relationships,
and tools. Blockers should be raised in daily stand-up meetings.
Q. 70: (Level K2) The team has selected 3 stories in the current sprint each of them is 8 points, sprint
size is 2 week. Sprint burn down chart will start with which of the following values along the Y axis of
burn down chart?
A. 24
B. 2
C. 8
D. 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Y-axis displays the remaining effort which is 8 x 3 = 24 and X-axis displays the working days.
Q. 71: (Level K2) Out of the following which Two are the most popular tools and techniques to
communicate the test progress to the team in an Agile project?
A. Agile task board.
B. Test Status report.
C. Daily stand up meeting.
D. Retrospectives.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as to provide the detailed visual representation of the whole team’s current status,
including the status of testing, teams use Agile task boards.
Option (B) is False – as test status reports are not used for communicating
test progress within the Agile team. They may be used for other metrics.
Option (C) is True – as the daily stand up meetings provide the opportunity for testers to communicate test
progress, including issues that may block test progress.
Option (D) is False – as retrospectives are not for status reporting. They are used to discuss topics such as
the process, people, organizations, relationships, and tools.
Q. 72: (Level K2) Match the following tools used in Agile projects with their corresponding use on the
bottom:
1. Wiki dashboards.
2. Daily Stand-up meeting.
3. Customer satisfaction survey.
4. Agile Task boards.
i. To know the product quality.
ii. To get team current status.
iii. To generate the status report.
iv. To know the team issues.
A. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-ii
B. 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i
D. 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (1) matches with (iii) – Wiki dashboards can be used to automatically generate status reports based
on test results and task progress.
Option (2) matches with (iv) – In Daily Stand-up meeting issues are communicated so the whole team is
aware of the issues and can resolve them accordingly.
Option (3) matches with (i) – Customer satisfaction surveys are used to receive feedback on whether the
product meets the customer’s expectation (overall product quality).
Option (4) matches with (ii) – Agile Task boards are used for instant visual representations of the whole
team’s current status.
Q. 73: (Level K2) The Agile team wants to find out the overall product quality at the end of an
iteration.
What is the best way of achieving this?
A. The best way is to check with the testers as they should be able to assess quality based on their testing.
B. The best way is to check the burn down chart. If the team has successfully achieved the estimates, then
the product quality is good.
C. The best way is to ask the customer to test the product to know whether the system works correctly and
meets expectations.
D. The best way is to check the technical debt incurred so fat This will best indicate the product quality.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as test results may not necessarily indicate the product quality. It is important to know
if the product meets the customer’s expectations.
Option (B) is False – as Burndown charts only show the planned progress and release date together with the
actual progress of the user stories which is not an indicator of quality.
Option (C) is True – as customer feedback and working software are key indicators of product quality.
Option (D) is False – as technical debt may not necessarily indicate product quality. It is important to know
if the product meets the customer’s expectations.
Q. 74: (Level K2) What is the best way to measure the Agile team’s progress against the estimates?
A. Test Status reports
B. Burndown charts
C. Number of completed stories in the sprint
D. Test Summary report
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as the test status report shows the progress of testing and can be used to measure the
progress of testing.
Option (B) is True – as Burndown charts show the planned progress and release date together with the actual
progress of the user stories.
Option (C) is False – as the number of completed stories will tell the team velocity for that sprint.
Option (D) is False – as the Test Summary report contains the summary of test activities and final test
results.
Q. 75: (Level K2) “Test automation is important to manage regression risk in Agile projects”
Which out of the following TWO reasons support the above statement?
i. To eliminate regression risk due to high code churn.
ii. To ensures that all previous iterations’ stories are tested.
iii. To receive immediate feedback on overall product quality.
iv. So the team can make changes to previously delivered features to meet the customer’s needs.
v. It gives the team more time to spend on the current iteration activities.
A. i and ii
B. iv and v
C. iii and iv
D. ii and v
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is False – as automation can reduce the regression risk but cannot guarantee to eliminate all
regression risk.
Statement (ii) is False – as it is not feasible to automate all of the tests and it is also not possible to
retest/rerun all of the test cases from all of the previous iteration.
Statement (iii) is False – as automated acceptance test results can provide feedback on product quality with
respect to the regression since the last build, but they do not provide the status of overall product quality.
Statement (iv) is True – as automation reduces the regression test effort so the team can accept and make
changes to previously delivered features to meet the customer’s needs.
Statement (v) is True – as automation reduces the regression test effort so the team can work on tasks from
the current iteration
Q. 76: (Level K2) Out of the following which can be used to reduce regression risk due to high code
churn in Agile projects?
A. Automation done for test data generation.
B. Automation done for unit tests.
C. Automation done to compare data outputs.
D. Automation done to restore test environment to baseline.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Automated unit tests will provide rapid feedback on product quality and can reduce the risk of regression.
Automation for test data generation, comparing data output and restoring test environment will allow the
team to spend more time in developing and testing new features but will not reduce the risk of code chum.
Q. 77: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements justify the high investment on
Automation in Agile projects?
i. Test Automation helps maintain velocity without incurring a large amount of technical debt.
ii. Test Automation helps to detect the defects early in the project cycle.
iii. Automated acceptance test results can provide immediate feedback on overall product quality.
iv. Test Automation gives the testers more time to test new features and functions in the current iteration.
v. Test Automation ensures that all test cases from the previous iterations are tested.
A. i and v
B. i and iv
C. iii and iv
D. ii and v
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as changes in each iteration will require more and more regression testing. If
automation was not used, then the team’s velocity would be reduced or the Technical debt will increase.
Statement (ii) is False – as this is not a reason to introduce automation on a project.
Statement (iii) is False – as automated acceptance test results can provide feedback on product quality with
respect to the regression since the last build but they do not provide the status of overall product quality.
Statement (iv) is True – as automation reduces the regression test effort so the testers can work on other
tasks from the current iteration.
Statement (v) is False – as it is not feasible to automate all the tests and it is not possible to retest/rerun all
the test cases from all the previous iterations.
Q. 78: (Level K2) The Agile team has created an automation acceptance test suit to manage regression
risk due to frequent changes in the project. This is now part of the continuous integration full system
build, what should be the frequency of run?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Each code check
D. At least once in the sprint
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Automation acceptance test suit should be run at least daily. To explain further, the automation acceptance
test suit should not be run with each code check-in as they take longer to run than automated unit tests and
could slow down the code check-in.
Q. 79: (Level K2) The Agile team is developing the automated build verification tests to provide
instant feedback on the software after deployment.
Out of the following which TWO tests should be part of the Automated build verification tests?
1. All tests to cover critical system functionality.
2. All tests which have previously failed
3. All tests from the previous iteration
4. All tests to cover integration points.
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 2
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is correct – as all tests to cover critical system functionality should be part of the Automated
build verification tests to make sure that the build is stable for testing.
Statement (2) is incorrect – as all tests which have previously failed are not necessarily part of the
Automated build verification tests.
Statement (3) is incorrect – as all tests from the previous iteration are not necessarily part of the Automated
build verification tests.
Statement (4) is correct – as all tests to cover integration should be part of the Automated build verification
tests to make sure that the build is stable for testing.
Q. 80: (Level K2) Out of the following which would need to be done first to minimize the introduction
of regression risk when a feature which has already been delivered is changed in the current
iteration?
A. The team should increase the amount of test automation to reduce regression risk.
B. Automate all the tests for that feature and add them to the automated regression test suite.
C. The changes should be manually tested now and later added to the automation test suit.
D. Do the impact analysis to find out all of the manual and automated tests impacted by this change to meet
the new acceptance criteria.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as a review of the changes are required first before making any decision. It is unknown
if additional automation is required.
Option (B) is False – as a review of the changes are required first before making any decision.
Option (C) is False – as a review of the changes are required first before making any decision since the tester
would not know what new tests would be required for these changes.
Option (D) is True – as this is the initial task to be performed before a decision about any other changes can
be made.
Q. 81: (Level K2) In Agile projects, there is a greater need for testers to understand and be competent
in white box testing.
Which out of the following TWO reasons best indicate why this is a more important skill on Agile
projects than on traditional projects?
i. Agile team is cross-functional so all members can help in each other’s task. This also enables them to help
developers.
ii. In Test Driven Development testers have to write the unit test first so the developers can write the code.
iii. Agile testing relies more on white box testing than black box testing.
iv.Testers can improve the program logic by pair programming.v. In Agile projects, testers often work
closely with developers for automation of unit tests and review of the code.
A. i & ii
B. ii & v
C. iv & v
D. i & v
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – Obvious definition of the agile team.
Statement (ii) is False – as in Test Driven Development, Automated unit tests are written by the developers,
not by testers.
Statement (iii) is False – as Agile projects require both white box and black box testing.
Statement (iv) is False – as Pair programming is typically done using two developers; testers are not
expected to improve program logic.
Statement (v) is True – Obvious definition of agile project.
Q. 82: (Level K2) Out of the following which are necessary skills for a Tester working on agile
projects?
i. Competent in test automation.
ii. Competent in alpha/ beta testing.
iii. Competent in experience-based testing.
iv. Competent in unit testing.
A. i, ii and iii
B. i, ii, iii and iv
C. i and iii
D. i, iii and iv
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as in agile, a lot of emphases is laid on automation tests so it is an essential skill for a
tester.
Statement (ii) is False – as Alpha / Beta Testing is done by customers. Testers can assist, but it is not a
necessary skill.
Statement (iii) is True – as in agile, a lot of emphases is laid on exploratory testing so it is an essential skill
for a tester.
Statement (iv) is False – as Unit Testing is done by developers. Testers can assist but it is not a necessary
skill
Q. 83: (Level K2) Why is test automation a more necessary skill on Agile projects for Testers than on
traditional projects?
Select TWO reasons from following statements.
i. Features can change in future iterations. Automated tests are necessary to reduce the regression risk due to
rapid changes.
ii. All feature validation testing should be done in the same iteration. In practice, that can only be realized by
automated tests.
iii. Regression testing is a parallel process occurring throughout the iteration. This can only be achieved by
automating the tests.
iv. All tests for the iteration are required to be finished in the iteration. This is not possible without
Automation tests.
v. Agile testing relies more on white box testing than black box testing.
A. i & ii
B. ii & v
C. iv & v
D. i and iii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as automated tests are required to keep up with frequent changes.
Statement (ii) is False – as feature validation tests are mostly done manually.
Statement (iii) is True – as this involves re-running the automated unit and feature verification tests from the
current and previous iterations, usually via a continuous integration framework.
Statement (iv) is False – as automation acceptance tests are not used to finish all the testing In the current
iteration they primary use is to make sure the functionality is not impacted due to new changes in the
following iterations.
Statement (v) is False – as neither automation nor manual testing is more important than the other in Agile
projects.
Q. 84: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT a typical task performed by the tester within
Agile team?
A. To automate tests and maintain them.
B. To mentor and coach other team members.
C. To produce and update burn down charts.
D. To participate in code analyzing activities.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
In agile team scrum master typically updates the burn down charts and not the tester.
Q. 85: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT a test related organization risk which Agile
organizations may encounter?
A. Testers work so closely to developers that they lose the appropriate tester mindset.
B. Testers become tolerant about inefficient, ineffective, or low-quality practices within the team.
C. Testers cannot keep pace with the incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.
D. Testers spend more time on Automation related activities rather than on testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A), (B) & (C) are incorrect – as it is true that Agile organizations may encounter these type of test-
related risks.
Option (D) is correct – as this is not a test related organization risk.
Q. 86: (Level K2) Which one of the following is a test related organization risk that Agile
organizations may encounter?
A. Testers work so closely with developers that they lose the appropriate tester mindset.
B. Testers managing the test environment and the test data.
C. Testers providing feedback on process quality.
D. Testers helping the team on non-testing activities.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as Agile organizations may encounter this test related risk.
Option (B), (C) and (D) are False – as these are not test related organization risks. All these are required
from an Agile tester.
Q. 87: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are activities for the Tester on Agile projects but
not necessarily on traditional projects?
i. Testers provide feedback on process quality.
ii. Understand, implement and update the test strategy.
iii. Actively collaborate with developers and business stakeholders.
iv. Testers provide feedback on product quality.
v. Automate and maintain Automation tests.
A. i & iii
B. iii & v
C. i & v
D. ii and iv
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is True – as in agile, testers provide feedback on process quality by proactively participating in
the team retrospectives, suggesting and implementing improvements.
Statement (ii), (iii) & (iv) are False – as all these are required for both Agile as well as traditional projects.
Statement (v) is True – as in agile, automation is required, therefore part of the tester’s role is to produce
automation scripts, run and maintain them.
Q. 88: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT a typical task performed by the tester on Agile
project?
A. To prepare and report the test coverage.
B. To prepare the test status report.
C. To produce the burn down charts.
D. To prepare the test strategy.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A), (B) and (D) are incorrect – as it is true to say that all these activities are expected from an agile
tester.
Option (C) is Correct – as in agile, Scrum Master is responsible to produce and update the burn down chart
based on the information provided by the rest of the team.
Q. 89: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT a typical task performed by the tester on Agile
project?
A. Ensuring proper use of testing tools.
B. Measuring and reporting test coverage.
C. To maintain the Agile task board for the team.
D. Configure and manage the test environment and the test data.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A), (B) and (D) are incorrect – as it is true to say that all these activities are expected from an agile
tester.
Option (C) is Correct – as in agile, the tester is only responsible to maintain testing tasks on the Agile task
board. Each member of the Agile team is responsible to maintain their respective tasks on the Agile task
board.
Q. 90: (Level K2) Which tasks are typically expected of a tester within the Agile team?
i. Decide on user acceptance.
ii. Understanding, implementing and updating the test strategy.
iii. Prepare burn down charts
iv. Configuring, using, and managing test environments and test data.
v. Decide on the priority of the user story.
A. i and iii
B. ii and iii
C. ii & iv
D. ii & v
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is False – as this task is a collaborative effort for the whole team.
Statement (ii) is True – as this activity is expected out of an agile tester.
Statement (iii) is False – as in agile, Scrum Master is responsible to produce and update the burn down chart
from the information supplied by the rest of the team,
Statement (iv) is True – as this activity is expected out of an agile tester.
Statement (v) is False – as the business users decide the priority on user stories.
Q. 91: (Level K2) Which tasks are typically expected of a tester on the Agile project?
i. Decide on user acceptance.
ii. Design, create and execute appropriate tests.
iii. Schedule defect reports for analysis.
iv. Automate and maintain tests.
v. Improve program logic by pair programming.
A. i & iii
B. ii & iii
C. ii & iv
D. ii & v
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (ii ) & (iv) are True – as these activities are expected out of an agile tester.
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Chapter -3: Agile Testing Methods, Techniques, and Tool's


Q. 92: (Level K1) Which statement is TRUE in respect to exploratory testing in Agile projects?
A. Testers having good knowledge of the system should perform exploratory testing.
B. The Independent Test team should be engaged in exploratory testing
C. Users engaged in Alpha testing should perform exploratory testing
D. Automated tests should be used for exploratory testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as the tester needs a good understanding of how the system is used.
Option (B) is False – as exploratory testing is carried out by testers having good knowledge of the system so
they can get the desired results in limited time.
Option (C) is False – as exploratory testing is done before the user acceptance phase.
Option (D) is False – as automation of exploratory testing is not possible as test design and execution
happens in parallel
Q. 93: (Level K1) Out of the following which statements best reflects one of the values of the Agile
Manifesto?
A. Working software allows the customer to provide rapid feedback to the developer.
B. Developers should use unit testing tools to support the testing process.
C. Business representatives should provide a backlog of user stories and their estimates to the team.
D. Adopting plans to change adds no real value to Agile project.
Q. 94: (Level K1) Out of the following which statements about Test Driven Development (TDD) is
FALSE?
A. Test Driven Development is a ”test first” approach to develop reusable automated tests.
B. The Test Driven Development cycle is continuously used until the software product is released.
C. Test Driven Development helps to document the code for future maintenance efforts.
D. The result of Test Driven Development are test classes used by the developer to develop test cases
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
As per the primary definition of Test Driven Development, it facilitates developers in creating test cases
with the help of test classes.
Q. 95: (Level K1) Out of the following which statements about Acceptance Test-Driven Development
is FALSE?
A. Acceptance Test-Driven Development allows a developer to focus on testing the code based on the
expected behavior of the software.
B. Tests are created once the user story is analyzed, discussed and written by the Agile team.
C. Acceptance Test-Driven Development defines acceptance criteria and tests In the creation of the user
stories.
D. Acceptance Test-Driven Development is a test-first approach, test cases are created prior to implementing
the user story.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as this is true of Behaviour Driven Development, and not Acceptance Test-Driven
Development.
Option (B), (C) & (D) are False – as all these are true for Acceptance Test-Driven Development.
Q. 96: (Level K1) Out of the following which statements about Test Driven Development (TDD) is
FALSE?
A. The Test-Driven Development process starts with a developer adding a test that captures the concept of
the desired function of a small piece of code.
B. In Test-Driven Development, developers write the code and run the test in a tight loop until the test
passes.
C. Test-Driven Development allows the developer to collaborate with other stakeholders, including testers,
to define accurate unit tests focused on business needs.
D. In Test-Driven Development, developers refactor the code after the test is passed, re-running the test to
ensure it continues to pass against the refactored code.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A), (B) & (D) are False – as all these are true for Test-Driven Development.
Option (C) is True – as this is true of behaviour-driven development and not for Test-Driven Development.
Q. 97: (Level K1) The term “velocity” refers to Out of the following which?
A. A Velocity chart shows the sum of estimates of the work delivered across iterations; this may be used
while selecting the stories for the next iteration
B. A Velocity chart shows the degree to which the source code of a program is tested by a particular test.
This may be used to show the code coverage
C. A Velocity chart shows the count of the number of defects discovered during a given period. This may be
used as criteria for stopping the testing.
D. A Velocity chart shows the number of source code changes per iteration; this may be used to know the
code coverage
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as this is true for velocity chart.
Option (B) is False – as this is a code coverage chart, not a velocity chart.
Option (C) is False – as this is a defect discover rate chart, not a velocity chart.
Option (D) is False – as this is a Code Churn chart, not a velocity chart.
Q. 98: (Level K1) What does the term ‘Test Pyramid’ refer to and illustrate situations for?
A. The team’s testing workload increases from sprint to sprint.
B. The backlog size, and thus the number of tests, decreases.
C. The number of automated unit tests is higher than the number of automated tests for higher test levels.
D. The number of automated tests in place increases from sprint to sprint.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The agile test automation pyramid model graphically splits the types of testing into three layers. The largest
part of the pyramid structure is the bottom layer typically includes unit testing, representing the idea that
automating it offers the best return on investment to the organization.
Q. 99: (Level K1) The concept of the Test Pyramid is based on Out of the following which testing
principles?
A. Early Testing.
B. Defect clusters.
C. Pesticide paradox.
D. Exhaustive testing is impossible.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as the test pyramid is based on the testing principle of early testing and eliminating
defects as early as possible in the lifecycle.
Option (B) is False – as the test pyramid is not related to defect clustering.
Option (C) is False – as the test pyramid is not related to Pesticide paradox.
Option (D) is False – as the test pyramid is not related to Exhaustive testing.
Q. 100: (Level K1) Before beginning the first iteration of a project the team is discussing the test
strategy for automation.
Out of the following which is true with respect to Test Pyramid?
A. The team should aim to automate most of the unit/component tests during the sprints.
B. The team should aim to automate most of the usability tests during the sprints.
C. The team should aim to automate most of the exploratory tests during the sprints.
D. The team should aim to automate most of the user story tests during the sprints.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The test pyramid emphasizes having more tests at the lower levels and a decreasing number of tests at the
higher levels.
Q. 101: (Level K1) The foundation layer of the ‘Test Pyramid’ is made up of which tests?
A. Unit/component tests.
B. System level tests.
C. Integration level tests
D. Acceptance level tests
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The test levels from the base of the pyramid to the top are unit / component, integration, system, and
acceptance
Q. 102: (Level K1) What does the term ‘Test Pyramid’ refer to in Agile projects?
A. It is used to help the team understand the
testing coverage for the user story/feature.
B. It can help the team determine how much testing time will be required for each user story.
C. The number of automated tests are greater at the unit level and decrease at the higher levels.
D. It can help the team to find the impacted automated tests due to changes in a feature.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as the workload for each sprint has nothing to do with the Test Pyramid concept.
Option (B) is False – as the testing time for each user story has nothing to do with the Test Pyramid concept.
Option (C) is True – as the test pyramid emphasizes having more tests at the lower levels and a decreasing
number of tests at the higher levels.
Option (D) is False – as the number of impacted automated tests due to changes in a feature has nothing to
do with the Test Pyramid concept.
Q. 103: (Level K1) Out of the following which statements about Behaviour-Driven Development is
FALSE?
A. Behaviour-Driven Development allows a developer to focus on testing the code based on the expected
behavior of the software.
B. Behaviour-Driven Development allows the developer to collaborate with other stakeholders, including
testers, to define accurate unit tests focused on business needs.
C. In Behaviour-Driven Development, automated test cases are created before coding starts.
D. The result of Behaviour-Driven Development is test classes used by the developers to develop the test
cases.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A), (B) & (D) are False – as all these are true for Behaviour-Driven Development
Option (C) is True – as this is true for Test Driven Development and not for Behaviour-Driven
Development.
Q. 104: (Level K1) At the beginning of the 5th iteration of a project, a new requirement was
introduced to support a new type of browser. The tester realizes that the existing test automation
framework and scripts will not support the new type of browser. What is the best course of action for
the tester on this team to take?
A. The tester should notify the team that they are planning on working extra hours throughout the next 2
sprints in order to update the existing test automation framework and scripts to support the new type of
browser so as not to disturb the existing sprint plan.
B. The tester will notify the team of the issue. A risk analysis is done, and the team decides that regression
testing must be performed on the new type of browser in addition to the other supported browsers. The tester
will update the sprint plan by adding tasks to modify the framework and scripts to support the new type of
browser.
C. The tester does some research and concludes that the risk is low that any new defects would be
introduced in the new type of browser that have not already been found in other supported browsers. The
tester continues with the existing sprint plan and makes no changes to test automation framework or scripts
D. The tester will stop what they are doing, design specific tests for compatibility testing of the new type of
browser, and communicate with the team that any other testing work for the sprint will have to be pushed to
the next iteration.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
It is the responsibility of the tester to bring the issue to the notice of the team. Then the team conducts risk
analysis and plans regression testing with all browsers to be done by the tester.
Q. 105: (Level K2) Consider the following user story: “As the president, any data I upload should not
be viewable by any other user of the system”.
In the first poker planning session, the following story points were given based on risk, effort,
complexity, and proper extent of testing:
Customers: 5
Developers: 5
Testers: 20
What is the best outcome following this planning session?
A. Because the customer’s and developer’s size estimates match, the team can be confident that this estimate
is good and should move onto the next user story.
B. The team should hold a conversation to understand why the testers felt this user story was significantly
more work. Another round of the planning poker session should occur following that discussion.
C. Because the customer owns the system in the end, the customers’ estimates should be taken as correct
when there is a conflict.
D. The poker planning sessions should continue until all estimated story points are an exact match between
customers, developers, and testers.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The team must not decide based upon the size estimates from customers and developers rather offer weight
age to the judgement of the tester and seek clarifications in support of his / her opinion and plan for more
discussions.
Q. 106: (Level K2) Consider the following user story:
“The social networking application should now check for the user age and only the users of age 18 or
above should be able to register”
And the associated test cases:
Test Case 1: Check the Save Method 0 saves the user age to the database.
Test Case 2: Verify an existing user is able to access the social networking site.
Test Case 3: A registered user is able to delete their social networking site account.
Which TWO test quadrants would the above test cases be part of?
A. Q1 unit level, technology facing & Q2 system level, business facing
B. Q1 unit level, technology facing & Q3 system or user acceptance level, business facing
C. Q3 system or user acceptance level, business facing & Q4 system or operation acceptance level,
technology facing
D. Q2 system level, business facing & Q4 system or operation acceptance level, technology facing
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Q1 is Correct – as unit/component tests are part of the 1st quadrant.
Q2 is Incorrect – as these test cases are not system level tests.
Q3 is Correct – as these test cases are for user acceptance level tests.
Q4 is Incorrect – as these test cases are not for operation acceptance level tests
Q. 107: (Level K2) The Agile Manifesto has 4 statements of values.
Match the agile value (1-4) with its traditional counterpart (i-iv).
1) Customer collaboration over.
2) Responding to change over.
3) Individuals and interactions over.
4) Working software over.
i) Processes and tools.
ii) Following a plan.
iii) Contract negotiation.
iv) Comprehensive documentation.
A. 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – ii, 4 – i
B. 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iv
C. 1 – iv, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iii
D. 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – iv, 4 – i
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Agile value (1) “Customer collaboration” relates to activity (iii) Negotiations with the customer.
Agile value (2) “Response to change” relates to activity (ii) Implementation of the plan.
Agile value (3) “Interactions with people” relates to activity (i) Decision on processes to be followed and
tools to be used.
Agile value (4) “working software” relates to activity (iv) Documentation work.
Q. 108: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO statements demonstrate effective use of the
testing quadrants?
1. The testing quadrants model and its variants help to ensure that all important test types and test levels are
included in the development lifecycle
2. The tester can use the types of tests described in the testing quadrants as a coverage metric, the more tests
covered from each quadrant, the higher the test coverage.
3. The testing quadrants model provides a way to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all
stakeholders, including developers, testers, and business representatives.
4. Testing quadrants are used for risk analysis; with the lower level quadrants representing a lower risk to
the customer.
5. Testing quadrants can be used to find out whether the story acceptance criteria is testable.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 3
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (1) is True – as the testing quadrants can be used to ensure that all test types and test levels are
covered.
Statement (2) is False – as the testing quadrants cannot be used as metrics since not all test levels/types are
applicable to the system under test.
Statement (3) is True – as the testing quadrants can be used as an aid to describing the types of tests and
their purpose to all stakeholders.
Statement (4) is False – as the testing quadrants have no correlation with risk level.
Statement (5) is False – as testing quadrants are not related to story acceptance criteria testability.
Q. 109: (Level K2) Given the following user stories:
“As a bank teller, I can easily navigate through the system menu and links, and find the information I
am looking for”
“For all users, the system must display all queries in less than 2 seconds, 90% of the time”
And the associated test cases:
TC1: Login as the bank teller. Enter customer ID. Verify that the customer transaction history is easy to find
and that navigating through the menus is intuitive.
TC2: Login as bank teller: Enter customer Name. Verify that the customer accounts are easy to find and that
navigating through the menus is intuitive.
TC3: Simulate expected traffic on the system and validate the time for customer transaction history to
display is less than 2 seconds.
Which TWO test quadrants would the above test cases be part of?
A. Q1 unit level, technology facing & Q2 system level, business facing
B. Q2 system level, business facing & Q3 system or user acceptance level, business facing
C. Q3 system or user acceptance level, business facing & Q4 system or operation acceptance level,
technology facing
D. Q2 system level, business facing & Q4 system or operation acceptance level, technology facing
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The described test cases are best covered under Quadrant (3) & Quadrant (4).
Q. 110: (Level K2) Match the testing quadrants on the left (1-4) with its correct test type on the right
(i-iv).
1. Q1
2. Q2
3. Q3
4. Q4
i) Story test.
ii) Recovery test.
iii) Beta test.
iv) unit test.
A. 1 – iii, 2 – iv, 3 – ii, 4 – i
B. 1 – iv, 2 – ii, 3 – i, 4 – iii
C. 1 – iv, 2 – iii, 3 – i, 4 – ii
D. 1 – iv, 2 – i, 3 – iii, 4 – ii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Quadrant Q1 contains unit tests.
Quadrant Q2 contains functional tests, examples, story tests, user experience prototypes, and simulations.
Quadrant Q3 contains exploratory testing, scenarios, process flows, usability testing, user acceptance testing,
alpha testing, and beta testing.
Quadrant Q4 contains performance, load, stress, and scalability tests, security tests, maintainability, memory
management, compatibility and interoperability, data migration, infrastructure, and recovery testing
Q. 111: (Level K2) Consider the following user story: “As a bank teller, I would like to be able to view
all of my customer’s bank transactions on the screen, so I can answer his/her questions”.
Out of the following which can be considered as relevant acceptance test cases?
i. Login as a bank teller, get the customer’s account balance for all open accounts.
ii. Login as a bank teller, enter a customer account ID, get his transactions history on the screen.
iii. Login as a bank teller, request customer account ID by using name abbreviations, and get his transaction
history on the screen.
iv. Login as a bank teller, enter a customer IBAN (international bank account number), get his transaction
history on the screen.v. Login as a Bank Teller, enter a customer Account ID, get the transactions history in
less than 3 seconds on screen.
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. ii, iii, iv
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
By the process of elimination of illogical test cases, test cases described in (ii), (iii) & (iv) are true under the
scenario.
Q. 112: (Level K2) Consider the following user story:
“As a bank customer, I can easily view my bank statements for the last 5 years”
“For all customers, the system must display all queries in less than 4 seconds, 90% of the time” And
the associated test cases:
Test Case 1: Login as the bank customer. Verify that the customer transaction history is available for the
last 5 years.
Test Case 2: Verify in a realistic environment that the customer can view the statement in less than 4
seconds. Which TWO test quadrants would the above test cases be part of?
A. Q1 unit level, technology facing & Q2 system level, business facing.
B. Q2 system level, business facing & Q3 system or user acceptance level, business facing.
C. Q1 unit level, technology facing & Q4 system or operation acceptance level, technology facing.
D. Q2 system level, business facing & Q4 system or operation acceptance level, technology facing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Q1 is Incorrect – as these test cases are not technology-facing component tests.
Q2 is Correct – as system level is part of the 2nd quadrant.
Q3 is Incorrect – as these test cases are not user acceptance level tests.
Q4 is Correct – as performance testing is part of the 4th quadrant.
Q. 113: (Level K2) In the release planning session the tester is communicating the test ideas using
testing quadrants so that the team understands the purpose of all the test types and test levels
included in the development lifecycle.
Out of the following which tester statements about testing quadrants are true?
A. Quadrant Q1 are unit level tests and Quadrant Q4 are functional tests.
B. Quadrant Q1 are unit level tests and Quadrant Q4 are user acceptance tests.
C. Quadrant Q3 are performance tests and Quadrant Q4 are functional tests.
D. Quadrant Q2 are functional tests and Quadrant Q4 are performance tests.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Quadrant Q1 is unit level, technology facing, and supports the developers.
Quadrant Q2 is system/functional level, business facing, and confirms product behavior.
Quadrant Q3 is user acceptance level, business facing, and contains tests that critique the product.
Quadrant Q4 is the system or operational acceptance level, technology facing, and contains tests that critique
the product.
Q. 114: (Level K3) In the New Agile team the testers and developers are sitting together but the
product owners are based in a different location though they participate in all daily stand-up and
planning meetings and retrospectives.
Some of the testers are new to the Agile project and they are not able to cope with the changes coming
during each iteration. The product owner has found a couple of instances where the testing team has
not followed the testing strategy agreed to by the team during test execution.
What does organizational and behaviour best practices the team lack?
A. Self-organizing, Empowered, Credible
B. Self-organizing, Resilience, Committed
C. Cross-functional, Empowered, Credible
D. Co-located, Collaborative, Committed
E. Co-located, Resilience, Credible
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Co-located: Testers jointly collaborate with the developers and the product owner.
Resilience: Testing must be able to respond to changes.
Credible: The tester must ensure the credibility of the testing strategy.
Q. 115: (Level K3) Review the Agile team descriptions followed by organization and behaviour
practices and then answer the question.
1. Team (A): The team has agreed upon a Test process In the Release planning session but the testers
are not following it for some of the testing activities in order to finish all stories included in the
sprints.
2. Team (B): The testers actively participate in all daily stand-up and planning meetings but they are
not invited to the retrospective meeting happening at the end of each iteration.
3. Team (C): The testers are reporting the testing progress to their Test Manager but the team is not
using Agile task board for monitoring the development and testing tasks.
4. Team (D): The testers are new to the Agile methodology and they are not able to keep up with the
changes during each iteration.
I. Transparent
II. Open to Feedback
III. Resilience
IV. Credible
Match the teams with the organizational and behaviour practices they are lacking?
A.1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
B.1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
C.1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
D.1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
1. Testers in Team (A) are missing credibility.
2. Team (B) is not open to feedback as the testers are not participating in the retrospectives.
3. Team (C) is not transparent as the progress of activities is not shared among the team.
4. Team (D) is not resilient as testers are not able to respond to changes.
Q. 116: (Level K3) There is a new feature in scope for the current sprint which will result in changes
to the existing database tables. The testers on the team realize that this change can introduce bugs and
it may require major changes in the existing scripts and the automation framework.
What is the best course of action for the testers to take?
A. The testers will calculate the extra time required and update the team that they have to work extra hours
in order to update the existing test scripts and automation framework In the existing sprint plan.
B. The testers will notify the team of the issue. A risk analysis is done and the team decides what regression
testing must be performed to find the defects introduced by the new changes. The testers will update the
sprint plan by adding tasks to modify the framework and scripts to support the new changes.
C. The current testing tasks need to be completed for the sprint. The testers continue with their existing
sprint plan and make no changes to the test automation framework or scripts.
D. The testers will stop what they are doing and start working on the automation framework & script
modifications and communicate with the team that any other testing work for the sprint will have to be
pushed to the next iteration.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as risk analysis should be done including the whole team and a collaborative decision
should be made.
Option (B) is True – as the decision to modify the test automation framework and scripts should be done
collaboratively with the whole team. The tester is then responsible to make changes to the iteration plan as
required.
Option (C) is False – as the tester must notify the team who will then decide what to do with the issue.
Option (D) is False – as tester alone must not be made responsible to determine the scope of work. This
issue will be addressed by creating a new user story or modifying an existing user story and will be
addressed by the entire team during sprint planning.
Q. 117: (Level K3) Agile team is doing the quality risk analysis for the following user stories selected
from the backlog items In an iteration planning session.
Match the stories with their respective quality risk based on the information below:
User Story 1: A program to calculate account interest information for the financial end of year report.
User Story 2: A program to display search results in less than 3 secs.
User Story 3: A program to work on different operating systems.
A. User Story 1: Security, User Story 2: Functional, User Story 3: Recoverability
B. User Story 1: Security, User Story 2: performance, User Story 3: Compatibility
C. User Story 1: Functional, User Story 2: performance, User Story 3: Compatibility
D. User Story 1: Functional, User Story 2: performance, User Story 3: Recoverability
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
User Story 1: Incorrect calculation (accuracy) in the report is a functional risk.
User Story 2: Storing customer sensitive information is a performance risk.
User Story 3: Working on the different operating system is a compatibility risk.
Q. 118: (Level K3) Agile team is doing the quality risk analysis for three user stories selected from the
backlog during an iteration planning session.
Match the stories with their respective quality risk based on the information below:
User Story 1: Program to calculate the account interest information for the financial end of year report.
User Story 2: Program to store the customer sensitive information.
User Story 3: A front-end screen for the system used by senior citizens.
A. User Story 1: Security, User Story 2: Functional, User Story 3: Usability
B. User Story 1: Functional, User Story 2: Security, User Story 3: Usability
C. User Story 1: Usability, User Story 2: Security, User Story 3: Functional
D. User Story 1: Functional, User Story 2: Usability, User Story 3: Security
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
User Story 1: Calculation (accuracy) in report is a functional risk
User Story 2: Storing customer sensitive information is a security risk
User Story 3: Difficulty in understanding screens for the users (senior citizens) is a usability risk
Q. 119: (Level K3) In the quality risk analysis session, of iteration planning, the Agile team identified
the quality risk for each story and the level of risk based on the impact and likelihood of defects
# User story 1 (Functional): Likelihood: high, Impact: high
# User story 2 (Security): Likelihood: low, Impact: medium
# User story 3 (Performance): Likelihood: high, Impact: medium
# User story 4 (Functional): Likelihood: low, Impact: low
# User story 5 (Recoverability): Likelihood: low, Impact: medium
How can the team mitigate these risks during the iteration?
Select TWO options.
A. The tasks associated with user story 1 should be started first.
B. The tasks associated with user story 4 should be started last.
C. The tasks associated with user story 3 should be started first.
D. The tasks associated with user story 2 should be started last.
E. The tasks associated with user story 5 should be started last.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is correct – as user story 1 has the highest level of risk so it should be started first.
Option (B) is correct – as user story 4 has the lowest level of risk so it should be started last.
Option (C) is incorrect – as user story 3 does not have the highest level of risk.
Option (D) is incorrect – as user story 2 does not have the lowest level of risk.
Option (E) is incorrect – as user story 5 does not have the lowest level of risk.
Q. 120: (Level K3) Given the following results from a product risk analysis that occurred at the
beginning of an iteration:
# User story 1 (Performance): Likelihood: high, Impact: high
# User story 2 (Security): Likelihood: high, Impact: high
# User story 3 (Functional): Likelihood: medium, Impact: high
# User story 4 (Functional): Likelihood: high, Impact: medium
# User story 5 (Compatibility): Likelihood: low, Impact: low
# User story 6 (Recoverability): Likelihood: low, Impact: low
Which out of the following TWO describes best what the team should do with this information?
Select TWO options.
A. Move onto planning poker session to estimate effort for user stories, and determine what can be done in
the current iteration, and what needs to be added to the backlog.
B. Remove user stories 5 and 6 from the current iteration and move to a later iteration.
C. Because of the number of high likelihood, high impact risks slotted for this iteration, the team has no
choice but to extend the timeframe of the iteration by 2 weeks.
D. The team should collaborate on effective ways to mitigate the high likelihood, high impact risks
E. The team should plan to complete all items in the current sprint, but save the lower risk items for the end
of the sprint, and only test these items if there is time.
Q. 121: (Level K3) In the poker planning session, the following stow points were given to a particular
user story
Product owner: 3
Developers: 5
Testers: 8
Which action should the team agree on?
A. As the developers are developing the system, the developer estimates should be taken as correct when
there is a conflict.
B. The team should hold a conversation to understand why the testers and product owner gave different
story points for the work required for the story. Another round of the planning poker session should occur
following that discussion.
C. As the product owner owns the system, the customers’ estimates should be taken as correct when there is
a conflict.
D. The poker planning sessions should continue until all estimated story points are an exact match between
product owner, developers, and testers.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) False – as the entire team must agree on the estimate for the user story. The developer alone does
not understand the complexity of developing or testing the functionality.
Option (B) True – as planning poker sessions should continue for the user story until the entire team is
satisfied with the estimated effort.
Option (C) False – as the entire team must agree on the estimate for the user story. The customer alone does
not understand the complexity of developing or testing the functionality.
Option (D) False – as it is not necessary that they match, a rule could be made that the highest estimate is
taken, or an average taken of all three estimates. This is up to the team to decide before the planning poker
session
Q. 122: (Level K3) In a Planning Poker session the team is estimating the effort for User story 1 and
User story 2 which are related to the same feature.
The team has agreed on the story points for user story 1 but In the discussion of user story 2, the
tester realized that he is not aware of the additional information about the business rules and external
interfaces which may increase the testing effort for user story 1.
What should the tester do in this situation?
A. As the estimation is already done for user story 1, its better to raise the estimate for user story 2 this will
compensate for the additional effect for the User story 1.
B. The tester should ask the team for a re-estimation of user story 1 based on the additional information.
C. The tester should raise his concern with the scrum master after the planning session and ask for an
increase in the estimation.
D. The tester should not worry about the additional information as this was only an estimate anyway.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) False – as the estimate is given for each story and should be agreed upon by the entire team.
Option (B) True – as the tester should ask the team to re-estimate. Additional information about business
rules may affect the development and testing effort.
Option (C) False – as the entire team must agree on the estimate for the user story. The scrum master and the
tester can’t decide on their own.
Option (D) False – reason being if there is additional information, then the whole team should be aware of it
and it should be used to re-estimate the story.
Q. 123: (Level K3) One of the Agile Teams are doing the estimation for the following user story:
“As an online Shopper, I want to delete items from my shopping cart so that I don’t purchase items
that I decide I don’t want”
The tester has asked the following questions to the product owner to get a better understanding of the
functionality for estimation purposes.
Which of the tester’s question is not relevant for the estimation process?
A. Tester: “What business benefit does this story deliver?”
B. Tester: “What is the worst thing that could happen with this feature?”
C. Tester: “How will the end user actually use this feature?”
D. Tester: “What is the business priority for this user story?”
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is incorrect – as this is relevant and will help in deciding the business problem this story is
solving which will result in a better testing effort estimation.
Option (B) is incorrect – as this is relevant and will help in deciding the risk and the effort of testing
required to cover the risk.
Option (C) is incorrect – as this is relevant and will help in deciding the testing effort and can be useful for
the estimation.
Option (D) is correct – as this is not relevant and business priority of the user story will not help in
estimating the user story.
Q. 124: (Level K3) In agile projects there is more need for testers to understand and develop test
automation scripts than in traditional projects.
Of the following, which are the TWO reasons why this is a necessary skill on agile projects?
i. Requirements change daily and have to be regression tested. This rapid change requires automated tests
because manual testing is too slow.
ii. The tests should generate feedback on product quality as early as possible. So all acceptance tests should
be executed during each iteration, ideally as modifications are made. In practice that can only be realized by
automated tests.
iii. Test-First and Continuous Integration practice require that the regression test suite is executed whenever
changed code is checked-in. In practice that can only be realized by automated tests.
iv. Iterations or sprints are of fixed length. The team has to guarantee that all tests can be completely
executed at the last day of each iteration/sprint. In practice, that can only be realized by automated tests.
v. Agile projects rely on unit testing rather than on systems testing. Since unit tests cannot be executed
manually, all tests have to be automated tests.
A. i & iii
B. ii & v
C. v & v
D. ii & iii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (ii) & (iii) best describe the conditions for agile projects.
Q. 125: (Level K3) Agile team is assigned to a project to create a mobile interface for an existing web-
based application.
A few of the features are not supported in the mobile interface and the way a user can access the
interface is also changing and will be documented in user stories.
Based on this information, and in addition to the user stories, Out of the following which would best
provide relevant information to support your testing activities?
i. Existing functions, features, and quality characteristics of the web-based application
ii. Architecture diagrams for the web-based application.
iii. Obsolete user access test cases for the web-based application.
iv. Performance metrics for existing application.
v. Defects from existing and previous releases of the web-based application.
A. i, ii, iii, iv
B. i, ii, v
C. ii, iv, v
D. All the above
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
i. This is helpful to write the test cases
ii. This is helpful to understand the application and write test cases.
iii. This information is not helpful since user access is changing with mobile interface and new user stories
have been documented.
iv. Because of the new interface, baselines should be obtained using mobile devices or defined performance
requirements for this type of technology.
v. This is helpful during the risk analysis phase.
Q. 126: (Level K3) Agile team is building a new system, to replace a legacy system, to efficiently store
customer information using a new relational database.
For the testing of this new system, out of the following which would best provide relevant information
to support testing activities In addition to the user stories?
i. Experience in testing the legacy system.
ii. Performance metrics from the legacy system.
iii. Architecture diagrams of the legacy system.
iv. Customer profiles from the legacy system.
v. Defects list from the legacy system.
A. i, iii, iv, v
B. v
C. i, iv, v
D. All the above
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
i. This is helpful to understand the application and to write E2E test cases.
ii. This is not helpful because as a new relational database is being introduced, baselines should be obtained
with similar technology or defined performance requirements for this type of technology.
iii. This is helpful to understand the application and to write test cases.
iv. This is helpful to write test cases.
v. This is helpful during the risk analysis phase.
Q. 127: (Level K3) Agile team is working on a project for a new payment application. Out of the
following which would best provide relevant information to support testing activities In addition to
the user stories for the testing of new payment messages from the payer to the payee?
i. Updated standard documents for existing payment applications.
ii. Information about the data schema and how the data is stored in database
iii. Architecture diagrams for the new payment application.
iv. Performance metrics for a similar payment application.
v. Defects from an existing payment applications.
A. i, ii, iii, v
B. i, ii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. All the above
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
i. This is helpful to write the test cases
ii. This is helpful to understand the application and write E2E test cases.
iii. This is helpful to understand the application and write test cases.
iv. This is helpful during the risk analysis phase.
v. This is helpful during the risk analysis phase.
Q. 128: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are examples of testable acceptance criteria for
test related activities?
Select TWO options.
A. Structure-based testing: White box testing in addition to black box testing is used.
B. System testing: At least 80% of functional regression tests are automated.
C. Security testing: A threat risk analysis scan is completed with no faults identified.
D. Performance testing: The application is responding in a reasonable amount of time with 5000 users.
E. Compatibility testing: The application is working on all major browsers.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (B) and (C) are the best examples of testable acceptance criteria.
Q. 129: (Level K2) Out of the following which is NOT an example of a valid acceptance criteria for the
user story?
A. Acceptance criteria to confirm the correct behavior without exception or error conditions.
B. Acceptance criteria to cover the behavior with exceptions and error conditions
C. Acceptance criteria to cover the usability attribute of the user story.
D. Acceptance criteria to cover the characteristics not documented in the user story.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this is a valid example of the positive test.
Option (B) is False – as this is a valid example of the negative test.
Option (C) is False – as this is a valid example of the non-functional test.
Option (D) is True – as this is not a valid example. The acceptance criteria should not describe an aspect of
the user stow not documented in the story itself.
Q. 130: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are examples of testable acceptance criteria for
test related activities?
A. Unit test: All unit tests are Automated.
B. Integration test: All major interfaces between the units are tested.
C. System test: All user persons are tested.
D. Security test: The application is vulnerable to external security threats.
E. Recoverability test: The system is able to recover in case of any hardware failure.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as this is a testable acceptance criterion.
Option (B) is False – as this is not testable. It needs to be specific which interfaces are major.
Option (C) is True – as This is testable. A user persona describes a representative (but fictional) individual
having specific details (e.g. age 25, married, car owner) that accurately reflect and highlight important
features of the user group. User persons are created after the analysis of the user profiles.
Option (D) is False – as this is not testable. It needs to specify the details of the external security threats.
Option (E) is False – as this is not testable. It needs to specify the time and other recovery parameters.
Q. 131: (Level K2) Which out of the following TWO are examples of testable acceptance criteria for
test related activities?
A. 100% of decision coverage tested.
B. A good percentage of the functional test is automated.
C. The user access is revoked after non-activity of account.
D. The application is responding in less than 2 sec.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as this is testable.
Option (B) is False – as this is not testable. This is an ambiguous statement because the percentage is not
specified.
Option (C) is False – as this is not testable. The period of non-activity is not specified.
Option (D) is True – as this is testable.
Q. 132: (Level K3) Agile team is assigned to a project to update an existing medical device to newer
technologies.
Since the last release of the existing medical device, a new version of the medical device standard has
been released. User access to the device is changing and will be documented in user stories.
Based on this information, and in addition to the user stories, Out of the following which would best
provide relevant information to support your testing activities?
i. The updated version of standards document for the medical system.
ii. Existing defects or typical defect areas in the existing system.
iii. Obsolete user access test cases and results for existing application.
iv. Performance metrics for existing application.
v. Defects logged during other similar conversion projects for medical devices
A. i, ii, iii, iv
B. ii, iv, v
C. i, ii, v
D. All the above
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The best combination of options are (i), (ii) & (v)
Q. 133: (Level K3) Consider the following user story for an online banking feature:
“As a customer, I would like to update my daily limits for my transaction account so I can transfer up
to Rs.. 5000 to any other account on any given day, the limit options are Rs.. 1000, Rs.. 2000 & Rs..
5000”
Out of the following which can be considered as relevant acceptance test cases?
i. Log in as a customer; check the customer can open transaction history page.
ii. Log in as a customer; check the customer can transfer the money up to his daily limit.
iii. Log in as a customer; check the customer is not able to transfer money beyond his daily limit.
iv. Log in as a customer, check the daily limit dropdown have the options for Rs..1000, Rs.. 2000 & Rs..
5000.
v. Log in as a customer the daily limit page should open in less than 2 seconds.
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. ii, iii, iv
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Test case (i) is incorrect – as user story is specific to customers’ daily limit change, not the transaction
history.
Test case (ii) is correct – as this test is specific to a customer and results in verifying the daily limit
functionality is working fine.
Test case (iii) is correct – as this test is specific to a customer and results in verifying the daily limit
functionality is working fine.
Test case (iv) is correct – as this test is specific to a customer and results in verifying the daily limit is set up
correctly in the system.
Test case (v) is incorrect – as user story does not mention performance requirements.
Q. 134: (Level K3) Agile team is using Session-based test management for exploratory testing for one
of the features which involve transferring files from a front-end system to a different system.
In the survey session, Testers have raised a few questions about what to test in the feature.
Out of the following which testers’ question is NOT relevant to the exploratory testing?
A. Which users can initiate the file transfer?
B. What is the performance requirement for the file transfer?
C. What are the various ways the users can trigger the file transfer from the front end?
D. What are the various ways the file transfer can fail?
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this is a relevant question this will help in the design and execution of exploratory
test
Option (B) is True – as this question is not relevant for exploratory testing, this is helpful to design the
performance tests.
Option (C) is False – as this is a relevant question this will help in the design and execution of exploratory
test
Option (D) is False – as this is a relevant question this will help in the design and execution of exploratory
test
Q. 135: (Level K1) Agile team wants to provide traceability between versions of software and the tests
used.
Which tool will be beneficial for the team?
A. Continuous Integration (CI) tool.
B. Wild.
C. ALM.
D. Configuration management (CM) tool
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as Continuous Integration (CI) tools provide a quick response to the build quality and
details about code changes.
Option (B) is False – as Wiki allows teams to build a knowledge base on tools and techniques for
development and testing activities
Option (C) is False – as An ALM tool provides visibility into the current state of the application, especially
with distributed teams. It can provide traceability for the test used but not for the version of the software.
Option (D) is True – as Configuration management tools are suitable for providing traceability between
versions of software and the tests used.
Q. 136: (Level K1) A Session-based test management method is used for which of the following types
of testing?
A. Acceptance testing.
B. System testing.
C. Exploratory testing.
D. Integration Testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
A Session-based test management method is used for exploratory testing.
Q. 137: (Level K3) Consider the following user story:
“A System to decide on the eligibility of getting the license is based on the following criteria:
# If driver age is < 18 then eligibility is false
# If driver age is between 18 and 20 & driver training is true then eligibility = true
# If driver age is between 18 and 20 & driver training is false then eligibility = false
# If driver age is >20 then eligibility is true (training does not matter) “
Out of the following which is the best black box test design technique for the user story?
A. State Transition testing.
B. Decision Tables.
C. Equivalence Partitioning.
D. Use Case Testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Decision tables are best for user stories where the Actions are based on the Conditions.
Q. 138: (Level K3) Consider the following user story:
“An application for the parcel post service calculates the postage rate for parcels up to 10 kg based on
the following criteria:
# Standard postage rate for weight under 1 kg
# The postage rate is Rs. 20 for weight more than 1 kg and under 2 kg
# The postage rate is flat Rs. 35 for weight more than 5 kg
Out of the following which is the best black box test design technique for the user story?
A. Boundary Value Analysis.
B. Decision Tables.
C. State Transition testing.
D. Use Case Testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is True – as Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) will be the best option for this story as the testing
involves verifying postage rate at boundary values.
Option (B) is False – as decision table testing is best used to test system which produces different results
based on the combinations of inputs.
Option (C) is False – as State Transition testing is best used to test system where outputs are triggered by
changes to the ‘state’ of the system.
Option (D) is False – as Use case testing is best when testing every transaction, of the whole system, from
start to finish.
Q. 139: (Level K3) Consider the following user story:
An application calculates the variable interest rate for a bank account based on the following criteria:
# 1.5 percent for the first Rs..1,000 credit
# 2.0 percent for the next Rs..1,000
# 1.5 percent for the rest.
Out of the following which is the best black box test design technique for the user story?
A. State Transition testing: Test the following states for Account – First credit, Second credit, Rest.
B. Decision tables: Test the following conditions – User credit first Rs..1000; Interest calculated as 1.5 %
etc.
C. Boundary Value Analysis: Test the following boundaries -1000, 1001, 2000, 2001
D. Use Case Testing: Actor= customer; Prerequisites=customer has account, deposit amount ; Post
conditions= Interest calculated
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as the focus of this user story is not on the state of the system; instead, the expectation
is to test the right interest is calculated based on the account balance.
Option (B) is False – as the focus of this user story is not of interest calculated; the expectation is to test the
right interest is calculated based on the account balance.
Option (C) is True – as BVA is the best option when testing different boundaries.
Option (D) is False – as the focus of this user story is not on whether the Interest is calculated; the
expectation is to test the right interest is calculated based on the account balance.
Q. 140: (Level K3) Review the following User Story for searching for a health care provider on the
health insurance website:
“As a customer, I can find a health care provider based on the Region, Category, or suburb
information”
Out of the following which can be considered as relevant acceptance test cases?
i. The search window should display within a reasonable time.
ii. Select the Region from the drop-down and click the Search button.
iii. Select the Category from the drop-down and click the Search button.
iv. Select the suburb from the drop-down and click the Search button.
v. Select the Region, category, and suburb from the drop-down and click the Search button.
vi. Select the healthcare provider type and click the search button.
A. i, ii, iv
B. ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, vi
D. iii, iv, vi
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Test case (i) is incorrect – as the user story does not mention performance requirements.
Test case (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct – as all these tests are specific to the search service provider function.
Test case (v) is incorrect – as the user story is specific to search based on either Region, Category, or suburb
information. The question is specific to Either / OR not Any / All
Test case (vi) is incorrect – as the user story is specific to the search based on the Region, Category, or
suburb information.
Q. 141: (Level K3) In one of the Agile projects, testers have been asked to plan exploratory testing.
Out of the following which approaches are NOT correct for Exploratory testing?
A. Testers will do the risk analysis and test the critical things the tester and user think could go wrong or the
potential problems that will make people unhappy.
B. Testers will test based on the model of how software should behave. The functions which the customers
are more interested in should be tested first.
C. Testers will test based on their past experience of how similar systems failed in predictable patterns.
These experiences can be refined into a test and explored.
D. Tests will not be planned as the testers have already tested these stories and should progress the test based
on their intuition.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A), (B) & (C) is incorrect – as this is true for exploratory testing.
Option (D) is correct – False – There is a plan required for exploratory testing.
Q. 142: (Level K3) The Test Manager has organized a meeting with the test team to explore the
possibility of exploratory testing after the final iteration for one of the Agile teams. He has shared the
following suggestion with the testers.
Which TWO of your manager’s conclusions are NOT correct?
i. The Independent test team with be engaged in the testing of user stories. There will be a fixed time to
complete the exploratory testing and there is no need to document tests or test results.
ii. Testers will do the risk analysis and will plan the tests of critical things that can go wrong or the potential
problem that will make people unhappy.
iii. Business representatives will be used for exploratory testing. They will use the system like the customer
would on a day-to-day basis. Testers can help them prioritize and log the defects.
iv. An experienced tester will be used for exploratory testing. Tests should make sure that functionality is
correct and to include negative testing. Documentation is not necessary, but defects need to be logged in the
defect tracking tool.
A. i & ii
B. ii & iv
C. iii & iv
D. i & iii
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Statement (i) is False – as independent testers are not suitable for exploratory testing.
Statement (ii) is True – as this is true for exploratory testing.
Statement (iii) is False – as this is an example of user acceptance testing, not exploratory testing.
Statement (ii) is True – as this is true for exploratory testing.
Q. 143: (Level K1) Agile team is looking for a tool to manage requirements and traceability;
additional features should be managing dashboards on product status & recording conversations
Out of the following which will be suitable for this purpose?
A. Configuration Management (CM) tool.
B. Wild.
C. Test Charter.
D. Continuous Integration (CI) tool
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as Configuration Management (CM) tool will be suitable for storing source code and
other test work products
Option (B) is True – as This is one of many purposes of a wild tool.
Option (C) is False – as Test Charter will be suitable for exploratory testing.
Option (D) is False – as Continuous Integration (CI) tool will be suitable for visibility on build status and
automatic reporting.
Q. 144: (Level K1) Agile team wants to build and share an online knowledge base on various aspects
of the project.
Out of the following which tools will be best for that purpose?
A. Continuous Integration (CI) tool.
B. Wiki.
C. ALM.
D. Configuration management (CM) tool
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as Continuous Integration (CI) tool provides quick response about the build quality
and details about code changes.
Option (B) is True – as Wiki allows teams to build a knowledge base on tools and techniques for
development and testing activities.
Option (C) is False – as ALM tool provides visibility into the current state of the application, especially with
distributed teams.
Option (D) is False – as Configuration management (CM) tool is suitable for providing traceability between
versions of software and the tests used.
Q. 145: (Level K3) The following is a User Story for an online, money transfer applications Receiver
Bank Account:
“As an online banking customer When I am initiating an online money transfer, Then the system
should validate the Bank code and Bank Account Number of the Receiver and notify if they are
invalid”
Out of the following which is relevant acceptance test cases?
i. Log in as a customer, enter an invalid bank code to see the error message
ii. Log in as a customer, check the customer account balance is displaying correctly before and after the
transfer.
iii. Log in as a customer, enter a valid bank code and bank account number; no error message should be
displayed.
iv. Log in as a customer, enter an invalid bank account number to see the error message.
v. Log in as a customer, enter a valid bank code to see the Bank name from the list.
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. ii, Hi, iv
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Test case (i), (iii) & (iv) are correct – as all these tests are specific to check the bank code and bank account
number validation.
Test case (ii) is incorrect – as the user story does not mention Account balance checks.
Test case (v) is incorrect – as the user story does not mention displaying the Bank Name when entering a
valid Bank code.
Q. 146: (Level K1) A new agile team wants to use their single server to build multiple testing and
development environments.
Out of the following which can be used for this purpose?
A. Mind maps.
B. ALM.
C. Electronic task boards.
D. Virtualization tools.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as Mind maps can be used to quickly design and define tests for a new feature.
Option (B) is False – as ALM tool can be used to provide visibility into the current state of the application,
especially with distributed teams.
Option (C) is False – as Electronic task boards are used to manage and track user stories, tests, and other
tasks throughout each sprint.
Option (D) is True – as Virtualization tools allow a single physical server to operate as many separate,
smaller resources which can be used for development and testing purposes.
Q. 147: (Level K1) Out of the following which is NOT a purpose of a Continuous Integration (CO tool
on the Agile project?
A. To provide quick feedback on code quality.
B. To provide assistance to testers for integration testing.
C. To provide a quick response to the build quality and details about code changes.
D. To provide automatic reporting.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as it is true to say that this would be one of the purposes of Continuous Integration
tools (CI) tool.
Option (B) is True – as this is not the purposes of a Continuous Integration (CI) tool
Option (C) is False – as it is true to say that this would be one of the purposes of a Continuous Integration
(CI) tool.
Option (D) is False – as it is true to say that this would be one of the purposes of a Continuous Integration
(CI) tool.
Q. 148: (Level K1) Out of the following which is one of the purposes of a test Charter?
A. Test Charter helps the testers in test data generation for testing.
B. Test Charter guides the testers in exploratory testing.
C. Test Charter provides a knowledge base on tools and techniques for development and testing activities.
D. Test Charter provides a quick response to the build quality and details about code changes.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (A) is False – as this would be one of the purposes of a data generation tool
Option (B) is True – as this is one of many purposes of a Test Charter.
Option (C) is False – as this would be one of the purposes of a Wild.
Option (D) is False – as this would be one of the purposes of a Continuous Integration (CI) tool
Q. 149: (Level K1) Out of the following which is one of the purposes of an Application Lifecycle
Management (ALM) tool on Agile project?
A. An ALM tool allows teams to build up a knowledge base on tools and techniques for development and
testing activities.
B. An ALM tool provides a quick response to the build quality and details about code changes.
C. An ALM tool provides visibility into the current state of the application, especially with distributed
teams.
D. An ALM tool generates and loads large volumes and combinations of data to use for testing.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
The Application Lifecycle Management tool are deployed for acquiring the in depth knowledge about the
state of the application.
Q. 150: (Level K1) Out of the following which is NOT a principle of continuous integration?
A. Continuous integration helps to build changed software regularly, including testing and deploying, in an
automated way.
B. Continuous integration allows new builds to be available frequently to testers and stakeholders.
C. Continuous integration helps to identify new integration defects early and makes the analysis of these
defects easier.
D. Continuous integration ensures that testing of builds is done manually, as this generates more reliable
results than automated scripts.
Explanation in favour of the correct answer:
Option (D) is the best answer as it does not relate to the continuous integration.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>> <<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Examples
Q. 151: (Level K1) The customer in an Agile project ….
A. Has no control over the prioritization of delivered features
B. Has total control over the prioritization of features
C. Collaborates with the developers over prioritization of features, but the developers have the final decision
D. Collaborates with the developers over prioritization of features, but the business has the final decision
Q. 152: (Level K1) You have been engaged as the Technical Coordinator in a product development
team. The customer (Product Owner) and Team Leader (Scrum Master) are happy because the team
always delivers business value
on time. However, you worry that the technical debt is increasing. What would be your primary goal
to ensure the right quality?
A. Ensure testers define their entry criteria for quality, which they impose on the development team
B. Nothing. Prescribed roles such as technical coordinators are not part of an Agile team
C. Make sure that the maintainability quality attribute is addressed
D. On time delivery and happy end-users are the only quality measures in Agile development
Q. 153: (Level K1) An Agile approach advocates which of the following approaches?
A. Get something “quick and dirty” delivered, to save time
B. Get something simple released as quickly as possible
C. Get something business-valuable delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with the right level of
quality
D. Get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the documentation has been signed off as
complete
Q. 154: (Level K1) What should the developers do if the customer representative is repeatedly too
busy to be available?
A. Continue the work, record the assumptions and ask the customer later for input.
B. Send the customer a written warning that the end product will be completed on time, but may not meet
their needs
C. Allow the Business Analyst to take on the role of Proxy Customer Representative
D. Draw the problem to the attention of the Scrum Master (Team Leader)
Q. 155: (Level K1) An Agile customer …
A. Must have a thorough understanding of Agile techniques, for Agile to work
B. Will always receive lower-quality products than their non-Agile counterparts
C. Will typically get business value delivered early and often
D. Will need to understand the technical aspects of development, to contribute effectively
Q. 156: (Level K1) Who is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?
A. Product Owner
B. Project Manager
C. Lead Developer
D. Business Analyst
Q. 157: (Level K1) The working culture of an Agile team is …
A. Collective
B. Collaborative
C. Connective
D. Contemplative
Q. 158: (Level K1) In order to communicate well, the Agile project should …
A. Keep team-size large, to avoid stakeholders feeling left out
B. Break the project into small, mixed-skill, self-organising teams
C. Operate with one team of less than 10 people
D. Operate with separate customer, developer and test teams
Q. 159: (Level K1) The leadership style of an Agile Leader is …
A. Directive
B. Assertive
C. Facilitative
D. Feature-based
Q. 160: (Level K1) What is Kan Ban?
A. A list of activities banned by the team, in relation to Team Norms
B. The set of Can Have stories for a project
C. A visible chart of work to do, work in progress and work done
D. A graph of tasks partially-completed by the team
Q. 161: (Level K1) How could you benefit from having an End User Representative in your
development team?
A. End users should NOT be in the development team. Requirements are always communicated to the
developers by the Product Owner, who is part of the customer team
B. The End User Representative will be solely responsible for acceptance tests within the team
C. The End User Representative assures that user stories are documented properly
D. The End User Representative will be able to clearly tell the developers what will work for an end user
Q. 162: (Level K1) Which one of the following statements about workshops is true for Agile projects?
A. All project stakeholders should attend requirements workshops
B. Retrospectives are only run at the end of a project
C. It is best if the Project Manager facilitates the project’s workshops
D. An independent facilitator will manage the structure of a facilitated workshop but not input to the content
Q. 163: (Level K1) Which of the following is a characteristic of an Agile leader?
A. Task focused
B. Process oriented
C. Supportive
D. Disengaged
Q. 164: (Level K1) The Agile approach to documentation is:
A. Do no documentation because it is a waste of time
B. Do sufficient documentation to prove you have done a good job
C. Do the necessary documentation to support the development and use of the product
D. Do more documentation than usual, because Agile is risky
Q. 165: (Level K1) The Agile Leader …
A. Should allocate tasks to the team members each day at the stand-up meeting
B. Should involve the team in their own work-allocation
C. Should give detailed work-plans to the team each day
D. Should direct the work of the team, if they are inexperienced
Q. 166: (Level K1) Which of the following are attributes of an Agile team?
A. Courage to change and adapt
B. Trust of fellow team members to do the work
C. Responsiveness to change
D. All of these
Q. 167: (Level K1) Agile methods are described as “adaptive” because…
A. Agile teams have the empowerment to frequently respond to change and to learn on a project by
changing the plan
B. The rate of development progress on an Agile project is constantly tracked to allow adaptation
C. Project Managers are not needed in Agile methods because teams are self-organizing
D. Workshops held at the beginning and the end of every iteration (timebox) allow the team to adapt the
product specification
Q. 168: (Level K1) When handling team dynamics, the Agile Leader should …
A Empower the team members, within appropriate limits
B. Encourage an environment of competition and personal advantage
C. Give clear directives to the team about what they should do and how
D. Expect team members to be proactive and each work to their own priorities and objectives
Q. 169: (Level K1) Which one of the following is a key feature of documentation that you would
expect to find in an Agile project?
A. System documentation created at the end of each increment, at the start of the deployment
B. User Stories held in a spreadsheet or specialist database, where full details of user conversations are
recorded for future purposes, like handover to maintenance or support
C. User Story cards containing only enough detail for planning and development, which will need to be
supplemented by further face-to-face conversations
D. No written documentation, as all good communication is face-to-face
Q. 170: (Level K1) What is the effect of having a large visible project plan on a wall?
A. It removes the need to create any other reports for management
B. It continuously communicates progress within the team and to other stakeholders
C. It allows the Project Manager to allocate tasks to specific team members
D. It is restrictive, as it does not allow the team to innovate and change
Q. 171: (Level K1) Which of these best describes the Agile approach to team-working?
A. The team should plan to work a small amount of overtime regularly throughout the project
B. The team should expect to work longer hours towards the end of the sprint (timebox), in order to deliver
all that was committed to
C. The team should strive for a sustainable pace and a normal working week
D. The team will “burn out” if they have to work overtime for more than two sprints (timeboxes, iterations)
in a row
Q. 172: (Level K1) An Agile project …
A. Should have no control over its progress
B. Should be able to demonstrate control of its progress
C. Is always out of control
D. Is controlled by the velocity of the most junior team member
Q. 173: (Level K1) A burn-down chart shows …
A. The energy level and velocity of the team
B. The remaining work (effort, points) to complete before the iteration (timebox) end
C. The number of hours worked by each team member during the iteration (timebox)
D. The rate of spending of the budget for a project
Q. 174: (Level K1) How could maintainability of the developing product be improved in a
development team?
A. Apply standard design patterns
B. Ensure unit testing is included in the “done” criteria
C. Make refactoring a common practice
D. All of these
Q. 175: (Level K1) In Agile projects, we plan to “learn as we go” because…
A. It creates a better relationship between the developers and customer representatives
B. Many projects are evolutionary, and a better solution emerges this way
C. It is time-consuming to analyze everything at the beginning of a project
D. It prevents late delivery of the project
Q. 176: (Level K1) What is one difference in responsibility between a Project Manager and a Scrum
Master (Team Leader) in an Agile project?
A. None. It’s basically the same. Scrum Master (or Team Leader) is just a better term than Project Manager
in an Agile project
B. The Project Manager creates the detailed delivery plans while the Team Leader monitors execution
within the team
C. Project Manager communicates with project governance authorities when necessary
D. The Project Manager monitors the realization of benefits in the business case.
Q. 177: (Level K1) The responsibilities of a Product Owner will include …
A. Business processes diagramming
B. Prioritizing requirements
C. Managing the project budget
D. All of these
Q. 178: (Level K1) If a timebox (iteration) plan needs to be re-prioritized in a hurry, who should re-
prioritize?
A. The developers alone (they know what the customer wants)
B. The Product Owner (the developers would only choose the easy things as top priority)
C. The Project Leader (they can give an independent, pragmatic view)
D. The whole team including Product Owner and developers (together they can consider both business value
and practicality)
Q. 179: (Level K1) How should work be allocated to the team in an Agile project?
A. The Team Leader (Scrum Master) should allocate specific tasks to individuals
B. Tasks should be randomly allocated to team members, using Planning Poker
C. Team members should self-select tasks appropriate to their skills
D. The most complex tasks should be allocated by the Team Leader (Scrum Master)
Q. 180: (Level K1) An Agile team …
A. Is self-organizing, with each member having the same technical skills
B. Collaborates and supports its team members
C. Ensures that weak members of the team are allocated the simpler tasks
D. Ensures blame is allocated fairly
Q. 181: (Level K1) Tracking project issues in an Agile project is the primary responsibility of the…
A. Tester
B. Project Leader
C. Functional Manager
D. Developer
Q. 182: (Level K1) When estimating is done for a project, the developers should:
A. Be fully involved in the estimating process
B. Be in total control of the estimating process
C. Be consulted after the Team Leader (Scrum Master) has made the estimates for the team’s work
D. Not make estimates unless velocity is already known
Q. 183: (Level K1) Which one of the following is an important feature of the daily stand-up / wash up /
Scrum meeting?
A. Everyone is expected to stand for the whole time, to keep the meeting short
B. The meeting must be kept short and well structured
C. The meeting should ensure that it is clear to all which team members are not performing
D. No-one is allowed to leave the stand-up meeting until all problems raised have been solved
Q. 184: (Level K1) What is the Agile approach to doing design early in a project?
A. A big design up front is always a good idea
B. Just enough design up front gives a good foundation to start from and helps to mitigate risk, without
wasting unnecessary time
C. No design up front is the best approach as most of the fun of a project is in the discovery of the
unexpected
D. The design has no place in an Agile project
Q. 185: (Level K1) Who should attend the stand-up meetings?
A. Sponsor and Executive Management only
B. Project Manager and Technical Leads only
C. Project Leader and Customer Representatives only
D. The entire team
Q. 186: (Level K1) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding acceptance of any
deliverables on an Agile Project?
A. The team should allow only senior managers to sign off deliverables
B. The team should get acceptance of project deliverables from the appropriate stakeholders at least at the
end of every timebox/iteration
C. The team should get acceptance of project deliverables from the users during a UAT phase at the end of
the project
D. Acceptance of any particular deliverable on the project is gained from all stakeholders at the same time.
Q. 187: (Level K1) During an iteration (sprint) (timebox) the developers should be:
A. Able to contact the customer to clarify aspects of the work
B. Completely uninterrupted by the customer
C. In twice-daily contact with the customer
D. Able to work without needing to disturb the customer
Q. 188: (Level K1) The reason for holding regular Retrospectives is:
A. It allows the team to take a necessary break from work
B. It gives management information to use in team members’ performance reviews
C. It allows learning which can be used to improve team performance during the project
D. It prevents deviation from the process which the team has been following
Q. 189: (Level K1) In the popular prioritization technique called “MoSCoW”, the “M” stands for …
A. May have
B. Major
C. Must Have
D. Mandatory
Q. 190: Which of the following best represents the Agile approach to planning?
A. Planning is not part of an Agile approach, because Agile is exploratory
B. Planning should be done in detail at the outset of a project and not revisited
C. Planning should involve the whole team, not just the Project Manager
D. Planning should all be done by the Project Manager
Q. 191: (Level K1) Why is it important to trust the team?
A. High trust teams do not have to be accountable to each other
B. High trust teams do not require a user representative
C. The Project Manager does not then have to keep a project schedule
D. The presence of trust is positively correlated with the team performance
Q. 192: (Level K1) An effective workshop facilitator will always …
A. Involve the whole project team in all project workshops
B. Agree to the process and participants of the workshop with the workshop owner before the workshop
C. Involve only those team members who will commit to doing further work after the workshop
D. Act as a proxy for any invited participant who is unable to attend the workshop on the day
Q. 193: (Level K1) What is meant by “Yesterday’s Weather” in an Agile project?
A. Teams work less well when it rains
B. Keeping metrics of earlier work to help with future estimates
C. Retrospectives should include less important topics, such as the weather, as ice-breakers
D. Estimating is as futile as predicting the weather
Q. 194: (Level K1) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the quality of
deliverables from an Agile Project?
A. The products produced by an Agile project should be cheaper than those produced by any other approach,
but quality will suffer
B. The products will be more expensive than by any other approach but will be top quality
C. The products will be fit for purpose, but may not do what the customer wanted
D. The products will be of appropriate quality, as guided by the customer representative involved throughout
the development process
Q. 195: (Level K1) The Agile process …
A. Encourages the team to meet regularly
B. Has no meetings
C. Has lengthy reporting requirements
D. Has no reporting requirements
Q. 196: (Level K1) Who should define the business value of a Feature within an Agile project?
A. The individual end-users
B. The Product Owner
C. The Business Analyst
D. The Business Sponsor
Q. 197: (Level K1) The Agile Manifesto states the following values:
A. People are more important than contracts
B. Working software should have priority over comprehensive documentation
C. Plans should have priority over the ability to respond
D. Contracts should be negotiated which allow control over the people
Q. 198: (Level K1) A sustainable pace means …
A. If the team members work long hours regularly they will get used to it, and be able to sustain it
B. A 40 hour week is only for the weaker members of the team. Others can do more.
C. The team should establish a velocity which can be sustained within normal working hours
D. Working long hours is the only way to deliver on time
Q. 199: (Level K1) If a new requirement emerges once an Agile project is running, it should be:
A. Automatically included in the work of the project
B. Automatically excluded and left until a later project or increment
C. Assessed for importance and, if sufficiently important to the business, included in the project, displacing
less important requirements
D. Put on the backlog for consideration by the wider group of stakeholders after the project has been
completed
Q. 200: (Level K1) The Agile way is:
A. To produce a working product of the right quality, early and incrementally
B. To produce working product after documentation has been signed off
C. To produce simple prototypes early, but no finished product until the end of the project
D. To produce products without technical integrity, but re-engineer later
Q. 201: (Level K1) Which of the following best describes the approach for determining the iteration
(timebox) length?
A. Iterations (timeboxes) should always be 30 days
B. The team determines iteration (timebox) length by dividing the total number of story points by the
average velocity of the team
C. Iterations (timeboxes) should always be two weeks
D. The team should agree on the length of the iteration (timebox), taking the size and complexity of the
project into consideration
Q. 202: (Level K1) An Agile project should have …
A. Occasional early deliveries, if the business is prepared to accept lower quality
B. A regular pattern of delivery of developer-focused products
C. A regular pattern of delivery of business-valued increments
D. An irregular and unpredictable delivery of products
Q. 203: (Level K1) The end result of an Agile development is:
A. A product of a professional quality which fits the business need
B. A product of almost as good a quality as a Waterfall development
C. A product which is barely sufficient for its purpose and deliberately not maintainable
D. A technically-perfect, re-factored solution
Q. 204: (Level K1) What are the advantages of maintaining consistent iteration (timebox) length
throughout the project?
A. It helps to establish a consistent pattern of delivery
B. It helps the team to objectively measure progress
C. It provides a consistent means of measuring team velocity
D. All of the above
Q. 205: (Level K1) Once a project is underway, the approach to planning is:
A. Plans should never be changed
B. It is normal to need to plan and re-plan as the project progresses
C. Plans should only be changed with the full approval of all stakeholders
D. Plans are not required as Agile is incremental
Q. 206: (Level K1) When an Agile team is successful …
A. It should be encouraged to celebrate success only when the project is over
B. It should be encouraged to celebrate even small successes immediately
C. It should not celebrate success, as this wastes project budget
D. It should not celebrate success, as this makes less successful teams feel bad
Q. 207: (Level K1) What is the personal risk that an Agile Leader takes in empowering the team?
A. The Agile Leader might lose their job, as the team is doing all the work
B. If the team fails, the Agile leader will not get a performance bonus
C. The Agile Leader has less direct control over the team’s work, but still has the responsibility for their
outcomes
D. The Agile Leader cannot share the glory of team success
Q. 208: (Level K1) What do all Agile approaches have in common?
A. A prescribed, fixed iteration (time box) length
B. Iterative development and incremental delivery
C. A strict focus on on-time delivery
D. A large set of clearly defined roles
Q. 209: (Level K1) One of the development stages you would expect to see a team go through is:
A. Storming
B. Warming
C. Cloning
D. Yawning
Q. 210: (Level K1) The recommended approach to design in an Agile project is:
A. No design up front
B. Big design up front
C. Just enough design up front
D. Use a previous design – it will be “good enough”
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ISTQB Agile Tester Quiz Questions and Answers


1. Which of the following is an advantage of having the whole team responsible for quality?
Answer: Role barriers are eliminated, and team members contribute to project success based on their unique skills and
perspectives
2. Which of the following is a benefit of the agile process promoting early and frequent feedback?
Answer : There is less rework because customers see the product regularly
3. Agile Testing covers all the levels of testing and all types of testing?
Answer : TRUE
4. FDD stands for?
Answer : Feature Driven Development
5. Which testing is based on the expected behavior of the software being developed?
Answer : BDD
6. In Agile Testing Practices, which of them has two team members work together at the same keyboard?
Answer : Pairing
7. Sprint Zero involves preparation activities before the first sprint.
Answer : Yes
8. Which of the following statements best reflects one of the values of the Agile Manifesto?
Answer : Working software allows the customer to provide rapid feedback to the developer
9. Which of the following is one of the purposes of an Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) tool on an agile proj
ect?
Answer : Working software allows the customer to provide rapid feedback to the developer
10. Given the following user story: "An online application charges customers to ship purchased items, based on the f
ollowing criteria:
a) Standard shipping costs for under 6 items
b) Shipping is $5 for 6-10 items
c) Shipping is free for more than 10 items
Which of the following is the best black box test design technique for the user story?
Answer : Working software allows the customer to provide rapid feedback to the developer
11. Which of the following is NOT a principle of continuous integration?
Answer : Continuous integration ensures that testing of builds is done manually, as this generates more reliable results than
automated scripts
12. Consider the following activities:
a) Strict enforcement of system test level entry and exit criteria.
b) Collaboration between tester, developer, and business stakeholders to define acceptance criteria
c) Functional verification testing of user stories developed in the previous iteration.
Which of the following combination of these activities should occur in an agile project?
Answer : ii only
13. The business advises during iteration 5 planning that they require changes to the system delivered in iteration 3.
Of the following activities, which would need to be done first to minimize the introduction of regression risk when thi
s feature is changed?
Answer : Review and update all manual and automated tests impacted by this change to meet the new acceptance criteria
14. In agile projects there is more need for testers to understand and develop test automation scripts than in traditio
nal projects. Of the following:
a) Requirements change daily and must be regression tested. This rapid change requires automated tests beca
use manual testing is too slow.
b) The tests should generate feedback on product quality as early as possible. So, all acceptance tests should b
e executed in each iteration, ideally as modifications are made. In practice that can only be realized by auto
mated tests
c) Test-First and Continuous Integration Practice require that the regression test suite is executed whenever c
hanged code is checked-in. In practice that can only be realized by automated tests
d) Iterations or sprints are of fixed length. The team must guarantee that all tests can be completely executed
at the last day of each iteration/sprint. In practice, that can only be realized by automated tests
e) Agile projects rely on unit testing rather than on systems testing. Since unit tests cannot be executed manua
lly, all tests must be automated tests.
Which are the reasons why this is a necessary skill on agile projects?
Answer : ii and iii
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Example 1:
#1 Which of the following is the correct pairing according to the Agile Manifesto statement of values?
A. Individuals and Interactions over Working Software
B. Individuals and Interactions over Contract Negotiation
C. Individuals and Interactions over Processes and Tools
D. Individuals and Interactions over Customer Collaboration
#2 The statement “Working software is the primary measure of progress” is found where in the Agile
process description?
A. It is one of the value statements
B. It is one of the twelve principles
C. It is a description of an Agile methodology
D. It is a part of the XP methodology
#3 In an Agile team, who is responsible for quality?
A. The developers
B. The testers
C. The product owner
D. The entire team
#4 What is the purpose of a daily stand-up meeting?
A. It provides team building by encouraging everyone to stand up together for a quick exercise session
B. It provides a way for each member to communicate progress and problems
C. It forces the team to be co-located
D. It helps determine where overtime will be required to keep the project on schedule
#5 Which of the following is an example of a practice that provides early feedback to the developers?
A. User acceptance testing
B. Continuous integration
C. Stand-up meetings
D. Changing requirements
#6 When the customer in an Agile project provides feedback indicating that a piece of functionality
was not implemented correctly, what should the Agile team do with this information?
A. Record it and put an item in the backlog for consideration by the team
B. Stop all planned development and implement the change for the customer
C. Write a defect report and address the issue when the backlog has been cleared
D. Update the requirements document and require customer sign-off before implementing any changes
#7 In which Agile approach is simplicity one of the stated values used to guide development?
A. XP
B. Kanban
C. Scrum
D. TDD
#8 If you are using a board to show the various stations of activities, such as development or testing,
what type of Agile approach are you following?
A. Task Board
B. Kanban
C. Scrum
D. XP
#9 You are reviewing the following story with the business and product owners:
As a dog owner, I want to register my dog online, so I can quickly complete this legal requirement of
dog ownership.
You want to implement the INVEST technique during this review. Which INVEST item is missing
from this story and would need additional elaboration?
A. Security
B. Value
C. Testability
D. The 3C Concept
#10 Why is it important for a team to implement only a few improvements in an iteration?
A. If the team tries to implement too many improvements, they may feel defeated and lose motivation
B. If the team tries to implement too many improvements it may disrupt their ability to produce at a
sustained pace
C. If the team tries to implement too many improvements it may set a management expectation of radical
change with each iteration
D. If the team tries to implement too many improvements they may lose sight of the definition of “done”
#11 In a retrospective meeting, who should provide input into the testing activities on the project?
A. Only the developers
B. Only the testers
C. Everyone but the testers
D. Everyone on the team
#12 What types of automated testing activities are included in the continuous integration process?
A. Unit only
B. Unit and regression testing
C. Unit and integration testing
D. Unit, integration, and system testing
#13 What is the proper order of planning?
A. Release, then iteration
B. Iteration, then release
C. Both occur at the same time
D. In most Agile projects only one type of planning is done, either release or iteration
#14 In an Agile project, which of the following is usually checked into a configuration management
system?
A. Epics
B. Stories
C. Iterations
D. Code
#15 In an Agile project, when is software first expected to be delivered that will provide value to the
customer?
A. At the end of the project
B. At the end of a release
C. At the end of an iteration
D. At the end of an epic
#16 What does it mean when a feature is classified as “done”?
A. It has been developed
B. t has been developed and integrated
C. It has been developed, integrated and tested
D. It has been developed, integrated, tested and released to production
#17 If your Agile team has an on-going need for specialized testers to conduct performance testing,
which organizational structure would be most effective?
A. The Agile team has people who have been designated as the testers for a sprint or set of sprints
B. The Agile team has independent testers who join the team at the end of the sprint
C. A separate and independent test team furnishes testers to the Agile projects/teams as needed based on the
skills required
D. The testing is outsourced to an external company with performance test expertise
#18 What is a benefit of tester independence in an Agile project?
A. The independent tester is able to provide an objective evaluation of the quality of the product being tested
B. The independent tester is able to rely on the testing performed by the developers
C. The independent tester may have relationship issues with the Agile team that is accustomed to working
together
D. The independent tester can provide project management skills as well as testing for the project
#19 What does a burndown chart measure?
A. Schedule time against expected budget
B. Return on investment
C. How quickly activities move between stations
D. The amount of work still to be done against the time allocated
#20 What does a task board show?
A. Tasks completed against the budget spent
B. Return on investment
C. The progression of the tasks selected for an iteration
D. The number of tasks still to be done against the time allocated
#21 Which of the following is a reasonable expectation for a test case during it’s life?
A. It will not change
B. It will be automated and will require only minimal maintenance
C. It will evolve with the software
D. It will be owned by the developer who writes the associated code
#22 When should automated acceptance tests be run?
A. Before code is checked into the build
B. As often as the continuous integration full system build is created
C. During UAT as a replacement for testing by the business users
D. Only when the full release is complete
#23 Which of the following is a tester skill that is more important in an Agile environment than in a
sequential lifecycle environment?
A. Collaboration
B. Manual testing
C. Performance testing
D. Test case preparation
#24 What is an important job for the Agile tester during the release and iteration planning sessions?
A. To report defects
B. To ensure the appropriate testing tasks are scheduled
C. To select the testing tools
D. To suggest process improvements
#25 If an Agile team is using testing tools such as a test management tool, who is responsible for
ensuring the proper use of the tool?
A. The scrum master
B. The development manager
C. The tester
D. The configuration manager
#26 If the developer adds a test that captures his concept of the desired functionality of the code and
then develops the code to pass that test, what type of development is being done?
A. Test-driven development
B. Acceptance test-driven development
C. Behavior-driven development
D. Developer-driven development
#27 If it is particularly important for the business users to understand the tests that are being used to
verify the proper implementation of the code, what type of development framework should be used?
A. Test-driven
B. Integration test-driven
C. Behavior-driven
D. Business-driven
#28 In the test pyramid, which level has the largest number of tests?
A. Acceptance
B. System
C. Integration
D. Unit
#29 Which testing quadrant is associated with user acceptance tests?
A. Q1
B. Q2
C. Q3
D. Q4
#30 Which quadrant is primarily associated with supporting the developers?
A. Q1
B. Q2
C. Q3
D. Q4
#31 You are a tester in a Scrum team. You have been testing the product for several iterations and
you are noticing that the error message format and text are inconsistent. For example, when the user
enters an invalid address in one part of the application, they are given the message “Invalid input” in
a red font whereas when they enter an invalid phone number they are given the message “The phone
number you have entered is not in a valid format. Please enter the phone number as (xxx) xxx-xxxx”
in a blue font. The stories do not specify how the error messages should appear. What should you do?
A. Nothing. Since the stories do not specify the error message text or format, the implementation is up to the
discretion of the developer
B. Write a defect report for the first instance since that message should have more information for the user
C. Request a meeting with the developers to discuss the consistency problems and help guide the discussion
to determine the error message standards for the project
D. Appeal to the scrum master to intervene and instruct the developers to use a standard error message
template that will force a consistent font and color for all error messages of this type
#32 You have identified a usability risk with the mobile application you are currently testing. When
the application loses connectivity with the web server, the user is not informed of the problem and all
information entered after that point is lost. What is a reasonable assessment of this risk?
A. The impact is high because the user will lose their data. The likelihood depends on how often
connectivity will be lost.
B. The impact is low because the user can retype their information. The likelihood is high because the
original data is lost.
C. The impact is medium because the user should expect this type of behavior. The likelihood is medium
because the problem will be intermittent.
D. The impact is high because the user will not understand what is happening and will likely call the
helpdesk. The likelihood is low because the network connectivity is reliable and unlikely to have any issues.
#33 You have been asked to estimate the story points for a particular story using the Fibonacci
sequence. You have reviewed the story, but it seems to indicate a significant amount of work and a
number of unknowns, particularly around the creation of test data. At this point, you don’t know if
you’ll be able to use existing data or will have to create your own. You also don’t know how you will
test the interfaces between this story and the existing code.
Given this information, what would be the proper value to assign in story points?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 13
D. 18
#34 You are testing a story for a mobile banking application and you have noticed that the response
time seems slow. You have checked the acceptance criteria for the story and nothing is mentioned
regarding performance requirements. What should you do now?
A. Write a defect report and leave it to the developers to figure out how to make it faster
B. Stop testing and require that the business owners define specific performance testing requirements in the
acceptance criteria
C. Continue testing with the assumption that the product owners will identify the problem, if it is indeed a
problem, when they do user acceptance testing
D. Review similar products, existing documentation on acceptable performance and talk with the business
users to determine the performance requirements
#35 Why is a user’s knowledge of the business procedures, processes and constraints important when
defining acceptance criteria for stories?
A. Because it helps define the security required in the final product
B. Because it is needed to define the business rules that must be supported by the product
C. Because it is used to ensure the efficiency of the developed code
D. Because it is needed to understand all the external interfaces of the software
#36 You are reviewing the acceptance criteria for a story. One of these states “All windows must
conform to the corporate approved color scheme”. In what way does this statement help improve the
testability of the story?
A. It explains the functional behavior that the software must supply
B. It provides a realistic use case for the software
C. It defines the business rules that must be implemented
D. It supplies a constraint for the solution
#37 You have been given the following story:
“As a plant lover who travels frequently, I want to have an automated watering system, so that my
plants won’t die.”
You have also been given the following acceptance criteria:
1.The water should turn on when the temperature is > 85 degrees and the moisture content of the soil
changes from “normal” to “dry”.
2.The water should be dispersed for 5 minutes at the rate of 0.5 ounces per minute.
Which of the following is the first test case that should be written for the acceptance-test driven
implementation?
A. Set the soil moisture level to “wet”, then increase the heat and verify that the moisture level changes to
“normal” and then to “dry” and then to “parched”
B. Set the temperature > 85 degrees and verify that the temperature is increased accordingly
C. Set the temperature to < 85 degrees and the moisture to “dry” and verify that no water is dispersed
D. Set the temperature to > 85 degrees and the moisture to “dry” and verify that water is dispersed
#38 You have been given the following story:
“As a plant lover who travels frequently, I want to have an automated watering system, so that my
plants won’t die.”
You have also been given the following acceptance criteria:
1.The water should turn on when the temperature is > 85 degrees and the moisture content of the soil
changes from “normal” to “dry”.
2.The water should be dispersed for 5 minutes at the rate of 0.5 ounces per minute.
Which one of the following provides the proper values to use to achieve 100% two-value boundary
value analysis coverage with the minimum number of test cases?
A. Temperature at 85 and 86, moisture at “dry” and “normal”
B. Temperature at 85 and 86, moisture at “dry” and “normal”, water disbursement for 5 minutes and 5
minutes 1 second, rate at 0.5 and 0.4
C. Temperature at 85 and 86, moisture at “dry” and “normal”, water disbursement for 5 minutes and 4
minutes 59 seconds, rate at 0.5 and 0.6
D. Temperature at 85 and 84, moisture at “dry” and “normal”
#39 You have been given the following story:
“As a plant lover who travels frequently, I want to have an automated watering system, so that my
plants won’t die.”
You have also been given the following acceptance criteria:
1.The water should turn on when the temperature is > 85 degrees and the moisture content of the soil
changes from “normal” to “dry”.
2.The water should be dispersed for 5 minutes at the rate of 0.5 ounces per minute
Which of the following is a question that would be most appropriate to ask when preparing to conduct
exploratory testing?
A. How many of these systems will run concurrently getting data from the same temperature controller?
B. Which equivalence partitions and boundary values should be tested?
C. How does the software transition from the “normal” to “dry” state?
D. What can be done with the software that might cause it to fail or act in an unexpected way?
#40 What is the purpose of continuous integration tools?
A. To support black-box testing
B. To provide a basis for structured reviews of the requirements
C. To support the daily build and deployment of software
D. To track the tasks of the team
Link: https://astqb.org/assets/documents/ISTQB_Agile_Tester_Extension_Sample_Exam-ASTQB-
version.pdf
ANSWER EXAMPLE 1:
Link: https://astqb.org/assets/documents/ISTQB_Agile_Tester_Extension_Sample_Exam_Answers-
ASTQB-version.pdf
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ISTQB Agile Tester Sample Questions:


01. Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to exploratory testing?
a) Exploratory testing encompasses concurrent learning, test design, and execution.
b) Exploratory testing eliminates the need for testers to prepare test ideas prior to test execution.
c) Best results are achieved when exploratory testing is combined with other test strategies.
d) Exploratory testers need to have a solid understanding of the system under test

02. The business advises during iteration 5 planning that they require changes to the system delivered in iteration 3.
Of the following activities, which would need to be done first to minimize the introduction of regression risk when
this feature is changed?
a) Review and update all manual and automated tests impacted by this change to meet the new acceptance criteria.
b) Write new manual and automated tests for the feature and add them to the regression test suite.
c) Automate all test cases from the previous iteration and add them to the automated regression test suite.
d) Increase the amount of test automation around the system to include more detailed test conditions.

03. Which tasks are typically expected of a tester on an agile project?


i. decide on user acceptance
ii. design, create and execute appropriate tests
iii. schedule defect reports for analysis
iv. automate and maintain tests
v. improve program logic by pair programming
a) i & iii
b) ii & iii
c) ii & iv
d) ii & v

04. Which of the following demonstrates effective use of the testing quadrants?
a) When communicating test ideas, the tester can refer to the matching test quadrant, so that the rest of the team will better
understand the purpose of the test.
b) The tester can use the types of tests described in the testing quadrants as a coverage metric, the more tests covered from
each quadrant, the higher the test coverage.
c) The team should pick a number of tests expected from each quadrant, and the tester should design and execute those tests
to ensure all levels and types of tests have been executed
d) The tester can use the testing quadrants during risk analysis; with the lower level quadrants representing lower risk to
customer.

05. Which TWO of the following are examples of testable acceptance criteria for test related activities?
Select TWO options.
a) Structure based testing: White box testing in addition to black box testing is used.
b) System testing: At least 80% of functional regression tests are automated.
c) Security testing: A threat risk analysis scan is completed with no faults identified.
d) Performance testing: The application is responding in a reasonable amount of time with 5000 users.
e) Compatibility testing: The application is working on all major browsers.

06. During an iteration planning meeting, the team is sharing their thoughts about a user story. The product owner
advises that the customer should have one screen to enter information.
The developer explains that there are technical limitations for the feature, due to the amount of information needed
to be captured on the screen. Another developer says that there are risks about performance as the information will
be stored in an external offsite database.
Which of the following would best represent a tester’s contribution to this discussion?
a) The tester advises that the screen for the user story needs to be a single page to reduce test automation effort.
b) The tester advises that usability is more important than performance
c) The tester advises that performance acceptance criteria should standard maximum of 1 second for data storage.
d) The tester advises that the user story needs acceptance criteria to be testable.

07. Which of the following is NOT a typical task performed by the tester within an agile team?
a) To automate tests and maintain them
b) To mentor and coach other team members
c) To produce and update burndown charts
d) To participate in code analyzing activities

08. Which of the following statements best reflects one of the values of the Agile Manifesto?
a) Working software allows the customer to provide rapid feedback to the developer.
b) Developers should use unit testing tools to support the testing process.
c) Business representatives should provide a backlog of user stories and their estimates to the team.
d) Adopting plans to change adds no real value to an agile project.

09. Given the following user story: “An online application charges customers to ship purchased items, based on the
following criteria:
- Standard shipping costs for under 6 items
- Shipping is $5 for 6-10 items.
- Shipping is free for more than 10 items.
Which of the following is the best black box test design technique for the user story?
a) State Transition testing: Test the following states – browsing, logged in, selecting, purchasing, confirming, and exiting
b) Decision tables: Test the following conditions – User logged in; At least 1 item in cart; Purchase confirmed; Funding
approved; with the resulting action of – Ship Item.
c) Boundary Value Analysis: Test the following inputs – 0,5,6,10,11,max
d) Use Case Testing: Actor=customer; Prerequisites=customer logs in, selects and purchases items; Postconditions= items
are shipped.

10. Which of the following activities would a tester do during release planning?
a) Produce a list of acceptance tests for user stories
b) Help break down user stories into smaller and more detailed tasks.
c) Estimate testing tasks generated by new features planned for this iteration.
d) Support the clarification of the user stories and ensure that they are testable

Answers:
Question: 01 Question: 02 Question: 03 Question: 04 Question: 05
Answer: b Answer: a Answer: c Answer: a Answer: b, c
Question: 06 Question: 07 Question: 08 Question: 09 Question: 10
Answer: d Answer: c Answer: a Answer: c Answer: d
Example 3:
QUESTION 1: Which of the following is a typical work product that the Test Analyst would deliver as
part of the test closure activities?
A. A list of all deferred defects
B. A list of all rejected defect reports
C. A list of all resolved defects
D. A list of all defects found in production and fixed in this release

QUESTION 2: Ken, an entrepreneur in Leeds finds the quality of the tea locally available so low, that
he decides to research superior teas around the world. He decides to market, sell and distribute these
superior teas via the web. His market strategy is to offer superior products on a well-designed website
with graphics that are fast to load, has high availability, superior usability and fast response times.
The website will offer the following: -An innovative interactive catalogue of teas, which not only
enables customers to buy the product, but also enables them to provide feedback by rating the teas
(which will influence his stock purchasing levels) Provide the customer to give general feedback Ken
selects an iterative model for the development of the prototypes. The team consists of three developers
that are experienced in web development. Ken, although he doesn't have technical skillset, is
concerned with quality. He doesn't believe a lot of documentation is necessary and he wants the
website to be completed quickly. The test basis contains the following: -Story boards that show the
information flow and page links through the site
-HTML pages developed to date.
-A statement of non-functional requirements.
With the strategy taking shape, Ken asks your advice on the specific testing techniques that should be
used to complete the required testing, bearing in mind the nature of the application and the nature of
Ken’s overall objectives. Which TWO of the following items may more frequently need to be
explained in greater detail for non-functional defect reports than for a functional defect report?
A. Level of load on the system at the time of failure
B. Test data used to identify the fault
C. Expected results
D. Steps to reproduce the defect
QUESTION 3: Tax system A tax system needs to be updated due to new legislation. For a person with
a salary of less than € 20.000 and who is married, the tax needs to be re-calculated. If the person also
has more than two and less than five children, an additional 10% reduction is applicable. How many
input classes can be distinguished when applying equivalence partitioning to the “Tax System”
specification?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D. 7
QUESTION 4: A temperature unit holds the temperature between 10 degrees Celcius and –10 degrees
Celcius. If the temperature drops below –10 or rises above 10 then an alarm rings. Boundary Value
Analysis tests are drawn up using the approach of two test cases per boundary. The temperatures to
be tested are:
A. 11, 10, 9, -11, -10, -9
B. 10, 9, -9, -10
C. 11, 10, -11, -10
D. 11, 9, -9, -11
QUESTION 5: To enhance both the effectiveness and efficiency of the test design phase the purchase
of a test design tool is being considered. Which one of the statements hereafter best characterizes a
test design tool?
A. It enables tests to be executed automatically
B. It generates test inputs or executable tests from requirements
C. It enables individual tests to be traced to requirements
D. It validates models of the software
QUESTION 6: A new banking system has 2 customers’ types, 2 account types and will operate in two
different countries? How many test cases will be needed using the pair wise testing technique and the
appropriate 2-wise orthogonal array?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 2
D. 4
QUESTION 7: You are testing an ATM based on the following use case; ATM start screen is showing
The user inserts card
The user types in PIN
The user selects ‘cash with receipt’
The user selects € 50
The user selects ‘no further service’
Expected results
The ATM provides €50 to the user
The ATM return the card and balance slip
The ATM clears the screen
The ATM returns to start menu in your test log which of the following could be noted as part of
additional attention points?
A. Issues regarding time-behavior
B. Issues regarding interoperability
C. More test cases needed to achieve full coverage
D. Expected results not clearly defined
QUESTION 8: Which of the following descriptions is an example of the use of defect taxonomies?
A. Grouping defects found in execution by functional areas
B. Following a defect management process through testing
C. Using a list of known defect types to penetrate the security of computer systems
D. Running tests with the aim of finding as many defects as possible
QUESTION 9: In an organization using keyword-driven automation, which of the following activities
typically is the responsibility of the test analyst?
A. Write manual tests for the key business processes that can then be automated
B. Write the code to automate the key processes
C. Identify the key business processes that must be tested
D. Work with the users to define the key usability aspects of the software
QUESTION 10: Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to
determine a likely ‘go live’ date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team’s timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
A. (iv), (v), (vi)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (ii), (iii), (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (vi)

Answer example 3:
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10
A A, D B A D B A D C C
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