Emerging Trends in Electronics

Question bank

Unit 1. Advances in Processor Architecture

MCQs on Processor Evolution & Selection Criteria

1.1 Evolution of Processors

1. The first microprocessor, Intel 4004, was introduced in which year?

a) 1971 b) 1981 c) 1965 d) 1991
Correct Answer: a) 1971
2. Which of the following factors has significantly improved processor performance over
time?
a) Reduction in transistor size b) Increase in clock speed
c) Introduction of multi-core processors d) All of the above
Correct answer: d) All of the above
3. What was the clock speed of the Intel 4004 processor?
a) 1 MHz b) 500 KHz c) 740 KHz d) 2 GHz
Correct Answer: c) 740 KHz
4. Which of the following is NOT a key factor in processor evolution?
a) Decreasing the number of transistors
b) Improvement in semiconductor manufacturing
c) Development of advanced instruction sets
d) Introduction of multi-threading
Correct Answer: a) Decreasing the number of transistors
5. What metric is commonly used to compare processor performance?
a) GHz b) MIPS c) Core Mark d) All of the above
Correct Answer: d) All of the above

1.2 Processor Selection Criteria

6. Which of the following is the most important criterion when selecting a processor?
a) Performance b) Power consumption c) Price d) All of the above
Correct Answer: d) All of the above
7. What is the primary advantage of using a processor with a larger cache?
a) Reduces heat generation b) Decreases power consumption
c) Increases instruction execution speed d) Increases cost efficiency
Correct Answer: c) Increases instruction execution speed

8. Which of these techniques helps in improving processor power efficiency?

a) Frequency scaling b) Increasing core voltage
c) Disabling the cache d) Increasing instruction set complexity
Correct Answer: a) Frequency scaling
9. Which type of processor is optimized for low power consumption?
a) High-performance desktop processors
b) Embedded microcontrollers
c) Graphics Processing Units
d) Digital Signal Processors
Correct Answer: b) Embedded microcontrollers

1
 10. What is the primary purpose of a co-processor in a system?
a) Reduce the need for memory b) Increase data storage capacity
c) Assist the main processor in specialized tasks d) Reduce heat dissipation
Correct Answer: c) Assist the main processor in specialized tasks

2.1 Introduction to ARM

11. What does ARM stand for?

a) Advanced RISC Machine b) Adaptive RISC Microprocessor
c) Advanced Reduced Machine d) Automated RISC Model
Correct Answer: a) Advanced RISC Machine
12. Which of the following operating systems is NOT supported by ARM?
a) Symbian OS b) Windows CE c) macOS d) Linux
Correct Answer: c) macOS
13. ARM processors are commonly used in which type of devices?
a) Desktop computers b) Mobile phones
c) Supercomputers d) Mainframes
Correct Answer: b) Mobile phones

14. What is a key advantage of ARM processors over traditional CISC processors?
a) Higher power consumption b) Lower performance
c) Power efficiency d) Increased hardware complexity
Correct Answer: c) Power efficiency

2.2 ARM7TDMI Core Features

15. The "TDMI" in ARM7TDMI stands for:

a) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
b) Test, Data, Multiplication, Interface
c) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, Interrupt
d) Timing, Debugging, Memory, Interface
Correct Answer: a) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE

16. ARM7 processors have how many general-purpose registers in user mode?
a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
Correct Answer: b) 16
17. Which mode is the ARM processor in after reset?
a) User mode b) Supervisor mode
c) System mode d) Interrupt mode
Correct Answer: b) Supervisor mode

18. What is the function of the Link Register (LR) in ARM7?

a) Stores the next instruction to be executed
b) Holds the return address for subroutines
c) Controls memory access
d) Manages power consumption
Correct Answer: b) Holds the return address for subroutines

19. Which flag in the Current Program Status Register (CPSR) indicates an arithmetic
overflow?
a) N (Negative) b) Z (Zero)
c) C (Carry) d) V (Overflow)
Correct Answer: d) V (Overflow)
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 20. What is the purpose of the Thumb instruction set in ARM7TDMI?
a) Reduce power consumption
b) Provide a 16-bit instruction set for code density
c) Enable multi-threading
d) Improve floating-point performance
Correct Answer: b) Provide a 16-bit instruction set for code density

3. Arduino Board Features & ATmega328

3.1 Introduction to Arduino

21. What type of microcontroller is used in an Arduino Uno board?

a) ATmega16 b) ATmega328
c) ATmega128 d) ATmega2560
Correct Answer: b) ATmega328

22. Arduino is an example of:

a) A closed-source hardware platform
b) An open-source hardware and software platform
c) A proprietary microcontroller
d) A cloud-based processor
Correct Answer: b) An open-source hardware and software platform

23. The function of an Arduino board is to:

a) Act as a complete operating system
b) Control electronic components through programming
c) Replace traditional desktop computers
d) Function as a graphical processing unit
Correct Answer: b) Control electronic components through programming

24. What is the default programming language used for Arduino development?
a) Python b) Java c) C/C++ d) Assembly
Correct Answer: c) C/C++

25. How many digital input/output pins does an Arduino Uno have?
a) 10 b) 14 c) 16 d) 20
Correct Answer: b) 14

3.2 Features of ATmega328

26. How much Flash memory does ATmega328 have?

a) 16 KB b) 32 KB c) 64 KB d) 128 KB
Correct Answer: b) 32 KB

27. What is the clock speed of the ATmega328 microcontroller?

a) 8 MHz b) 12 MHz c) 16 MHz d) 20 MHz
Correct Answer: c) 16 MHz

28. How many analog input pins does ATmega328 support?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
Correct Answer: b) 6

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 29. What is the function of EEPROM in ATmega328?
a) Store program code permanently
b) Provide temporary RAM storage
c) Store small amounts of data even after power is lost
d) Speed up CPU execution
Correct Answer: c) Store small amounts of data even after power is lost

30. What is the operating voltage of an Arduino Uno?

a) 3.3V b) 5V c) 9V d) 12V
Correct Answer: b) 5V

3.3 Pin Diagram & Functionality

31. What is the function of the RESET pin in Arduino?

a) Increases clock speed
b) Resets the microcontroller
c) Disables power supply
d) Enables EEPROM storage
Correct Answer: b) Resets the microcontroller

32. How many Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) pins are available on the Arduino Uno?
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
Correct Answer: b) 6

33. The ATmega328 microcontroller follows which type of architecture?

a) Von Neumann b) Harvard c) RISC d) CISC
Correct Answer: b) Harvard

34. What is the function of the TX and RX pins on an Arduino board?

a) Power input b) Digital output
c) Serial communication d) Motor control
Correct Answer: c) Serial communication

35. What is the main difference between SRAM and Flash memory in Arduino?
a) SRAM is used for program storage, Flash is used for variables
b) SRAM is temporary storage, Flash is permanent storage
c) Flash memory is erased on power-off, SRAM is not
d) Both are the same
Correct Answer: b) SRAM is temporary storage, Flash is permanent storage

4. Arduino IDE & Programming Functions

4.1 Introduction to Arduino IDE

36. What does IDE stand for in Arduino?

a) Integrated Digital Environment
b) Interactive Design Engine
c) Integrated Development Environment
d) Internet Development Emulator
Correct Answer: c) Integrated Development Environment

37. Which programming languages does the Arduino IDE primarily support?
a) Python and Java
b) C and C++
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 c) Assembly and Java
d) HTML and PHP
Correct Answer: b) C and C++

38. The main structure of an Arduino program consists of:

a) setup() and loop() functions
b) begin() and start() functions
c) execute() and repeat() functions
d) run() and process() functions
Correct Answer: a) setup() and loop() functions

39. What is the purpose of the setup() function in an Arduino program?

a) It runs continuously
b) It initializes variables and pin modes
c) It reads input signals
d) It runs at a random interval
Correct Answer: b) It initializes variables and pin modes

40. The loop() function in Arduino:

a) Runs only once
b) Executes continuously after setup()
c) Controls power supply
d) Shuts down the system
Correct Answer: b) Executes continuously after setup()

4.2 Arduino Programming Functions

41. What is the correct syntax for setting pin 13 as an output?

a) digitalWrite(13, OUTPUT);
b) pinMode(13, OUTPUT);
c) setPin(13, OUT);
d) define(13, OUTPUT);
Correct Answer: b) pinMode(13, OUTPUT);

42. What does digitalWrite(7, HIGH); do?

a) Turns pin 7 off
b) Reads the value of pin 7
c) Turns pin 7 on
d) Sets pin 7 as an input
Correct Answer: c) Turns pin 7 on

43. What function is used to read an analog input?

a) analogWrite() b) analogRead()
c) digitalRead() d) digitalWrite()
Correct Answer: b) analogRead()
44. How would you introduce a 1-second delay in Arduino?
a) delay(1000);
b) wait(1);
c) pause(1000);
d) delay(1);
Correct Answer: a) delay(1000);

45. What is the purpose of Serial.begin(9600); in Arduino?

a) Starts an analog signal
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 b) Initializes serial communication at 9600 baud
c) Stops serial communication
d) Reads digital input
Correct Answer: b) Initializes serial communication at 9600 baud

5. Arduino Interfacing (LED, Relay, DC Motor)

5.1 LED Interfacing with Arduino

46. Which function is used to turn an LED on in Arduino?

a) pinMode() b) digitalWrite()
c) analogRead() d) Serial.print()
Correct Answer: b) digitalWrite()

47. What value should be given to digitalWrite() to turn an LED on?

a) HIGH b) LOW c) 0 d) INPUT
Correct Answer: a) HIGH

48. Which pin is commonly used for the built-in LED on most Arduino boards?
a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 13
Correct Answer: d) 13
49. What resistor value is typically used in series with an LED to prevent damage?
a) 1Ω b) 100Ω c) 220Ω d) 10kΩ
Correct Answer: c) 220Ω

50. The function delay(1000); in an LED blink program does what?

a) Turns the LED off immediately
b) Causes a delay of 1000 milliseconds (1 second)
c) Makes the LED blink continuously
d) Reads an analog value
Correct Answer: b) Causes a delay of 1000 milliseconds (1 second)

5.2 Relay Interfacing with Arduino

51. What is the function of a relay in an Arduino circuit?

a) Stores data
b) Provides power to Arduino
c) Controls high-voltage devices
d) Generates signals
Correct Answer: c) Controls high-voltage devices

52. How does a relay operate?

a) By changing the voltage of the circuit
b) By using a coil and an electromagnetic switch
c) By converting AC to DC
d) By storing electrical charge
Correct Answer: b) By using a coil and an electromagnetic switch

53. Which type of transistor is commonly used to drive a relay with an Arduino?
a) MOSFET b) BJT c) JFET d) IGBT
Correct Answer: b) BJT

54. What will happen if you directly connect a relay coil to an Arduino pin?
a) It will work fine
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 b) The Arduino may get damaged
c) It will increase processing speed
d) The relay will turn on continuously
Correct Answer: b) The Arduino may get damaged

55. What additional component is often used with a relay to prevent voltage spikes?
a) LED b) Capacitor c) Diode d) Potentiometer
Correct Answer: c) Diode

5.3 DC Motor Interfacing with Arduino

56. What component is typically used to control the speed of a DC motor with an Arduino?
a) Resistor b) Potentiometer
c) PWM signal d) Inductor
Correct Answer: c) PWM signal

57. Which IC is commonly used to control the direction of a DC motor?

a) 555 Timer b) L293D
c) LM358 d) MAX232
Correct Answer: b) L293D

58. What does an H-Bridge circuit do?

a) Generates analog signals
b) Controls the direction of a DC motor
c) Converts AC to DC
d) Amplifies signals
Correct Answer: b) Controls the direction of a DC motor

59. The analogWrite() function is used to:

a) Read digital values
b) Control PWM output
c) Control serial communication
d) Store variables in EEPROM
Correct Answer: b) Control PWM output

60. Which Arduino pins support PWM output?

a) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11
c) 1, 5, 7, 12, 13
d) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10
Correct Answer: b) 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11

6. Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) Features & Architecture

6.1 Introduction to GPU

61. What does GPU stand for?

a) General Processing Unit b) Graphics Processing Unit
c) General Purpose Unit d) Graphics Power Unit
Correct Answer: b) Graphics Processing Unit

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 62. What is the primary purpose of a GPU?
a) Control computer memory
b) Execute mathematical calculations quickly
c) Render images and videos
d) Manage network traffic
Correct Answer: c) Render images and videos

63. Which company is NOT a major GPU manufacturer?

a) NVIDIA b) AMD c) Intel d) ARM
Correct Answer: d) ARM

64. What type of processing does a GPU use?

a) Serial processing b) Parallel processing
c) Sequential processing d) Quantum processing
Correct Answer: b) Parallel processing

65. GPUs are commonly used in:

a) Image processing b) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
c) Video games d) All of the above
Correct Answer: d) All of the above

6.2 GPU Architecture

66. What type of memory is commonly used in GPUs?

a) RAM b) ROM
c) GDDR d) Flash
Correct Answer: c) GDDR

67. What is an advantage of a GPU over a CPU?

a) Lower cost
b) Higher power consumption
c) More cores for parallel computation
d) Greater clock speed
Correct Answer: c) More cores for parallel computation

68. What does CUDA stand for in GPU programming?

a) Compute Unified Device Architecture
b) Central Unit Data Access
c) Computation and Utility Data Algorithm
d) Core Utilization Data Accelerator
Correct Answer: a) Compute Unified Device Architecture

69. What is an integrated GPU?

a) A GPU separate from the CPU
b) A GPU built into the CPU
c) A removable graphics card
d) A GPU that uses external RAM
Correct Answer: b) A GPU built into the CPU

70. The primary function of a Shader in GPU architecture is to:

a) Store data
b) Improve network speed
c) Render graphical effects

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 d) Control CPU voltage
Correct Answer: c) Render graphical effects

30 additional MCQs covering various aspects of Unit 1: Advanced Processors to further

strengthen your understanding. These questions are designed to test deeper concepts and practical
applications.

1. Advances in Processor Architecture (Additional Questions)

71. Which of the following is NOT a performance-enhancing feature of modern processors?

a) Pipelining
b) SIMD (Single Instruction, Multiple Data)
c) Lower transistor density
d) Multi-core architecture
Correct Answer: c) Lower transistor density

72. What does speculative execution in a processor help with?

a) Reducing power consumption
b) Increasing instruction throughput
c) Improving memory capacity
d) Simplifying cache memory management
Correct Answer: b) Increasing instruction throughput

73. The CoreMark benchmark is commonly used to evaluate:

a) Power efficiency of processors
b) Instruction set complexity
c) Processing performance of CPUs
d) Cache memory capacity
Correct Answer: c) Processing performance of CPUs

74. What does MIPS (Million Instructions Per Second) measure?

a) Processing power b) Memory efficiency
c) Cache size d) Power consumption
Correct Answer: a) Processing power

75. What is an advantage of RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computing) over CISC
(Complex Instruction Set Computing)?
a) More complex instructions b) Higher power consumption
c) Simpler hardware design d) Slower instruction execution
Correct Answer: c) Simpler hardware design

2. ARM7 Processor Features (Additional Questions)

76. What is the significance of Thumb mode in ARM processors?

a) Reduces power consumption by disabling unused cores
b) Allows execution of 16-bit instructions for better code density
c) Enables floating-point operations
d) Provides security features for privileged execution
Correct Answer: b) Allows execution of 16-bit instructions for better code density

77. ARM7 processors have a Harvard architecture, meaning they have:

a) Unified data and instruction memory
b) Separate memory for instructions and data
c) No instruction pipeline
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 d) A single-level cache
Correct Answer: b) Separate memory for instructions and data

78. Which special-purpose register in ARM7 stores the return address of a function call?
a) R12 b) R14 c) R15 d) R13
Correct Answer: b) R14

79. The CPSR (Current Program Status Register) in ARM contains:

a) Cache memory status
b) Register bank configurations
c) Condition flags and processor mode bits
d) List of executed instructions
Correct Answer: c) Condition flags and processor mode bits

80. In ARM7TDMI, what does TDMI stand for?

a) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
b) Timer, Debug, Memory Interface
c) Thumb, Data, Multiple Instructions
d) Timing, Digital, Multiplication, Integration
Correct Answer: a) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE

3. Arduino Board Features & ATmega328 (Additional Questions)

81. What is the maximum current an Arduino Uno digital I/O pin can safely supply?
a) 5 mA b) 10 mA c) 20 mA d) 40 mA
Correct Answer: d) 40 Ma

82. What is the function of ATmega328’s Watchdog Timer (WDT)?

a) Reset the microcontroller in case of software failure
b) Store sensor data in EEPROM
c) Control the power supply
d) Increase clock speed dynamically
Correct Answer: a) Reset the microcontroller in case of software failure

83. The ATmega328 microcontroller has how many general-purpose registers?

a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 128
Correct Answer: b) 32

84. What is the default communication protocol used by Arduino for serial data
transmission?
a) SPI b) UART c) I2C d) CAN
Correct Answer: b) UART

85. What is the significance of Brown-out Detection (BOD) in ATmega328?

a) Saves power when the system is idle
b) Prevents data corruption during voltage drops
c) Enhances EEPROM storage capacity
d) Provides additional PWM channels
Correct Answer: b) Prevents data corruption during voltage drops

4. Arduino Interfacing (Additional Questions)

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 86. What is the function of an opto-isolator in a relay interface circuit?
a) Boosts signal strength
b) Converts AC to DC
c) Electrically isolates control and load circuits
d) Increases power efficiency
Correct Answer: c) Electrically isolates control and load circuits
87. How does a MOSFET improve motor control over a relay?
a) Faster switching speed and lower power loss
b) Reduces noise in circuits
c) Increases battery life
d) Decreases current requirement
Correct Answer: a) Faster switching speed and lower power loss

88. When controlling a DC motor, why is PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) used?
a) To increase torque b) To adjust speed efficiently
c) To prevent overheating d) To reverse motor direction
Correct Answer: b) To adjust speed efficiently

89. Why is a flyback diode used in motor control circuits?

a) Prevents overheating
b) Eliminates high-voltage spikes
c) Reduces power consumption
d) Stabilizes analog signals
Correct Answer: b) Eliminates high-voltage spikes

90. In Arduino, which function is used to generate an analog output?

a) analogRead() b) analogWrite()
c) digitalWrite() d) digitalRead()
Correct Answer: b) analogWrite()

5. Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) Features (Additional Questions)

91. Which GPU manufacturer developed CUDA?

a) AMD b) Intel c) NVIDIA d) Qualcomm
Correct Answer: c) NVIDIA

92. A shader in GPU programming is used to:

a) Handle logic operations
b) Perform image rendering calculations
c) Store large amounts of data
d) Optimize CPU speed
Correct Answer: b) Perform image rendering calculations

93. What is the main advantage of Ray Tracing in modern GPUs?

a) Faster game processing
b) More realistic lighting and shadows
c) Better memory management
d) Increased battery life
Correct Answer: b) More realistic lighting and shadows

94. The GDDR memory used in GPUs is optimized for:

a) Low power consumption b) High-speed data transfer
c) CPU integration d) Wireless communication

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 Correct Answer: b) High-speed data transfer

95. What is Tensor Core Technology in GPUs primarily used for?

a) AI and deep learning computations
b) Improved power efficiency
c) Increasing clock speed
d) Enhancing gaming graphics
Correct Answer: a) AI and deep learning computations

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 Unit 2 Electronic System Manufacturing Processes
1. Introduction to Surface Mount Devices (SMDs)

1. What does SMD stand for in electronics?

a) Surface Metal Device
b) Surface Mount Device
c) Solder Mounting Device
d) Semiconductor Mounting Device
Correct Answer: b) Surface Mount Device

2. The process of mounting electronic components directly onto the surface of a PCB is
called:
a) Through-Hole Technology (THT)
b) Surface-Mount Technology (SMT)
c) Wire Wrapping
d) Breadboarding
Correct Answer: b) Surface-Mount Technology (SMT)

3. Why was Surface-Mount Technology (SMT) developed?

a) To increase manufacturing costs
b) To use more PCB space
c) To minimize cost and improve PCB efficiency
d) To increase the weight of circuits
Correct Answer: c) To minimize cost and improve PCB efficiency

4. SMT allows components to be placed on:

a) Only one side of the PCB
b) Only the bottom side of the PCB
c) Both sides of the PCB
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: c) Both sides of the PCB

5. What is a key difference between SMT and Through-Hole Technology (THT)?

a) SMT components are larger than THT components
b) SMT components have no leads or smaller leads
c) SMT components cannot be used in compact devices
d) THT is a newer technology than SMT
Correct Answer: b) SMT components have no leads or smaller leads

2. Advantages of SMT

6. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of SMT?

a) Miniaturization of components
b) Higher component density
c) Increased manual assembly time
d) Reduced manufacturing cost
Correct Answer: c) Increased manual assembly time
7. What enables automatic and accurate placement of SMD components?
a) Human operators
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 b) Pick-and-place machines
c) Hand soldering
d) Wire wrapping
Correct Answer: b) Pick-and-place machines

8. What is a benefit of placing components on both sides of a PCB using SMT?

a) Increased weight
b) Reduced PCB size
c) Higher power consumption
d) Limited use of automatic assembly
Correct Answer: b) Reduced PCB size

9. SMT circuits have better mechanical performance under:

a) Dry conditions
b) High-temperature conditions
c) Shock and vibration conditions
d) Low voltage conditions
Correct Answer: c) Shock and vibration conditions

10. What material is used to mount SMD components onto the PCB?
a) Copper wires b) Solder paste
c) Epoxy glue d) Lead screws
Correct Answer: b) Solder paste

3. Disadvantages of SMT

11. What is a common disadvantage of SMT?

a) Increased weight of components
b) Higher heat generation in complex devices
c) Reduced electrical efficiency
d) Increased soldering time
Correct Answer: b) Higher heat generation in complex devices

12. Why is SMT unsuitable for some large components like transformers?
a) Requires special mounting techniques
b) Cannot handle high current loads
c) Components become too expensive
d) SMT cannot work with circuit boards
Correct Answer: a) Requires special mounting techniques

13. What happens to SMD solder joints under extreme temperature changes?
a) They expand
b) They become more conductive
c) They may develop cracks or fail
d) They increase heat dissipation
Correct Answer: c) They may develop cracks or fail

14. Which component type is typically NOT suitable for SMT?

a) Microcontrollers b) Large power semiconductors
c) Small resistors ) LEDs
Correct Answer: b) Large power semiconductors

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 15. How does SMT affect heat dissipation in electronic circuits?
a) Reduces heat generation
b) Requires additional heat dissipation mechanisms
c) Improves heat tolerance
d) Does not affect heat at all
Correct Answer: b) Requires additional heat dissipation mechanisms

4. Applications of SMD

16. SMD technology is commonly used in:

a) Traditional radio circuits
b) Flexible PCB and Flex-Rigid PCB
c) Mechanical relays
d) Large transformers
Correct Answer: b) Flexible PCB and Flex-Rigid PCB

17. Where are SMD sensors widely used?

a) Household fans
b) Electric vehicles for air quality monitoring
c) Mechanical timers
d) CRT televisions
Correct Answer: b) Electric vehicles for air quality monitoring

18. SMD LEDs are used in:

a) Desktop computers only
b) Lighting, displays, and projectors
c) Radio transmitters
d) Mechanical clocks
Correct Answer: b) Lighting, displays, and projectors

19. SMD components are widely used in mobile circuits because:

a) They require more space
b) They are large and bulky
c) They are lightweight and compact
d) They cannot be mass-produced
Correct Answer: c) They are lightweight and compact

20. Which of the following devices commonly use SMD network resistors?
a) Digital memory circuits b) Old mechanical calculators
c) CRT televisions d) Vacuum tubes
Correct Answer: a) Digital memory circuits

5. SMT Soldering

21. Which is a common method of SMT soldering?

a) Wave soldering b) Arc welding
c) Spot soldering d) Ultrasonic bonding
Correct Answer: a) Wave soldering

22. What is the preferred method of SMT soldering today?

a) Hand soldering b) Reflow soldering
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 c) Mechanical pressing d) Epoxy bonding
Correct Answer: b) Reflow soldering

23. What is the primary function of reflow soldering?

a) Heat up components to reduce size
b) Melt solder paste to form electrical connections
c) Remove unwanted solder
d) Improve power consumption
Correct Answer: b) Melt solder paste to form electrical connections

24. What type of heating is used in reflow soldering?

a) Infrared radiation
b) Water cooling
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Induction heating
Correct Answer: a) Infrared radiation

25. In reflow soldering, what holds the components in place before soldering?
a) Glue b) Solder paste c) Tape d) Epoxy resin
Correct Answer: b) Solder paste

6. SMT Soldering (Continued)

26. During reflow soldering, the PCB passes through which of the following stages?
a) Heating, Soaking, Reflow, Cooling
b) Preheating, Cooling, Melting
c) Drying, Heating, Cooling
d) Preparation, Bonding, Coating
Correct Answer: a) Heating, Soaking, Reflow, Cooling

27. Which process is used to apply solder paste in SMT soldering?

a) Injection molding b) Stencil printing
c) UV exposure d) Chemical etching
Correct Answer: b) Stencil printing

28. What is the purpose of wave soldering in SMT?

a) To bond components using adhesives
b) To connect large through-hole components
c) To solder components using a flowing wave of molten solder
d) To clean PCBs before component placement
Correct Answer: c) To solder components using a flowing wave of molten solder

29. Which gas is commonly used in reflow soldering to prevent oxidation?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: b) Nitrogen

30. Why is controlled cooling important in reflow soldering?

a) To improve solder strength and prevent defects
b) To reduce PCB weight
c) To remove excess solder
d) To increase circuit resistance
Correct Answer: a) To improve solder strength and prevent defects

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7. SMT Components & Packages

31. Which of the following is NOT an SMD package type?

a) QFN b) BGA c) DIP d) SOIC
Correct Answer: c) DIP

32. What does BGA stand for in SMD packaging?

a) Ball Grid Array b) Base Gate Adapter
c) Bipolar Gain Assembly d) Binary Gate Alignment
Correct Answer: a) Ball Grid Array

33. The SOT-23 package is commonly used for:

a) Microcontrollers b) Small transistors
c) High-power transformers d) Relays
Correct Answer: b) Small transistors

34. The 0805 package size of an SMD resistor means:

a) 8.05 mm in length
b) 0.08 inches in width
c) 0.08 x 0.05 inches dimensions
d) 8.05 ohms resistance
Correct Answer: c) 0.08 x 0.05 inches dimensions

35. What does the QFN package stand for?

a) Quad Form Node b) Quad Flat No-lead
c) Quad Fused Notch d) Quality Flat Notation
Correct Answer: b) Quad Flat No-lead

8. SMT Manufacturing & Assembly

36. What machine is commonly used to place SMD components on a PCB?

a) CNC machine b) Pick-and-place machine
c) Ultrasonic cutter d) Wire bonding machine
Correct Answer: b) Pick-and-place machine

37. What does a pick-and-place machine do?

a) Inspects PCB defects
b) Places components on the PCB before soldering
c) Applies solder paste to the PCB
d) Packages the final PCB for shipping
Correct Answer: b) Places components on the PCB before soldering

38. What is the purpose of the stencil in SMT soldering?

a) To protect the PCB from heat
b) To ensure precise placement of solder paste
c) To hold components in place
d) To provide insulation for circuits
Correct Answer: b) To ensure precise placement of solder paste

39. What is AOI (Automated Optical Inspection) used for in SMT?

a) Cleaning PCBs
b) Inspecting solder joints for defects

17
 c) Increasing PCB conductivity
d) Improving heat dissipation
Correct Answer: b) Inspecting solder joints for defects

40. What type of solder is commonly used for lead-free SMT soldering?
a) Tin-Lead (Sn-Pb)
b) Silver-Tin (Ag-Sn)
c) Tin-Silver-Copper (Sn-Ag-Cu)
d) Copper-Aluminum (Cu-Al)
Correct Answer: c) Tin-Silver-Copper (Sn-Ag-Cu)

9. SMT Quality Control & Inspection

41. Which defect is common in SMT soldering?

a) Cold solder joint b) Overlapping wires
c) Improper drilling d) Wire tangling
Correct Answer: a) Cold solder joint

42. What happens if the solder paste is not applied evenly?

a) The PCB will have reduced conductivity
b) Components may not properly attach
c) The PCB will overheat
d) The PCB will become waterproof
Correct Answer: b) Components may not properly attach

43. What is the purpose of X-ray inspection in SMT?

a) To detect faulty electrical signals
b) To inspect hidden solder joints under BGAs
c) To measure PCB thickness
d) To improve reflow soldering efficiency
Correct Answer: b) To inspect hidden solder joints under BGAs

44. If an SMD component shifts during reflow soldering, it may cause:

a) High-frequency distortion
b) Short circuits or open circuits
c) Extra power consumption
d) Increased PCB weight
Correct Answer: b) Short circuits or open circuits

45. A tombstoning defect in SMT occurs when:

a) A component lifts on one side during soldering
b) A component is completely detached from the PCB
c) A PCB breaks under stress
d) A short circuit occurs in the solder
Correct Answer: a) A component lifts on one side during soldering

10. Applications of SMT in Modern Electronics

46. SMD technology is essential for:

a) Heavy industrial machinery
b) Miniaturized consumer electronics
18
 c) Large electromechanical relays
d) Vintage radio circuits
Correct Answer: b) Miniaturized consumer electronics

47. Which type of electronic device is most likely to use SMT?

a) LED televisions
b) Vacuum tube amplifiers
c) Ferrite core memory
d) Rotary telephones
Correct Answer: a) LED televisions

48. SMT helps improve efficiency in:

a) Solar panel circuits b) Mechanical gears
c) Hydroelectric turbines d) Manual typewriters
Correct Answer: a) Solar panel circuits

49. In which application are SMD capacitors most commonly used?

a) High-power transformers b) PCB power regulation circuits
c) Mechanical relays d) DC motors
Correct Answer: b) PCB power regulation circuits

50. The main reason SMT is used in mobile devices is:

a) High power handling
b) Miniaturization and lightweight design
c) High cost efficiency
d) Complexity in manufacturing
Correct Answer: b) Miniaturization and lightweight design

MCQs on Flexible PCB (2.2.3)

51. What is the primary advantage of a Flexible PCB over a rigid PCB?
a) Higher power consumption
b) Ability to bend and adapt to different shapes
c) Increased weight and size
d) Lower manufacturing cost
Correct Answer: b) Ability to bend and adapt to different shapes

52. Flexible PCBs are commonly used in:

a) Large industrial transformers
b) Wearable electronic devices
c) Mechanical relays
d) CRT televisions
Correct Answer: b) Wearable electronic devices

53. What is a major benefit of using Flexible PCBs in compact electronic devices?
a) Reduces the weight of the circuit
b) Increases the PCB size
c) Increases heat dissipation
d) Decreases signal transmission speed
Correct Answer: a) Reduces the weight of the circuit

54. Flexible PCBs are typically made from:

a) Rigid fiberglass
b) Polyimide or polyester film
19
 c) Aluminum sheets
d) Ceramic substrates
Correct Answer: b) Polyimide or polyester film

55. In which of the following applications are Flexible PCBs most commonly used?
a) High-voltage power grids
b) Microwave ovens
c) Medical implants and sensors
d) Hydraulic systems
Correct Answer: c) Medical implants and sensors

56. One of the key challenges of Flexible PCBs is:

a) Limited bending capability
b) Higher manufacturing cost compared to rigid PCBs
c) Reduced flexibility over time
d) Inability to work in high-frequency circuits
Correct Answer: b) Higher manufacturing cost compared to rigid PCBs

57. What advantage does a flexible PCB have in terms of thermal management?
a) Generates more heat
b) Reduces heat dissipation
c) Distributes heat more efficiently
d) Requires external cooling systems
Correct Answer: c) Distributes heat more efficiently

58. Which of the following is NOT a type of Flexible PCB?

a) Single-sided Flexible PCB
b) Double-sided Flexible PCB
c) Rigid-Flex PCB
d) Optical Fiber PCB
Correct Answer: d) Optical Fiber PCB

59. The flexibility of a PCB is achieved by using:

a) Thick copper layers
b) High-temperature soldering
c) Thin polymer-based substrates
d) Rigid metal frames
Correct Answer: c) Thin polymer-based substrates

60. What is a major advantage of Rigid-Flex PCBs?

a) Combines both flexible and rigid PCB properties
b) Increases the weight of the circuit
c) Reduces the cost of manufacturing
d) Eliminates the need for connectors
Correct Answer: a) Combines both flexible and rigid PCB properties

MCQs on Anti-Static Work Environment (Subtopic 2.2.4)

1. Introduction to Anti-Static Work Environment

61. What is Electrostatic Discharge (ESD)?

a) The sudden release of static electricity between two objects
b) A method of grounding electrical components
c) The controlled transfer of electric current
20
 d) The process of charging a battery
Correct Answer: a) The sudden release of static electricity between two objects

62. What is the primary cause of ESD in electronics manufacturing?

a) High voltage power surges
b) Improper wiring connections
c) Static electricity buildup due to friction
d) Excessive heat in circuit boards
Correct Answer: c) Static electricity buildup due to friction

63. Why is an anti-static work environment important in electronics manufacturing?

a) To increase production speed
b) To prevent damage to sensitive electronic components
c) To reduce power consumption in circuits
d) To improve circuit resistance
Correct Answer: b) To prevent damage to sensitive electronic components

2. Causes & Effects of ESD

64. Which of the following is an example of an Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) event?

a) Power failure in a factory
b) A sudden spark when touching a doorknob
c) Overheating of an electronic component
d) A short circuit due to a faulty capacitor
Correct Answer: b) A sudden spark when touching a doorknob

65. What type of damage can ESD cause to electronic components?

a) Permanent failure of microchips
b) Reduced weight of components
c) Faster signal processing
d) Improved power efficiency
Correct Answer: a) Permanent failure of microchips

66. ESD is a major concern for which type of electronic devices?

a) Heavy industrial machinery
b) Low-power digital circuits and microprocessors
c) Mechanical switches
d) Household fans
Correct Answer: b) Low-power digital circuits and microprocessors

3. Methods to Prevent ESD

67. What is the most effective way to prevent ESD damage in electronic assembly?
a) Wearing rubber gloves
b) Using an anti-static wrist strap and grounding it properly
c) Keeping electronic components at high temperatures
d) Placing electronic components on wooden tables
Correct Answer: b) Using an anti-static wrist strap and grounding it properly

21
 68. Which of the following is NOT a method for controlling ESD?
a) Using anti-static mats
b) Wearing conductive shoes
c) Increasing humidity in the workspace
d) Storing PCBs in plastic bags
Correct Answer: d) Storing PCBs in plastic bags

69. How do anti-static mats help prevent ESD?

a) They generate static charges to protect circuits
b) They neutralize static electricity by providing a grounded surface
c) They increase heat dissipation in the circuit
d) They act as insulation for high-voltage devices
Correct Answer: b) They neutralize static electricity by providing a grounded surface

70. Anti-static workbenches should be equipped with:

a) Wooden surfaces
b) Grounded conductive mats
c) Aluminum foil sheets
d) Insulated glass panels
Correct Answer: b) Grounded conductive mats

4. ESD Protection Equipment

71. What is the primary purpose of an anti-static wrist strap?

a) To increase resistance in circuits
b) To ground the worker and prevent static charge buildup
c) To measure current in electronic devices
d) To cool down electronic components
Correct Answer: b) To ground the worker and prevent static charge buildup

72. Why should anti-static wrist straps be in direct contact with the skin?
a) To ensure proper grounding
b) To measure body temperature
c) To generate static electricity
d) To improve circuit resistance
Correct Answer: a) To ensure proper grounding

73. Which of the following materials is commonly used in ESD-safe clothing?

a) Cotton
b) Polyester
c) Carbon fiber-infused fabric
d) Leather
Correct Answer: c) Carbon fiber-infused fabric

74. How do ESD-safe storage bags prevent static damage?

a) They are made of conductive materials that dissipate static charges
b) They use insulation to trap static charges
c) They create a vacuum-sealed environment
d) They absorb moisture to neutralize charges
Correct Answer: a) They are made of conductive materials that dissipate static charges

22
 75. What is the purpose of an ESD-safe floor in manufacturing areas?
a) To prevent slip accidents
b) To dissipate static electricity safely
c) To improve signal transmission in circuits
d) To enhance energy efficiency
Correct Answer: b) To dissipate static electricity safely

5. Additional ESD Control Measures

76. What role do ESD air ionizers play in static control?

a) They generate static electricity for PCB testing
b) They neutralize static charges in the air
c) They cool down circuit boards
d) They clean PCBs after soldering
Correct Answer: b) They neutralize static charges in the air

77. Why is it recommended to avoid synthetic fabrics in an anti-static environment?

a) Synthetic fabrics attract dust
b) They generate high amounts of static electricity
c) They interfere with wireless signals
d) They are more expensive than cotton fabrics
Correct Answer: b) They generate high amounts of static electricity

78. Which of the following is a good practice for reducing ESD risks when handling PCBs?
a) Holding the PCB by its conductive traces
b) Storing PCBs on metal surfaces
c) Handling PCBs by their edges
d) Using a wooden table for PCB storage
Correct Answer: c) Handling PCBs by their edges
79. What is the recommended humidity level for an anti-static work environment?
a) 10-20% b) 20-30%
c) 40-70% d) 80-90%
Correct Answer: c) 40-70%

80. What is the purpose of using anti-static gloves in an ESD-controlled environment?

a) To provide mechanical protection only
b) To eliminate the need for grounding wrist straps
c) To prevent static discharge when handling sensitive components
d) To reduce heat generated by components
Correct Answer: c) To prevent static discharge when handling sensitive components

MCQs on "Need of Environmental Standards"

1. Introduction to Environmental Standards

81. Why are environmental standards important in electronic system manufacturing?

a) To increase manufacturing costs
b) To address environmental pollution caused by electronic waste
c) To reduce the number of components used in circuits
d) To improve internet connectivity
Correct Answer: b) To address environmental pollution caused by electronic waste

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 82. What is the major environmental issue associated with electronic manufacturing?
a) High energy consumption
b) Overproduction of components
c) Generation of hazardous e-waste
d) Excess use of water in soldering
Correct Answer: c) Generation of hazardous e-waste

83. According to the European Environment Agency (EEA), how much e-waste is generated
in Europe per year?
a) Over 10 million tons
b) Less than 1 million tons
c) Around 100,000 tons
d) More than 50 million tons
Correct Answer: a) Over 10 million tons

84. Why do PCBs (Printed Circuit Boards) pose an environmental threat?

a) They are made of biodegradable materials
b) They contain hazardous heavy metals
c) They can be easily recycled
d) They require less power to operate
Correct Answer: b) They contain hazardous heavy metals

85. Which of the following is a key reason for implementing environmental standards in
electronics?
a) To increase the complexity of manufacturing
b) To ensure safe disposal of electronic waste
c) To increase costs for manufacturers
d) To promote manual soldering techniques
Correct Answer: b) To ensure safe disposal of electronic waste

2. Electronic Waste (E-Waste) and Environmental Impact

86. Which of the following hazardous substances are commonly found in electronic waste?
a) Lead and Mercury
b) Gold and Silver
c) Iron and Aluminum
d) Copper and Tin
Correct Answer: a) Lead and Mercury

87. How does improper disposal of electronic waste affect human health?
a) Causes eye irritation
b) Leads to respiratory and neurological disorders
c) Improves immune system
d) Reduces hearing sensitivity
Correct Answer: b) Leads to respiratory and neurological disorders

88. What is a major concern of unregulated e-waste dumping?

a) Decrease in manufacturing cost
b) Increased urbanization
c) Soil and water contamination
d) Reduction in global temperature

24
 Correct Answer: c) Soil and water contamination

89. Why is e-waste recycling important?

a) To increase landfill size
b) To extract valuable materials and reduce environmental damage
c) To increase manufacturing costs
d) To reduce employment in the electronics industry
Correct Answer: b) To extract valuable materials and reduce environmental damage

90. What toxic substance is released when burning electronic waste?

a) Oxygen b) Dioxins
c) Carbon monoxide d) Hydrogen gas
Correct Answer: b) Dioxins

3. Global Need for Environmental Regulations

91. What is the main objective of environmental standards in electronics manufacturing?

a) Promote energy efficiency and sustainability
b) Increase raw material consumption
c) Encourage manual production methods
d) Reduce employment in the electronics industry
Correct Answer: a) Promote energy efficiency and sustainability

92. Which factor has increased the demand for environmental standards in the electronics
industry?
a) Decreasing consumer electronics sales
b) Growing awareness of climate change and pollution
c) Lack of technological advancements
d) Reduction in waste generation
Correct Answer: b) Growing awareness of climate change and pollution

93. How can environmental standards benefit electronics manufacturers?

a) By reducing product quality
b) By ensuring compliance with government regulations and improving brand reputation
c) By increasing manufacturing waste
d) By avoiding product safety measures
Correct Answer: b) By ensuring compliance with government regulations and improving
brand reputation

94. Which of the following is an economic benefit of implementing environmental standards?

a) Increased legal fines for manufacturers
b) Reduced material waste and recycling cost savings
c) Higher employee turnover
d) Increased transportation costs
Correct Answer: b) Reduced material waste and recycling cost savings

95. How do environmental regulations impact global trade?

a) They restrict international collaboration
b) They help companies meet global sustainability requirements
c) They prevent the sale of all electronics
d) They reduce consumer interest in eco-friendly products
Correct Answer: b) They help companies meet global sustainability requirements
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4. Role of Environmental Standards in Reducing Waste

96. What is a primary goal of sustainable electronics manufacturing?

a) Increase use of hazardous chemicals
b) Reduce waste and carbon footprint
c) Increase raw material extraction
d) Promote single-use electronics
Correct Answer: b) Reduce waste and carbon footprint

97. What is one way companies can reduce their environmental impact in electronics
manufacturing?
a) Use of lead-free soldering materials
b) Increasing battery waste
c) Using more toxic substances
d) Promoting disposable electronic devices
Correct Answer: a) Use of lead-free soldering materials

98. What is RoHS (Restriction of Hazardous Substances) mainly concerned with?

a) Reducing hazardous materials in electronic products
b) Increasing production speed
c) Limiting the use of plastic in packaging
d) Increasing power consumption in devices
Correct Answer: a) Reducing hazardous materials in electronic products

99. How does EPEAT (Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool) help
consumers?
a) It ranks electronic products based on environmental performance
b) It provides circuit board design specifications
c) It ensures high-frequency signal processing
d) It limits the lifespan of electronics
Correct Answer: a) It ranks electronic products based on environmental performance
100. How can companies achieve EPEAT Gold certification?
a) By meeting strict environmental performance criteria
b) By producing cheap electronics
c) By avoiding material sourcing regulations
d) By using high-voltage circuits
Correct Answer: a) By meeting strict environmental performance criteria

5. Future Trends in Environmental Standards

101. What is the future goal of environmental standards in electronics?

a) Increase landfill dumping
b) Achieve zero-waste manufacturing
c) Encourage single-use electronics
d) Increase toxic emissions
Correct Answer: b) Achieve zero-waste manufacturing

102. Which energy source is promoted in eco-friendly electronics manufacturing?

a) Fossil fuels b) Renewable energy (solar, wind)
c) Coal-powered electricity d) Nuclear waste recycling
26
 Correct Answer: b) Renewable energy (solar, wind)

103. What initiative encourages electronics manufacturers to use recyclable materials?

a) Circular Economy Model b) Fast Production Model
c) Disposable Electronics Strategy d) Heavy Metal Usage Model
Correct Answer: a) Circular Economy Model

104. What is one way electronic waste can be safely disposed of?
a) Incineration in open air b) Dumping in landfills
c) Recycling and material recovery d) Crushing and mixing with soil
Correct Answer: c) Recycling and material recovery

6. Additional Questions on Need of Environmental Standards

105. Why do electronic devices require strict environmental regulations?

a) To reduce manufacturing costs
b) To prevent pollution and toxic waste accumulation
c) To increase battery size in electronic devices
d) To promote the use of non-recyclable materials
Correct Answer: b) To prevent pollution and toxic waste accumulation

106. Which environmental concern is directly linked to electronic waste disposal?

a) Increased solar power efficiency
b) Groundwater contamination from heavy metals
c) Reduced global warming
d) Decreased use of batteries
Correct Answer: b) Groundwater contamination from heavy metals
107. How does implementing environmental standards benefit manufacturers?
a) Reduces raw material waste and improves sustainability
b) Increases regulatory fines
c) Promotes excessive resource consumption
d) Makes production slower
Correct Answer: a) Reduces raw material waste and improves sustainability

108. What is the biggest challenge in enforcing environmental standards for electronics?
a) Lack of consumer interest
b) High cost of eco-friendly manufacturing processes
c) Decreasing use of semiconductors
d) Lower energy consumption
Correct Answer: b) High cost of eco-friendly manufacturing processes

109. How does planned obsolescence in electronics impact the environment?

a) Encourages repair and recycling
b) Reduces electronic waste
c) Increases e-waste due to frequent product replacements
d) Minimizes hazardous material usage
Correct Answer: c) Increases e-waste due to frequent product replacements

110. Why should companies follow global environmental regulations in electronics

manufacturing?
a) To increase toxic waste production
b) To reduce harmful impact and comply with legal policies
27
 c) To limit access to technology
d) To increase the cost of consumer electronics
Correct Answer: b) To reduce harmful impact and comply with legal policies

MCQs on Batteries (Subtopic 2.4)

1. Introduction to Batteries

111. What is the primary function of a battery?

a) Convert electrical energy into mechanical energy
b) Store and provide electrical energy
c) Convert AC to DC
d) Reduce power consumption in circuits
Correct Answer: b) Store and provide electrical energy

112. A battery consists of one or more ________ cells.

a) Optical b) Electrochemical
c) Thermal d) Pneumatic
Correct Answer: b) Electrochemical

113. The two terminals of a battery are called:

a) Source and drain b) Positive and negative
c) Anode and cathode d) Gate and emitter
Correct Answer: c) Anode and cathode

114. Which material inside a battery serves as a conductive medium?

a) Plastic b) Rubber c) Electrolyte d) Glass
Correct Answer: c) Electrolyte

115. The electrolyte in a battery allows the movement of:

a) Photons b) Protons c) Electrons d) Ions
Correct Answer: d) Ions

2. Classification of Batteries

116. Batteries are classified into how many main types?

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
Correct Answer: a) Two

117. What are the two main types of batteries?

a) Solid-state and liquid b) Primary and secondary
c) High-voltage and low-voltage d) Large and small
Correct Answer: b) Primary and secondary

118. Which of the following is a primary battery?

a) Lithium-ion b) Lead-acid c) Alkaline d) Nickel-metal hydride
Correct Answer: c) Alkaline

119. What is the main characteristic of primary batteries?

a) They are rechargeable
b) They are disposable and cannot be recharged
c) They require water refilling
28
 d) They produce AC voltage
Correct Answer: b) They are disposable and cannot be recharged

120. Which type of battery can be recharged multiple times?

a) Primary battery b) Secondary battery
c) Dry-cell battery d) Mercury battery
Correct Answer: b) Secondary battery

3. Primary Batteries

121. Primary batteries are also known as:

a) Disposable batteries b) Rechargeable batteries
c) Wet-cell batteries d) Lithium-ion batteries
Correct Answer: a) Disposable batteries

122. Which of the following is NOT a primary battery?

a) Zinc-carbon b) Alkaline
c) Nickel-metal hydride d) Silver oxide
Correct Answer: c) Nickel-metal hydride

123. Primary batteries are commonly used in:

a) Electric vehicles
b) Wall clocks and remote controls
c) Laptops
d) Mobile phones
Correct Answer: b) Wall clocks and remote controls

124. The electrolyte in alkaline batteries is:

a) Sulfuric acid
b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Lithium chloride
d) Lead sulfate
Correct Answer: b) Potassium hydroxide

125. Why are primary batteries NOT rechargeable?

a) Their electrochemical reactions are irreversible
b) They contain too much water
c) Their anode is too small
d) They are made of weak materials
Correct Answer: a) Their electrochemical reactions are irreversible

4. Secondary Batteries (Rechargeable Batteries)

126. What is the primary advantage of secondary batteries?

a) They are cheaper than primary batteries
b) They can be recharged multiple times
c) They last longer without charging
d) They do not require an electrolyte
Correct Answer: b) They can be recharged multiple times

29
127. Which of the following is a secondary battery?
a) Zinc-carbon b) Alkaline
c) Lithium-ion d) Silver oxide
Correct Answer: c) Lithium-ion

128. The most commonly used secondary battery in electric vehicles is:
a) Lead-acid b) Nickel-cadmium
c) Lithium-ion d) Zinc-air
Correct Answer: c) Lithium-ion

129. Lead-acid batteries are widely used in:

a) Smartwatches b) Car batteries
c) Medical implants d) Laptops
Correct Answer: b) Car batteries

130. What is the nominal voltage of a single lithium-ion cell?

a) 1.2V b) 3.7V c) 6V d) 12V
Correct Answer: b) 3.7V

5. Lithium-Ion Batteries

131. What does LIB stand for?

a) Low Impedance Battery b) Lithium-ion Battery
c) Lead Integrated Battery d) Large Induction Battery
Correct Answer: b) Lithium-ion Battery

132. What is the primary advantage of lithium-ion batteries over lead-acid batteries?
a) They are cheaper
b) They have a higher energy density
c) They do not require charging
d) They use solid electrolytes
Correct Answer: b) They have a higher energy density

133. Which material is commonly used as the cathode in lithium-ion batteries?

a) Graphite b) Lithium cobalt oxide
c) Lead oxide d) Silver chloride
Correct Answer: b) Lithium cobalt oxide

134. In lithium-ion batteries, what is the function of the separator?

a) Blocks the flow of ions
b) Prevents short circuits while allowing ion flow
c) Stores electrical energy
d) Converts AC to DC
Correct Answer: b) Prevents short circuits while allowing ion flow

135. What is the self-discharge rate of a lithium-ion battery per month?

a) 20-30% b) 5-10% c) 50-60% d) 0%
Correct Answer: b) 5-10%

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 6. Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd) and Nickel-Metal Hydride (NiMH) Batteries

136. What is the chemical formula for Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd) battery cathode?
a) Ni(OH)₂ b) Cd(OH)₂ c) PbO₂ d) LiCoO₂
Correct Answer: a) Ni(OH)₂

137. Nickel-Metal Hydride (NiMH) batteries are preferred over Ni-Cd because:
a) They are more environmentally friendly
b) They have lower energy density
c) They are heavier
d) They use liquid electrolytes
Correct Answer: a) They are more environmentally friendly

138. The voltage of a single NiMH cell is typically:

a) 1.2V b) 3.7V c) 12V d) 5V
Correct Answer: a) 1.2V
139. What is the main disadvantage of Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd) batteries?
a) High energy density b) Toxicity of cadmium
c) Long lifespan ) Fast charging
Correct Answer: b) Toxicity of cadmium

140. NiMH batteries are commonly used in:

a) Smartphones b) Rechargeable AA batteries
c) Car starter batteries d) Nuclear reactors
Correct Answer: b) Rechargeable AA batteries

7. Lead-Acid Batteries

141. What is the primary application of lead-acid batteries?

a) Portable electronics b) Electric vehicles
c) Car starter batteries d) Smartwatches
Correct Answer: c) Car starter batteries

142. What is the electrolyte used in lead-acid batteries?

a) Lithium cobalt oxide b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Sulfuric acid d) Copper sulfate
Correct Answer: c) Sulfuric acid

143. The nominal voltage of a single lead-acid cell is:

a) 1.2V b) 3.7V c) 2V d) 5V
Correct Answer: c) 2V

144. Which material is used for the positive electrode in lead-acid batteries?
a) Lithium b) Nickel
c) Lead dioxide (PbO₂) d) Graphite
Correct Answer: c) Lead dioxide (PbO₂)

145. What is the main disadvantage of lead-acid batteries?

a) Low weight b) High energy density
c) Short cycle life and heavy weight d) Fast charging
Correct Answer: c) Short cycle life and heavy weight

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 8. Battery Characteristics and Performance

146. Battery capacity is measured in:

a) Ohms b) Amperes
c) Ampere-hours (Ah) d) Volts
Correct Answer: c) Ampere-hours (Ah)

147. The energy density of a battery is measured in:

a) Watt-hours per kilogram (Wh/kg)
b) Volts per ampere
c) Joules per second
d) Coulombs per second
Correct Answer: a) Watt-hours per kilogram (Wh/kg)

148. Battery cycle life refers to:

a) The time taken to charge a battery
b) The number of complete charge-discharge cycles a battery can withstand
c) The self-discharge rate of a battery
d) The temperature range of operation
Correct Answer: b) The number of complete charge-discharge cycles a battery can withstand

149. A battery’s self-discharge rate is:

a) The rate at which a fully charged battery loses its charge when not in use
b) The time taken to discharge a battery completely
c) The voltage drop during discharge
d) The resistance of the battery terminals
Correct Answer: a) The rate at which a fully charged battery loses its charge when not in use
150. What happens when a battery is overcharged?
a) It lasts longer
b) It improves energy efficiency
c) It may overheat and become damaged
d) It increases voltage stability
Correct Answer: c) It may overheat and become damaged

9. Applications of Batteries

156. Lithium-ion batteries are widely used in:

a) Electric vehicles and smartphones
b) Nuclear reactors
c) Lead-acid car batteries
d) Wind turbines
Correct Answer: a) Electric vehicles and smartphones

157. Nickel-cadmium batteries are still used in:

a) High-power tools and medical equipment
b) Disposable AA batteries
c) Solar panels
d) Wristwatches
Correct Answer: a) High-power tools and medical equipment

158. Lead-acid batteries are commonly found in:

a) Electric vehicles
32
 b) Car starters and UPS systems
c) Small consumer electronics
d) Smartwatches
Correct Answer: b) Car starters and UPS systems

159. What type of battery is used in drones?

a) Lead-acid
b) Nickel-cadmium
c) Lithium-polymer (LiPo)
d) Zinc-carbon
Correct Answer: c) Lithium-polymer (LiPo)

160. Why are lithium-polymer (LiPo) batteries used in drones?

a) They have a lightweight design and high energy density
b) They are cheap and disposable
c) They have a low discharge rate
d) They are heavier than other batteries
Correct Answer: a) They have a lightweight design and high energy density

10. Nuclear Batteries (Next-Generation Batteries)

161. What is a nuclear battery also called?

a) Solar battery b) Atomic battery
c) Hydrogen battery d) Chemical battery
Correct Answer: b) Atomic battery

162. Nuclear batteries generate power using:

a) Electrochemical reactions b) Solar energy
c) Radioactive decay d) Electrolysis
Correct Answer: c) Radioactive decay

163. What is the primary advantage of nuclear batteries?

a) Unlimited power output b) Extremely long lifespan
c) High rechargeability d) Cheap manufacturing
Correct Answer: b) Extremely long lifespan

164. Where are nuclear batteries commonly used?

a) Space applications and pacemakers b) Smartphones
c) Portable gaming devices d) Regular car batteries
Correct Answer: a) Space applications and pacemakers

165. What is a major disadvantage of nuclear batteries?

a) Short lifespan
b) High cost and radiation concerns
c) Low energy density
d) Heavy weight
Correct Answer: b) High cost and radiation concerns

Additional 50 MCQs on Batteries (Subtopic 2.4)

33
 11. Battery Chemistry & Functioning

166. What determines the voltage of a battery cell?

a) The number of electrons in the battery
b) The type of electrolyte and electrode materials
c) The thickness of the battery casing
d) The size of the battery
Correct Answer: b) The type of electrolyte and electrode materials

167. What is the function of the anode in a battery?

a) It generates heat
b) It supplies electrons to the external circuit
c) It stores electrical energy
d) It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
Correct Answer: b) It supplies electrons to the external circuit

168. During discharge, the electrons move from:

a) Cathode to anode
b) Anode to cathode
c) Negative terminal to positive terminal externally
d) Both b and c
Correct Answer: d) Both b and c
169. The separator in a battery:
a) Prevents internal short circuits while allowing ion flow
b) Generates electricity
c) Stores excess charge
d) Converts chemical energy into heat
Correct Answer: a) Prevents internal short circuits while allowing ion flow

170. What is the role of the electrolyte in a battery?

a) Blocks electron flow
b) Provides a conductive medium for ion movement
c) Acts as an insulator
d) Increases battery weight
Correct Answer: b) Provides a conductive medium for ion movement

12. Battery Charging & Discharging

171. Which battery type requires a constant voltage charging method?

a) Lead-acid b) Nickel-Cadmium
c) Lithium-ion d) Zinc-air
Correct Answer: c) Lithium-ion

172. Overcharging a battery can cause:

a) Increased battery life
b) Battery overheating and explosion risk
c) Faster charging
d) Reduced energy storage
Correct Answer: b) Battery overheating and explosion risk

173. Fast charging of a battery can lead to:

a) Reduced cycle life
b) Increased voltage stability
c) Permanent improvement in energy density
34
 d) Increased internal resistance
Correct Answer: a) Reduced cycle life

174. The Depth of Discharge (DoD) in a battery refers to:

a) The percentage of a battery’s capacity that has been used
b) The amount of charge lost per hour
c) The number of cycles a battery can undergo
d) The voltage drop in the battery
Correct Answer: a) The percentage of a battery’s capacity that has been used

175. Trickle charging is commonly used for:

a) Maintaining a battery at full charge
b) Rapidly charging a dead battery
c) Discharging a battery safely
d) Increasing the voltage of a battery
Correct Answer: a) Maintaining a battery at full charge

13. Battery Safety & Failures

176. What is thermal runaway in batteries?

a) A process where the battery generates excessive heat, leading to failure
b) A cooling mechanism in lithium-ion batteries
c) A technique used for rapid charging
d) A method of improving battery efficiency
Correct Answer: a) A process where the battery generates excessive heat, leading to failure

177. What is the main cause of a lithium-ion battery explosion?

a) Slow discharge rate
b) Short circuit or overheating
c) Low internal resistance
d) Excessive electrolyte flow
Correct Answer: b) Short circuit or overheating

178. A swollen lithium-ion battery is a sign of:

a) Overuse and gas buildup inside the battery
b) Increased capacity
c) Improved performance
d) Increased voltage
Correct Answer: a) Overuse and gas buildup inside the battery

179. To prevent battery leakage, it is recommended to:

a) Expose batteries to high temperatures
b) Store batteries in a cool and dry place
c) Overcharge the battery
d) Use batteries until they are completely drained
Correct Answer: b) Store batteries in a cool and dry place

180. The major risk of puncturing a lithium-ion battery is:

a) Energy loss
b) Explosion or fire
c) Increased voltage stability
d) Shorter lifespan
Correct Answer: b) Explosion or fire
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 14. Future Battery Technologies

181. Solid-state batteries differ from conventional lithium-ion batteries because they use:
a) A liquid electrolyte b) A solid electrolyte
c) No electrolyte d) Multiple anodes
Correct Answer: b) A solid electrolyte

182. Graphene-based batteries are being developed for:

a) Increased energy density and fast charging
b) Reduced weight but slower charging
c) Only high-temperature applications
d) Shorter lifespan compared to lithium-ion batteries
Correct Answer: a) Increased energy density and fast charging

183. Sodium-ion batteries are an alternative to lithium-ion because:

a) Sodium is more abundant and cheaper than lithium
b) Sodium has a higher energy density
c) Sodium-ion batteries are heavier
d) They have shorter lifespans
Correct Answer: a) Sodium is more abundant and cheaper than lithium

184. Hydrogen fuel cells generate electricity by:

a) Chemical reaction of hydrogen and oxygen
b) Converting heat into electricity
c) Absorbing sunlight
d) Creating nuclear reactions
Correct Answer: a) Chemical reaction of hydrogen and oxygen

185. The biggest challenge for nuclear batteries is:

a) Cost and safety concerns b) High energy density
c) Large size d) High voltage instability
Correct Answer: a) Cost and safety concerns

15. Battery Applications & Trends

186. What type of battery is used in space missions?

a) Nuclear battery b) Lead-acid battery
c) Lithium-ion battery d) Nickel-metal hydride
Correct Answer: a) Nuclear battery

187. Batteries in electric vehicles (EVs) must have:

a) High energy density and long cycle life
b) Low power output
c) High self-discharge rate
d) Rapid degradation
Correct Answer: a) High energy density and long cycle life

188. The main reason for using lithium-ion batteries in smartphones is:
a) High energy density and rechargeable capability
b) Low weight but non-rechargeable
c) Shorter lifespan but high power output
36
 d) Cheap and disposable
Correct Answer: a) High energy density and rechargeable capability

189. Why are flexible batteries being developed?

a) For wearable and flexible electronic devices
b) To replace lead-acid batteries
c) For use in nuclear reactors
d) To improve electrolyte stability
Correct Answer: a) For wearable and flexible electronic devices

190. Which industry is investing the most in next-generation battery research?

a) Textile industry b) Automotive and energy storage industries
c) Paper industry d) Food industry
Correct Answer: b) Automotive and energy storage industries

37
 Unit 3: Next Generation Telecom Network

NGN Architecture

1. What is the primary characteristic of NGN?

A) Circuit-switched network
B) Packet-based network
C) Analog communication
D) Only supports voice communication
Correct Answer: B) Packet-based network

2. Which of the following is a key feature of NGN?

A) Supports only voice communication
B) Quality of Service (QoS) enabled
C) Only works with wired networks
D) Requires separate networks for voice and data
Correct Answer: B) Quality of Service (QoS) enabled

3. What is the function of the Media Gateway in NGN?

A) Provides call control
B) Converts circuit-switched signals to packet-switched signals
C) Acts as a database for user authentication
D) Provides IP addressing
Correct Answer: B) Converts circuit-switched signals to packet-switched signals

4. Which layer in NGN is responsible for handling user services?

A) Transport Stratum B) Service Stratum
C) Control Layer D) Network Layer
Correct Answer: B) Service Stratum

5. The Media Gateway Controller (MGC) is also known as:

A) Call Agent B) Network Router
C) Data Switch D) Firewall
Correct Answer: A) Call Agent

6. Which of the following provides a channel for application interaction in NGN?

A) User-Network Interface (UNI)
B) Network-Network Interface (NNI)
C) Application Network Interface (ANI)
D) Service Network Interface (SNI)
Correct Answer: C) Application Network Interface (ANI)

7. Which network component is responsible for connecting NGN with other networks
like PSTN/ISDN?
A) Application Server B) Media Gateway
C) Network Router D) Firewall
Correct Answer: B) Media Gateway

8. In NGN, which functional block ensures end-to-end QoS?

A) Media Gateway
B) Resource and Admission Control Functions (RACF)
C) Network Address Translator (NAT)
D) Firewall

38
 Correct Answer: B) Resource and Admission Control Functions (RACF)

9. Which NGN component is used for authentication and registration of users?

A) Media Gateway
B) Network Attachment Control Functions (NACF)
C) Application Server
D) Transport Gateway
Correct Answer: B) Network Attachment Control Functions (NACF)

10. Which of the following is an advantage of NGN?

A) Supports only voice communication
B) High latency and low efficiency
C) Supports multiple services over a single network
D) Requires separate networks for different services
Correct Answer: C) Supports multiple services over a single network

11. What does the Service Network Interface (SNI) connect?

A) User devices to the NGN
B) Different service providers to NGN
C) NGN to external databases
D) Wireless devices to the core network
Correct Answer: B) Different service providers to NGN

12. Which feature allows NGN users to access services from multiple providers?
A) Network Address Translation
B) MPLS Routing
C) Unrestricted User Access
D) Circuit Switching
Correct Answer: C) Unrestricted User Access

13. What type of architecture does NGN follow?

A) Monolithic B) Layered
C) Flat D) Decentralized
Correct Answer: B) Layered

14. Which of the following is a function of the Application Server in NGN?

A) Data transport
B) Providing value-added services
C) Packet switching
D) Traffic management
Correct Answer: B) Providing value-added services

15. Which protocol is commonly used for signaling in NGN?

A) HTTP B) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)
C) FTP D) SMTP
Correct Answer: B) SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)

16. Which component handles session control in NGN?

A) Media Gateway
B) Media Gateway Controller
C) Optical Line Terminal
D) Router
Correct Answer: B) Media Gateway Controller

39
17. Which type of mobility is supported by NGN?
A) Only wired mobility
B) Generalized mobility across networks
C) Only mobile-to-mobile mobility
D) No mobility support
Correct Answer: B) Generalized mobility across networks

18. Which of the following is NOT a component of NGN architecture?

A) Media Gateway
B) Session Border Controller
C) Network Switching Subsystem
D) Application Server
Correct Answer: C) Network Switching Subsystem

19. Which of the following is NOT an interface in NGN?

A) ANI B) UNI C) NNI D) HDMI
Correct Answer: D) HDMI

20. Which component in NGN manages call routing and signaling?

A) Media Gateway
B) Call Agent / Media Gateway Controller
C) Optical Network Unit
D) Base Station Controller
Correct Answer: B) Call Agent / Media Gateway Controller

21. NGN provides a combination of which types of transport?

A) Optical and Coaxial
B) Circuit-switched and Packet-switched
C) Bluetooth and Wi-Fi
D) DSL and ISDN
Correct Answer: B) Circuit-switched and Packet-switched

22. What is the role of a Border Gateway in NGN?

A) Provides security and network access control
B) Converts analog signals to digital
C) Acts as a DHCP server
D) Provides storage for data packets
Correct Answer: A) Provides security and network access control

23. Which of the following technologies is commonly used in NGN core networks?
A) MPLS B) GSM C) CDMA D) TDMA
24. Correct Answer: A) MPLS

25. NGN aims to replace which traditional networks?

A) PSTN and ISDN B) LAN and WLAN
C) Wi-Fi and Bluetooth D) Zigbee and LoRa
Correct Answer: A) PSTN and ISDN

26. Which layer in NGN is responsible for transport and data transfer?
A) Control Layer B) Service Layer
C) Transport Layer D) Access Layer
Correct Answer: C) Transport Layer

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Topic 3.2 - NGN Wireless Technology: Telecom Network Spectrum and Mobile Network
Evolution (3G to 5G).

Multiple-Choice Questions on NGN Wireless Technology

Telecom Network Spectrum: Licensed & Unlicensed

27. (R) What is the frequency range of the AM broadcast band in the licensed spectrum?
A) 1.711 MHz - 30 MHz
B) 520 kHz - 1610 kHz
C) 148.5 MHz - 283.5 MHz
D) 87.5 MHz - 108 MHz
✅ Correct Answer: B) 520 kHz - 1610 kHz

28. (R) Which of the following bands does NOT require a license for operation?
A) 900 MHz B) 2.4 GHz ISM band
C) 700 MHz D) 3.5 GHz
✅ Correct Answer: B) 2.4 GHz ISM band

29. (U) Why do governments regulate the use of licensed radio spectrum?
A) To prevent unauthorized use of radio signals
B) To increase interference between different users
C) To make wireless communication slower
D) To allow free access for all users
✅ Correct Answer: A) To prevent unauthorized use of radio signals

29. A telecom company wants to launch a new cellular service. Which spectrum type will
it need to acquire?
A) Licensed spectrum B) Unlicensed spectrum
C) Wi-Fi band D) FM radio band
✅ Correct Answer: A) Licensed spectrum

30. (U) Which standard body regulates wireless communication in India?

A) IEEE B) WPC (Wireless Planning & Coordination)
C) FCC D) ITU
✅ Correct Answer: B) WPC (Wireless Planning & Coordination)

Mobile Network Evolution (3G to 5G)

31. (R) What was the main improvement of 2G over 1G networks?

A) Higher data speed B) Digital communication
C) Video calling D) 100 Mbps download speed
✅ Correct Answer: B) Digital communication

32. (U) Which technology is commonly used for 3G networks?

A) GSM B) CDMA C) LTE D) OFDMA
✅ Correct Answer: B) CDMA

41
33. If a user is experiencing slow mobile data in a 3G network, which upgrade will
provide a faster connection?
A) Shift to 1G B) Upgrade to 2G
C) Switch to 4G LTE D) Use a different SIM card
✅ Correct Answer: C) Switch to 4G LTE

34. (R) Which of the following is a key feature of 4G networks?

A) Circuit switching B) Analog communication
C) Packet-based transmission D) Low-speed internet
✅ Correct Answer: C) Packet-based transmission

35. (U) What is the approximate maximum speed of 4G LTE?

A) 64 kbps B) 2 Mbps C) 100 Mbps D) 1 Gbps
✅ Correct Answer: C) 100 Mbps
36. A user wants to stream 4K videos on their smartphone. Which mobile network
generation is best suited?
A) 2G B) 3G C) 4G D) 5G
✅ Correct Answer: D) 5G

37. (R) Which of the following technologies enables 5G to achieve ultra-high speed?
A) FDMA B) TDMA
C) Massive MIMO D) Dial-up connection
✅ Correct Answer: C) Massive MIMO

38. (U) Why does 5G require more base stations than 4G?
A) 5G uses lower frequency bands
B) 5G signals have a shorter range
C) 5G does not support mobile devices
D) 5G consumes more power
✅ Correct Answer: B) 5G signals have a shorter range

39. Which 5G feature would be most useful for self-driving cars?

A) Low latency B) High power consumption
C) Circuit switching D) High energy usage
✅ Correct Answer: A) Low latency

40. (R) Which of the following multiplexing techniques is used in 4G LTE?

A) TDMA B) CDMA C) OFDMA D) FDMA
✅ Correct Answer: C) OFDMA

Comparative Features of 3G, 4G, and 5G

41. (U) How does 4G differ from 3G in terms of network architecture?

A) 4G uses circuit switching while 3G uses packet switching
B) 4G uses packet switching while 3G uses circuit switching
C) 4G has lower speed than 3G
D) 4G supports only voice calls
✅ Correct Answer: B) 4G uses packet switching while 3G uses circuit switching

42. Which of the following applications would benefit most from 5G technology?
A) Voice calling B) SMS messaging
C) Cloud gaming D) FM radio

42
 ✅ Correct Answer: C) Cloud gaming

43. (R) Which mobile network generation introduced the concept of "network slicing"?
A) 3G B) 4G C) 5G D) 2G
✅ Correct Answer: C) 5G

44. (U) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of 4G networks?

A) High energy consumption B) Higher latency compared to 5G
C) Limited support for IoT D) Low-speed data transmission
✅ Correct Answer: D) Low-speed data transmission
45. If a manufacturing company wants to automate its production using real-time
machine control, which mobile network should it use?
A) 2G B) 3G C) 4G D) 5G
✅ Correct Answer: D) 5G

Scenario-Based Questions (Application Level - Bloom’s Taxonomy)

46. A telecom company wants to provide high-speed internet in rural areas with minimal
infrastructure costs. Which wireless technology should they consider?
A) 2G GSM B) 3G WCDMA
C) 4G LTE D) 5G mmWave
✅ Correct Answer: C) 4G LTE

47. A self-driving car needs to communicate instantly with traffic lights and other
vehicles. Which feature of 5G will be most beneficial?
A) High bandwidth B) Low latency
C) Large cell coverage D) High power consumption
✅ Correct Answer: B) Low latency

48. A hospital wants to use remote robotic surgery requiring real-time control without
delay. Which mobile network generation should they use?
A) 3G B) 4G C) 5G D) 2G
✅ Correct Answer: C) 5G

49. An online gaming company needs to ensure that players experience no lag while
playing games over a mobile network. Which of the following technologies would best
meet their requirements?
A) 3G with CDMA B) 4G LTE
C) 5G with edge computing D) 2G GSM
✅ Correct Answer: C) 5G with edge computing

50. A mobile service provider needs to support a large number of IoT devices in a smart
city project. Which technology would be most suitable?
A) 2G GSM B) 3G HSPA+
C) 4G LTE D) 5G Massive MIMO
✅ Correct Answer: D) 5G Massive MIMO

51. A telecom engineer is planning a mobile network for a crowded stadium where
thousands of users will be streaming video simultaneously. Which feature of 5G will
help ensure smooth streaming?
A) Small cell deployment B) High latency
C) Circuit switching D) Narrow bandwidth

43
 ✅ Correct Answer: A) Small cell deployment

52. An e-commerce company needs a fast and reliable mobile payment system for rural
customers with limited internet access. Which mobile network should they focus on?
A) 2G EDGE B) 3G UMTS
C) 4G LTE D) 5G mmWave
✅ Correct Answer: C) 4G LTE

53. A factory plans to deploy automated robots that require constant communication
with cloud servers. Which feature of 5G will be most useful?
A) High-frequency bands
B) Low energy consumption
C) Ultra-reliable low latency communication (URLLC)
D) Circuit-switched networking
✅ Correct Answer: C) Ultra-reliable low latency communication (URLLC)

54. A telecom company is designing a network for a smart grid system that requires
stable and long-range wireless communication. Which spectrum type should they
use?
A) mmWave B) Mid-band (Sub-6 GHz)
C) High-frequency bands above 30 GHz D) Wi-Fi 6 GHz
✅ Correct Answer: B) Mid-band (Sub-6 GHz)

55. A transportation company wants to implement AI-powered traffic monitoring using

live camera feeds on highways. Which technology will be most effective?
A) 2G GPRS B) 3G CDMA
C) 4G LTE-Advanced D) 5G with network slicing
✅ Correct Answer: D) 5G with network slicing

Multiple-Choice Questions on NGN Core and MPLS

NGN Core: Features

56. (R) What is the primary function of the NGN core?

A) Provide last-mile connectivity
B) Route and transport packets efficiently
C) Encode analog signals
D) Convert text to speech
✅ Correct Answer: B) Route and transport packets efficiently

57. (U) Which of the following is a key feature of NGN?

A) Circuit-switched communication
B) Supports only voice transmission
C) Packet-based transfer with broadband capabilities
D) Requires separate networks for different services
✅ Correct Answer: C) Packet-based transfer with broadband capabilities
58. (R) Which protocol is widely used in NGN core networks for efficient data transport?
A) SMTP B) FTP C) MPLS D) ARP
✅ Correct Answer: C) MPLS

59. (U) Why does NGN use a layered architecture?

A) To separate services from transport functions
B) To avoid IP-based communication
44
 C) To make networks slower and more complex
D) To prevent user mobility
✅ Correct Answer: A) To separate services from transport functions

60. A telecom company wants to integrate new services without changing its transport
network. How does NGN architecture help?
A) By coupling services with transport functions
B) By using a circuit-switched approach
C) By decoupling service and transport layers
D) By preventing third-party applications
✅ Correct Answer: C) By decoupling service and transport layers

61. Which layer of the NGN architecture is responsible for handling user services and
applications?
A) Transport Layer B) Access Layer
C) Service Layer D) Control Layer
✅ Correct Answer: C) Service Layer

62. What is the role of the Resource and Admission Control Function (RACF) in NGN?
A) Encoding voice signals
B) Managing QoS and network resources
C) Providing power supply to network devices
D) Converting data into analog signals
✅ Correct Answer: B) Managing QoS and network resources

63. An NGN network needs to support legacy (old) networks such as PSTN and ISDN.
What is the solution?
A) Use Media Gateways for interworking
B) Replace all legacy systems with new ones
C) Eliminate voice services
D) Use an analog switching system
✅ Correct Answer: A) Use Media Gateways for interworking

64. (U) What is a key advantage of NGN in terms of mobility?

A) Users can only access services in a fixed location
B) Users have unrestricted access to multiple service providers
C) Services are locked to a specific telecom provider
D) NGN does not support mobile access
✅ Correct Answer: B) Users have unrestricted access to multiple service providers

65. A service provider wants to offer different network services to users without
infrastructure upgrades. Which NGN feature helps?
A) Single-service networks B) Generalized mobility
C) Network slicing D) Network Address Translation
✅ Correct Answer: B) Generalized mobility

Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS) Concepts

66. (R) What is the main function of MPLS in NGN?

A) Converts data into analog signals
B) Provides fast and efficient packet forwarding
45
 C) Encrypts data at the network layer
D) Slows down internet traffic
✅ Correct Answer: B) Provides fast and efficient packet forwarding

67. (U) Why is MPLS considered faster than traditional IP routing?

A) It uses only MAC addresses for routing
B) It avoids router lookup at each hop
C) It encrypts all traffic
D) It discards packets without checking the destination
✅ Correct Answer: B) It avoids router lookup at each hop

68. (R) Which component in MPLS assigns labels to packets?

A) Label Switch Router (LSR) B) Edge Router
C) Label Edge Router (LER) D) Firewall
✅ Correct Answer: C) Label Edge Router (LER)

69. (U) What is an MPLS Label Switch Path (LSP)?

A) A direct connection between two routers
B) A predefined route through which MPLS packets travel
C) A backup route in case of failure
D) A security mechanism in MPLS
✅ Correct Answer: B) A predefined route through which MPLS packets travel

70. (A) A telecom company needs to ensure that real-time video streaming traffic gets
priority over regular data packets. Which MPLS feature should they use?
A) Best-effort routing B) QoS-based traffic engineering
C) Network Address Translation D) Circuit switching
✅ Correct Answer: B) QoS-based traffic engineering

MPLS Features and Advantages

71. (R) Which advantage does MPLS provide over traditional IP routing?
A) Higher latency
B) Better Quality of Service (QoS) management
C) Less efficient data transmission
D) Increased network congestion
✅ Correct Answer: B) Better Quality of Service (QoS) management
72. (U) How does MPLS improve reliability in NGN?
A) It uses multiple paths to avoid congestion
B) It encrypts all traffic
C) It eliminates the need for network hardware
D) It replaces all IP routing protocols
✅ Correct Answer: A) It uses multiple paths to avoid congestion

73. (A) A company needs to connect multiple branch offices using a private and secure
network. Which MPLS feature helps?
A) Label switching B) Virtual Private Network (VPN) support
C) Static IP addressing D) Circuit switching
✅ Correct Answer: B) Virtual Private Network (VPN) support

46
 74. (R) Which type of traffic is most commonly prioritized in MPLS networks?
A) Bulk file transfers B) Voice and video communication
C) Email traffic D) Printed documents
✅ Correct Answer: B) Voice and video communication

75. (A) A financial institution requires high security and low-latency connectivity
between data centers. Why should they use MPLS?
A) MPLS is more expensive than traditional routing
B) MPLS supports private and secure data transport
C) MPLS blocks all external traffic
D) MPLS requires frequent hardware upgrades
✅ Correct Answer: B) MPLS supports private and secure data transport

NGN Core and MPLS, Scenario-Based Questions

76. A telecom provider wants to ensure that voice calls always get higher priority over
regular internet browsing. Which NGN feature can help achieve this?
A) Best-effort service B) Quality of Service (QoS) control
C) Circuit switching D) Load balancing
✅ Correct Answer: B) Quality of Service (QoS) control

76. An enterprise wants to establish a secure and fast communication channel between
its head office and multiple branch offices. Which networking technology should it
use?
A) MPLS with VPN B) Traditional IP routing
C) Public Wi-Fi D) Circuit-switched PSTN
✅ Correct Answer: A) MPLS with VPN

77. A financial institution needs a high-speed, low-latency network for real-time stock
trading. Which feature of MPLS will help them?
A) Static routing
B) Fast reroute and traffic engineering
C) Delay-tolerant networking
D) Store-and-forward switching
✅ Correct Answer: B) Fast reroute and traffic engineering

78. A video streaming service provider notices buffering issues for users during peak
hours. How can MPLS help improve video quality?
A) By prioritizing video traffic using QoS labels
B) By increasing internet bandwidth for all services
C) By switching to a satellite network
D) By using a separate wired connection for each user
✅ Correct Answer: A) By prioritizing video traffic using QoS labels

79. A mobile network operator is expanding its 5G infrastructure and needs an efficient
way to handle massive data traffic. Which NGN technology is best suited?
A) MPLS with network slicing B) Circuit switching
C) Dial-up networking D) Simple TCP/IP routing
✅ Correct Answer: A) MPLS with network slicing

80. A university campus requires a seamless network for both faculty and students,
ensuring that academic data gets priority over social media traffic. Which MPLS
feature will help?
47
 A) Load balancing B) Label-based QoS traffic classification
C) Static IP routing D) Firewall-only filtering
✅ Correct Answer: B) Label-based QoS traffic classification

81. A multinational company wants to connect its global offices securely while ensuring
that latency-sensitive applications like video conferencing work without delays. What
is the best solution?
A) MPLS-based private WAN B) Public cloud services
C) DSL-based internet connections D) Local wired LAN only
✅ Correct Answer: A) MPLS-based private WAN

82. An e-commerce company faces slow transaction processing during peak sales hours.
Which MPLS feature can ensure faster and more reliable data transmission?
A) Load balancing and Traffic Engineering (TE)
B) Static IP allocation
C) Increasing server power
D) Converting to a wireless-only network
✅ Correct Answer: A) Load balancing and Traffic Engineering (TE)

83. A healthcare organization needs to transmit real-time patient monitoring data with
minimal delay. How can NGN and MPLS support this requirement?
A) Prioritizing medical data packets using QoS in MPLS
B) Using a shared public internet for all hospital traffic
C) Increasing network latency for security purposes
D) Using outdated circuit-switched networks
✅ Correct Answer: A) Prioritizing medical data packets using QoS in MPLS

84. A gaming company is launching a cloud gaming service that requires ultra-low
latency connections worldwide. Which combination of technologies should they
implement?
A) MPLS with edge computing
B) MPLS with load balancing only
C) Standard IP routing without prioritization
D) Circuit-switched PSTN network
✅ Correct Answer: A) MPLS with edge computing

Multiple-Choice Questions on FTTH (3.4)

85. What does OLT stand for in FTTH architecture?

A. Optical Line Terminal Optical Line Termination
B. Optical Local Termination Optical Link Terminal
Answer:** B. Optical Line Termination

86. Which component in FTTH connects the user’s equipment to the service provider?**
A. ONU B. ODN C. SNI D. UNI
Answer:** D. UNI

87. The upstream direction in FTTH refers to signals traveling from:**

A. OLT to ONU B. ONU to OLT
C. Splitter to OLT D. User to Splitter
**Answer:** B. ONU to OLT

87. Which FTTH feature ensures easy maintenance due to reliance on fiber systems?**
A. Symmetric bandwidth Passive optical splitters
48
B. Advanced optoelectronics Indoor ONU placement
Answer:** B. Passive optical splitters

88. What is the primary function of the Optical Distribution Network (ODN)?**
A Manage network-specific ATM transport
B Provide optical transmission paths between OLT and ONUs
C Interface with external service nodes
D Authenticate subscribers
Answer:** B. Provide optical transmission paths between OLT and ONUs
89. Which interface connects the service node to the access network?**
A UNI B. SNI C. NNI D.ANI
**Answer:** B. SNI

90. In FTTH, which component is responsible for managing ATM transport at the service
provider’s end?**
A. ONU B. OLT C. ODN D. NT
**Answer:** B. OLT

91. Which service type allocates equal bandwidth for upload and download?**
A. Asymmetric broadband
B. Symmetric broadband
C. PSTN
D. ISDN
**Answer:** B. Symmetric broadband

92. What is a key advantage of using passive optical splitters in FTTH?**

A. Higher data rates
B. Reduced power consumption
C. Simplified network upgrades
D. Enhanced security
Answer:** B. Reduced power consumption

93. Which standard defines the architecture of FTTH?**

A. ITU-T G.709
B. ITU-T G.902
C. ITU-T G.873.1
D. ITU-T G.798
Answer:** B. ITU-T G.902

94. Which component directly interfaces with the user’s device in FTTH?**
A. OLT
B. ONU
C. ODN
D. SNI
**Answer:** B. ONU

95. What is the role of the Network Termination (NT) in FTTH?**

A. Split optical signals
B. Terminate the user’s equipment
C. Manage service node interfaces
D. Control bandwidth allocation
**Answer:** B. Terminate the user’s equipment

96. Which technology uses a passive splitter to share fiber capacity among multiple users?**
49
 A. SONET
B. PON
C. DWDM
D. SDH
**Answer:** B. PON

97. Why is privacy a concern in FTTH’s passive optical network configuration?**

A. Shared fiber capacity
B. High latency
C. Limited bandwidth
D. Complex maintenance
**Answer:** A. Shared fiber capacity

98. Which FTTH component is located closest to the end-user?**

A. OLT
B. ONU
C. SNI
D. ODN
Answer:** B. ONU

99. **16. What is a key driver for reducing costs in FTTH deployment?**
A. Advanced optoelectronics
B. Copper cabling
C. Licensed spectrum
D. Circuit-switched networks
**Answer:** A. Advanced optoelectronics

100. Which feature allows FTTH to support future service upgrades without changing
ONUs?**
A. Symmetric bandwidth
B. Passive splitters
C. Fiber-only maintenance
D. Modular OLT design
**Answer:** C. Fiber-only maintenance
101. In which direction does the OLT transmit signals to ONUs?**
A. Upstream
B. Downstream
C. Bidirectional
D. Lateral
**Answer:** B. Downstream

102. Which standard defines OTN frame formats and payload mapping?**
A. G.709
B. G.878
C. G.873.1
D. G.798
**Answer:** A. G.709

103. What is the primary purpose of the Service Node Interface (SNI)?**
A. Connect users to the network
B. Link the access network to service nodes
C. Manage optical distribution
D. Authenticate devices
**Answer:** B. Link the access network to service nodes
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104. Which FTTH architecture uses a single fiber split among multiple ONUs?**
C. Point-to-point
D. Active Optical Network
E. Passive Optical Network
F. Hybrid Fiber-Coaxial
**Answer:** C. Passive Optical Network

105. Which component ensures transparent ATM transport between UNI and SNI?**
A. OLT and ONU
B. ODN
C. Splitter
D. NT
**Answer:** A. OLT and ONU

106. What is a limitation of using higher-frequency bands in 5G that also affects FTTH
planning?**
A. Increased latency
B. Signal interference from obstacles
C. Higher power consumption
D. Limited service types
**Answer:** B. Signal interference from obstacles

107. Which layer in the NGN architecture is responsible for FTTH’s transport functions?**
A. Service Layer
B. Control Layer
C. Transport Stratum
D. Access Layer
**Answer:** C. Transport Stratum

108. What is the primary function of the Optical Network Unit (ONU)?**
A. Manage service node interfaces
B. Convert optical signals to electrical signals for end-users
C. Route packets in the core network
D. Allocate IP addresses dynamically
**Answer:** B. Convert optical signals to electrical signals for end-users

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 Unit 4:The Internet of Things (IoT)
1. Introduction to IoT

1. What is the Internet of Things (IoT)?

a) A system of connected physical devices that can exchange data over a network
b) A programming language for industrial automation
c) A type of high-speed internet service
d) A new operating system for computers
Correct Answer: a) A system of connected physical devices that can exchange data over a
network
2. IoT evolved from which communication concept?
a) Human-to-human communication
b) Machine-to-machine (M2M) communication
c) Satellite communication
d) Bluetooth technology
Correct Answer: b) Machine-to-machine (M2M) communication
3. Which of the following best describes a “thing” in IoT?
a) A mobile application for smart devices
b) Any object with a unique identifier and the ability to transfer data over a network
c) A sensor that only works with computers
d) A physical object without any embedded system
Correct Answer: b) Any object with a unique identifier and the ability to transfer data
over a network
4. Which of the following is NOT a major component of an IoT system?
a) Sensors b) Actuators
c) Internet browsers d) Communication modules
Correct Answer: c) Internet browsers

2. IoT Architecture

5. Which is the correct order of IoT architecture layers?

a) Perception → Network → Application
b) Application → Perception → Network
c) Network → Perception → Application
d) Perception → Application → Network
Correct Answer: a) Perception → Network → Application
6. What is the function of the Perception Layer in IoT?
a) To collect and process raw data from the physical world
b) To store data permanently
c) To provide cloud computing services
d) To control smart devices remotely
Correct Answer: a) To collect and process raw data from the physical world
7. Which layer in IoT architecture is responsible for data transmission?
a) Perception Layer b) Network Layer
c) Application Layer d) Storage Layer
Correct Answer: b) Network Layer
8. What is the role of an IoT Gateway?
a) To connect IoT devices to the cloud and process data before transmission
b) To act as a storage unit for IoT devices
c) To generate internet bandwidth
d) To provide security for physical devices
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 Correct Answer: a) To connect IoT devices to the cloud and process data before
transmission

3. IoT Communication & Networking

9. Which protocol is commonly used for lightweight IoT communication?

a) HTTP b) MQTT c) FTP d) SMTP
Correct Answer: b) MQTT
10. What is the function of an IoT Edge Gateway?
a) It processes data locally before sending it to the cloud
b) It replaces cloud storage
c) It converts analog signals into digital signals
d) It powers IoT devices with additional electricity
Correct Answer: a) It processes data locally before sending it to the cloud
11. Which communication protocol is NOT commonly used in IoT?
a) Zigbee b) Bluetooth c) SMTP d) LoRaWAN
Correct Answer: c) SMTP
12. Which type of communication is commonly used between IoT devices?
a) Peer-to-peer communication b) Satellite communication
c) Bluetooth communication d) Machine-to-machine (M2M)
communication
Correct Answer: d) Machine-to-machine (M2M) communication

4. IoT Applications in Industry

13. Which industry uses IoT for predictive maintenance?

a) Agriculture b) Healthcare c) Manufacturing d) Retail
Correct Answer: c) Manufacturing
14. How does IoT help in smart agriculture?
a) By automating irrigation and monitoring soil conditions
b) By replacing human labor in farming
c) By increasing manual intervention in crop production
d) By eliminating the need for fertilizers
Correct Answer: a) By automating irrigation and monitoring soil conditions
15. What is the role of IoT in healthcare?
a) Monitoring patients' vital signs remotely
b) Manufacturing medicines
c) Replacing human doctors with robots
d) Reducing the number of hospitals
Correct Answer: a) Monitoring patients' vital signs remotely
16. How does IoT improve smart cities?
a) By providing real-time traffic monitoring and waste management
b) By reducing internet usage
c) By eliminating street lighting
d) By increasing manual traffic control
Correct Answer: a) By providing real-time traffic monitoring and waste management

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5. Cybersecurity in IoT

17. Which is the biggest security challenge in IoT?

a) Unauthorized access and hacking b) Poor battery life
c) High energy consumption d) Limited network range
Correct Answer: a) Unauthorized access and hacking
18. Which encryption method is commonly used to secure IoT data?
a) AES b) JPEG c) GIF d) MP3
Correct Answer: a) AES
19. What is a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack in IoT?
a) An attack where a hacker intercepts and alters communication between two devices
b) A virus that infects all IoT devices
c) A network disruption that slows down IoT devices
d) A hardware failure in an IoT gateway
Correct Answer: a) An attack where a hacker intercepts and alters communication
between two devices

6. Future Trends in IoT

20. Which emerging technology is improving IoT efficiency?

a) 5G b) Typewriters
c) Steam engines d) Analog radios
Correct Answer: a) 5G
21. How does AI enhance IoT functionality?
a) By analyzing data and making intelligent decisions
b) By reducing internet connectivity
c) By eliminating IoT sensors
d) By increasing manual data collection
Correct Answer: a) By analyzing data and making intelligent decisions
22. What is the role of Edge Computing in IoT?
a) Processing data near the source to reduce latency
b) Eliminating cloud computing
c) Replacing all IoT sensors
d) Increasing network congestion
Correct Answer: a) Processing data near the source to reduce latency

7. IoT Devices & Components

26. What is the role of actuators in an IoT system?

a) To sense environmental conditions
b) To convert digital signals into physical actions
c) To transmit data over the internet
d) To store IoT data in cloud servers
Correct Answer: b) To convert digital signals into physical actions
27. Which of the following is an example of an IoT actuator?
a) Temperature sensor b) DC motor
c) RFID tag d) Wi-Fi module
Correct Answer: b) DC motor
28. Which of these IoT components is responsible for data collection?
a) Actuators b) Sensors
c) Cloud servers d) Wi-Fi routers
Correct Answer: b) Sensors

54
 29. Which type of memory is commonly used in IoT devices for temporary data storage?
a) RAM b) ROM
c) Hard Disk Drive d) Blu-ray Disc
Correct Answer: a) RAM
30. Why are low-power microcontrollers preferred in IoT applications?
a) To reduce energy consumption and extend battery life
b) To increase data storage capacity
c) To eliminate the need for sensors
d) To speed up the internet connection
Correct Answer: a) To reduce energy consumption and extend battery life

8. IoT Connectivity & Networking

31. Which of the following is a long-range communication protocol for IoT?

a) Zigbee b) Wi-Fi
c) LoRaWAN d) Bluetooth
Correct Answer: c) LoRaWAN
32. Which of these IoT communication protocols is best suited for smart home devices?
a) Zigbee b) Ethernet
c) 4G LTE d) NFC
Correct Answer: a) Zigbee
33. Which IoT network topology uses a central hub for communication?
a) Mesh topology b) Star topology
c) Bus topology d) Ring topology
Correct Answer: b) Star topology
34. What is the main advantage of using IPv6 in IoT?
a) Supports more device connections with a larger address space
b) Increases internet speed
c) Reduces the cost of IoT devices
d) Eliminates the need for cloud storage
Correct Answer: a) Supports more device connections with a larger address space
35. What is the main limitation of using Wi-Fi in IoT applications?
a) High power consumption
b) Low data transfer speed
c) Lack of security
d) Inability to connect multiple devices
Correct Answer: a) High power consumption

9. IoT Applications & Case Studies

36. Which of the following is an example of IoT in healthcare?

a) Smart insulin pumps
b) Online hospital appointment booking
c) Electrical power meters
d) Virtual Reality (VR) headsets
Correct Answer: a) Smart insulin pumps
37. Which IoT technology is used in tracking packages in logistics?
a) RFID b) Bluetooth speakers
c) Voice assistants d) Web browsers
Correct Answer: a) RFID
38. What is a smart grid in IoT?
a) An energy distribution network that optimizes power usage using IoT
55
 b) A type of IoT-based solar panel
c) A local area network (LAN) for IoT devices
d) A communication protocol for smart home devices
Correct Answer: a) An energy distribution network that optimizes power usage using IoT
39. Which of the following is NOT an IoT-enabled smart city application?
a) Smart street lighting b) Automated toll collection
c) Online banking d) Intelligent traffic management
Correct Answer: c) Online banking
40. What is the role of IoT in industrial automation (Industry 4.0)?
a) To monitor and optimize manufacturing processes in real time
b) To replace cloud computing
c) To increase manual labor
d) To eliminate the need for cybersecurity
Correct Answer: a) To monitor and optimize manufacturing processes in real time

10. IoT Security & Privacy

41. What is the biggest security concern in IoT?

a) Data breaches and unauthorized access b) Low device costs
c) Lack of automation d) High internet speed
Correct Answer: a) Data breaches and unauthorized access
42. How can IoT devices be secured from cyber threats?
a) By using strong passwords and encryption
b) By disabling internet access permanently
c) By limiting the number of connected devices
d) By using outdated firmware
Correct Answer: a) By using strong passwords and encryption
43. What is a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack in IoT?
a) An attack where multiple compromised IoT devices flood a network to disrupt services
b) A virus that infects IoT sensors
c) A failure of IoT batteries
d) A cloud server that stops responding
Correct Answer: a) An attack where multiple compromised IoT devices flood a network
to disrupt services
44. Which of the following can improve IoT device security?
a) Regular firmware updates b) Keeping default passwords
c) Disabling encryption d) Avoiding firewall protections
Correct Answer: a) Regular firmware updates
45. What does blockchain technology offer in IoT security?
a) Tamper-proof and decentralized data storage
b) Faster device processing speed
c) Reduced power consumption in IoT devices
d) Eliminating the need for internet connectivity
Correct Answer: a) Tamper-proof and decentralized data storage

11. Future Technologies & Trends in IoT

46. What is the role of 5G in IoT?

a) To provide faster and more reliable connectivity for IoT devices
b) To replace cloud computing in IoT

56
 c) To reduce the number of connected devices
d) To eliminate the need for sensors
Correct Answer: a) To provide faster and more reliable connectivity for IoT devices
47. What is a Digital Twin in IoT?
a) A virtual model that simulates a physical device in real time
b) A duplicate of a sensor used for redundancy
c) A backup system for IoT data
d) A physical replica of an IoT gateway
Correct Answer: a) A virtual model that simulates a physical device in real time
48. Which AI technology helps IoT devices analyze data efficiently?
a) Machine Learning
b) Virtual Reality
c) Blockchain
d) Augmented Reality
Correct Answer: a) Machine Learning
49. What is Fog Computing in IoT?
a) A decentralized computing method that processes data closer to IoT devices
b) A new cloud storage system
c) A form of IoT sensor communication
d) A method for IoT-based weather forecasting
Correct Answer: a) A decentralized computing method that processes data closer to IoT
devices
50. Which of the following is a future trend in IoT?
a) Smart dust (tiny wireless IoT sensors)
b) Manual data processing
c) Decreasing the number of IoT devices
d) Removing cloud connectivity
Correct Answer: a) Smart dust (tiny wireless IoT sensors)

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 Unit 4: Digital Factory

Multiple-Choice Questions on Topic 4.1: Introduction to IoT and Cyber-Physical

Systems
1. What does IoT stand for?
A. Internet of Technology
B. Interconnected Object Technology
C. Internet of Things
D. Integrated Operational Telemetry
Correct Answer: C

2. Which of the following is a primary component of an IoT system?

A. Physical object with embedded software
B. Human operators
C. Paper-based records
D. Mechanical levers
Correct Answer: A

3. Cyber-Physical Systems (CPS) are characterized by:

A. Tight coupling between computations and the physical world
B. Isolation of data from physical processes
C. Manual data entry systems
D. Analog-only signal processing
Correct Answer: A

4. Which protocol is commonly used to connect IoT gateways to cloud applications?

A. HTTP B. MQTT
C. FTP D. SMTP
Correct Answer: B

5. The evolution of IoT is closely related to which of the following technologies?

A. SCADA systems B. Typewriters
C. Steam engines D. Vacuum tubes
Correct Answer: A

6. What is the primary function of an IoT sensor?

A. Store data in the cloud
B. Convert physical phenomena into electrical signals
C. Act as a user interface
D. Encrypt data packets
Correct Answer: B

7. Which layer of IoT architecture is responsible for data aggregation and analog-to-
digital conversion?
A. Perception Layer B. Network Access Layer
C. Edge IT Layer D. Cloud Layer
Correct Answer: C

8. An example of a Cyber-Physical System (CPS) is:

A. A standalone desktop computer
B. A wireless sensor network in industrial automation
C. A manual ledger system

58
D. A mechanical clock
Correct Answer: B

9. Which of the following is a disadvantage of IoT?

A. Reduced human intervention
B. Increased data security risks
C. Improved communication between devices
D. Enhanced customer experience
Correct Answer: B

10. What role does an edge gateway play in IoT?

A. It replaces cloud storage
B. It preprocesses data locally before sending it to the cloud
C. It acts as a user interface for end-users
D. It generates electrical power for sensors
Correct Answer: B

11. M2M communication refers to:

A. Machines communicating via human intermediaries
B. Direct machine-to-machine interaction without human involvement
C. Manual data entry systems
D. Cloud-to-cloud data transfer
Correct Answer: B

12. Which IoT component includes microcontrollers and actuators?

A. Software B. Communication Module
C. Hardware D. Cloud Platform
Correct Answer: C

13. Which of the following is NOT a function of the IoT perception layer?
A. Data collection from the environment
B. Signal conversion and processing
C. Storing data in a centralized database
D. Interfacing with IoT networks
Correct Answer: C

14. Which technology enables IoT sensors to send data to virtual dashboards with
minimal human interaction?
A. LPWAN B. Analog dials
C. Paper charts D. Manual data entry
Correct Answer: A

15. A key benefit of IoT in industries is:

A. Increased manual labor costs
B. Reduced operational efficiency
C. Real-time monitoring of processes
D. Higher dependency on paper records
Correct Answer: C

16. Which of the following is an example of an IoT device?

A. A mechanical typewriter B. A smart thermostat
C. A manual water pump D. A paper-based attendance register
Correct Answer: B

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17. What is the purpose of an actuator in an IoT system?
A. To collect environmental data
B. To convert digital signals to analog
C. To perform physical actions based on sensor data
D. To store data in the cloud
Correct Answer: C

18. Which layer in IoT architecture handles machine learning and advanced
analytics?
A. Perception Layer B. Edge Gateway Layer
C. Cloud Layer D. Network Access Layer
Correct Answer: C

19. The term "Plug and Sense" is associated with:

A. Agricultural IoT Stick B. Edge Gateways
C. SCADA Systems D. M2M Protocols
Correct Answer: A

20. Which challenge is associated with IoT scalability?

A. Reduced data volume
B. Compatibility issues between devices
C. Increased manual oversight
D. Simplified data management
Correct Answer: B

21. What distinguishes IoT from traditional SCADA systems?

A. IoT relies on centralized control, while SCADA is decentralized
B. IoT uses older communication protocols
C. IoT supports billions of interconnected devices, unlike SCADA
D. SCADA systems are cloud-based, while IoT is not
Correct Answer: C

22. Which component ensures secure communication between IoT devices and the
cloud?
A. Sensors B. Edge Gateway
C. Analog-to-Digital Converter D. Mechanical Actuator
Correct Answer: B

23. A key feature of IoT in smart cities is:

A. Increased paper-based reporting
B. Manual traffic management
C. Energy-efficient street lighting systems
D. Reduced use of sensors
Correct Answer: C

24. Which of the following is a characteristic of CPS?

A. Limited computation and storage capabilities
B. Isolation from physical processes
C. Exclusive reliance on human input
D. Analog-only data processing
Correct Answer: A

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25. Which IoT protocol is designed for lightweight communication?
A. CoAP B. HTTP C. SMTP D. FTP
Correct Answer: A

26. What is a primary concern in IoT security?

A. Increased data redundancy
B. Vulnerability to hacking due to interconnected devices
C. Reduced network complexity
D. Manual encryption processes
Correct Answer: B

27. Which IoT application reduces water wastage in agriculture?

A. Smart Parking
B. Precision Agriculture
C. Vehicle-to-Vehicle Communication
D. Biometric Identification
Correct Answer: B

28. The function of a "digital twin" in Industry 4.0 is to:

A. Replace physical machines entirely
B. Provide a virtual representation of a physical system
C. Act as a manual data entry tool
D. Eliminate the need for sensors
Correct Answer: B

29. Which industrial revolution introduced IoT and AI as key technologies?

A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
Correct Answer: D

30. In an IoT ecosystem, the term "things" refers to:

A. Human operators
B. Physical objects with unique identifiers and data transfer capabilities
C. Paper documents
D. Mechanical levers
Correct Answer: B
Multiple-Choice Questions on Topic 4.2: IoT Data Routes
31. Which layer of IoT architecture is responsible for forwarding data between LAN
and WAN?
A. Perception Layer B. Edge Gateway Layer
C. Cloud Layer D. Application Layer
Correct Answer: B

32. What is the primary purpose of an IoT gateway?

A. To replace cloud storage
B. To preprocess data locally and route it to the cloud
C. To act as a user interface
D. To generate power for sensors
Correct Answer: B

33. Which protocol is commonly used for communication between IoT gateways and
cloud applications?
A. HTTP B. FTP C. MQTT D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C

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34. In the "IoT Sensor-PLC-SCADA-Cloud" data route, what role does the PLC play?
A. Stores data permanently
B. Acts as the nearest programmable system to edge devices
C. Replaces cloud analytics
D. Provides user authentication
Correct Answer: B

35. Which of the following is a drawback of the traditional Sensor-PLC-SCADA-

Cloud route?
A. Simplified configuration B. Proprietary PLCs and costly licenses
C. Reduced latency D. No security concerns
Correct Answer: B

36. What does "D2D" communication refer to in IoT?

A. Device-to-device direct interaction B. Data-to-database transfer
C. Dynamic data routing D. Delayed data transmission
Correct Answer: A

37. Which IoT data route skips PLCs and directly connects sensors to servers?
A. Sensor-PLC-SCADA-Cloud B. Sensor-Server-Cloud
C. Sensor-Gateway-Cloud . Sensor-Actuator-Cloud
Correct Answer: B

38. Which layer in IoT architecture handles real-time analytics and preprocessing?
A. Perception Layer B. Edge IT Layer
C. Cloud Layer . Network Access Layer
Correct Answer: B
39. What is the main function of the "network transmission layer" in IoT?
A. Collect sensor data
B. Provide end-user interfaces
C. Enable seamless data exchange across networks
D. Store historical data
Correct Answer: C

40. Which protocol is suitable for low-power, lossy IoT networks?

A. HTTP B. CoAP C. SMTP D. FTP
Correct Answer: B

41. In the 4-stage IoT architecture, which stage involves data aggregation and A/D
conversion?
A. Stage 1: Sensors/Actuators
B. Stage 2: Gateways and Data Acquisition
C. Stage 3: Edge IT
D. Stage 4: Data Center/Cloud
Correct Answer: B

42. Which IoT data route involves actuators affecting physical changes based on
sensor data?
A. Sensor-to-Cloud B. Sensor-to-Actuator
C. Gateway-to-Cloud D. PLC-to-SCADA
Correct Answer: B

43. What is a key benefit of using edge gateways in IoT?

A. Eliminates the need for cloud storage

62
B. Reduces data transmission costs by preprocessing locally
C. Increases manual data entry
D. Slows down network latency
Correct Answer: B

44. Which industrial protocol is often used in PLC communication?

A. Modbus B. MQTT C. HTTP D. CoAP Correct Answer: A

45. What is the purpose of the "application layer" in IoT architecture?

A. Collect raw sensor data B. Provide user interfaces and end applications
C. Convert analog signals to digital D. Store data in the cloud
Correct Answer: B

46. Which IoT architecture layer ensures compatibility between ZigBee and Wi-Fi
devices?
A. Perception Layer B. Network Access Layer
C. Cloud Layer D. Application Support Layer
Correct Answer: B

47. What challenge arises in IoT data routes when scaling to billions of devices?
A. Reduced data volume
B. Network congestion and protocol compatibility
C. Simplified security management
D. Manual configuration becomes easier
Correct Answer: B

48. Which component acts as a bridge between local IoT networks and the cloud?
A. Sensor B. Edge Gateway
C. Actuator D. PLC
Correct Answer: B

49. In the context of IoT, what does "latency" refer to?

A. Data storage capacity B. Time delay in data transmission
C. Sensor accuracy D. Power consumption
Correct Answer: B

50. Which data route is most likely to require firewall adjustments for cloud
connectivity?
A. Sensor-PLC-SCADA-Cloud B. Sensor-Edge Gateway-Cloud
C. Direct Sensor-to-Cloud D. Actuator-to-Cloud
Correct Answer: A

51. Which IoT protocol is designed for constrained devices with limited bandwidth?
A. HTTP B. AMQP C. CoAP D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C

52. What is the role of SCADA in IoT data routes?

A. Replace cloud computing B. Monitor and control industrial processes remotely
C. Act as a sensor D. Encrypt data packets
Correct Answer: B

53. Which layer in IoT architecture is responsible for storing and processing large
datasets?
A. Perception Layer B. Edge IT Layer

63
C. Cloud Layer D. Network Access Layer
Correct Answer: C

54. What is a critical security feature provided by IoT gateways?

A. Tamper detection and encryption B. Manual data entry validation
C. Increased latency D. Reduced data aggregation
Correct Answer: A

55. Which data route is typically used for real-time control systems in factories?
A. Sensor-Cloud B. Sensor-PLC-SCADA-Cloud
C. Sensor-Server-Cloud D. Sensor-Actuator
Correct Answer: B

56. Which term describes the seamless interaction between IoT devices and cloud
platforms?
A. Data Siloing B. Interoperability
C. Analog Conversion D. Manual Routing
Correct Answer: B

57. In the IoT architecture, which layer handles device-specific communication

drivers?
A. Perception Layer B. Network Access Layer
C. Edge Gateway Layer D. Cloud Layer
Correct Answer: C

58. Which of the following is a protocol used for communication between data systems
in IoT?
A. ZigBee B. AMQP C. MQTT D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

59. What is a key advantage of the Sensor-Server-Cloud route over Sensor-PLC-

SCADA-Cloud?
A. Lower configuration complexity
B. Higher dependency on proprietary systems
C. Increased manual intervention
D. Slower data transmission
Correct Answer: A

60. Which IoT architecture layer ensures data is formatted correctly for end-user
applications?
A. Application Support Layer B. Network Transmission Layer
C. Perception Layer D. Edge Gateway Layer
Correct Answer: A

61. Which IoT application in agriculture helps reduce water wastage by integrating Web
Map Service (WMS) and Sensor Observation Service (SOS)?
A. Precision Agriculture B. Geo-fencing
C. Crop Water Management D. Biometric Monitoring
Correct Answer: C

62. In the automotive industry, which IoT feature allows real-time tracking of a vehicle's
location using GPS?
A. On-Board Diagnostics (OBD) B. Geo-fencing
C. Vehicle-to-Infrastructure (V2I) D. Smart Parking

64
Correct Answer: B

63. A farmer uses an IoT device that provides live environmental data like temperature and
moisture through a "Plug and Sense" approach. Which device is this?
A. SCADA System B. Agricultural IoT Stick
C. PLC D. RFID Tag
Correct Answer: B

75. A manufacturing plant wants to reduce downtime by predicting equipment failures.

Which IoT application should they implement?
A. Precision Agriculture B. Predictive Maintenance
C. Geo-fencing D. Smart Parking
Correct Answer: B

Multiple-Choice Questions on Topic 4.3: IoT Applications

61. Which IoT application in agriculture integrates Web Map Service (WMS) to
optimize irrigation?
A. Precision Agriculture B. Crop Water Management
C. Geo-fencing D. Pest Control
Correct Answer: B

62. What is the primary purpose of an Agricultural IoT Stick?

A. To automate tractor operations
B. To provide live environmental data via "Plug and Sense"
C. To replace manual labor in harvesting
D. To monitor livestock health
Correct Answer: B

63. In automotive IoT, which technology detects if a vehicle exits a predefined

geographical area?
A. OBD (On-Board Diagnostics) B. Geo-fencing
C. V2V Communication D. Infotainment
Correct Answer: B

64. Which IoT application in manufacturing focuses on tracking wear-and-tear data

to schedule component replacements?
A. Smart Parking B. Predictive Maintenance
C. Energy Conservation D. Supply Chain Automation
Correct Answer: B

65. What does V2V stand for in automotive IoT?

A. Vehicle-to-Vehicle Communication B. Vehicle-to-Vendor Interaction
C. Virtual-to-Vehicle Integration D. Voltage-to-Vehicle Control
Correct Answer: A

66. Which IoT application helps farmers monitor soil quality and weather conditions
in real time?
A. Smart Logistics B. Precision Agriculture
C. Geo-fencing D. Driverless Tractors
Correct Answer: B

67. Which IoT feature in cars uses biometric identifiers like fingerprints for driver
authentication?

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A. OBD Port B. Biometric Driver Identification
C. GPS Tracking D. Smart Tail Lights
Correct Answer: B

68. In IoT-enabled smart cities, what function does a lamppost with sensors perform?
A. Adjusts lighting based on traffic density
B. Monitors air pollution
C. Provides Wi-Fi hotspots
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

69. Which industry uses IoT for "just-in-time" production and reducing inventory
costs?
A. Healthcare B. Automotive
C. Agriculture D. Telecom
Correct Answer: B

70. Which IoT protocol is critical for low-power, long-range communication in

agricultural sensors?
A. HTTP B. LoRaWAN C. SMTP D. FTP
Correct Answer: B

71. What is a key benefit of IoT in telecom infrastructure management?

A. Reduced need for 5G networks
B. Real-time tower monitoring and energy efficiency
C. Elimination of manual repairs
D. Increased reliance on analog systems
Correct Answer: B

72. Which IoT application ensures optimal warehouse temperature for perishable
goods?
A. Smart Parking B. Food Production & Safety
C. Geo-fencing D. Traffic Control
Correct Answer: B

73. In discrete manufacturing, IoT helps track which of the following?

A. Social media trends B. Real-time product performance and quality
C. Employee attendance D. Marketing campaigns
Correct Answer: B

74. Which IoT technology enables cars to communicate with traffic signals to reduce
congestion?
A. V2I (Vehicle-to-Infrastructure) B. OBD
C. RFID Tags D. Smart Tail Lights
Correct Answer: A

75. A factory wants to automate assembly lines using networked robots. Which IoT
concept does this represent?
A. Smart Manufacturing B. Precision Agriculture
C. Geo-fencing D. Predictive Maintenance
Correct Answer: A

76. Which IoT application in agriculture helps reduce pesticide use by monitoring pest
levels?

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A. Crop Water Management B. Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
C. Smart Harvesting D. Soil pH Monitoring
Correct Answer: B

77. What is a challenge of implementing IoT in telecom?

A. Limited device connectivity
B. High energy consumption of 5G towers
C. Security vulnerabilities due to increased devices
D. Reduced data transmission speeds
Correct Answer: C

78. Which IoT feature allows insurance companies to adjust premiums based on
driving behavior?
A. Geo-fencing B. Driving Insights Analytics
C. Smart Parking D. Biometric Sensors
Correct Answer: B

79. In smart cities, IoT-enabled waste management systems primarily focus on:
A. Reducing landfill space
B. Optimizing collection routes via sensor data
C. Increasing manual inspections
D. Eliminating recycling programs
Correct Answer: B

80. Which IoT application ensures emergency vehicles get priority at traffic signals?
A. Intelligent Traffic Control B. Smart Parking
C. Geo-fencing D. OBD Diagnostics
Correct Answer: A

81. What is the role of IoT in "precision agriculture"?

A. To replace human farmers with robots
B. To provide data-driven insights for crop management
C. To eliminate the need for fertilizers
D. To automate livestock feeding
Correct Answer: B

82. Which IoT device in vehicles alerts owners if the car exceeds a preset speed limit?
A. OBD Port B. Speed Monitoring System
C. RFID Tag D. Infotainment System
Correct Answer: B

83. How does IoT enhance supply chain management in automotive industries?
A. By reducing vehicle production
B. By enabling real-time inventory tracking
C. By eliminating the need for warehouses
D. By manual record-keeping
Correct Answer: B

84. Which IoT application helps reduce energy consumption in street lighting?
A. Smart Grids
B. Traffic Signal Synchronization
C. Adaptive Lighting based on motion sensors
D. Manual Light Switches
Correct Answer: C

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85. What is a critical requirement for IIoT (Industrial IoT) compared to consumer
IoT?
A. Longer device lifecycles and higher reliability
B. Focus on entertainment applications
C. Lower security standards
D. Reduced data processing
Correct Answer: A

86. Which IoT technology in agriculture uses drones to monitor crop health?
A. Geo-fencing B. Aerial Imaging & Sensors
C. Soil Moisture Probes D. Manual Inspections
Correct Answer: B

87. In telecom, IoT-enabled Tower Operations Centers (TOCs) help:

A. Increase tower downtime
B. Monitor cell tower performance and energy usage
C. Reduce 5G adoption
D. Eliminate cloud computing
Correct Answer: B

88. Which IoT application in automotive ensures drivers receive alerts for open doors
or low fuel?
A. V2V Communication B. OBD Port Integration
C. Smart Parking D. Traffic Analytics
Correct Answer: B

89. What is a key advantage of IoT in discrete manufacturing?

A. Increased manual labor costs
B. Real-time quality control and process optimization
C. Slower production cycles
D. Reduced demand for automation
Correct Answer: B

90. Which IoT feature helps farmers share sensor data with remote consultants via the
cloud?
A. Agricultural IoT Stick B. Manual Data Logging
C. Soil Sampling Kits D. Traditional Irrigation
Correct Answer: A

91. What is the primary focus of Industry 4.0?

A. Mechanization using steam power
B. Mass production via assembly lines
C. Integration of digital technologies like IoT and AI
D. Manual labor optimization
Correct Answer: C

92. Which term describes systems where computations are tightly coupled with the
physical world?
A. SCADA B. Cyber-Physical Systems (CPS)
C. PLC Networks D. Analog Control Systems
Correct Answer: B

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93. The concept of Industry 4.0 was first prominently introduced in which country?
A. United States B. Japan C. Germany D. China
Correct Answer: C

94. Which technology is a key enabler of smart manufacturing in Industry 4.0?

A. Typewriters B. Steam Engines
C. Industrial IoT (IIoT) D. Manual Quality Checks
Correct Answer: C

95. RAMI 4.0 (Reference Architecture Model Industry 4.0) includes which of the
following dimensions?
A. Time, Cost, and Quality
B. Hierarchy, Lifecycle, and Value Stream
C. Hardware, Software, and Firmware
D. Sensors, Actuators, and Controllers
Correct Answer: B

96. Which industrial revolution introduced programmable logic controllers (PLCs)?

A. Industry 1.0 B. Industry 2.0 C. Industry 3.0 D. Industry 4.0
Correct Answer: C

97. What is a major benefit of implementing Industry 4.0 in manufacturing?

A. Increased reliance on manual labor
B. Reduced equipment uptime
C. Predictive maintenance and lower downtime
D. Higher energy consumption
Correct Answer: C

98. Which of the following is a challenge in adopting Industry 4.0?

A. Simplified IT security requirements
B. High upfront costs and unclear ROI
C. Reduced need for employee training
D. Compatibility with legacy systems
Correct Answer: B

99. In Industry 4.0, what does a "digital twin" represent?

A. A physical backup of machinery
B. A virtual model of a real-world system
C. A type of robotic arm
D. A cloud storage solution
Correct Answer: B

100. Which layer of RAMI 4.0 focuses on business processes and models?
A. Asset Layer B. Functional Layer
C. Business Layer D. Integration Layer
Correct Answer: C

101. How does Industry 4.0 improve supply chain management?

A. By eliminating automation
B. By enabling real-time tracking and data sharing
C. By increasing manual documentation
D. By reducing the use of sensors
Correct Answer: B

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102. Which term refers to the seamless communication between machines in a smart
factory?
A. M2M (Machine-to-Machine) B. Human-to-Machine Interface
C. Analog Signal Processing D. Centralized Control Systems
Correct Answer: A

103. What is a critical requirement for IIoT compared to consumer IoT?

A. Lower reliability and shorter device lifecycles
B. Higher precision and tolerance for harsh environments
C. Reduced data security
D. Focus on entertainment applications
Correct Answer: B

104. Which Industry 4.0 technology allows customization in mass production?

A. Mechanical Levers
B. 3D Printing (Additive Manufacturing)
C. Paper-Based Blueprints
D. Manual Assembly Lines
Correct Answer: B

105. Which feature distinguishes Industry 4.0 from Industry 3.0?

A. Use of steam power
B. Autonomous decision-making by machines
C. Electrification of factories
D. Human-operated machinery
Correct Answer: B

106. What role does edge computing play in Industry 4.0?

A. Increases latency in data processing
B. Processes data locally near the source
C. Eliminates the need for cloud storage
D. Relies solely on centralized servers
Correct Answer: B

107. Which protocol is commonly used in IIoT for real-time machine communication?
A. HTTP B. OPC UA C. SMTP D. FTP
Correct Answer: B

108. A factory uses sensors to monitor machine health and schedules repairs before
failures occur. This is an example of:
A. Reactive Maintenance B. Predictive Maintenance
C. Preventive Maintenance D. Manual Maintenance
Correct Answer: B

109. Which Industry 4.0 component ensures machines adapt to production changes
autonomously?
A. Mechanical Timers B. Self-Optimizing Systems (CPS)
C. Paper Logs D. Analog Controllers
Correct Answer: B

110. What is a social challenge of Industry 4.0 implementation?

A. Reduced job opportunities for blue-collar workers
B. Increased use of renewable energy
C. Simplified regulatory compliance

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D. Faster production cycles
Correct Answer: A

111. Which term describes the vertical integration of production systems in Industry
4.0?
A. Linking shop-floor sensors to enterprise-level planning
B. Using only mechanical systems
C. Isolated machine operations
D. Manual data entry across departments
Correct Answer: A

112. In RAMI 4.0, which axis represents the hierarchy from product to connected
world?
A. Vertical Axis (Layers) B. Horizontal Axis (Lifecycle)
C. Diagonal Axis (Hierarchy Levels) D. Circular Axis (Feedback Loops)
Correct Answer: C

113. Which technology enables real-time data analysis in smart manufacturing?

A. Cloud Computing B. Typewriters
C. Mechanical Calculators D. Paper Charts
Correct Answer: A

114. What is a key feature of a "smart factory"?

A. Complete reliance on human operators
B. Decentralized decision-making by machines
C. Use of steam-powered tools
D. Manual quality inspections
Correct Answer: B

15. Which Industry 4.0 concept allows machines to learn from data and improve
processes?
A. Mechanical Automation B. Machine Learning (ML)
C. Analog Sensors D. Hydraulic Systems
Correct Answer: B

116. Which layer in RAMI 4.0 handles communication standardization?

A. Asset Layer B. Communication Layer
C. Business Layer D. Functional Layer
Correct Answer: B

117. What is a primary goal of Industry 4.0 in resource management?

A. Increase waste generation
B. Optimize energy and material usage
C. Reduce automation
D. Manual inventory tracking
Correct Answer: B

118. Which term refers to the horizontal integration of value chains in Industry 4.0?
A. Connecting suppliers, producers, and customers digitally
B. Isolating production stages
C. Using paper-based invoices
D. Manual supply chain coordination
Correct Answer: A

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119. Which Industry 4.0 technology helps visualize production processes for
operators?
A. Augmented Reality (AR) B. Steam Gauges
C. Mechanical Clocks D. Typewriters
Correct Answer: A

120. What is a critical cybersecurity concern in Industry 4.0?

A. Reduced network connectivity
B. Increased vulnerability due to interconnected devices
C. Manual data encryption
D. Elimination of firewalls
Correct Answer: B

Multiple-Choice Questions on Topic 4.5: Artificial Intelligence (AI)

121. What does AI stand for?

A. Automated Interaction B. Artificial Intelligence
C. Algorithmic Integration D. Advanced Interface
Correct Answer: B

122. Who defined Machine Learning as "the field of study that gives computers the
ability to learn without being explicitly programmed"?
A. Alan Turing B. Arthur Samuel
C. Marvin Minsky D. John McCarthy
Correct Answer: B

123. Which of the following is NOT a type of Machine Learning?

A. Supervised Learning B. Unsupervised Learning
C. Reinforcement Learning D. Analog Learning
Correct Answer: D

124. In supervised learning, the training data includes:

A. Only input features
B. Input features and corresponding output labels
C. Random noise
D. No data
Correct Answer: B

125. Which Machine Learning type is used for clustering unlabelled data?
A. Supervised Learning B. Unsupervised Learning
C. Reinforcement Learning D. Deep Learning
Correct Answer: B

126. What is the primary goal of Reinforcement Learning (RL)?

A. To classify data into predefined categories
B. To maximize cumulative rewards through trial and error
C. To reduce data dimensionality
D. To preprocess sensor data
Correct Answer: B

127. Deep Learning (DL) is a subset of:

A. Artificial Intelligence B. Machine Learning
C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
Correct Answer: C

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128. Which algorithm is commonly used in supervised learning for classification?
A. K-Means B. Q-Learning
C. Linear Regression D. Support Vector Machine (SVM)
Correct Answer: D

129. In AI, an "agent" is defined as:

A. A software program that interacts with its environment
B. A type of sensor
C. A cloud storage system
D. A mechanical actuator
Correct Answer: A

130. Which of the following is an example of a single-agent system?

A. Autonomous vacuum cleaner
B. Traffic control system with multiple sensors
C. Multi-robot warehouse coordination
D. Social media recommendation engine
Correct Answer: A

131. What distinguishes a Multi-Agent System (MAS) from a Single-Agent System?

A. Use of cloud computing
B. Multiple agents collaborating to solve problems
C. Higher data storage capacity
D. Faster processing speed
Correct Answer: B

132. Which AI application is used to detect fraudulent emails?

A. Spam Detection B. Autonomous Vehicles
C. Speech Recognition D. Medical Diagnosis
Correct Answer: A

133. Which technology enables self-driving cars to recognize traffic signs?

A. Computer Vision B. Blockchain
C. Analog Sensors D. Hydraulic Systems
Correct Answer: A

134. What is a key advantage of AI in industrial applications?

A. Increased manual labor costs
B. Reduced human errors in repetitive tasks
C. Slower decision-making
D. Higher energy consumption
Correct Answer: B

135. Which AI technique uses neural networks with multiple hidden layers?
A. Deep Learning B. Supervised Learning
C. Rule-Based Systems D. Fuzzy Logic
Correct Answer: A

136. In a healthcare scenario, AI is used to analyze X-ray images for tumors. This is
an example of:
A. Natural Language Processing B. Computer Vision
C. Reinforcement Learning D. Edge Computing
Correct Answer: B

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137. Which algorithm is used in Reinforcement Learning for decision-making?
A. K-Nearest Neighbors B. Q-Learning
C. Principal Component Analysis D. Apriori Algorithm
Correct Answer: B

138. What is the relationship between AI, ML, and DL?

A. DL ⊂ ML ⊂ AI B. AI ⊂ ML ⊂ DL
C. ML and DL are unrelated to AI D. DL and ML are entirely separate fields
Correct Answer: A

139. Which of the following is a limitation of AI?

A. High accuracy in data processing
B. Dependency on large datasets
C. Reduced computational power requirements
D. Elimination of human oversight
Correct Answer: B

140. Which AI application uses sensors and actuators to interact with the physical
world?
A. Robotics B. Text Mining
C. Cloud Storage D. Database Management
Correct Answer: A

141. In an AI system, what is the role of an actuator?

A. To collect environmental data
B. To perform physical actions based on decisions
C. To store historical data
D. To encrypt data transmissions
Correct Answer: B

142. Which AI technique is used for real-time language translation?

A. Natural Language Processing (NLP) B. Reinforcement Learning
C. Clustering D. Edge Computing
Correct Answer: A

143. A factory uses AI to predict machine failures. This is an example of:

A. Predictive Maintenance B. Supervised Learning
C. Analog Control D. Manual Inspection
Correct Answer: A

144. Which AI concept involves training a model on historical data to make future
predictions?
A. Supervised Learning B. Unsupervised Learning
C. Reinforcement Learning D. Deep Learning
Correct Answer: A

145. Which of the following is a challenge in implementing AI?

A. Reduced need for data
B. Ethical concerns about bias and privacy
C. Simplified algorithm design
D. Lower computational costs
Correct Answer: B

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146. Which AI application helps farmers optimize irrigation using soil moisture data?
A. Precision Agriculture B. Autonomous Tractors
C. Weather Forecasting D. Livestock Monitoring
Correct Answer: A

147. What is the purpose of a "digital twin" in AI?

A. To replace physical machines
B. To create a virtual replica for simulation and analysis
C. To store backup data
D. To encrypt communication protocols
Correct Answer: B

148. Which AI system component processes input from sensors and makes decisions?
A. Actuator B. Controller C. Power Supply D. Database
Correct Answer: B

149. In AI, which term refers to systems that improve performance over time without
explicit programming?
A. Machine Learning B. Analog Computing
C. Manual Coding . Static Algorithms
Correct Answer: A

150. Which AI technique is used in recommendation systems like Netflix?

A. Collaborative Filtering B. Reinforcement Learning
C. Edge Detection D. Hydraulic Actuation
Correct Answer: A

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Unit 5: Smart world

Topic 1: Introduction
1. Which protocol, developed in 1975, uses existing household wiring for home
automation?
A. ZigBee B. X10 C. Wi-Fi D. Bluetooth
Correct Answer: B. X10

2. What is a primary benefit of a smart home system?

A. Increased manual control of appliances
B. Reduced dependency on electricity
C. Enhanced security and energy efficiency
D. Elimination of internet connectivity
Correct Answer: C. Enhanced security and energy efficiency

3. In a smart home, appliances can be controlled remotely using:

A. Mechanical switches
B. Wireless protocols like Wi-Fi or ZigBee
C. Fossil fuel-based systems
D. Hydraulic circuits
Correct Answer: B. Wireless protocols like Wi-Fi or ZigBee

4. The X10 protocol identifies appliances using:

A. Color codes and symbols
B. House codes (A-P) and unit codes (1-16)
C. GPS coordinates
D. Voice recognition
Correct Answer: B. House codes (A-P) and unit codes (1-16)

5. Which component is NOT part of a smart home security system?

A. Motion detectors B. Smart door locks
C. Analog thermometers D. IP-based CCTV
Correct Answer: C. Analog thermometers

6. What feature allows smart lighting systems to adjust based on ambient light
conditions?
A. Motion sensors B. Photoelectric sensors
C. Thermal cameras D. Pressure plates
Correct Answer: B. Photoelectric sensors

7. Which historical advancement enabled appliances to control themselves using

sensors in the mid-20th century?
A. Steam engines B. Transistors
C. Hydraulic systems D. Vacuum tubes
Correct Answer: B. Transistors

8. A central controller in a smart home sends signals through:

A. Dedicated fiber-optic cables B. Ordinary household wiring
C. Pneumatic tubes D. Satellite links
Correct Answer: B. Ordinary household wiring

9. Which system allows real-time monitoring of a home via webcams while away?
A. X10 Protocol B. Wireless Internet System

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C. Mechanical timers D. Hydraulic actuators
Correct Answer: B. Wireless Internet System

10. Smart metering enables two-way communication between the meter and:
A. The user’s smartphone only B. The electricity supplier
C. Solar panels D. Hydropower plants
Correct Answer: B. The electricity supplier

11. Which feature is part of the X10 protocol’s security applications?

A. Randomly turning lights on/off to deter intruders
B. Manual door locking
C. Voice-controlled curtains
D. Solar-powered heaters
Correct Answer: A. Randomly turning lights on/off to deter intruders

12. The "SENSOMATE" feature in smart homes automates:

A. Garage door opening
B. Indoor lighting based on light intensity thresholds
C. Water purification
D. Airplane mode activation
Correct Answer: B. Indoor lighting based on light intensity thresholds

13. Which device is used to control multiple appliances in an X10 system?

A. Mechanical timer B. Wireless router
C. Hydraulic pump D. Analog thermostat
Correct Answer: B. Wireless router

14. Smart door control systems may include:

A. Video doorbells and remote locking B. Manual door hinges
C. Steam-powered actuators D. Paper-based logs
Correct Answer: A. Video doorbells and remote locking

15. Which technology is used in smart lighting systems for mesh networking?
A. ZigBee Light Link B. 5G Cellular
C. Fiber optics D. Satellite communication
Correct Answer: A. ZigBee Light Link

16. A key advantage of smart meters is:

A. Estimated billing for convenience
B. Real-time energy consumption tracking
C. Reduced internet usage
D. Manual data entry
Correct Answer: B. Real-time energy consumption tracking

17. The primary purpose of a central controller in a smart home is to:

A. Generate electricity B. Relay control signals to appliances
C. Replace manual switches D. Store food items
Correct Answer: B. Relay control signals to appliances

18. Which component is essential for wireless communication in smart homes?

A. Circuit breakers B. GSM modules
C. Hydraulic valves D. Steam turbines
Correct Answer: B. GSM modules

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 19. The term "Internet of Things" (IoT) in smart homes refers to:
A. Using physical wires for all connections
B. Interconnected devices communicating via the internet
C. Manual control of appliances
D. Solar energy management
Correct Answer: B. Interconnected devices communicating via the internet

20. Which sensor is used in smart waste management systems to detect fill levels?
A. Ultrasonic sensor B. Thermal sensor
C. Pressure sensor D. Gas sensor
Correct Answer: A. Ultrasonic sensor

21. The SLEEP MODE in a smart home system primarily:

A. Activates all lights
B. Deactivates security alarms
C. Switches off lights and monitors motion sensors
D. Increases energy consumption
Correct Answer: C. Switches off lights and monitors motion sensors

22. Which communication method is NOT used in smart metering?

A. Power Line Carrier (PLC) B. ZigBee
C. Smoke signals D. Cellular networks
Correct Answer: C. Smoke signals

23. A smart home’s HVAC system can be automated using:

A. Programmable thermostats B. Manual dials
C. Hydraulic pumps D. Steam engines
Correct Answer: A. Programmable thermostats

24. The primary function of a motion detector in a smart home is to:

A. Measure room temperature
B. Detect movement and trigger alarms
C. Control water flow
D. Generate electricity
Correct Answer: B. Detect movement and trigger alarms

25. Which feature ensures smart home apps are secure?

A. Open access without passwords
B. Password-protected authentication
C. Manual code entry
D. Voice recognition only
Correct Answer: B. Password-protected authentication

Topic 5.2: Basic Requirements and Components for a Smart Home.

1. Which component is used to automate door locking in a smart home?

A. Smart TV B. Smart Door Lock
C. Analog Thermostat D. Hydraulic Pump
Correct Answer: B. Smart Door Lock

2. Which device is essential for controlling appliances via a mobile app in a smart
home?
A. Mechanical Timer B. Wireless Router

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 C. Steam Engine D. Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: B. Wireless Router

3. What type of sensor is used to detect motion in a smart home security system?
A. Thermocouple B. PIR Sensor
C. Pressure Plate D. Gas Sensor
Correct Answer: B. PIR Sensor

4. Which protocol is commonly used for low-power smart lighting systems?

A. ZigBee Light Link B. 5G Cellular
C. Satellite Communication D. Fiber Optic
Correct Answer: A. ZigBee Light Link

5. What is the primary function of a smart meter?

A. Monitor water quality
B. Track energy consumption and communicate with suppliers
C. Control HVAC units
D. Activate fire alarms
Correct Answer: B. Track energy consumption and communicate with suppliers

Understand Level

6. How does a video monitoring system enhance home security?

A. By manually recording footage on DVDs
B. Using motion sensors to trigger recordings and pan cameras
C. Storing data in analog formats
D. Increasing manual surveillance
Correct Answer: B. Using motion sensors to trigger recordings and pan cameras

7. Why are photoelectric sensors used in smart lighting systems?

A. To detect sound waves
B. To measure ambient light and adjust brightness automatically
C. To monitor water levels
D. To generate electricity
Correct Answer: B. To measure ambient light and adjust brightness automatically

8. What is the role of a Raspberry Pi in a smart home setup?

A. Replace electrical wiring
B. Process sensor data and generate control signals
C. Act as a hydraulic valve
D. Store food items
Correct Answer: B. Process sensor data and generate control signals

9. How does a wireless router contribute to smart home automation?

A. By generating hydraulic power
B. Enabling communication between devices via Wi-Fi or Bluetooth
C. Manually switching appliances
D. Measuring air pressure
Correct Answer: B. Enabling communication between devices via Wi-Fi or Bluetooth

10. What distinguishes monitored alarm systems from unmonitored ones?

A. Monitored systems notify a call center for emergency dispatch
B. Unmonitored systems use satellite links
C. Monitored systems require manual reset

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 D. Unmonitored systems lack sirens
Correct Answer: A. Monitored systems notify a call center for emergency dispatch

Apply Level

11. A user wants to reduce energy bills by automating HVAC usage. Which component
should they install?
A. Programmable Thermostat
B. Analog Clock
C. Manual Doorbell
D. Steam Turbine
Correct Answer: A. Programmable Thermostat

12. Which system would best prevent unauthorized entry through doors?
A. Smart Lighting B. Video Doorbell with Remote Locking
C. Analog Thermometer D. Hydraulic Actuator
Correct Answer: B. Video Doorbell with Remote Locking

13. To automate outdoor lighting based on motion detection, which components are
needed?
A. PIR Sensor + Smart Bulbs
B. Gas Sensor + Manual Switch
C. Thermal Camera + Solar Panel
D. Pressure Plate + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. PIR Sensor + Smart Bulbs

14. Which setup ensures real-time monitoring of a home’s security while the user is
away?
A. IP-based CCTV + Cloud Storage
B. Analog Alarm Clock
C. Manual Door Locks
D. Hydraulic Valves
Correct Answer: A. IP-based CCTV + Cloud Storage

15. A homeowner wants to detect LPG leaks automatically. Which device is essential?
A. Gas Detection Sensor B. Smart TV
C. Analog Pressure Gauge D. Solar Inverter
Correct Answer: A. Gas Detection Sensor

16. Which combination ensures automated control of appliances via voice commands?
A. Smart Switches + Amazon Echo
B. Mechanical Timer + Hydraulic Pump
C. Circuit Breaker + Steam Engine
D. Analog Thermostat + Manual Switch
Correct Answer: A. Smart Switches + Amazon Echo

17. To optimize energy usage, which system provides real-time electricity consumption
data?
A. Smart Meter B. Analog Clock
C. Manual Door Lock D. Hydraulic Actuator
Correct Answer: A. Smart Meter

18. Which component ensures two-way communication in a smart metering system?

A. GSM Module B. Steam Turbine

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 C. Manual Switch D. Analog Dial
Correct Answer: A. GSM Module

19. A user wants to automate window blinds based on sunlight intensity. Which sensor is
required?
A. Light Intensity Sensor B. Pressure Sensor
C. Gas Sensor D. Thermal Camera
Correct Answer: A. Light Intensity Sensor

20. Which system would alert homeowners about a water leak in the basement?
A. Flood Sensor + Central Controller
B. Analog Thermometer
C. Manual Alarm Bell
D. Solar Panel
Correct Answer: A. Flood Sensor + Central Controller
Advanced Application

21. In a smart lighting mesh network, how do devices communicate?

A. Each bulb connects to its nearest neighbor for extended range
B. Using hydraulic signals
C. Via manual switches
D. Through satellite links
Correct Answer: A. Each bulb connects to its nearest neighbor for extended range

22. What is the purpose of "SENSOMATE" in a smart home?

A. Automate appliances based on temperature/light thresholds
B. Generate hydraulic power
C. Control manual door locks
D. Monitor satellite signals
Correct Answer: A. Automate appliances based on temperature/light thresholds

23. Which device would help an elderly person control lights without physical switches?
A. Wireless Pendant B. Analog Clock
C. Circuit Breaker D. Steam Engine
Correct Answer: A. Wireless Pendant

24. To integrate smart appliances with IFTTT (If This Then That), what is required?
A. Compatible devices with automation rules
B. Hydraulic Valves
C. Manual Timers
D. Analog Sensors
Correct Answer: A. Compatible devices with automation rules

25. Which component ensures secure communication in a smart home app?

A. Open Access Network
B. Password-Protected Authentication
C. Manual Code Entry
D. Hydraulic Encryption
Correct Answer: B. Password-Protected Authentication

26. How does a smart thermostat contribute to energy efficiency?

A. By adjusting HVAC settings based on occupancy and schedules
B. Manually increasing heating
C. Using hydraulic pumps

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 D. Generating solar power
Correct Answer: A. By adjusting HVAC settings based on occupancy and schedules

27. Which system would allow remote control of a garage door via a smartphone?
A. Smart Garage Door Opener + Mobile App
B. Manual Lock + Key
C. Hydraulic Actuator
D. Analog Dial
Correct Answer: A. Smart Garage Door Opener + Mobile App

28. What is a critical requirement for a video doorbell system?

A. Motion Detection + Real-Time Alerts
B. Manual Recording on DVDs
C. Hydraulic Power Supply
D. Analog Signal Transmission
Correct Answer: A. Motion Detection + Real-Time Alerts

29. Which component is responsible for converting sensor data into control signals?
A. Microcontroller (e.g., Arduino) B. Circuit Breaker
C. Steam Turbine D. Analog Clock
Correct Answer: A. Microcontroller (e.g., Arduino)

30. To ensure interoperability between smart lighting systems from different brands,
which protocol is used?
A. ZigBee Light Link B. Hydraulic Signals
C. Manual Switches D. Satellite Communication
Correct Answer: A. ZigBee Light Link

26. What is the primary purpose of a microcontroller in a smart home system?

A. To generate electricity
B. To process sensor data and control appliances
C. To store video footage
D. To increase hydraulic pressure
Correct Answer: B. To process sensor data and control appliances

27. Which component allows smart lights to form a mesh network?

A. ZigBee Light Link B. GSM Module
C. Hydraulic Valve D. Analog Switch
Correct Answer: A. ZigBee Light Link

28. In a smart metering system, which device facilitates two-way communication with the
utility provider?
A. Thermal Sensor B. GSM Modem
C. Circuit Breaker D. Manual Dial
Correct Answer: B. GSM Modem

29. Which system would automatically close windows during rain?

A. Smart Door Lock
B. Window Blinds Control with moisture sensors
C. Analog Thermometer
D. Hydraulic Pump
Correct Answer: B. Window Blinds Control with moisture sensors

30. What is the role of a PIR sensor in a smart door control system?

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 A. Detect motion near the entrance
B. Measure temperature
C. Monitor energy consumption
D. Control lighting brightness
Correct Answer: A. Detect motion near the entrance
Remember Level

26. Which component is used to automate window blinds based on sunlight intensity?
A. Smart Door Lock B. Light Intensity Sensor
C. Hydraulic Valve D. Analog Clock
Correct Answer: B. Light Intensity Sensor

27. What protocol is used for low-power communication in smart lighting systems?
A. 5G B. ZigBee Light Link
C. Satellite Link D. Steam Signaling
Correct Answer: B. ZigBee Light Link

28. Which device is essential for two-way communication in a smart meter?

A. GSM Modem B. Manual Switch
C. Circuit Breaker D. Hydraulic Actuator
Correct Answer: A. GSM Modem

29. What is the primary function of a PIR sensor in a smart home?

A. Detect motion B. Measure humidity
C. Track energy usage D. Control water flow
Correct Answer: A. Detect motion

30. Which system uses ultrasonic sensors to monitor waste levels?

A. Smart Lighting B. Smart Waste Management
C. HVAC Control D. Analog Alarm
Correct Answer: B. Smart Waste Management
Understand Level

31. How does a microcontroller contribute to a smart home system?

A. Generates hydraulic power
B. Processes sensor data and controls appliances
C. Stores food items
D. Increases manual operations
Correct Answer: B. Processes sensor data and controls appliances

32. Why are mesh networks used in smart lighting systems?

A. To reduce wiring complexity and extend coverage
B. To generate electricity
C. To increase water pressure
D. To replace manual switches
Correct Answer: A. To reduce wiring complexity and extend coverage

33. What role does a GSM modem play in smart metering?

A. Transmits consumption data to utility providers
B. Controls HVAC units
C. Measures room temperature
D. Activates manual alarms
Correct Answer: A. Transmits consumption data to utility providers

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34. How does a moisture sensor enhance window blind automation?
A. Detects rain and triggers window closure
B. Measures light intensity
C. Monitors energy usage
D. Controls door locks
Correct Answer: A. Detects rain and triggers window closure

35. What is the purpose of a thermal camera in smart security?

A. Detect intruders via heat signatures
B. Monitor energy consumption
C. Control lighting brightness
D. Measure air pressure
Correct Answer: A. Detect intruders via heat signatures

Apply Level

36. A user wants to automate HVAC based on occupancy. Which setup is needed?
A. PIR Sensor + Programmable Thermostat
B. Gas Sensor + Manual Switch
C. Hydraulic Pump + Solar Panel
D. Analog Clock + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. PIR Sensor + Programmable Thermostat

37. Which system would alert homeowners about an open garage door?
A. Smart Garage Door Opener + Mobile App
B. Manual Lock + Key
C. Steam Turbine
D. Analog Dial
Correct Answer: A. Smart Garage Door Opener + Mobile App

38. To automate outdoor lighting during nighttime, which components are required?
A. Photoelectric Sensor + Smart Bulbs
B. Gas Sensor + Hydraulic Valve
C. Thermal Camera + Solar Panel
D. Manual Switch + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. Photoelectric Sensor + Smart Bulbs

39. Which combination ensures remote monitoring of elderly residents?

A. Wireless Pendant + Central Controller
B. Analog Clock + Manual Switch
C. Hydraulic Pump + Steam Engine
D. Circuit Breaker + Solar Panel
Correct Answer: A. Wireless Pendant + Central Controller

40. To detect a gas leak and shut off appliances automatically, which devices are needed?
A. Gas Detection Sensor + Smart Controller
B. Analog Thermometer + Manual Valve
C. Hydraulic Actuator + Solar Inverter
D. Pressure Plate + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. Gas Detection Sensor + Smart Controller

41. Which system allows voice-controlled operation of smart lights?

A. ZigBee Bulbs + Amazon Echo
B. Manual Switch + Hydraulic Pump

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 C. Analog Dial + Circuit Breaker
D. Steam Valve + Solar Panel
Correct Answer: A. ZigBee Bulbs + Amazon Echo

42. What ensures interoperability between smart devices from different brands?
A. Standardized protocols (e.g., ZigBee)
B. Hydraulic Signals
C. Manual Overrides
D. Analog Sensors
Correct Answer: A. Standardized protocols (e.g., ZigBee)

43. Which component prevents unauthorized access to smart home apps?

A. Open Network B. Password Protection
C. Manual Code Entry D. Hydraulic Encryption
Correct Answer: B. Password Protection

44. How does a smart thermostat reduce energy costs?

A. Adjusts temperature based on schedules and occupancy
B. Increases manual control
C. Uses hydraulic power
D. Generates solar energy
Correct Answer: A. Adjusts temperature based on schedules and occupancy

45. Which device helps seniors control appliances without physical effort?
A. Wireless Pendant B. Analog Clock
C. Hydraulic Valve D. Steam Engine
Correct Answer: A. Wireless Pendant

Advanced Application

46. What is the function of an ultrasonic sensor in smart waste management?

A. Measure fill level in bins B. Detect motion in rooms
C. Monitor energy consumption D. Control door locks
Correct Answer: A. Measure fill level in bins

47. Which system integrates weather data to optimize home heating?

A. Smart Thermostat + IoT Connectivity
B. Manual Dial + Hydraulic Pump
C. Analog Clock + Circuit Breaker
D. Solar Panel + Steam Engine
Correct Answer: A. Smart Thermostat + IoT Connectivity

48. How do IP-based CCTV systems enhance security?

A. Provide real-time remote monitoring via the internet
B. Use manual recording on tapes
C. Generate hydraulic power
D. Control lighting brightness
Correct Answer: A. Provide real-time remote monitoring via the internet

49. Which component converts sensor signals into actionable commands?

A. Microcontroller (e.g., Arduino)
B. Circuit Breaker
C. Hydraulic Valve

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 D. Analog Clock
Correct Answer: A. Microcontroller (e.g., Arduino)

50. What is critical for ensuring secure communication in smart home networks?
A. Open Access Points
B. Encrypted Data Transmission
C. Manual Switches
D. Hydraulic Signals
Correct Answer: B. Encrypted Data Transmission

51. Which system uses motion detection to trigger alarms and recordings?
A. Security Camera + PIR Sensor
B. Analog Thermometer + Manual Switch
C. Hydraulic Pump + Solar Panel
D. Steam Valve + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. Security Camera + PIR Sensor

52. To automate garden watering based on soil moisture, which devices are required?
A. Moisture Sensor + Smart Irrigation Controller
B. Gas Sensor + Hydraulic Valve
C. Thermal Camera + Solar Panel
D. Manual Dial + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. Moisture Sensor + Smart Irrigation Controller

53. Which feature allows smart lights to adjust brightness dynamically?

A. Ambient Light Sensing B. Manual Dimmer Switch
C. Hydraulic Control D. Steam Pressure
Correct Answer: A. Ambient Light Sensing

54. What ensures minimal downtime in smart waste collection?

A. Real-Time Fill Level Monitoring
B. Manual Bin Checks
C. Hydraulic Compactors
D. Analog Sensors
Correct Answer: A. Real-Time Fill Level Monitoring

55. Which device enables remote locking/unlocking of doors via a smartphone?

A. Smart Door Lock + Mobile App
B. Manual Key + Circuit Breaker
C. Hydraulic Actuator
D. Analog Dial
Correct Answer: A. Smart Door Lock + Mobile App
Multiple-Choice Questions on Topic 5.3 (Smart City)
Questions 56 to 85

Remember Level

56. Which technology is central to data collection in smart cities?

A. Steam Engines B. IoT Sensors
C. Analog Clocks D. Hydraulic Pumps
Correct Answer: B. IoT Sensors

57. What is the primary purpose of smart waste management systems?

A. Increase landfill usage

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 B. Optimize garbage collection routes
C. Manual waste sorting
D. Generate electricity
Correct Answer: B. Optimize garbage collection routes

58. Which protocol is used for low-power, long-range communication in smart cities?
A. LoRa B. 5G C. Fiber Optics D. Hydraulic Signals
Correct Answer: A. LoRa

59. Which city implemented real-time transportation data for commuters?

A. Mumbai B. Singapore C. Tokyo D. Paris
Correct Answer: B. Singapore

60. What does "MaaS" stand for in smart transportation?

A. Manual-as-a-Service B. Mobility-as-a-Service
C. Metering-as-a-Service D. Maintenance-as-a-Service
Correct Answer: B. Mobility-as-a-Service

Understand Level

61. How do ultrasonic sensors improve smart waste management?

A. By detecting gas leaks
B. By measuring fill levels in bins
C. By controlling traffic signals
D. By generating solar power
Correct Answer: B. By measuring fill levels in bins

62. Why is IoT critical for smart healthcare?

A. It replaces doctors with robots
B. It enables real-time patient monitoring and data analysis
C. It generates hydraulic power for hospitals
D. It manually records patient data
Correct Answer: B. It enables real-time patient monitoring and data analysis

63. What distinguishes a smart city’s traffic management from traditional systems?
A. Use of horse carriages
B. Real-time data integration and automated signals
C. Manual toll collection
D. Hydraulic road barriers
Correct Answer: B. Real-time data integration and automated signals

64. How does smart education enhance learning?

A. By eliminating textbooks
B. Using interactive displays and AR/VR tools
C. Manual grading systems
D. Steam-powered projectors
Correct Answer: B. Using interactive displays and AR/VR tools

65. What is the role of ZigBee in smart city infrastructure?

A. Long-range satellite communication
B. Low-power, short-range device connectivity
C. Generating hydraulic signals
D. Manual data entry
Correct Answer: B. Low-power, short-range device connectivity

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 Apply Level

66. To reduce traffic congestion, which smart city solution is most effective?
A. Manual traffic policing
B. Real-time traffic signal optimization + public transport integration
C. Hydraulic road expansions
D. Analog speedometers
Correct Answer: B. Real-time traffic signal optimization + public transport integration

67. Which system would alert authorities about a fire in a smart city building?
A. Monitored smoke detectors + central alert system
B. Manual fire extinguishers
C. Hydraulic sprinklers
D. Analog thermometers
Correct Answer: A. Monitored smoke detectors + central alert system

68. A city wants to reduce energy costs in street lighting. Which setup should it adopt?
A. Manual switches + incandescent bulbs
B. Smart LED lights + motion sensors
C. Hydraulic actuators + solar panels
D. Analog timers
Correct Answer: B. Smart LED lights + motion sensors

69. How can smart meters help households lower electricity bills?
A. By increasing energy consumption
B. Providing real-time usage data to encourage conservation
C. Manual meter reading
D. Generating steam power
Correct Answer: B. Providing real-time usage data to encourage conservation

70. Which combination ensures efficient emergency response in a smart city?

A. IoT-enabled ambulances + traffic prioritization
B. Manual dispatch systems + analog radios
C. Hydraulic sirens + steam engines
D. Solar panels + circuit breakers
Correct Answer: A. IoT-enabled ambulances + traffic prioritization

71. To monitor air quality in real-time, which devices are essential?

A. Gas sensors + cloud-based analytics
B. Manual air samplers + lab testing
C. Hydraulic compressors
D. Analog barometers
Correct Answer: A. Gas sensors + cloud-based analytics

72. Which technology is best for tracking public transport arrival times?
A. GPS + mobile apps B. Manual timetables
C. Hydraulic gauges D. Steam-powered clocks
Correct Answer: A. GPS + mobile apps

73. How does smart parking improve urban mobility?

A. By increasing parking fees
B. Guiding drivers to available slots via real-time data
C. Manual parking attendants

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 D. Hydraulic car lifts
Correct Answer: B. Guiding drivers to available slots via real-time data

74. What ensures water supply sustainability in a smart city?

A. Manual valve controls
B. Smart meters + leak detection sensors
C. Hydraulic dams
D. Analog pressure gauges
Correct Answer: B. Smart meters + leak detection sensors

75. Which system prevents flooding in smart city basements?

A. Flood sensors + automated pumps
B. Manual bucket removal
C. Hydraulic turbines
D. Solar-powered heaters
Correct Answer: A. Flood sensors + automated pumps

Advanced Application

76. How can AR/VR transform smart education?

A. By replacing teachers with holograms
B. Offering immersive learning experiences (e.g., virtual labs)
C. Manual textbook digitization
D. Hydraulic classroom desks
Correct Answer: B. Offering immersive learning experiences (e.g., virtual labs)

77. Which setup reduces CO₂ emissions in smart transportation?

A. Diesel buses + manual routes
B. Electric vehicles + optimized charging stations
C. Steam engines + coal power
D. Analog speed controllers
Correct Answer: B. Electric vehicles + optimized charging stations

78. What is critical for integrating data from multiple smart city systems?
A. Centralized cloud platform B. Manual data entry clerks
C. Hydraulic data pipelines D. Solar-powered servers
Correct Answer: A. Centralized cloud platform

79. How do smart grids enhance energy distribution?

A. By increasing manual oversight
B. Balancing supply-demand using real-time data
C. Hydraulic power storage
D. Analog voltage regulators
Correct Answer: B. Balancing supply-demand using real-time data

80. Which system detects unauthorized access to ATMs in a smart city?

A. IP-based CCTV + motion sensors
B. Manual security guards
C. Hydraulic door locks
D. Steam-powered alarms
Correct Answer: A. IP-based CCTV + motion sensors

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81. To ensure citizen participation in governance, which tool is used?
A. E-governance portals + mobile apps
B. Manual voting booths
C. Hydraulic ballot systems
D. Solar-powered megaphones
Correct Answer: A. E-governance portals + mobile apps

82. Which technology helps visually impaired citizens navigate smart cities?
A. Smart canes with IoT sensors B. Manual braille maps
C. Hydraulic wheelchairs D. Analog compasses
Correct Answer: A. Smart canes with IoT sensors

83. What ensures reliable communication in disaster-prone areas?

A. Satellite-based IoT networks B. Manual Morse code
C. Hydraulic signal towers D. Steam-powered radios
Correct Answer: A. Satellite-based IoT networks

84. How can smart agriculture be integrated into urban areas?

A. Vertical farming + soil moisture sensors
B. Manual plowing
C. Hydraulic irrigation
D. Solar-powered tractors
Correct Answer: A. Vertical farming + soil moisture sensors

85. Which feature is essential for a smart city’s public safety during festivals?
A. Crowd density sensors + real-time alerts
B. Manual headcounts
C. Hydraulic barricades
D. Analog loudspeakers
Correct Answer: A. Crowd density sensors + real-time alerts

Multiple-Choice Questions on Smart City (Topic 5.3)

Remembering Level

56. What is the primary goal of a smart city?

a) Increase urbanization
b) Enhance quality of life using technology
c) Promote only industrial growth
d) Limit population growth
Answer: b) Enhance quality of life using technology

57. Which of the following is NOT a key component of a smart city?

a) Smart transportation b) Smart governance
c) Smart agriculture d) Smart education
Answer: c) Smart agriculture

58. What type of network is commonly used for communication in smart cities?
a) LAN b) MAN
c) IoT-based networks d) Dial-up networks
Answer: c) IoT-based networks

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59. Which of the following is an essential feature of smart cities?
a) Manual traffic control b) Efficient waste management
c) Traditional energy sources d) Isolated data systems
Answer: b) Efficient waste management

60. Smart cities primarily rely on which of the following for decision-making?
a) Intuition b) Big Data and AI
c) Random surveys d) Newspaper reports
Answer: b) Big Data and AI

Understanding Level

61. How does smart lighting contribute to a smart city?

a) Reduces energy consumption b) Increases manual work
c) Works only during daytime d) Increases pollution
Answer: a) Reduces energy consumption

62. What is the role of IoT in smart cities?

a) Decreases connectivity
b) Enhances automation and data exchange
c) Increases manual labor
d) Reduces digital infrastructure
Answer: b) Enhances automation and data exchange

63. Which technology is essential for smart waste management?

a) Artificial Intelligence b) Optical fiber communication
c) Manual data entry d) Morse code signals
Answer: a) Artificial Intelligence

64. Smart traffic management helps in:

a) Increasing traffic congestion b) Efficient vehicle movement
c) Blocking roads for pedestrians d) Increasing fuel wastage
Answer: b) Efficient vehicle movement

65. Which feature of smart cities supports environmental sustainability?

a) Increased industrialization b) Use of renewable energy sources
c) Unregulated waste disposal d) Increased use of fossil fuels
Answer: b) Use of renewable energy sources

Applying Level

66. A smart city uses sensors to monitor air quality. What benefit does this provide?
a) Encourages pollution b) Helps in reducing health risks
c) Reduces internet speed d) Increases manual monitoring
Answer: b) Helps in reducing health risks

67. If a city wants to improve its transportation system using smart technologies, which of
the following would be the best solution?
a) Installing traffic cameras for real-time monitoring
b) Using paper maps for navigation
c) Increasing the number of manual signals
d) Reducing public transport facilities
Answer: a) Installing traffic cameras for real-time monitoring

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68. A city introduces an automated water management system. What problem does this
solve?
a) Increases water wastage b) Reduces manual errors in water supply
c) Decreases the efficiency of water usage d) Stops water supply
Answer: b) Reduces manual errors in water supply

69. How can AI-powered chatbots help in smart governance?

a) Provide 24/7 assistance to citizens
b) Reduce access to information
c) Increase paperwork
d) Make governance slower
Answer: a) Provide 24/7 assistance to citizens

70. Why should smart cities use cloud computing?

a) To store and analyze large amounts of data
b) To increase manual data entry
c) To limit access to services
d) To eliminate digital security

Answer: a) To store and analyze large amounts of data

Mixed-Level Questions

71. A smart city implements solar-powered streetlights. What is the main benefit?
a) Increased electricity bills
b) Reducing energy costs and carbon footprint
c) Decreased safety
d) Increased dependence on fossil fuels

Answer: b) Reducing energy costs and carbon footprint

72. Which of the following can be used for effective smart parking solutions?
a) RFID and IoT sensors b) Loudspeakers
c) Paper-based tickets d) Human guards only
Answer: a) RFID and IoT sensors

73. What is a major challenge faced by smart cities?

a) High-speed connectivity b) Cybersecurity threats
c) Low population d) Reduced automation
Answer: b) Cybersecurity threats

74. How does smart water metering help urban areas?

a) Increases water wastage b) Ensures proper billing and conservation
c) Removes digital control d) Increases human intervention
Answer: b) Ensures proper billing and conservation

75. What is the function of a smart grid in smart cities?

a) Reducing power efficiency b) Managing energy distribution efficiently
c) Increasing power wastage d) Eliminating digital automation
Answer: b) Managing energy distribution efficiently

76. In smart healthcare, IoT-enabled devices help in:

a) Remote patient monitoring b) Reducing healthcare access

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c) Eliminating digital records d) Increasing hospital visits
Answer: a) Remote patient monitoring

77. What type of network is commonly used for smart city connectivity?
a) 5G and LPWAN b) Telegraph lines
c) Morse code transmission d) Dial-up connections
Answer: a) 5G and LPWAN

78. How do smart surveillance systems improve safety?

a) By providing real-time video monitoring
b) By limiting visibility
c) By increasing crime rates
d) By reducing internet connectivity
Answer: a) By providing real-time video monitoring

79. What is a smart city's primary approach to managing traffic congestion?

a) Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS)
b) Increasing private vehicles
c) Reducing public transport
d) Manual traffic handling
Answer: a) Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS)

80. Which of the following can enhance smart waste collection?

a) IoT-enabled smart bins b) Manual waste sorting
c) Delayed garbage collection d) Unregulated waste disposal
Answer: a) IoT-enabled smart bins

81. How do smart sensors contribute to public safety?

a) Detect potential hazards and send alerts
b) Increase security risks
c) Reduce data transmission
d) Eliminate surveillance
Answer: a) Detect potential hazards and send alerts

82. Which government initiative supports smart city development in India?

a) Make in India b) Smart Cities Mission
c) Rural Housing Mission d) Digital India
Answer: b) Smart Cities Mission

83. What technology can improve energy efficiency in buildings?

a) Smart HVAC systems b) Increased manual lighting
c) Paper-based controls d) Non-renewable energy sources
Answer: a) Smart HVAC systems

84. A smart city introduces a digital payment system for public services. What is the main
advantage?
a) Faster transactions and better transparency
b) Increased paperwork
c) Less security in transactions
d) Reduced service efficiency
Answer: a) Faster transactions and better transparency

85. Why is data analytics important in smart city development?

a) Helps in better decision-making b) Reduces urban planning efficiency

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c) Increases data redundancy d) Slows down city operations
Answer: a) Helps in better decision-making
Multiple-Choice Questions on IoT/M2M Network Architecture (Topic 5.4)

Remembering Level

86. What does M2M stand for in the context of IoT?

a) Machine to Mobile b) Machine to Machine
c) Mobile to Mobile d) Manual to Machine
Answer: b) Machine to Machine

87. What is the primary function of IoT in network architecture?

a) Enhancing human-to-human communication
b) Enabling devices to communicate and exchange data
c) Increasing manual operations
d) Reducing the need for sensors
Answer: b) Enabling devices to communicate and exchange data

88. Which of the following is NOT a layer in IoT architecture?

a) Perception layer b) Transport layer
c) Application layer d) Manual layer
Answer: d) Manual layer

89. What role does the perception layer play in IoT architecture?
a) It processes user requests
b) It gathers data from sensors and devices
c) It ensures data security
d) It connects IoT devices to the internet
Answer: b) It gathers data from sensors and devices

90. The transport layer in IoT is responsible for:

a) Processing raw sensor data
b) Transmitting data between devices and servers
c) Providing graphical user interfaces
d) Storing data on physical servers
Answer: b) Transmitting data between devices and servers

91. The application layer in IoT is mainly used for:

a) User interaction and service delivery
b) Data encryption
c) Wireless communication
d) Sensor data collection
Answer: a) User interaction and service delivery

92. Which protocol is commonly used for IoT device communication?

a) HTTP b) MQTT c) POP3 d) FTP
Answer: b) MQTT

93. What type of network is commonly used in IoT applications?

a) 3G only b) LPWAN and 5G
c) Dial-up networks d) Satellite TV networks
Answer: b) LPWAN and 5G

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94. Which of the following is an M2M communication technology?
a) Zigbee b) VHS Radio
c) Landline telephone d) Morse Code
Answer: a) Zigbee

95. IoT devices typically use which type of IP addressing?

a) IPv4 only b) IPv6
c) MAC addresses only d) Random binary codes
Answer: b) IPv6

Understanding Level

96. How does M2M communication differ from IoT?

a) IoT requires human intervention, M2M does not
b) M2M focuses only on wireless communication
c) IoT is only used in industrial applications
d) M2M does not support data transfer
Answer: a) IoT requires human intervention, M2M does not

97. Which technology is best suited for IoT device connectivity?

a) Fiber Optics b) LPWAN
c) AM Radio d) VHS signals
Answer: b) LPWAN

98. What is the key feature of MQTT that makes it suitable for IoT?
a) High bandwidth usage
b) Low power consumption and lightweight protocol
c) Complex infrastructure requirement
d) Works only on wired networks
Answer: b) Low power consumption and lightweight protocol

99. In the IoT architecture, where is raw data processed before sending it to the cloud?
a) Perception Layer b) Edge Layer
c) Application Layer d) Sensor Layer
Answer: b) Edge Layer

100. Which of these is a major security concern in IoT networks?

a) Increased battery life
b) Data privacy and unauthorized access
c) Faster internet speeds
d) Lower costs of implementation
Answer: b) Data privacy and unauthorized access

101. What is the main benefit of using Edge Computing in IoT?

a) Reduces latency and data transmission load
b) Increases the number of required servers
c) Slows down processing speed
d) Reduces device compatibility
Answer: a) Reduces latency and data transmission load

102. What is the function of gateways in IoT networks?

a) Store all IoT data permanently
b) Connect IoT devices with cloud services
c) Replace sensors in IoT devices

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d) Prevent communication between devices
Answer: b) Connect IoT devices with cloud services

Applying Level

103. A smart home system uses IoT to control lights and security. Which layer is
responsible for sending user commands to devices?
a) Perception Layer b) Transport Layer
c) Application Layer d) Sensor Layer
Answer: c) Application Layer

104. If a city wants to implement IoT-based traffic monitoring, which technology is best
suited for real-time data transfer?
a) LoRaWAN b) 5G c) DSL d) Morse code
Answer: b) 5G
105. Which IoT component is crucial for monitoring air pollution levels in a smart city?
a) Sensors b) Cloud storage
c) User interface d) Manual controllers
Answer: a) Sensors
106. A company is setting up an IoT-based warehouse management system. Which network
architecture would best support real-time inventory tracking?
a) Edge Computing with RFID sensors
b) Manual barcode scanning
c) Fixed-line telephones
d) Dial-up modems
Answer: a) Edge Computing with RFID sensors
107. In an industrial IoT system, which protocol is best for machine-to-machine (M2M)
communication?
a) MQTT b) POP3 c) SMTP d) HTTP
Answer: a) MQTT

108. Which IoT layer is responsible for analyzing data and generating useful insights?
a) Application Layer b) Perception Layer
c) Transport Layer d) Sensor Layer
Answer: a) Application Layer

109. Why is IPv6 important in IoT network architecture?

a) Supports a larger number of connected devices
b) Reduces power consumption of devices
c) Eliminates the need for encryption
d) Limits device connectivity
Answer: a) Supports a larger number of connected devices

110. In a smart agriculture system, what role do IoT sensors play?

a) Monitor soil moisture and climate conditions
b) Store harvested crops
c) Increase pesticide use
d) Manually water the plants
Answer: a) Monitor soil moisture and climate conditions

Remember Level

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86. What does "M2M" stand for in IoT/M2M architecture?
A. Motor-to-Machine B. Machine-to-Machine
C. Manual-to-Motor D. Mobile-to-Machine
Correct Answer: B. Machine-to-Machine

87. Which domain in M2M architecture is responsible for data collection from sensors?
A. Application Domain B. Network Domain
C. M2M Device Domain D. Security Domain
Correct Answer: C. M2M Device Domain

88. What type of network connects all M2M devices as peers without a central server?
A. Client-Server Network B. Fully Distributed Network
C. Cooperative Network D. Hydraulic Network
Correct Answer: B. Fully Distributed Network

89. Which protocol is commonly used for low-power, short-range M2M communication?
A. ZigBee B. 5G
C. Satellite Link D. Steam Signaling
Correct Answer: A. ZigBee

90. What is the primary role of a gateway in M2M architecture?

A. Generate electricity
B. Route data between subnets and the central network
C. Store food items
D. Replace manual switches
Correct Answer: B. Route data between subnets and the central network

Understand Level

91. How does the M2M Application Domain process collected data?
A. Uses middleware to translate raw data into actionable insights
B. Generates hydraulic signals
C. Manually resets sensors
D. Stores data in analog format
Correct Answer: A. Uses middleware to translate raw data into actionable insights

92. What distinguishes IoT from traditional M2M systems?

A. IoT relies on manual data entry
B. IoT integrates internet connectivity and cloud computing
C. M2M uses hydraulic networks
D. IoT excludes wireless communication
Correct Answer: B. IoT integrates internet connectivity and cloud computing

93. Why are subnets used in M2M networks?

A. To isolate devices from each other
B. To group devices for efficient data routing
C. To increase manual oversight
D. To generate solar power
Correct Answer: B. To group devices for efficient data routing

94. Which component is essential for enabling cellular communication in M2M?

A. GSM Module B. Hydraulic Valve
C. Analog Clock D. Steam Turbine
Correct Answer: A. GSM Module

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95. What is the purpose of "time-controlled" data transmission in M2M?
A. Send/receive data only at predefined intervals
B. Continuously flood the network
C. Manually reset devices
D. Generate random signals
Correct Answer: A. Send/receive data only at predefined intervals

Apply Level

96. In a factory automation system, which subnet type would allow machines to
communicate directly?
A. Client-Server Network B. Fully Distributed Network
C. Cooperative Network D. Hydraulic Network
Correct Answer: B. Fully Distributed Network

97. A farmer wants to monitor soil moisture remotely. Which M2M setup is optimal?
A. Moisture Sensor + GSM Module + Cloud Platform
B. Manual Sampling + Analog Gauge
C. Hydraulic Pump + Solar Panel
D. Steam Engine + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. Moisture Sensor + GSM Module + Cloud Platform

98. Which protocol is best for long-range, low-power communication in rural areas?
A. LoRa B. ZigBee C. Wi-Fi D. Fiber Optics
Correct Answer: A. LoRa

99. To ensure secure data transmission in M2M, which feature is critical?

A. Open Access Points B. Encrypted Communication
C. Manual Switches D. Hydraulic Signals
Correct Answer: B. Encrypted Communication

100. Which component converts raw sensor data into network-compatible signals?
A. Actuator B. Gateway
C. Circuit Breaker D. Steam Valve
Correct Answer: B. Gateway

Advanced Application

101. In a smart grid, how does M2M architecture balance energy demand?
A. Uses real-time data from meters to adjust supply
B. Manual adjustments by operators
C. Hydraulic pressure regulation
D. Solar panel activation
Correct Answer: A. Uses real-time data from meters to adjust supply

102. A logistics company needs real-time tracking of shipments. Which devices are
essential?
A. GPS Tracker + Cellular Module
B. Analog Speedometer + Manual Logs
C. Hydraulic Compass + Solar Panel
D. Steam Engine + Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: A. GPS Tracker + Cellular Module

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103. Which network type uses intermediate gateways for device communication?
A. Cooperative Network B. Client-Server Network
C. Fully Distributed Network D. Hydraulic Network
Correct Answer: A. Cooperative Network

104. What ensures minimal latency in emergency alert systems using M2M?
A. Time-tolerant data transmission B. Real-time data prioritization
C. Manual routing D. Hydraulic Signal Amplifiers
Correct Answer: B. Real-time data prioritization

105. Which device would trigger an action (e.g., closing a valve) based on sensor data?
A. Actuator B. Sensor C. Gateway D. Router
Correct Answer: A. Actuator

106. In a client-server M2M network, which component acts as the central authority?
A. Router B. Server C. Hydraulic Pump D. Analog Sensor
Correct Answer: B. Server

107. Which M2M feature ensures devices consume minimal power during idle
periods?
A. Time-Controlled Transmission B. Continuous Data Streaming
C. Manual Overrides D. Hydraulic Power
Correct Answer: A. Time-Controlled Transmission

108. To monitor patient vitals in real-time, which M2M components are required?
A. Wearable Sensors + Cloud Analytics
B. Manual Thermometers + Paper Logs
C. Hydraulic Actuators + Solar Panels
D. Steam Engines + Circuit Breakers
Correct Answer: A. Wearable Sensors + Cloud Analytics

125. What is the role of edge computing in IoT/M2M architecture?

A. Process data closer to the source to reduce latency
B. Increase manual data entry
C. Generate hydraulic power
D. Replace wireless communication
Correct Answer: A. Process data closer to the source to reduce latency

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