DATE:25.04.

2025 BATCH: D01 – D02, H01 – H02 Version

REPEATERS 2025 NEET EXAMINATION R1
TOP FLOOR EMPIRE ARCADE, TEST ID
OPP NEW BUS STAND, SALEM
PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY +BIOLOGY NME – 08
CONTACT: 9750771555, 8056626584
PHYSICS
1. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
𝐚𝟑 𝐛 𝟐
respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows: P = 𝐜𝐝 % error in P is
(1) 14% (2) 10% (3) 7% (4) 4%
2. The significant figures of the number 6.0023 are
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2
3. In a p-n junction diode, not connected to any circuit
(1) the potential is the same everywhere
(2) the p-type side is at a higher potential than the n-type side
(3) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the n-type side to the p-type side
(4) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the p-type side to the n-type side.
4. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse biased p-n junction, the
(1) electric field is zero (2) potential is zero
(3) potential is maximum (4) electric field is maximum.
5. A car travels along a straight line for the first half time with speed 50 kmh-1 and the second half time with speed
60 kmh-1. Find the average speed of the car
(1) 50 𝑘𝑚−1 (2) 60 𝑘𝑚−1 (3) 55 𝑘𝑚−1 (4) 65 𝑘𝑚−1
6. A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 100 m completes one revolution in 4 minutes. What is his average
speed in one full revolution?
(1) 50 m/min (2) 50π m/min (3) 50 m/sec (4) 50π m/sec
7. Find the effective mass of a photon if the frequency of the radiation is 6 x 1014 Hz.
(1) 442 × 10-36 kg (2) 0.442 × 10-36 kg (3) 44.2 × 10-36 kg (4) 4.42 × 10-36 kg
-15
8.The nuclear radius of is 3×10 m. Find the density of nuclear matter.
(1) 2.359 × 1015 kgm−3 (2) 2.359 × 1016 kgm−3 (3) 2.359 × 1017 kgm−3 (4) 2.359 × 1018 kgm−3
-1
9. A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28 ms in a direction 30° above the horizontal. What is the maximum
height attained by the ball?
(1) 28 m (2) 9 m (3) 10 m (4) 14 m
10. A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28 ms-1 in a direction 30° above the horizontal. What is the time taken by
the ball to return to the same level?
(1) 2.8 s (2) 9 s (3) 10 s (4) 14 s
11. Using the Rydberg formula, calculate the wavelengths of the first two spectral lines in the lyman series of the
hydrogen spectrum.
(1) 1218Å & 974.3 Å (2) 1028 Å & 951.4 Å (3) 1218 Å & 1028 Å (4) 974.3 Å & 951.4 Å
12. The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 ×10-11 m. What is the radii of the
n = 3 orbit?
(1) 2.12 × 10-12 m (2) 2.12 × 10-11 m (3) 4.7× 10-10 m (4) 2.12 × 10-10 m
–1
13. A bullet of mass 0.04 kg moving with a speed of 90 ms enters a heavy wooden block and is stopped after a
distance of 60 cm. What is the average force exerted by the block on the bullet?
(1) 270 N (2) 6750 N (3) -6750 N (4) -270 N
𝟏
14. The motion of a particle of mass m is given by 𝒚 = 𝒖𝒕 + 𝟐 𝒈𝒕𝟐 . Find the force acting on the particle.
𝑚𝑢 2𝑚𝑢
(1) mg (2) 𝑡 (3) 2mg (4) 𝑡
15. The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find the threshold frequency for caesium.
(1) 2.14×1014 Hz (2) 5.16×1014 Hz (3) 6.14×1014 Hz (4) 3.14×1014 Hz
16. The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find the wavelength of the incident light if the photocurrent is
brought to zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 V.
(1) 545 nm (2) 645 nm (3) 454 nm (4) 745 nm
17. A body weighs 63 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) 63 N (2) 82 N (3) 28 N (4) 36 N
NME – 06/ ALL / NEET / P + C + B 2 RSK NEET ACADEM Y
18. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body weigh half way down to
the centre of the earth if it weighed 250 N on the surface?
(1) 500 N (2) 250 N (3) 125 N (4) 62.5 N
19. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in
0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?
(1) 1.5 Wb (2) 20 Wb (3) 30 Wb (4)3Wb
20. A jet plane is travelling west at the speed of 1800 km h-1. What is the voltage difference developed between the
ends of the wing 25 m long, if the earth's magnetic field at the location has a magnitude of 5.0 × 10 -4 T and the dip
angle is 30°?
(1) 3.125 V (2) 2.5 V (3) 5.0 V (4) 25 V
21. In the HCl molecule, the separation between the nuclei of the two atoms is about 1.27 A° (1 A°=10-10 m). Find
the approximate location of the CM of the molecule, given that the chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as
a hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom is concentrated in all its nucleus.
(1) 35.5 A° (2) 1.235 A° (3) 3.55 A° (4) 12.35 A°
22. Find the moment of inertia of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere, given the moment of inertia of the sphere
𝟐
about any of its diameters to be 𝐌𝐑𝟐 , where M is the mass of the sphere and R is the radius of the sphere.
𝟓
2 3 7
(1) MR2 (2) MR2 (3) MR2 (4) MR2
5 5 5
23. A 60 μF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz a.c. supply. Determine the rms value of current in the circuit.
(1) 44.2 V (2) 2.49 V (3) 4.42 V (4) 24.9 V
24.What is the work done by a person in carrying a suitcase weighing 10 kg on his head when he travels a distance
of 5 m in the vertical direction? Take g = 9.8 ms-2.
(1) 0 J (2) 490 J (3) 980 J (4) 1000 J
25. A man moves on a straight horizontal road with a block of mass 2 kg in his hand. If he covers a distance of 40
m with an acceleration of 0.5 ms-2, find the work done by the man on the block during the motion.
(1) 10 J (2) 2 J (3) 5 J (4) 40 J
26. An EM wave radiates outwards from a dipole antenna, with E, as the amplitude of its electric field vector. The
electric field E, which transports significant energy from the source falls off as
1 1 1
(1) 𝑟2 (2) 𝑟3 (3) Remains constant (4) 𝑟
27. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C = 0.1 μF is connected across an a.c. source of (angular) frequency
500 rad s-1. The value of conduction current is 1 mA. What is the rms value of the voltage from the source?
(1) 20 V (2) 30 V (3) 40 V (4) 50 V
28. A piece of copper having a rectangular cross-section of 15.2 mm × 19.1 mm is pulled in tension with 44,500 N
force, producing only elastic deformation. Calculate the resulting strain.
(1) 1.277 (2) 0.1227 (3) 0.01277 (4) 0.001277
29. A steel cable with a radius of 1.5 cm supports a chairlift at a ski area. If the maximum stress is not to exceed 10-8
Nm-2, what is the maximum load the cable can support?
(1) 7.07 × 107 N (2) 7.07 × 106 (3) 7.07 × 105 N (4) 7.07 × 104 N
30. A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. What is the magnitude of the field ⃗𝑩 ⃗ at a point 20 cm from the
wire?
(1) 1.2 × 10-5 T (2) 3.5 × 10-5 T (3) 4 × 10-6 T (4) 3.5 × 10-6T
31. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in the north to south direction. Give the
magnitude of ⃗𝑩 ⃗ at a point 2.5 m of the wire.
-5
(1) 1.2 × 10 T (2) 3.5 × 10-5 T (3) 4 × 10-6 T (4) 3.5 × 10-6 T
32. What amount of heat must be supplied to 0.714 moles of gas at room temperature to raise its temperature by 45°
C at constant pressure? Molar specific heat at constant pressure of the given gas is 29.05 J mol-1 K-1.
(1) 633.38J (2) 933.38J (3) 793.38J (4) 693.38J
33. A steam engine delivers 5.4 × 10 J of work per minute and services 3.6 × 109 J of heat per minute from its boiler.
8

What is the efficiency of the engine?

(1) 100% (2) 60% (3) 30% (3) 15%
34. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2:1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 27 °C.
Obtain the ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule.
(1) 2: 1 (2) 1: 2 (3) 1: 1 (4) 3: 1
NME – 06/ ALL / NEET / P + C + B 3 RSK NEET ACADEM Y
35. A cylinder of fixed capacity 44.8 litres contains helium gas at standard temperature and pressure. What is the
amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas in the cylinder by 15.0 °C? (R = 8.31 J mo1–1 K–1).
(1) 374 J (2) 473 J (3) 274 J (4) 364 J
36. A 5 kg collar is attached to a spring of spring constant 500Nm-1. It slides without friction over a horizontal rod.
The collar is displaced from its equilibrium position by 10.0cm and released. Calculate the period of oscillation
(1) 0.54s (2) 0.63s (3) 0.72s (4) 0.81s
37. A 5 kg collar is attached to a spring of spring constant 500Nm-1. It slides without friction over a horizontal rod.
The collar is displaced from its equilibrium position by 10.0cm and released. Calculate the maximum speed
(1) 0.1 ms-1 (2) 1 ms-1 (3) 100 ms-1 (4) 10 ms-1
-1
38. A 5 kg collar is attached to a spring of spring constant 500Nm . It slides without friction over a horizontal rod.
The collar is displaced from its equilibrium position by 10.0 cm and released. Calculate maximum acceleration of
the collar
(1) 10 ms-2 (2) 12 ms-2 (3) 100 ms-2 (4) 20 ms-2
39. A steel wire has a length of 12.0 m and a mass of 2.10 kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the
speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in dry air at 20° C which is 343 ms-1?
(1) 2.06 × 104 N (2) 2.06 × 103 N (3) 2.06 × 102 N (4) 2.06 × 101 N
40. For a travelling harmonic wave 𝐲 = 𝟐. 𝟎 𝐜𝐨𝐬 (𝟏𝟎 𝐭 − 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟎𝐱 + 𝟎. 𝟑𝟓) where 𝐱 and 𝐲 are in cm and 𝐭 in 𝐬.
What is the phase difference between oscillatory motion at two points separated by a distance of 4 m?
(1) 0.0080 rad (2) 0.35 rad (3) 1.6 rad (4) 3.2 rad
41. The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
42. If momentum (p), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has the
dimensional formula
(1) [𝑝𝐴−1 𝑇 −1 ] (2) [𝑝2 𝐴𝑇] (3) [𝑝𝐴−1⁄2 𝑇] (4) [𝑝𝐴1⁄2 𝑇]
43. A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the direction and magnitude of the net force on the
pebble during its upward motion.
(1) 0.5 N (2) 0.7 N (3) 0.6 N (4) 0.8 N
44. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on a stone of 0.1 kg, just after it is dropped from the
window of a train accelerating with 1 ms-2.
(1) 0.1 N along downwards (2) 1 N along downwards
(3) 0.1 N along horizontal (4) 1 N along horizontal
45. Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9.42
mW. Find the energy of each photon in the light beam. Energy of each photon.
(1)2.14× 10-18 J (2)3.14× 10-19 J (3)4.14× 10-16 J (4)2.14× 10-19 J

CHEMISTRY
46. Work done in reversible isothermal process is given by.
𝑉2 𝑛𝑅 𝑉1 𝑉1
(1) -2.303 nRT log 𝑉1 (2) 𝑟−1 (T2-T1) (3) -2.303 nRT log𝑉2 (4) -2.303 RT log𝑉2
47. In the presence of a catalyst, what happens to the chemical equilibrium?
(1) Energy of activation of the forward and backward reactions are lowered by same amount
(2) Equilibrium amount is not disturbed
(3) Rates of forward and reverse reactions increase by the same factor
(4) All of the above
48. Which of the following mathematical relation is not correct?
(1) pKw= -log Kw (2) pKa + pKb = pKw
(3) pH + pOH = 14 at25°C (4) Ka / Kb = Kw
49. H2S a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for qualitative analysis. If the solubility of H 2S in water at STP
is 0.195 m, calculate Henry’s law constant.
(1) 282 bar (2) 250.0 bar (3) 235.5 bar (4) 215.5 bar
50. Vapour pressure of water at 293K is 17.535 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 293K when 25 g
of glucose is dissolved in 450 g water.
(1) 15.437mm Hg (2) 13.437mm Hg (3) 11.437mm Hg (4) 17.437mm Hg
51.Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 →2XY is given below:
(i) X2 → X + X (fast) (ii) X + Y2 ⇌ XY + Y (slow) (iii) X + Y→XY(fast)
NME – 06/ ALL / NEET / P + C + B 4 RSK NEET ACADEM Y
The overall order of the reaction will be
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1.5 (4) 1
52. The ability of d-block elements to form complexes is due to
(1) Small and highly charged ions
(2) Vacant low energy orbital to accept lone pair of electrons from ligands
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct (4) None of the above
53.Match the Compounds (List-I) with the appropriate Catalyst/Reagents (List-II) for their reduction into
corresponding amines.
List-I (Compounds) List-II (Catalyst/Reagents)
O (I) NaOH (aqueous)
R - C - NH2
(A)
NO2 (II) H2/Ni

(B)
(C) R–CN (III) LiAlH4, H2O
O (IV) Sn, HCl

N-R

(D) O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
54. Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of the solution is:
(1) 1.79 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 2.79 m
55. Given below are two statement:
Statement (I): Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by
Lassaigne’s Test.
Statement (II): The elements present in the compound are converted from covalent form into ionic form by fusing
the compound with Magnesium in Lassaigne’s test.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
56. The alkane from below having two secondary hydrogens is:
(1) 4-Ethyl-3,4-dimethyloctane (2) 2,2,4,4-Tetramethylhexane
(3) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane (4) 2,2,4,5-Tetramethylheptane
57.20 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The final concentration of the
solution is ______ × 10–2 M. (Nearest integer).
(1) 57× 10–2 M (2) 0.57 × 10–2 M (3) 0.057× 10–2 M (4) 57× 10–2 M
58. Given below are two statements:
Statement(I):

t1/2

[R]0
is valid for first order reaction.
Statement (II):

log [R] / [R]0 Slope = k / 2.303

time
is valid for first order reaction
NME – 06/ ALL / NEET / P + C + B 5 RSK NEET ACADEM Y
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
59. The conditions and consequence that favours the t2g3, eg1 configuration in a metal complex are:
(1) weak field ligand, high spin complex (2) strong field ligand, high spin complex
(3) strong field ligand, low spin complex (4) weak field ligand, low spin complex
60.Identify correct statement/s:
(A) —OCH3 and —NHCOCH3 are activating group (B) —NO2 and —OH are meta directing group
(C) — NO2 and —COOH are meta directing group (D) Activating groups act as ortho – and para directing groups
(E) Halides are activating groups, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (E) only (3) (A) only (4) (A) and (C) only
61. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is:
I
Cl AgCN
Major Product

Br
CN
I I I
CN Cl
Cl NC

CN Br Br Br
(1) (2) (3) (4)
62.In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.15 g of silver bromide (AgBr).
The percentage of Bromine in the organic compound is ____________ × 10–1% (Nearest integer).
(Given: Molar mass of Ag is 108 and Br is 80 g mol–1)
(1) 30.50 (2) 25.53 (3) 15.47 (4) 43.17
63.The incorrect decreasing order of atomic radii is:
(1) Mg > Al > C > O (2) Al > B > N > F (3) Be > Mg > Al > Si (4) Si > P > Cl > F
64. Both acetaldehyde and acetone (individually) undergo which of the following reactions?
A. Iodoform Reaction B. Cannizaro Reaction C. Aldol condensation
D. Tollen's Test E. Clemmensen Reduction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and D only (2) A, C and E only (3) C and E only (4) B, C and D only
𝑨𝒈−𝑵𝑶𝟐 𝐀𝐠𝐂𝐍
65. The products A and B in the following reactions, respectively are 𝐀 ← 𝐂𝐇𝟑 − 𝐂𝐇𝟐 − 𝐂𝐇𝟐 − 𝐁𝐫 → 𝐁
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–ONO, CH3–CH2–CH2–NC (2) CH3–CH2–CH2–ONO, CH3–CH2–CH2–CN
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–NO2, CH3–CH2–CH2–CN (4) CH3–CH2–CH2–NO2, CH3–CH2–CH2–NC
66. What is the freezing point depression constant of a solvent, 50 g of which contain 1 g non volatile solute
(molar mass 256 g mol–1) and the decrease in freezing point is 0.40 K?
(1) 5.12 K kg mol–1 (2) 4.43 K kg mol–1 (3) 1.86 K kg mol–1 (4) 3.72 K kg mol–1
67. Consider the following elements In, Tl, Al, Pb, Sn and Ge. The most stable oxidation states of elements with
highest and lowest first ionisation enthalpies, respectively, are
(1) +2 and +3 (2) +4 and +3 (3) +4 and +1 (4) +1 and +4
68. Which of the following oxidation reactions are carried out by both K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 in acidic medium?
A. I– → I2 B. S2– → S C. Fe2+ → Fe3+ D. I– → IO3–
E. S2O32– → SO42– Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. I– → I2 B. S2– → S C. Fe2+ → Fe3+ D. I– → IO3–
E. S2O3 → SO4
2– 2–

(1) B, C and D only (2) A, D and E only (3) A, B and C only (4) C, D and E only
69. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most negative
electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?
(1) Al < Ga < O < C < F (2) Al < O < C < Ca < F
(3) C < F < O < Al < Ga (4) Ca < Al < C < O < F
70. The first Ionization enthalpy of the elements C, N, P, Si are in the order of
(1) C < N < Si < P (2) N < Si < C < P (3) Si < P < C < N (4) P < Si < N < C
NME – 06/ ALL / NEET / P + C + B 6 RSK NEET ACADEM Y
71. Select the correct statement:
(1) Electron Affinity of nitrogen is much lower than that of its neighboring elements carbon and oxygen
(2) Electron Affinity of F is higher than that of chlorine
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) None of the above is correct
72. The species having bond angle of 104.5° is
(1) HCl (2) HBr (3) NH3 (4) H2O
73. Which of the following species has tetrahedral geometry?
(1) 𝐵𝐻4− (2) 𝑁𝐻2− (3) 𝐶𝑂32− (4) H3O+
74. The bond in the formation of fluorine molecule will be
(1) Due to S – S Overlapping (2) Due to S – P Overlapping
(3) Due to P – P overlapping (4) Due to S – d overlapping
75. In which of the following pair both the species have sp3 hybridization?
(1) SiF4, BeH2 (2) NF3, H2O (3) NF3, BF3 (4) H2S, BF3
76. Which molecule is not linear?
(1) BeF2 (2) BeH2 (3) CO2 (4) H2O
77. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bonds order?
(1) O2, NO+ (2) CN-, CO (3) N2, O2─ (4) CO, NO
78. Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option?
(1) 2Pb(NO3)2→ 2PbO+4NO2+O2↑ (2) 2KClO3 Δ→ 2KCl +3O2
(3) Cr2O3+2Al Δ→Al2O3+2Cr (4) Fe+2HCl →FeCl2+H2
79. In the reaction MnO4-+SO32-+H+→SO42-+Mn2++H2O
(1) MnO4- and H+ both are reduced (2) MnO4- is reduced and SO32- is oxidized
- +
(3) MnO4 is reduced and H is oxidized (4) MnO4- is oxidized and SO32- is reduced
80. Carbon shows a maximum covalency of four whereas other members can expand their covalency. Due to.
(1) absence of d-orbitals in carbon (2) ability of carbon to form pπ- pπ multiple bonds
(3) small size of carbon (4) catenation of carbon.
81. Carbon shows allotropic forms due to
(1) pπ-pπ bond formation (2) Catenation
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
82. Assertion: PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4.
Reason: PbCl4 is powerful oxidizing agent.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Is assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
83. Diamond is hard because
(1) All the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atom by covalent bonds
(2) It is a giant molecule
(3) It is made up of carbon atoms (4) It cannot be burnt.
84. Strongest reducing agent of the following is
(1) H2O (2) H2S (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
85. Which is the incorrect?
(1) [Co (NH3)4 Cl2]+ is heteroleptic complex
(2) In [Fe(C2O4)3]3+ and [Co (en)3]3+, the coordination number of both Fe and Co is 6
(3) Ferric alum is a double salt
(4) Mohr’s salt is a double salt and do not give test for Fe2+ ions
86. Primary and secondary valencies of Cu in [Cu(NH3)4] SO4 is
(1) 4,4 (2) 2,4 (3) 4,1 (4) 4,2
87. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) [Ni(CO)4] has zero oxidation number for Ni and CO
(2) Stability order: [Co(en)3]3+ > [CO(NH3)4 Cl2]+
(3) The primary and secondary valency of [Cr (EDTA)] is 3 and 6
(4) CN- a bidentate ligand.
NME – 06/ ALL / NEET / P + C + B 7 RSK NEET ACADEM Y
88. IUPAC name of K3 [Fe(CN)5 NO]
(1) Potassium Pentacyanidonitrosyl ferrate(II) (2) Potassium pentacyanidonitrosyl iron(II)
(3) Potassium pentacyanidonitrosyl ferrate (III) (4) Pottassium pentacyanidonitro ferrate(II)
89. Which of the following will show optical isomerism?
(1) [Cu (NH4) 2+] (2) [ZnCl4] 2- (3) [Cr(C2O4)3] 3- (4) [CO(CN)6]3-
3-
90. Pick out the correct statement with respect [Mn (CN)6]
(1) It is sp3d2 hybridized and octahedral (2) It is sp3d2 hybridized and tetrahedral
(3) It is d2sp3 hybridized and octahedral (4) It is dsp2 hybridized and square planar

BOTANY
91. Read the following four statements (A-D) carefully:
(A) Heterocyst is found in Nostoc (B) All bacteria are heterotrophs
(C) Both Funaria and Marchantia are monoecious. (D) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) One
92. Which one of the following option give the correct placentation?
Marginal Placentation Axile Placentation Parietal Free central
Placentation Placentation
(1) Primrose Pea Mustard Tomato
(2) Pea Primrose Tomato Mustard
(3) Pea Tomato Mustard Primrose
(4) Mustard Tomato Primrose Pea
93. Assertion (A): H+ gradient across the thylakoid membrane is essential for the formation of ATP.
Reason (R): Breakdown of H+ gradient due to the movement of protons through F0 of ATP
synthase release enough energy to activate ATP synthase enzyme that catalyses the formation of ATP.
(1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false. (4) A is false, R is true
94. Read the following examples:
Cycas, Equisetum, Adiantum, Pinus, Polytrichum, Funaria, Ginkgo, Selaginella, Sphagnum, Polysiphonia,
Salvinia, Marchantia.
How many examples have sporophyte with vascular tissue?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 8
95. Protonema is generally produced in the life cycle of
(1) Liver wort (2) Horn wort (3) Mosses (4) Both (1) and (2)
96. Which of the following plants produce seeds but not flowers?
(1) Maize (2) Pulses (3) Peepal (4) Pinus
97. In brown algae asexual spores are: -
(1) Pear-shaped and have two unequal flagella (2) Pear-shaped and have two unequal cilia
(3) Oval-shaped and have two unequal flagella (4) Comma-shaped and biflagellate
98. In the member of Phaeophyceae which part of body functions as photosynthetic part?
(1) Rhizoids (2) Stipe (3) Hold fast (4) Frond
99. Which of the following hydrocolloid is obtained from brown algae?
(1) Algin (2) Carrageen (3) Agar agar (4) Both (1) and (2)
100. Given below are two Statements.
Statements-I: The arrangement of ovary within the ovule is known as placentation.
Statements-II: If a fruit is formed by fertilization of the ovary it is called a parthenocarpic fruit.
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct (4) Both Statement-I and II are correct
101. Answer the following questions (A and B) by using the given diagram: -
(A) Type of placentation? (B) Example of this placentation?
(1) A-Marginal, B-Pea (2) A-Parital, B-Argemone
(3) A-Axile, B-Lemon (4) A-Free central, B-Dianthus
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102. What is the position of ovary in the given flower?

(1) Superior (2) Inferior (3) Half-inferior (4) None of these

103. In dicot root the parenchymatous cells which lie between xylem and phloem are called: -
(1) Pith (2) Stele (3) Bulliform cells (4) Conjuctive tissue
104. Growth of pollen tube can be measured in terms of: -
(1) Increase in volume (2) Increase in surface area
(3) Increase in length (4) Increase in cell number
105. Glycolytic process is characterised by all of these except: -
(1) Breakdown of C – C bonds (2) Oxidation
(3) Dehydration (4) PGAL as final product
106. Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, after it enters
mitochondrial matrix and undergoes: -
(1) Reductive amination (2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Reductive carboxylation (4) Reductive decarboxylation
107. All are true about glycolysis except:
(1) Oxygen independent pathway
(2) It produces two pyruvic acid molecules from each molecule of 3-PGAL
(3) It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell
(4) This process is completed with both glucose and fructose.
108. Which of following statements is incorrect -
(1) Generally, monocotyledonous seeds are endospermic but some as in orchids are non-endospermic.
(2) The egg apparatus consists of one synergid and one egg cell
(3) Fruit is the characteristic of flowering plants
(4) Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents in pollination
109. Statement-1: Alleles are slightly different forms of the same gene.
Statement-2: The segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is 50 percent chance of a gamete
containing either allele.
(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct. (2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct. (4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.
110. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Type of Inheritance) List-II (Example)
A. Incomplete dominance I. Blood groups in human
B. Co-dominance II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum
C. Pleiotropy III. Skin colour in human
D. Polygenic inheritance IV. Phenylketonuria
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
111. Assertion: Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Reason: Energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
112. Even in absence of pollinators seed-setting is assured in-
(1) Fig (2) Commelina (3) Zostera (4) Salvia
113. A gene which control more than one character called:-
(1) Polygenic gene (2) Pleiotropic gene (3) Multiple allele (4) Complementary gene
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114. If a marriage between two carriers will produce normal, carrier and sickle-cell anaemic children.
What is the phenotypic ratio in F1?
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 9:3:3:1 (3) 3:1 (4) 1:1:1:1
115. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of Inheritance was given by:-
(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan (2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Gregor Mendel
116. Which of the following protein helps in the transport of nutrient across cell membrane?
(1) Trypsin (2) Collagen (3) GLUT-4 (4) Antibody
117. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding gel electrophoresis?
(1) Separated bands of DNA are cut from gel, this is known as spooling.
(2) DNA fragments being positively charged move towards anode under electric field.
(3) DNA fragments separate according to their size.
(4) Separated DNA fragments are stained by using methylene blue.
118. Scientists have succeeded in culturing meristems of:
(1) banana (2) sugarcane (3) potato (4) all of these
119. Which of the following composition is called biogas?
(1) CH4, SO2, H2 (2) CH4, CO2, H2 (3) C2 H6, CO2, H2 (4) CH4, N2O, H2
120. Selaginella belongs to
(1) Lycopsida (2) Sphenopsida (3) Psilopsida (4) Pteropsida
121. Pick out odd one
(1) Mucor (2) Albugo (3) Puccinia (4) Rhizopus
122. In C4 plants, optimum temperature is-------
(1) 30-40oC (2) 30-45oC (3) 20-25oC (4) 25-30oC
123. Oxidation of a one molecule of acetyl CoA produces
(1)12 ATP (2)15 ATP (3) 6 ATP (4)19 ATP
124. Which statement is correct for photosynthesis
(1) CO2 is reduced & H2O is oxidised (2) CO2 is oxidised & H2O is reduced
(3) CO2 & H2O Both oxidised (4) CO2 & H2O Both reduced
125. Which of the following is not related to thallus of members of phaeophyceae?
(1) Laminarian (2) Stipe (3) Holdfast (4) Archegonium
126. Development of flowers in a Cymose inflorescence is:-
(1) Centripetal (2) Centrifugal (3) Basipetal (4) Acropetal
127. Collenchymatous hypodermis occurs in: -
(1) Dicot root (2) Dicot stem (3) Monocot stem (4) Monocot root
128. Which one is the correct graph for arithmetic growth?

129. Statement- I :- Animals are attracted to flowers by colour or/and fragrance.

Statement-II:- To sustain animal visits, the flowers have to provide rewards to the animals.
(1) Both statement (I) and (II) are incorrect. (2) Both statement (I) and (II) are correct.
(3) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect. (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct.
130. Match the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Alkaloid (I) Curcumin
(B) Toxin (II) Morphine
(C) Lectins (III) Ricin
(D) Drugs (IV) Concanavalin-A
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
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131. Which one of the following blood group is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition?
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) A and B (4) O
132. Which of the following is not a characteristic of humus?
(1) It is rich in organic matter such as lignin and cellulose.
(2) It is colloidal in nature and serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
(3) It is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes slow decomposition.
(4) It is further degraded by the process of Humification.
133. Assertion: Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activity in both plant and animal cells.
Reason: Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
134. Arrange the following events of mitosis in correct order and select the correct option from options given
below:
a. Movements of chromosome towards opposite pole
b. Movement of centriole towards opposite poles
c. Chromosome align on equator
d. Reformation of nuclear membrane and nucleolus
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, a, d (3) c, a, b, d (4) c, b, d, a
135. How many chromatids are present in one chromosome during prophase stage?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

ZOOLOGY
136. Assertion (A): AUG Codon has Dual function
Reason (R): AUG codes for glycine, and it also act as Initiator codon
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
137. In plants morphine is obtained from
(1) Seed (2) Root (3) Leaves (4) Latex
138. How many matching are correct with reference to evolution :
a. First cellular forms of – 2000 mya life appeared b. Invertebrates – 5000 mya
c. Sea weeds – 320 mya d. Jaw less fish – 350 mya
e. Dinosaurs suddenly – 165 mya disappeared from earth.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
139. Statement-I- In humans Cardiac muscles are straited in appearance.
Statement - II- In humans Cardiac muscles are Involuntary Neurogenic.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
140. Given below are two statements
Statement I:Multiload 375 are a type of non medicated IUDs.
Statement II :Lippes loop are a type of copper releasing IUDs.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
141. Cuscuta is examples of
(1) A type of plants (2) A type of parasitic fungi
(3) A type of parasitic animal (4) More than one options are corrects
142. Which is a correct matching set with reference to cockroach
Column-I Column-II
(a) Ommatidia (i) Ootheca
(b) Phallomere (ii) Bundles of sperm
(c) Spermatophore (iii) Chitinous asymmetrical structure
(d) Collaterial gland (iv) Unit of compound eye
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(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
143. Which type of cell junctions found in the epithelium and other tissues:
(1) Gap junctions (2) Adhering junction (3) Tight junctions (4) All of the above
144. Select the correct option for the given diagram

(1) A type of connective tissue (2) A type of neural tissue

(3) A type of muscular tissue (4) A type of modified epithelium
145. Which one of the following is incorrect match :
(1) Foetal - ejection reflex – Parturition (2) First polar body – Oogenesis
(3) Second polar body – Spermatogenesis (4) Implantation – Blastocyst
146. If a sample of B-DNA which length are 5.1 metre then number of base pairs present in this sample:
(1) 6.6×1010 (2) 1.5×1010 (3) 2×109 (4) 1.5×109
147. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton
(1) Parietal bone of the skull are paired (2) First vertebra is atlas
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called floating ribs (4) Both 1 and 2
148. Which is a correct match :
(1) Glandular epithelium – Tendon (2) Exocrine gland – Without duct
(3) Endocrine gland – With duct (4) Connective tissue – Linking and supporting function
149. Which is the correct statement regarding cockroach:
(a) Hepatic caeca are 6-8 in number and help in reproduction
(b) Gizzard is also called as gonapophysis
(c) Hindgut is narrower than midgut
(d) Spiracles help in respiration
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c, d (4) Only d
150. Which is a correct matching set:
Column I Column II
(a) Digestive system with one opening (i) Sinuses
(b) Digestive system with two opening (ii) Blood vessels
(c) Closed vascular system (iii) Incomplete
(d) Open vascular system (iv) Complete
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
151. How many matching are correct:
(a) Non-medicated IUDs– Progestasert (b) Copper releasing IUDs – Lippes loop
(c) Hormone releasing– Multiload 375 (d) IUDs –Emergency contraceptives
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4)
152. Which one of the following is correct match for Human
(1) mammary lobes - 10 – 12 (2) menstrual cycle - 20 - 24 days
(3) menstrual flow - 3 - 5 days (4) ovulation - 10Th day
153. In tissue pO2 and pCO2 are respectively:
(1) 45 mmHg and 40 mmHg (2) 40 mmHg and 45 mmHg
(3) 40 mmHg and 40 mmHg (4) 45 mmHg and 45 mmHg
154. Which one of the following is incorrect match:
(1) Ammonotelic – Aquatic insect (2) Ureotelic – Frog
(3) Uricotelic – Cockroach (4) Ureotelic – Birds
155. 8-16 cell stage of embryo is called
(1) blastocyst (2) morula (3) trophoblast (4) none of these
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156. Which of the following is not a paired structure in human male:
(1) Urethra (2) Vas deferens (3) Epididymis (4) Ejaculatory duct
157. According to the IUCN List (2004) document of the extinction of ______ plants species has been:
(1) 784 (2) 270 (3) 87 (4) 54
158. The pectoral girdle consists of:
(1) Two scapula and one clavicle (2) Two scapula and two clavicle
(3) One scapula and two clavicle (4) One scapula and one clavicle
159. Which is true about the structure of heterochromatin?
(1) Loosely packed; Stain light (2) Loosely packed; Stain dark
(3) Densely packed; Stain light (4) Densely packed; Stain dark
160. Assertion: STDs are a major threat to a healthy society.
Reason: Complication of STDs are PID, abortions, infertility, ectopic pregnancies and even cancer of the
reproductive tract.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) If both the assertion and reason are false
161. How many locations have been identified in human genome where single base differences occur?
(1) 1.4 million (2) 14 million (3) 1.4 billion (4) 14 billion
162. Crop and gizzard are the additional chambers of digestive tract in which of the following class
(1) amphibian (2) reptilian (3) aves (4) mammalia
163. Which of the following pairs of hormones have antagonistic effects?
(1) T3 and T4 (2) ACTH and glucocorticoids
(3) PTH and TCT (Thyrocalcitonin) (4) T3 and TSH
164. Tendons and ligaments are the example of
(1) Dense irregular connective tissue (2) Areolar connective tissue
(3) Loose connective tissue (4) Dense regular connective tissue
165. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation
(1) dN/dt = Rn (2) dN / dt= rN (N- K/N)
(3) dt / dN= Nr (K- N/K) (4) dN / dt= rN K- N/K)
166. The Evil Quartet of biodiversity loss, does not include
(1) Habitat loss (2) Introduction of alien species
(3) Overexploitation (4) Hunting
167. Female ovum released from ovary is captured by
(1) Ampulla of fallopian tube. (2) Fimbriae of infundibulum of fallopian tube
(3) Fimbriae of isthmus of fallopian tube (4) Uterine fundus
168. Which of the following is/are secreted from placenta?
(1) hCG (2) Progesterone (3) hPL (4) All of the above
169. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insects are
(1) Analogous structures (2) Homologous structures
(3) Phylogenetic structures (4) None of the above
170. IMR stands for
(1) Infant Maternity Ratio (2) Infant Mortality Rate
(3) Infant Mortality Ratio (4) Infant Maternity Rate
171. Emergency contraceptive are effective if used within
(1) 72 hrs of coitus (2) 72 hrs of ovulation (3) 72 hrs of menstruation (4) 72 hrs of implantation
172. What is the correct order of these events?
A. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin B. Clot retraction and leakage of serum
C. Thromoboplastin formation D. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(1) C, B, A, D (2) C, D, A, B (3) C, D, B, A (4) D, A, C, B
173. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?
(1) WBC + serum+ platelets (2) Blood – RBC + platelets
(3) RBCs + WBCs + plasma (4) RBCs + proteins + platelets
174. The function of conducting part in respiratory system of human is
(1) Clears foreign particles. (2) Humidifies atmospheric air
(3) Brings the air to body temperature (4) All of the above
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175. Cells named podocytes occur in the wall of
(1) Neck region of nephrons (2) Glomerular capillaries
(3) Outer wall of Bowman’s capsules (4) Inner wall of Bowman’s capsules
176. A sarcomere consists of
(1) One A-band and one I-band (2) Half A-band and two half I-band
(3) Half A-band and one I-band (4) One A-band and two half I-band
177. Somatic neural system transmits impulse to
(1) Skeletal muscles (2) Involuntary organs (3) Smooth muscles (4) All of these
178. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Pons (3) Cerebellum (4) Thalamus
179. LNG-20 is a.
(1) Fuel (2) Modified crop (3) Hormonal IUD (4) Cu releasing IUD
180. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
(1) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis →Homo erectus
(3) Ramapithecus →Homo habilis → Australopithecus →Homo erectus
(4) Australopithecus→Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus