20-04-2025

1901CMD303021240074 MD

PHYSICS

1) When a body charged by rubbing then its mass :-

(1) Always decrease slighty

(2) Always increase slighty
(3) May increase and decrease slighty
(4) Will remain same

2) Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, then the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the
charge on an electron)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The
net charge on the sphere is then:

(1) negative and distributed uniformly over its surface.

(2) negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
(3) negative and distributed non-uniformly over its entire surface of the sphere
(4) zero

4) Two point charges of repel each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given
an additional charge of . Then force will become –

(1) 4N (attractive)
(2) 60N (attractive)
(3) 4N (repulsive)
(4) 12N (attractive)

5)

Two point charges placed at a distance 'r' in air exert a force 'F'. The distance at which they exert
same force when placed in a certain medium (dielectric constant K) is :
(1) rK
(2) r/K
(3)
(4)

6) Two equal point charges Q =+ µC are placed at each of the two opposite corners of a square
and equal point charges q at each of the other two corners. What must be the value of q so that the
resultant force on Q is zero.

(1) – 1 μC
(2) – 0.5 μC
(3) 2 μC
(4) –2 μC

7) 4µC and 16µC charges are separated by 10cm distances. Where third charge –1µC should be

placed so that net force on it is zero :-

(1) at 6.67m from 4μC

(2) at 3.33m from 4μC
(3) at 10cm from 4μC
(4) at 10cm from 16μC

8) A charge Q1 exerts some force on a second charge Q2. If 3rd charge Q3 is brought near Q1, the
force of Q1 exerted on Q2 :-

(1) will increase

(2) will decrease
(3) will remain unchanged
(4) will increase if Q3 is of the same sign as Q1 and will decrease if Q3 is opposite sign

9)

The electric field in a certain region is given by . The dimensions of K are :

(1) MLT−3A−1
(2) ML−2T−3A−1
(3) ML4T−3A−1
0 0 0 0
MLTA
(4)

10) For the system shown in figure. What should be the value of charge q placed at mid point M of
side BC, so that the charge at A remains in equilibrium :-

(1)
q= μC

(2)
q= μC

(3)
q= μC

(4)
μC

11) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero is :

(1)
from 9e charge

(2)
from 9e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge

12) Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at centre.
If the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L
from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there is no gravitational effect, then the
angle between the two suspensions and the tension in each will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Two pitch balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal
length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now, the strings are rigidly clamped at half
the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)
Mark correct option :-

(1) Q1 – Q2 > O
(2) Q2 – Q1 > O
(3) Q1 – Q2 = O
(4) None

16)

In nature, the electric charge of any system is always equal to:

(1) half integral multiple of the least amount of charge

(2) zero
(3) square of the least amount of charge
(4) integral multiple of the least amount of charge

17)

Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +λ C/m and −λ C/m are placed at a
distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line charges?

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Two point charges a & b, whose magnitudes are same are positioned at a certain distance from
each
other with a at origin. Graph is drawn between electric field strength at points between a & b and
distance x from a. E is taken positive if it is along the line joining from a to b. From the graph, it can
be decided that

(1) A is positive, b is negative

(2) A and b both are positive
(3) A and b both are negative
(4) A is negative, b is positive

19) Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an
angle of 30° with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 g cm–3, the angle remains the
same. If density of the material of the sphere is 1.6 g cm–3, the dielectric constant of the liquid is:

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

20) Two pith balls with mass m are suspended from insulating threads. When the pith balls are given
equal positive charge Q, they hang in equilibrium as shown. We now increase
the charge on the left pith ball from Q to 2Q while leaving its mass essentially unchanged. Which of
the following diagrams best represents the new equilibrium configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) A mass m carrying a charge q is suspended from a string and placed in a uniform horizontal
electric field of intensity E. The angle made by the string with the vertical in the equilibrium
position is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A charged particle (Q, m) is balanced in air by the application of electric field. If the direction of
electric field is reversed then acceleration of the particle is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

23) A proton and an electron are placed in a same uniform electric field :-

(1) The electric force acting on them will be equal

(2) Magnitudes of electric forces will be equal
(3) Their acceleration will be equal
(4) Magnitudes of their accelerations will be equal

24) In the figure, point A is a distance L away from a point charge Q. Point B is a distance 4L away
from Q. What is the ratio of the electric field at B to that at A, EB/EA?

(1) 1/16
(2) 16
(3) zero
(4) This cannot be determined since neither the value of Q nor the length L is specified.

25)

Regular hexagon with side length 'a' is shown in fig. Find EA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26)

Force between two identical spheres charged with same charge is F. If 50% charge of one sphere is
transferred to the other sphere then the new force will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

27) Find maximum electric field intensity at axial point of a uniformly charged ring of radius 'R' and
charge 'Q' :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
coloumb force on the electron is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A circular wire loop of radius ‘r’ carries a total charge ‘Q’ distributed uniformly over its length. A
small length dℓ of the wire is cut off. The electric field at the centre due to the remaining wire:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A semicircular arc placed in x-y plane is charged as shown in figure. The electric field at centre

'O' is.

(1)
above x direction

(2)
below x direction

(3)
at 45° with x-axis

(4)
along x direction

31) A uniform charged wire of infinite length has liner charge density λ is bent as shown in figure.
Find electric field at point 'O'.

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A charge particle of charge q is kept at the centre of the semicircular charged ring. If linear
charge density is every where, as shown in the figure. Then net electrostatic force on the particle
is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2λ, –2λ, λ and –λ respectively. The

electric field at the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

34) An electron revolves around a long wire of uniform charge density λ in a circular path of radius
r. Its kinetic energy is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Two long wire placed along straight lines x = –a and x = +2a of charge density +λ and +3λ
respectively x-coordinate of point where net electric field is zero :-

(1) x = 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A uniformly charged rod of length 4m and linear charge density λ = 30 μC/m is placed as shown
in figure. Calculate the x-component of electric field at point P.

(1) 36 × 105 N/C

(2) 9 × 105 N/C
(3) 1.8 × 103 N/C
(4) 27 × 105 N/C

37) The linear charge density on upper half of a segment of ring is λ and at lower half is –λ. The
direction of electric field at centre O of ring is :

(1) along OA
(2) along OB
(3) along OC
(4) along OD

38) Figure shows a rod AB, which is bent in a 120º circular arc of radius R. A charge (–Q) is
uniformly distributed over rod AB. What is the electric field at the centre of curvature O ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A charge q is placed R distance away from a charged wire of density λ(c/m). Calculate electric
force between wire and charge :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

Two small identical spheres, each of mass 1g and carrying same charge 10−9 C are suspended by
threads of equal lengths. If the distance between the centres of the spheres is 0.3 cm in equilibrium
then the inclination of the thread with the vertical will be:

(1) tan−1 (0.1)

(2) tan−1 (2)
(3) tan−1 (1.5)
(4) tan−1 (0.6)

41) at P will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None
42) A charge –q of mass m is rotating in a circle of radius r around an infinitely large uniformly

charged wire as shown. Speed of charge is V then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Three charges –q1 , +q2 and +q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x–component of the force

on –q1 is proportional to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Charges +3Q & + Q are fixed as shown in diagram. Then which of the following graph correctly
represent the variation of electric field intensity along the line joining the two charges.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Graph b/w electric field and distance for point charges A,B,C and D represented as shown in fig.

then nature of charges respectively will be-

(1) –ive, + ive, + ive, –ive

(2) +ive, + ive, + ive, –ive
(3) +ive, – ive, + ive, +ive
(4) +ive, + ive, – ive, +ive

CHEMISTRY

1) Henry's law constants for aqueous solution of CO, O2, CO2 and C2H2 gases are respectively at 25oC
as 58 x 103, 43 x 103, 1.61 x 103 and 1.34 x 103. the solubility of these gases decreases in the order.

(1) CO > O2 > CO2 > C2H2

(2) O2 > CO2 > CO > C2H2
(3) C2H2 > CO2 > O2 > CO
(4) O2 > CO2 > C2H2 > CO

2) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is governed by

(1) Raoult's law
(2) Henry's law
(3) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(4) Van't Hoff factor

3) The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is

(1) 4.8
(2) 5.2
(3) 8.8
(4) 8.4

4) What will be the molality of a solution having 18g of glucose (mol. wt. = 180) dissolved in 500g of
water.

(1) 1m
(2) 0.5m
(3) 0.2m
(4) 2m

5) What is molarity of a solution of HCl which contains 49% by weight of solute and whose specific
gravity is 1.41.

(1) 15.25
(2) 16.75
(3) 18.92
(4) 20.08

6) If 1 M and 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with another 0.5 M and 3 litre NaOH solution, then
molarity of the resultant solution will be

(1) 1.0 M
(2) 0.73 M
(3) 0.80 M
(4) 0.50 M

7) What is the normality of a 1M solution of H3PO4.

(1) 0.5N
(2) 1.0N
(3) 2.0N
(4) 3 N

8)

In a solution of 7.8 gm benzene (C6H6) and 46.0 gm toluene (C6H5CH3), the mole fraction of benzene
in this solution is

(1) 1/6
(2) 1/5
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/3

9) The molarity of pure water is

(1) 55.6
(2) 5.56
(3) 100
(4) 18

10) Molarity of 4% w/v NaOH solution is

(1) 0.1M
(2) 0.5M
(3) 0.01M
(4) 1.0M

11) The number of moles of a solute in its solution is 20 and total number of moles are 80. The mole
fraction of solute is

(1) 2.5
(2) 0.25
(3) 1
(4) 0.75

12) 6.02 x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea
solution is

(1) 0.02 M
(2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.001 M
(4) 0.1 M

13) Which of the following salt has the same value of Van't Hoff factor i as that of K4[Fe(CN)6]

(1) Al2(SO4)3
(2) NaCl
(3) Na2SO4
(4) Al(NO3)3

14) One moles of a solute A is dissolved in a given volume of a solvent. The association of the solute
take place according to nA ⇌ (A)n. The Van't Hoff factor i is expressed as
(1) i = 1 − x

(2)

(3)

(4) i = 1

15) Observe the following abbrevations

πobs = observed colligative property
πcal = theoretical collagative property assuming normal behaviour of solute. Van't Hoff factor (i) is
given by

(1) i = πobs x πcal

(2) i = πobs + πcal
(3) i = πobs − πcal

(4)

16) Which has highest freezing point

(1) 1 m K4 [Fe (CN)6] solution

(2) 1 m C6H12O6 solution
(3) 1 m KCl solution
(4) 1 m rock salt solution

17) For 0.1 M solution, the colligative property will follow the order

(1) NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4

(2) NaCl < Na2SO4 < Na3PO4
(3) NaCl > Na2SO4 = Na3PO4
(4) NaCl < Na2SO4 = Na3PO4

18) Which is not a colligative property in the following

(1) pH of a buffer solution

(2) elevation in boiling point
(3) depression in freezing point
(4) relative lowering of vapour pressure

19) PA and PB are vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary
solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be

(1) PA + XA (PB − PA)

(2) PA + XA (PA − PB)
(3) PB + XA (PB − PA)
(4) PB + XA (PA − PB)
20) The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q would be

(1) 140 torr

(2) 20 torr
(3) 68 torr
(4) 72 torr

21) Lowering of vapour pressure is highest for

(1) 0.1 M urea

(2) 0.1 M glucose
(3) 0.1 M MgSO4
(4) 0.1 M BaCl2

22) The vapour pressure of a solvent A is 0.80 atm when a non-volatile substance B is added to this
solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.6 atm. What is mole fraction of B in solution.

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.90

23)

Benzene and toluene from nearly ideal solutions. At 20oC, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr
and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20oC for a solution
containing 78g of benzene and 46 g of toluene in torr is

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 37.5
(4) 53.5

24) Assertion : On adding NaCl to water is vapour pressure increases.

Reason : Addition of non-volatile solute decreases the vapour pressure of water.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true

25)

Assertion : An increase in surface are increases the rate of evaporation.

Reason : Stronger the inter-molecular attractive forces, fast is the rate of evaporation at a given
temperature.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true

26) Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution.

(1) ΔSmix
(2) ΔVmix
(3) ΔP = Pobserved − PRoult
(4) ΔHmix

27) A non ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 ml chloroform and 50 ml acetone. The volume of
mixture will be

(1) > 80 ml
(2) < 80 ml
(3) = 80 ml
(4) ≥ 80 ml

28) A solution with negative deviation among the following is

(1) Ethanol-Acetone
(2) Chloroform-Bromobenzene
(3) Chloroform-Acetone
(4) Benzene-Toluene

29) Which will form maximum boiling point azeotrope

(1) HNO3 + H2O solution

(2) C2H5OH + H2O solution
(3) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution
(4) None of these

30)

The solution in which the blood cells retain their normal form are with regard to the blood

(1) Isotonic
(2) Isomotic
(3) Hypertonic
(4) Equinormal

31)

The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10g glucose (P1), 10g urea (P2) and 10g
sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water is

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P3 > P1 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P2 > P3 > P1

32) At certain temperature a 5.12% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with a 0.9% solution of cane
sugar is isotonic with a 0.9% solution of an unknown solute. The molar mass of solute is

(1) 60
(2) 46.17
(3) 120
(4) 90

33)

A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol−1) is isotonic with a 5%
solution of a nonvolatile solute. The molecular mass of this nonvolatile solute is

(1) 350 g mol−1

(2) 200 g mol−1
(3) 250 g mol−1
(4) 300 g mol−1

34) Two solutions A and B are separated by semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows form A to B
then

(1) A is less concentrated than B

(2) A is more concentrated than B
(3) Both have same concentration
(4) None of these

35)

The solubility of gases in liquids :

(1) increases with increase in pressure and temperature

(2) decreases with increase in pressure and temperature
(3) increases with increases in pressure and decreases in temperature
(4) decreases with increases in pressure and increases in temperature

36) Which one has the highest boiling point

(1) 0.1 N Na2SO4

(2) 0.1 N MgSO4
(3) 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3
(4) 0.1 M BaSO4

37) At 100oC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb =
0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be

(1) 101oC
(2) 100oC
(3) 102oC
(4) 103oC

38) Mark the correct relationship between the boiling points of very dilute solutions of BaCl2(t1) and
KCl(t2), having the same molarity:

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t2 > t1
(4) t2 is approximately equal to t1

39) The correct order of increasing boiling points of the following aqueous solution
0.0001 M NaCl(I), 0.001 M Urea (II), 0.001 M MgCl2(III), 0.01 M NaCl (IV) is

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) II < I < III < IV
(4) III < II < IV < I

40) The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 gm of a nonvolatile solute was dissolved in
90 gm of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. the molar mass of the solute is [Kb for
benzene = 2.53 K mol−1]

(1) 5.8 g mol−1

(2) 0.58 g mol−1
(3) 58 g mol−1
(4) 0.88 g mol−1

41) What is the freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g HBr in 100g water assuming the acid to
be 90% ionised [Kf for water = 1.86 K mole−1]

(1) 0.85oC
(2) −3.53oC
(3) 0oC
(4) −0.35oC

42) Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression
(1) Al2(SO4)3
(2) K2SO4
(3) KCl
(4) C6H12O6

43) A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl freezes at −0.00732oC.

Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produce on being dissolved in water will be
(kf = −1.86oC/m)

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

44) Pure benzene freezes at 5.3oC. A solution of 0.223 g of phenylacetic acid (C6H5CH2COOH) in 4.4
g of benzene (Kf = 5.12 K kg mol−1) freezes at 4.47oC. From this observation, one can conclude that

(1) Phenylacetic acid exist as such in benzene

(2) Phenylacetic acid undegoes partial ionization in benzene
(3) Phenylacetic acid undergoes complete ionization in benzene
(4) Phenylacetic acid dimeirzes in benzene

45) What is the effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and freezing points of water

(1) Both boiling point and freezing point increases

(2) Both boiling point and freezing point decreases
(3) Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases
(4) Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases

BIOLOGY

1) Diameter of Pollen grain in flowering plant is

(1) 25–50 micrometers

(2) 50–75 micrometers
(3) 75–100 micrometers
(4) 100–150 micrometers

2) In an angiosperm how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 200 pollen grains ?

(1) 150
(2) 200
(3) 50
(4) 100
3)

In 40% angiosperms the development of mature male gametophyte occurs _____________

(1) Inside the anther

(2) Ex-situ
(3) In-situ
(4) more than one option correct

4) Which of the following is not a part of the inner most whorl of the flower ?

(1) Stamen
(2) Style
(3) Ovary
(4) Stigma

5) Which of the following is correct

Angiospermic flower shows an amazing range of adaptations to ensure formation of the end
(1)
products of sexual reproduction the fruits and seeds.
(2) Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
(3) All fertile flowering plants shows sexual reproduction.
(4) All of these

6) In angiosperms meiosis occurs when :-

(1) seed germinate

(2) flowers are formed
(3) pollen grains are formed
(4) seeds are formed

7) The first cell of male gametophyte in flowering plant is ?

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Megaspore mother cell
(3) Male gamete
(4) Microspore

8) Meiosis in angiosperm is:

(1) Zygotic meiosis

(2) Gametic meiosis
(3) Sporic meiosis
(4) Initial meiosis

9)
Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
(A) Flowers are the morphological and embryological marvels and the site of sexual reproduction.
(B) Anthers are attached to proximal end of the filament of stamen.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non essential parts of flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flower of different species.
How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

10) Which pollen grain lose their viability within 30 minutes of their release.

(1) Rose
(2) Wheat
(3) Pea
(4) Potato

11) The two cells at which pollen grains are discharged are :-

(1) Larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell

(2) Larger vegetative cell and smaller body cell
(3) Smaller vegetative cell and larger body cell
(4) Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

12) The incorrect statements are:

(A) In 40% angiosperms forms a mature male gemetophyte which is 3-celled stage while in 60% it
remains as 2-celled only
(B) It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen
(196°C).
(C) In some cereals pollen grain lose viability within months of their release.
(D) Parthenium came into India as a contaminant with exported wheat has become ubiquitous in
occurrence and causes pollen allergy.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

13)

Which of the following is/are not correct with respect to Angiosperms.

A. A typical anther is bilobed, dithecous and tetrasporangiate.
B. Pollen grains may have two cells or three cells at the time of shedding.
C. Individial microspores mature into pollen grains.
D. Microspore mother cells represent the male gametophytic generation.
E. Cells of the sporogenous tissue lying in the centre of the microsporangium undergo
microsporogenesis to form tetrads of microspores.
(1) A and C
(2) B and E
(3) D
(4) E

14) The___end of the filament is attached to the___of the flower :-

(1) Distal, Thalamus

(2) Proximal, Sepal or Petal
(3) Distal, Petal or Thalamus
(4) Proximal, Thalamus or petal

15) Main plant body of a typical angiosperm is :-

(1) Gametophyte
(2) Sporophyte
(3) Bryophyte
(4) Thallophyte

16) The pollen grain represents:-

(1) Microsporangium
(2) Male gametophyte
(3) Female gamete
(4) Microsporophyll

17) Mature pollen grain contains :-

(1) One Cell

(2) Two Cells
(3) Three Cells
(4) Four Cells

18) One of the most resistant known biological material is:

(1) Lignin
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Lignocellulose
19)
Find out the structure in the given figure and select right option :-

A B C D E
Micro
Middle spore
1 Epidermis Endothecium Tapetum
layers mother
cells
Micro
spore
2 Middle layers Endothecium Epidermis Tapetum
mother
cells
Micro
spore Middle
3 Tapetum Endothecium Epidermis
mother layers
cells
Micro
spore Middle
4 Epidermis Middle layers Endothecium
mother layers
cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Two non motile male gametes in angiosperms are produced by :-

(1) Generative cell

(2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Vegetative cell
(4) Tube cell

21) Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces :

(1) Three sperms

(2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(3) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(4) Single sperm and two vegetative cells

22) The inner most wall layer of anther is tapetum; the main function of tapetum is :-

(1) Divison
(2) Support
(3) Nutrition
(4) Protection

23) Transverse section of a floral part is given below. Identify this structure :-

(1) T.S. of a young anther

(2) T.S. of a megasporangium
(3) T.S. of a mature dehisced anther
(4) T.S. of a mature indehisced anther

24) Arrange the following wall layers of anther in correct sequence :

(A) Endothecium (B) Epidermis
(C) Middle layers (D) Tapetum

(1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, A, D, C
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

25) Microsporangium is equivalent in Angiosperms is:-

(1) Anther
(2) Nucellus
(3) Antheridia
(4) Pollen sac

26) A typical angiosperm stamen is :-

(1) Consist of anther only.

(2) Connected to petals or thalamus by its distil end of filament.
(3) Consist of a bilobed anther and filament.
(4) Present in every pistilate flower.

27)

A typical angiosperm stamen is :-

(i) Tetrasporengiate (ii) Bisporengiate

(iii) Monothecous (iv) Dithecous Options :-

(1) (i) & (iii)
(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (i) & (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

28) Microsporogenesis is a process during which :-

(1) Microspores are formed from embryo sac.

(2) Microspores are developed to form pollen grain.
(3) Pollen or microspore mother cell develop to form microspore.
(4) Formation of generative cell in pollen grain

29) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to
floral meristem.
Reason (R): Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally
at successive nodes instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

30) Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to the presence of :

(1) Epidermal layer

(2) Tapetum
(3) Exine layer
(4) Intine layer

31) Typical microsporangium appear ________ in transverse section :-

(1) Wavy
(2) Circular
(3) Square
(4) Irregular

32) Tetragonal anther consist of :-

(1) One microsporangia

(2) Two microsporangia
(3) Three microsporangia
(4) Four microsporangia
33) Stamens consist of the following parts :-

(1) Filament
(2) Style, Stigma
(3) Anther
(4) Both (1) and (3)

34) Ploidy of the cells of the microspore tetrad is ?

(1) Tetraploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haploid
(4) Hexaploid

35) Which of following is correct option with respect to given

diagram?

(1) Immature female gametophyte

(2) Developed male gametophyte
(3) Partially developed male gametophyte
(4) Microspore

36)

How many statements are correct regarding stamen :-

(A) Stamen is a unit of androecium.
(B) Stamen is also known as microsporophyll
(C) Stamen is differentiated into filament and anther.
(D) Stamen are male sex organ of the flower.

Options :
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

37) In angiosperms following events occur during microgametogenesis :-

(a) Mitotic division in microspore.
(b) Meiotic division in miorospore mother cell.
(c) Formation of pollen grain.
(d) Formation of microspore.
(e) Formation of mature male gametophyte.
The correct sequence of event is :-

(1) b, a, d, e, c
(2) c, b, a, e, d
(3) b, d, a, c, e
(4) d, e, b, a, c

38) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measures 25-50 m in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.
Option :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

39) 250 microsporocytes will give rise to _ microspores :-

(1) 250
(2) 500
(3) 1000
(4) 2500

40) In fully developed male gametophyte the number of nuclei is :-

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

41) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of:

(1) –120°C
(2) –80°C
(3) –196°C
(4) –160°C

42) How many mitosis and meiosis required for the formation of mature male gametophyte from
microspore respectively?

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 1
(3) 2 and 0
(4) 0 and 2

43) Which of the following statement regarding sporopollenien is true

(A) Exine is made up of sporopollenien
(B) Sporopollenien is most resistant inorganic material in nature
(C) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenien
(D) Sporopollenien form intine of pollen

(1) A, B & C
(2) A & C
(3) A, B & D
(4) Only C

44) Microsporangia are located in -

(1) ovule
(2) ovary
(3) anther
(4) thalamus

45) Flowers are objects of -

(1) aesthetic value

(2) ornamental and social value
(3) religious and cultural value
(4) all of these

46) The nutritive cells found in semniferous tubules are

(1) Sertoli cells

(2) Leydig cells
(3) Receptor cells
(4) None of these

47) The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

(1) Ampulla
(2) Isthmus
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Cervix

48) If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the
gametes will not be transported from :-

(1) Testis to epididymis

(2) Epididymis to vas deferens
(3) Ovary to uterus
(4) Vagina to uterus

49) Myometrium is :-

(1) Middle thin layer of striated muscle

(2) Middle thick layer of striated muscle.
(3) Middle thick layer of smooth muscle.
(4) Middle thin layer of striated muscle

50)
Study the given diagram of female uterus. and Choose correct option showing name of structures
labelled as A, B, C and D.

A – Infundibulum, B – Ampulla
(1)
C – Internal –OS, D – Corpus.
A – fimbrae, B – Ampulla
(2)
C – fundus, D- corpus
A - fimbrae, B – Infundibulum
(3)
C – cervical canal, D – fundus.
A – infundibulum, B – Isthmus
(4)
C – External-OS, D – Fundus

51)

Which accessory sex gland in human being is unpaired?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Bulbourethral gland
(3) Bartholin's gland
(4) Prostate gland

52) Cowper's gland are present in -

(1) Female mammals

(2) Male mammals
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of these

53) The male accessory glands of human include–

(1) A seminal vesicle, a prostate and a bulbourethral gland

(2) Paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate and paired bulbourethral gland
(3) Paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral gland
(4) A seminal vesicle and a prostate gland

54) A person is suffering from low sperm count, high pitch voice, decreased libido and poorly
developed external genitalia. Which of the following structure is defective?

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Nurse cells
(4) Germ cells

55) Identify the labelled part and give correct answer for it :-

(1) Myometrium - thick layer of smooth muscle

(2) Perimetrium - thin membranous inner layer
(3) Endometrium - inner glandular and epithelial layer
(4) Endometrium - Glandular and without epithelial layer

56) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Seminal plasma - secretion of only seminal vesicles

(2) Foreskin - Loose fold of skin which cover the complete penis
(3) Interstitial cells - Secrete testicular hormone androgen
(4) Each testis - 700 testicular lobules

57) Cell of testes which provide nutrition to the germ cells (sperm) are called :-

(1) Leyding cells

(2) Male germ cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Folicular cells

58) Which of following is the wider part of fallopian tube:

(1) Isthmus
(2) Ampulla
(3) Infundibulum
(4) All of these

59) Identify the group of external genetalia in female:

(1) Mons pubis, clitoris

(2) Vasa efferentia, labia majora
(3) Labia minora, vas deference
(4) Mons pubis, vasa efferentia

60) Read the following statement :-

I. Testes are mesodermal in origin
II. The male accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens and
seminal vesicle.
III. Interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells and other immunologically
competent cells are also present.
IV. Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells and synthesis testosterone.
Choose the correct option :

(1) I, II are correct and III, IV are incorrect

(2) II, III are correct and I, IV are incorrect
(3) I, IV are correct and II, III are incorrect
(4) I, III are correct and II, IV are incorrect

61) Read the following option and choose the correct option for leydig cells :-

(1) They provide nutrition to the germ cells

(2) Synthesize and secrete testicular hormone called androgen
(3) Located within the seminiferous tubules
(4) All of these

62) Assertion : Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by three types of cells
Reason : Vas deferens is present prior to epididymis

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false statements

63) Which of following structure are involved in the formation of seminal plasma and fluid of semen
?
I. Seminal vesicle II. Prostate gland
III. Epididymis IV. Cervix

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I and IV

64) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system. In which identify common path

for the semen and urine :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

65) Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select

the correct set of the names of the parts labelled as A, B, C, D.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
66) Read the following four statements (A–D).
(A) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgen
(B) Each testis has about 250 testicular lobules
(C) In adults, each testis is oval in shape with a length of about 10-15 cm
(D) The male germ cells undergo meiotic division leading to sperm formation
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

67) Which one is not considered a secondary sex organ of male?

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Epididymis
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Seminiferous tubule

68) How many of the following structures are present only in male?
Vas deferens, Seminiferous tubule, Mammary gland, Anus, Urethra, Rete testis Bartholin
gland, Clitoris.

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Seven
(4) Four

69) Which statement is correct :-

(1) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called foreskin

The male accessory gland include paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate and paired
(2)
bulbourethral gland
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Breast are primary sex organ

70) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all male mammels

(2) Mammary gland is a single structure
(3) Mammary gland has variable amount of fat
(4) Several mammary ampulla join to form a mammary duct

71) If mammary ducts are blocked in breasts, then milk is not able to move from :-

(1) Alveoli to mammary tubules.

(2) Ampulla to lactiferous ducts
(3) Mammary tubules to ampulla
(4) Lactiferous duct to surface of nipple

72) Arrange the three layers of the wall of uterus in the order starting from the one that undergoes
cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.

(1) Perimetruim → Myometrium → Endometrium

(2) Myometrium → Perimetrium → Endometrium
(3) Endometrium → Perimetrium → Myometrium
(4) Endometrium → Myometrium → Perimetrium

73)

Which structure is not included in female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis

(2) Hymen
(3) Urethra
(4) Clitoris

74)

Which accessory reproductive gland secretion come to contact of sperm firstly ?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Cowper's gland
(3) Bartholin gland
(4) Prostate

75) How many statements are correct ?

A. Each lobule in testes contain one to three highly coiled sertoli cells
B. Epididymis leads to vas deferens through rete testes
C. The duct of seminal vesicle opens into urethra directly

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) one
(4) None

76) The male accessory ducts include:

(1) Seminiferous tubules vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens

(2) Tubuli recti, rete testis and vasa efferentia only.
(3) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
(4) Epididymis and vas deferens only.

77)
The cellular layer that disintegrates and regenerates again and again in humans females is :-

(1) Endometrium of uterus

(2) Cornea of eye
(3) Dermis of skin
(4) Endothelium of blood vessels

78)

Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2 to 2.5°C lower than the normal
internal body temperature) necessary for

(1) Increasing survival rate of sperms

(2) Normal spermatogenesis
(3) For secretion of testosterone
(4) For proper differentiation of sperms

79)

The enlarged end of penis called the ....... is covered by a loose fold of skin called ....... .

(1) Fore skin, prepuce

(2) Glans penis, fore skin
(3) Glans penis, Labia minora
(4) Clitoris, fore skin

80) Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Rete testis → Urethra

Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal
(2)
→ Urethra → Urethral meatus
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(3)
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

81) How many of the following are not included under female external genitalia .....
mons pubis, hymen, vagina, mammary gland, labia majora, womb, clitoris?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

82) How many lobules are found in each testis of human male?

(1) 600 lobules

(2) 400 lobules
(3) 250 lobules
(4) 1000 to 2000 lobules

83) Glandular tissue of each breast is divided into-

(1) 15-20 alveoli

(2) 15-20 mammary lobes
(3) 250-300 mammary lobes
(4) 25-30 mammary lobes

84) Which of the following duct is present outside the testis?

(i) Rete testis
(ii) Vasa efferentia
(iii) Vas deferens
(iv) Epididymis

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (iii) only

85) Given below are two statements:

Assertion : The presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
experience.
Reason: The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

86) The …….. is folds of fleshy tissue which extends down from…….and surrounds the vaginal
opening.

(1) Labia minora, Labia majora

(2) Labia minora, Mons pubis
(3) Labia majora, mons pubis
(4) Labia majora, clitoris

87) Which of the following correctly represents path of milk secretion ?

(1) Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple

(2) Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct → Ampulla → Nipple
(3) Mammary alveolus → Lactiferous duct → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Nipple
(4) Mammary alveolus → Mammary lobe → Ampulla → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct → Nipple

88) What is not correct with respect to testis in adults?

(1) Spherical in shape
(2) 4-5 cm in length and width of 2-3 cm
(3) Covered by a dense covering
(4) Made up of 250 testicular compartments

89) Assertion (A): Seminal plasma lacks spermatozoa.

Reason (R): Seminal plasma contains secretions of seminal vesicles only.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

90) Mark the incorrect statement.

(1) Each testicular lobule contains 1–3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules.
(2) Inside the seminiferous tubules sperms are produced.
The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located along the anterior surface
(3)
of each testis.
(4) Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 1 1 1 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 1 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 1 4 3 4 3 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 1 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Problem Explanation
When a body is charged by rubbing, electrons are transferred between surfaces. We need to
determine whether the mass of the body increases, decreases, or remains the same.

2. Concept
Electrons have mass (9.11 x 10–31 kg per electron).
Gaining electrons - Increase in mass
Losing electrons - Decrease in mass
Since charge transfer involves electrons, the change in mass is very small but can be either an
increase or decrease depending on electron gain/loss.

3. Final Answer
Correct answer: Option 3 (May increase or decrease slightly).

3)

8) Will remain unchanged

10)
(Fnet)A = 0
(FR)BC = FM

= 4 × 10–6 × q
12)

22) If charge is balance in air than the electrostatic force on charge is in upward direction and
same as gravitational force. If we reverse the direction of electric field than net force on
particle become towice of gravitational force in down ward direction.

24)

25)

resultant of E1 & E2

ER = 2E cos
= 2 E cos 60°

=E=
Eneg = E3 + E

=
29)
Let dQ be charge on dℓ

∴ E=

and dQ =

30)

x अ के ऊपर

32) Due to rod only

Due to semicircle only

34)

For circular motion of electron - FC = FE

36)

Ex =
 here θ1 = 0 and θ2 = 53º = 36 × 105 N/C

38) ε =

λ= =

λ=

E=

E=

42)

v is independent of r.

44) Electric field will be zero between the two charges, near the charge of small magnitude

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XII Pg # 23

95)

NCERT Page # 19

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 22

99)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 20

101) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 03

102) NCERT Pg. # 23,24

103) NCERT Pg. # 19,21

104) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 21

106) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 22

107) NCERT XII, Page # 23

108) NCERT XII, Page # 23

109) NCERT XII, Page # 22

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 06

114) NCERT - Pg. # 22 figure 2.3

119) NCERT XI Pg # 71

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 7

124)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 6, Para 1.2.1

125) NCERT (XII) Pg # 23, Para 2.2.1

127)

NCERT Page No. 6,7

128) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23,24

130) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

131)

NCERT Page no. 8

133) NCERT XII Pg. # 23

139) NCERT-XII Pg. # 46

162) NCERT Reference: Biology-XII, Page No.- 46

180) NCERT XII - Pg. No - 27