07-05-2025

2302CMD303021250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) An object A has a charge of +2μC and the object B has a charge of +6μC. Which statement is
true?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities λ1 and λ2 respectively are placed

at a distance of R metres. The force per unit length on either wire will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A body has –80 microcoulomb of charge. Number of additional electrons on it will be :

(1) 8 × 10–5
(2) 80 × 1015
(3) 5 × 1014
(4) 1.28 × 10–17

4) Three charge +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length ℓ at points distance x = 0, x =
ℓ/2 and x = ℓ respectively. What should be the value of Q in order to make the net force on q to be
zero?

(1) –q
(2) –2q
(3) –q/2
(4) 4q

5) Two point charges placed at a distance r in air exert a force F on each other. The value of distance
R at which they experience force 4F when placed in a medium of dielectric constant K = 16 is :
(1) r
(2) r/4
(3) r/8
(4) 2r

6) Two point charges of same magnitude and opposite sign are fixed at points A and B. A third small
point charge is to be balanced at point P by the electrostatic force due to these two charges. The

point P:

(1) lies on the perpendicular bisector of line AB

(2) is at the mid point of line AB
(3) lies to the left of A
(4) none of these

7) A charged particle of charge q and mass m is released from rest in an uniform electric field E.
Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after time ‘t’ seconds is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The linear charge density on upper half of a segment of ring is λ and at lower half, it is –λ. The

direction of electric field at centre O of ring is :

(1) along OA
(2) along OB
(3) along OC
(4) along OD

9) Two point charges + 8 q and – 2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a
point on the x axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero is:

(1) 8L
(2) 4L
(3) 2L
(4) L/4

10) A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 × 104 V/m so that it neither falls nor rises.
The charge on the drop will be (Take the mass of the drop = 9.9 × 10–15 kg and g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3.3 × 10–18 C

(2) 3.2 × 10–18 C
(3) 1.6 × 10–18 C
(4) 4.8 × 10–18 C

11) Which one of the following pattern of electric line of force can't possible :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) As shown in fig. the electric field in a region is given by volt/mt then the total

electric flux through the cube of side ‘a’ will be -

(1) Zero
 2
(2) 3 E0 a
2
(3) E0a
2
(4) 4E0a

13) Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64 P are placed in opposite direction on a line at a
distance of 25 cm. The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance from
the dipole of moment P is:

(1) 5 cm

(2)
cm
(3) 10 cm

(4)
cm

14) Two identical metallic sphere are charged with 10 and –20 units of charge. If both the spheres
are first brought into contact with each other and then are placed to their previous positions, then
the ratio of the force in the two situations will be :-

(1) –8 : 1
(2) 1 : 8
(3) –2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

15) A charge particle q1 is at position (2, –1, 3). The electrostatic force on another charged particle
q2 at (0, 0, 0) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge Q = 10 μC (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended
by two insulating threads of equal lengths 1m each, from a point fixed in the ceiling. If is found that
in equilibrium threads are separated by an angle 60º between them, as shown in the fig. What is the

tension in the threads (Given = 9 × 109 Nm/C2) -

(1) 18 N
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.18 N
(4) None of the above

17) If an electron is placed in a uniform electric field, then the electron will :

(1) Experience no force.

(2) Move with constant velocity in the direction of the field.
(3) Move with constant velocity in the direction opposite to the field.
(4) Accelerate in direction opposite to field.

18) A positively charged pendulum is oscillating in a uniform electric field as shown in Figure. Its
time period of SHM as compared to that when it was uncharged. (mg > qE)

(1) Will increase

(2) Will decrease
(3) Will not change
(4) Will first increase then decrease

19) The magnitude of point charge due to which the electric field 30 cm away has the magnitude 2
NC–1 will be

(1) 2 × 10–11 C
(2) 3 × 10–11 C
(3) 5 × 10–11 C
(4) 9 × 10–11 C

20) Two spherical conductros B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel
each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having
same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C
and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

(1) F/4
(2) 3F/4
(3) F/8
(4) 3F/8
21) A system containing six charges , The total charge
of the system is

(1)
(2)
(3) Zero
(4)

22) The electric field intensity on the surface of a solid charged sphere of radius ‘r’ and volume
charge density ' ' is ( = permittivity of free space)

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

23) Flux associated with the metal piece of m2 cross-section placed in electric field of N/C is
.......

(1) 1.5
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) zero

24) An electron falls through a small distance in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2 × 104 NC–1.
The direction of the field is reversed keeping the magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through
the same distance. The time of fall will be

(1) Same in both cases

(2) More in the case of an electron
(3) More in the case of proton
(4) Independent of charge

25) Given below are two statements

Statements-I : An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux of electric field
through the sphere is zero but the electric field is not zero anywhere in the sphere.
Statement-II : If R is the radius of a solid metallic sphere and Q be the total charge on it. The
electric field at any point on the spherical surface of radius r(<R) is zero but the electric flux passing
through this closed spherical surface of radius r is not zero.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true

(2) statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
26) Dimensional formula of is (e → charge of electron) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Dipole is placed inside a Gaussian surface as shown in figure then electric flux passing through

Gaussian surface is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ϕ = 0

29) A charge Q is divided into two parts Q1 and Q2 and these charges are placed of a distance R.
There will be a maximum repulsion between them when :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The spatial distribution of the electric field lines due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which

one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| < |B|

(2) A is –ve and B is +ve; |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but |A| > |B|
(4) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| > |B|

31) Find net electric field at point P :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Total charge –Q is uniformly spread along length of a ring of radius R. A small test charge +q of
mass m is kept at the centre of the ring and is given a small displacement along the axis of the ring.

(1) +q is in unstable equilibrium at centre

(2) +q charge executes SHM along diameter
(3) +q charge executes oscillation along axis
(4) +q charge executes SHM along axis

33) Force between two identical charge spheres with same charge is F. If 50% charge of one sphere
is transferred to the other sphere, then the new force will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

34) Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
I. Electric field due to Infinite plane sheet of charge a. 0

II. Electric field due to Infinite conducting plane sheet of uniform thickness b.

III. Electric field due to Non-conducting charged solid sphere at its surface c.

IV. Electric field due to Non-conducting charged solid sphere at its centre d.

(1) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

(2) I-b, II-d, III-c, IV-a
(3) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
(4) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

35) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown. The force on +ve charge

kept at the centre of the square is

(1) Zero
(2) Along diagonal AC
(3) Along diagonal BD
(4) Perpendicular to the side AB

36) A solid metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. Which of the lines A, B, C and D

shows the correct representation of lines of force?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
37) Choose the correct statement among the following.
(A) If identical charges are placed on each vertices of a regular polygon, then at the centre of
polygon is zero.
(B) Charged particle in an electric field always experiences a force, either it is at rest or in motion.

(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)

38) What will be the most probable direction of electric field at point ‘P’ due to semi-infinite wire as

shown in the figure?

(1) →
(2) ↓
(3)
(4) ←

39) A sphere of radius R and charge Q is placed inside a concentric imaginary sphere of radius 2R.
The flux associated with the imaginary sphere is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its radius

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient

41) Which of the following charges is/are not possible?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1C

42) Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in air exert a force F on each other. Then the
distance r’ at which these charges will exert the same force in a medium of dielectric constant k is
given by

(1) r

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) There are two charges +1 microcoulomb and +5 microcoulomb. The ratio of the forces acting on
them will be:

(1) 1 : 5
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 1 : 25

44) A particle of charge –q & mass m moves in a circle of radius r around an infinitely long line

charge on linear charge density +λ. Then time period will be

(1)
T = 2πr

(2)
T2 =

(3)
T=

(4)
T=

45)

A uniformly charged and infinitely long line having a linear charge density 'λ' is placed at a normal
distance y from a point O. Consider a sphere of radius R with O as centre and R > y. Electric flux
through the surface of the sphere is-

(1) zero
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Volume of water added to 100 ml of 0.5 M HCl solution to get decimolar solution is:

(1) 500 ml
(2) 400 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 300 ml

2) Calculate molality of 2.5 g ethanoic acid in 75g of benzene.

(1) 0.0556
(2) 0.0156
(3) 0.0215
(4) 0.556

3) Density of 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is :

(1) 3.28 mol kg–1

(2) 2.28 mol kg–1
(3) 0.44 mol kg–1
(4) 1.14 mol kg–1

4) Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to
____________.

(1) Low temperature

(2) Low atmospheric pressure
(3) High atmospheric pressure
(4) Both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure

5) KH value for some gases at the same temperature "T" are given :

gas KH/K bar

Ar 40.3

CO2 1.67
 HCHO 1.83 × 10-5

CH4 0.413
where KH is Henry's Law constant in water. The correct increasing order of their solubility in water
is
(1) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(2) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
(3) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(4) HCHO < CH4 < C02 < Ar

6) If solubility of any gas in the liquid at 1 bar pressure is 0.05 mol/lit. What will be its solubility at 3
bar pressure, keeping the temperature constant?

(1)

(2) 0.15 mol/lit

(3) 0.05 mol/lit
(4) 1.0 mol/lit

7) When NaCl is added to aqueous solution of glucose

(1) Freezing point is lowered

(2) Freezing point of raised
(3) freezing point does not change
(4) variation is freezing point can’t be predicted

8) Which of the following equimolar solution have highest vapour pressure?

(1) Glucose
(2) NaCl
(3) K2SO4
(4) K4Fe(CN)6

9) Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio at a certain temperature.
Assume A and B form an ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase
is 4 : 3. Then the mole fraction of B in the solution at the same temperature is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) From the given graph between vapour pressure and composition of solution, we can conclude-
(1) A liquid is more volatile than B liquid
(2) B liquid is more volatile than A liquid
(3) Both (A) and (B) has same vapour pressure in pure state
(4) We cannot predict from given graph.

11) Which of the following does not show negative deviation from Rault's law?

(1) Acetone - Chloroform

(2) Toluene - Benzene
(3) Nitric Acid - Water
(4) Chloroform - Benzene

12) The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 40 torr at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in
solution with solid B is 32 torr. Calculate XA in solution.

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.8

13) If P0 and PS are the vapour pressure of solvent and its solution respectively. N1 and N2 are the
mole fraction of solvent and solute respectively then :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) For which of the following pair, the heat of mixing, is approximately zero

(1) CH3COOCH3 + CHCl3

(2) CH3COOH + H2O
(3) C2H5OH + CH3OH
(4) CH3COCH3 + C6H6
15) If liquid A and B form an ideal solution, the

(1) Enthalpy of mixing is zero

(2) Entropy of mixing is zero
(3) Free energy of mixing is zero
(4) Free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero

16) Which of the following is correct for ideal solution ?

(1) ΔG = (–), ΔS = (–)

(2) ΔG = (+), ΔS = (–)
(3) ΔG = (–), ΔS = (+)
(4) ΔG = 0, ΔS = 0

17) Given below are two statements :-

Statement I : The solutions which obey Raoult's law over the entire range of concentration are
known as ideal solutions.
Statement II : The enthalpy of mixing and volume of mixing for ideal solution is zero.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

18) Match the laws/colligative property given in column-I with their expression in column II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Raoult's Law (a) ΔTf = Kfm

(ii) Henry's Law (b) π = C.R.T

Elevation in boiling
(iii) (c)
point

Depression in
(iv) (d) ΔTb = Kbm
freezing point

(v) Osmotic pressure (e) P = KHx

(1) (i)-c (ii)-e (iii)-d (iv)-a (v)-b
(2) (i)-b (ii)-d (iii)-e (iv)-c (v)-a
(3) (i)-d (ii)-b (iii)-e (iv)-a (v)-c
(4) (i)-e (ii)-c (iii)-b (iv)-a (v)-d

19) In a solution, if three molecules of solute undergoes association as : , then to evaluate

degree of association 'α' the formula will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following pair of solutions are expected to be isotonic at the same temperature ?

(1) 0.2 M urea & 0.2 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M urea & 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 0.1 M NaCl & 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 & 0.1 M Na2SO4

21) On mixing 30 mL CCl4 and 10 mL C6H6, the total volume of the solution is :-

(1) > 40 mL
(2) < 40 mL
(3) = 40 mL
(4) Can't be predicted

22) Vapour pressure of solution containing 6gm non volatile solute in 180 gm of water is 20 torr. If 1
mole of water is further added into the solution so that vapour pressure increases by 0.02 torr.
Calculate vapour pressure of pure water.

(1) 20.22 torr

(2) 20.02 torr
(3) 19.78 torr
(4) 19.88 torr

23) The solution containing nitric acid and water show large negative deviation from Raoult’s law
and form a maximum boiling azeotrope with boiling point of 393.5 K at a composition of:

(1) 68% nitric acid and 32% water by mass.

(2) 32% nitric acid and 68% water by mass.
(3) 50% nitric acid and 50% water by mass.
(4) 40% nitric acid and 60% water by mass.

24) 10 gram of glucose is dissolved in 150 gram of water. The mass % of glucose is-

(1) 5%
(2) 6.25%
(3) 93.75%
(4) 15%

25) Azeotropic mixture :

(1) are those which can be fractionally distilled
(2) have definite constant boiling point
(3) have same definite composition at any pressure
(4) are those which have different composition in. liquid and vapour state

26) Which of the following solution pairs can be separated by fractional distillation ?

(1) Water – HNO3

(2) Water – HCl
(3) Benzene – Toluene
(4) C2H5OH – water

27) Vapour pressure of pure solvent at 25°C is 400 mmHg. A Solution is obtained by dissolving 12 g
urea (NH2CONH2) in 9.8 mol solvent. Calculate relative lowering of vapour pressure.

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.04

28) Assertion : Relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of the solvent.
Reason : Relative lowering of vapour pressure is not colligative property.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) The vapour pressure of 100 g of water reduces from 17.53 mm to 17.22 mm when 17.60 g of
substance X is dissolved in it. Substance X can be

(1) Methanol
(2) Glucose
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Cannot predict

30) Which of the following is not a colligative property ?

(1) Vapour pressure

(2) Depression in f.pt.
(3) Elevation in b.pt.
(4) Osmotic pressure

31) The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is lowered by 5% by dissolving a solute in it,
then the approximately molality of solution is :
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

32) An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186°C (Kf = 1.86°, Kb = 0.512°). What is the elevation in
boiling point :-

(1) 0.186
(2) 0.512

(3)

(4) 0.0512

33) In the graph plotted between vapour pressure (V.P.) and temperature (T) :-

(1) PQ is the curve for solvent, XY is the curve of solution and ΔT is depression in freezing point
(2) PQ is the curve for solution, XY is the curve for solvent and ΔT is elevation in boiling point
PQ is the curve for solvent, XY is the curve for solution and ΔT is molal depression in boiling
(3)
point
(4) PQ is the curve for solvent, XY is the curve for solution and ΔT is elevation in boiling point.

34) 6 gram of urea (molarmass = 60) is dissolved in 100g of water. If the value of molal elevation
constant Kb is 0.52 K.Kg. mole–1 then boiling point of solution will be :-

(1) 100.052°C
(2) 373.52°C
(3) 100°C
(4) 373.52 K

35) The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in
90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. The molar mass of the solute is :
(Kb for benzene = 2.53 K mol–1)

(1) 5.8 g mol–1

(2) 0.58 g mol–1
(3) 57.5 g mol–1
(4) 0.88 g mol–1

36) Statement I : The osmotic pressure method for determination of molar mass of organic
compounds has the advantage over other methods - as pressure measurement is around the room
temperature.
Statement II : The technique of osmotic pressure for determination of molar mass of solutes is
particularly useful for biomolecules as they are generally not stable at higher temperatures and
polymers have poor solubility.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

37) If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be :

(1) halved
(2) tripled
(3) unchanged
(4) doubled

38) Freezing point of 1% w/w aqueous solution of calcium nitrate will be-

(1) 0ºC
(2) Above 0ºC
(3) Below 0ºC
(4) May be below 0ºC or above 0ºC

39) Mole fraction of a non-electrolyte in aqueous solution is 0.07. If Kf (H2O) is 1.86 K mol–1 kg,
depression in f.p., ΔTf is :

(1) 0.26 K
(2) 1.86 K
(3) 0.13 K
(4) 7.78 K

40) What is the unit of cryoscopic constant?

(1) K kg dm-3
(2) K kg dm3
(3) K kg mol
(4) K kg mol-1

41) 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20%. ionised. If Kf of water is 1.86 K kg mol-1,
the lowering in freezing point of solution is

(1) -0.56 K
(2) -1.12 K
(3) 1.12 K
(4) 0.56 K
42) Statement-I : Molecules of ethanoic acid usually dimerise in solvents of low dielectric constant.
Statement-II : The process of osmosis can be reversed if external pressure higher than the osmotic
pressure is applied to the pure solvent, while pure solvent and solution are separated by
semipermeable membrane.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false.

43) The osmotic pressure of a solution at 0°C is 4 atm. What will be its osmotic pressure at 546 K
under similar conditions?

(1) 4 atm
(2) 2 atm
(3) 8 atm
(4) 1 atm

44) Phenol associates In benzene as If degree of association of phenol is

40%, Van't Hoff factor 1 is :-

(1) 1
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.4
(4) 0.6

45) If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mol NaCl in 3 mol H2O,
NaCl is …....... percent ionised.

(1) 60%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 40%

BIOLOGY

1)
This process is known as :-

(1) Microsporogenesis
(2) Megasporogenesis
(3) Microgametogenesis
(4) Megagametogenesis

2) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the site of :-

(1) Apomixis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Sexual reproduction
(4) Fragmentation

3) The integumented megasporangium is :-

(1) Locule
(2) Ovule
(3) Pollen sac
(4) Embryo sac

4) In a typical angiosperm anther is :-

(1) Monothecous and bisporangiate

(2) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate
(3) Monothecous and monosporangiate
(4) Dithecous and bisporangiate

5) The innermost wall layer of micro-sporangium is called :-

(1) Epidermis
(2) Endothecium
(3) Middle layer
(4) Tapetum

6) The exine of pollen grain is made up of ............. and has germ pores.

(1) Sporopollenin
(2) Pectin
(3) Cellulose
(4) 2 & 3 both

7) The mature embryo sac of a typical angiosperm is ............. celled and ............. nucleated.

(1) 8, 7
(2) 7, 8
(3) 6, 8
(4) 8, 6

8)

Megasporophyll is equivalent to which structure?

(1) Ovule
(2) Nucellus
(3) Carpel
(4) Anther

9) A functional megaspore develops after three successive mitotic divisions into :

(1) Embryo
(2) Ovule
(3) Embryo sac
(4) Zygote

10) One of the most resistant known biological material is :-

(1) Lignin
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Lignocellulose

11) Which of the following statement regarding sporopollenin is true ?

(A) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(B) Sporopollenin is most resistant inorganic material in nature
(C) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
(D) Sporopollenin form intine of pollen grain

(1) A, B & C
(2) A & C
(3) A & B
(4) Only C

12) Find out the structure A, B, C and D in given figure :

(1) A- Embryo sac, B – Chalaza, C- Funicle, D- Hilum

(2) A- Embryo sac, B – Hilum, C- Chalaza, D- Micropyle
(3) A- Embryo sac, B – Nucellus, C- Funicle, D- Hilum
(4) A- Embryo sac, B – Nucellus, C- Micropyle, D- Funicle

13) A typical angiospermic microsporangium appears near circular in outline. It is generally

surrounded by four wall layers. Find correct option with correct sequence from outside to inner side
:-

(1) Epidermis, hypodermis, middle layers and tapetum

(2) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum
(3) Endothecium, epidermis, middle layers and tapetum
(4) Endothecium, hypodermis, middle layers and tapetum

14) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion : Pollen grains can withstand high temperature, strong acid and alkali.
Reason : Their hard outer layer exine is made up of sporopollenin.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

15) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion : Tapetum is innermost layer of anther which is single layered.
Reason : Tapetum is polyploid and multinucleated.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

16) Match the column-I with column-II and select the right option :-

column-I column-II

(a) Male gametophyte (i) Embryosac

(b) Megasporangium (ii) Pollen grain

(c) Megasporophyll (iii) Ovule

(d) Female gametophyte (iv) Pistil/carpel

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

17) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of T.S. of mature anther. Identify the labelled parts and
select the right option-
(1) A-Endothecium, B-Sporogenous Tissue, C-Tapetum, D-Connective
(2) A-Tapetum, B-Sporogenous Tissue, C-Endothecium, D-Connective
(3) A-Endothecium, B-Connective, C-Tapetum, D-Sporogenous Tissue
(4) A-Tapetum, B-Connective, C-Endothecium, D-Sporogenous Tissue

18) Given below is the diagrammatic view of an embryo sac. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D
and select the right option about them :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) Antipodals Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform apparatus

(2) Synergids Polar nuclei Antipodals Filiform apparatus

(3) Antipodals Filiform apparatus Synergids Polar nuclei

(4) Synergids Filiform apparatus Antipodals Polar nuclei

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Pollen grains of rice and wheat loose viability within :

(1) 1 hour
(2) 40 minutes
(3) 30 minutes
(4) 10 minutes.

20) Pollen grains of which family retain viability for months?

(1) Rosaceae, Cucurbitaceae and Solanaceae.

(2) Solanaceae, Asteraceae and Cucurbitaceae
(3) Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Liliaceae
(4) Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae.
21) Endothecium layer present below epidermis in anther bears fibrous thickening and helps in :-

(1) dehiscence of anthers

(2) nutrition of spores
(3) formation of sporopollenin
(4) absorption of water

22) What will be the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, microspore mother cell, the functional
megaspore and female gametophyte?

(1) 2n, 2n, n, n

(2) n, n, 2n, 2n
(3) 2n, n, 2n, n
(4) 2n, n, n, 2n

23) Which of the following is not a part of egg apparatus ?

(1) Synergid
(2) Egg cell
(3) Antipodal cell
(4) Synergid and egg cells

24) Identify the diagram :-

(1) Hibiscus, multicarpellary, syncarpous Gynoecium

(2) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of papaver
(3) Multicarpellary, apocarpous Gynoecium of Michelia.
(4) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium of Michelia

25)

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required to form mature female gametophyte in
angiosperms from a functional megaspore?

(1) 0 and 3
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 1 and 2
(4) 0 and 2

26) Which of the following is true with respect to female gametophyte in angiosperms?
(1) It is eight celled and seven nucleate
(2) It is known as embryosac
(3) Egg cell is the largest cell of it
(4) It has one motile female gamete

27) Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to the presence of :

(1) Epidermal layer

(2) Tapetum
(3) Exine layer
(4) Intine layer

28) Mark the incorrect one :

(1) Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race horses
(2) Viability of pollen grain depends upon temperature, not humidity
(3) Pollen grains of a large number of species can be stored in liquid nitrogen for years
(4) Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose viability within the half an hour

29) Arrange the following terms in the correct development sequence for formation of male gametes.
(A) Male gametes (B) Pollen grain
(C) Sporogenous tissue (D) Pollen mother cell
(E) Microspore tetrad

(1) C, D, E, B, A
(2) B, C, D, A, E
(3) C, D, A, B, E
(4) B, D, C, A, B

30) How many meiosis are needed for formation of eight male gametes in angiosperms from one
microspore mother cell ?

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

31) Which one is not correct pair?

(1) Apocarpous gynoecium → Lotus

(2) One ovule in one ovary → Paddy, mango
(3) Syncarpous gynoecium → Rose, lotus
(4) More than one ovule in one ovary → Papaya, orchid

32) Mature male gamelophyte is made up of how many cells in angiosperm ?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 5

33) How many meiosis & mitosis are needed for formation of one mature female gametophyte from
megaspore mother cell ?

(1) 1 Meiosis, 2 Mitosis

(2) 2 Meiosis, 2 Mitosis
(3) 2 Meiosis, 3 Mitosis
(4) 1 Meiosis, 3 Mitosis

34) Multicarpellary apocarpus condition is found in which plant ?

(1) Hibbiscus
(2) Chinarose
(3) Michelia
(4) Poppy

35) In angiosperm male gametes are formed by :

(1) Mitosis in generative cell

(2) Mitosis in tube cell
(3) Meiosis in generative cell
(4) Meiosis in megaspore mother cell

36) The stalk by which an ovule is attached to the placenta is called :

(1) Funicle
(2) Hilum
(3) Chalaza
(4) Micropyle

37) Which of the following is the largest cell of egg apparatus ?

(1) Synergid
(2) Egg cell
(3) Central cell
(4) Antipodal cell

38) Egg apparatus in angiosperm plant consists of.

(1) One egg cell and two synergids

(2) One egg cell and two antipodals
(3) One synergid and one egg cell
(4) Two egg cells and one synergid

39) Pollen grain represents

(1) Female gametophyte

(2) Male gametophyte
(3) Sporophyte
(4) Anther

40) Anther is generally composed of

(1) One sporangium

(2) Two sporangia
(3) Three sporangia
(4) Four sporangia

41) Sporopollenin is found in :-

(1) Exine
(2) Intine
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nucleus

42) Main function of endothecium layer is :-

(1) Mechanical
(2) Nutritive
(3) Dehiscence
(4) Storage

43) In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into :

(1) Pollen sac

(2) Embryo sac
(3) Ovule
(4) Endosperm

44) Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. nucellus in angiosperms.

(1) It contains abundant reserve food material

(2) It is enclosed within the integuments
(3) It is a diploid tissue
(4) It represents female gametophyte
45) Given diagram is of -

(1) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium of michelia

(2) Multicarpellary synocarpous gynoecium of michelia
(3) Multicarpellary synocarpous gynoecium of papaver
(4) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium of papaver

46) Find out correct match from the following table:

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Perimetrium Outer layer Thick
(ii) Myometrium Middle layer Thick
(iii) Endometrium Inner layer Glandular
(1) (ii), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) (i), (iii)

47) Which of the following event induced the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary
oocyte ?

(1) The process of contact of sperm with egg

(2) The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the polar body.
(3) The release of egg from the ovary
(4) Collection of egg after ovulation by infundibulum

48) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

49) One primary spermatocyte gives rise to four spermatozoa & one primary oocyte forms :-

(1) Four ova

(2) Two ova
(3) One ovum
(4) Many ova

50) Which of the following is non-cellular egg membrane layer ?

(1) Zona pellucida

(2) Corona radiata
(3) Chorion
(4) Allantois

51)
See the diagram and Identify A,B,C,D,E :-

A B C D E

(1) Infundibulum Ovary Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(2) Fallopiantube Infundibulum Cervix Vagina Isthmns

(3) Isthmns Infundibulum Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(4) Cervix Ovary Vagina Fimbriae Isthmus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to :-

(1) Significant increase in GnRH released from hypothalamus

(2) Significant increase in growth hormones in male body
(3) Significant increase in number of germ cells
(4) Significant decrease in GnRH released from hypothalamus

53)
Read the following
(A) It is a thick layer of smooth muscles
(B) It is highly glandular layer
(C) It exhibits strong contraction during delivery of baby
(D) Progesteron causes growth in myometrium

Which of the above statements are correct with respect to myometrium?

(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C

54) The sperm contains:

(1) A diploid nucleus in its head region

(2) A haploid nucleus in its middle piece
(3) A haploid nucleus in its head region
(4) Numerous mitochondria in tail region

55) Which structure is not paired in male reproductive system of human?

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Vas deferens

56) Assertion : The male germ cells undergo mitotic division, finally leading to sperm formation.
Reason : Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

57) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify ejaculatory

duct :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

58) The figure below shows development of follicles (A, B, C, D). Select the option giving correct
identification together with its function ?

(1) B – Secondary Follicle – secrete progesterone

(2) D – Corpus albicans – Secrete estrogen
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – Secrete FSH & LH
(4) C – Corpus luteum – Secrete progesterone

59) How many of the following structures are found in abdomen of adult male
Vasa-efferentia, rete testis, epididymis, prostate, seminal vesicle, ampulla of vas deferens

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

60) How many are part of external genitalia in female ?

Cervix, Hymen, Vagina, Clitoris, Labia minora.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

61)

How many of the following are not the female accessory ducts in female reproductive system?
1. Oviducts
2. Urethra
3. Uterus
4. Vagina
5. Ovaries

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

62) Arrange the following male sex accessory ducts in the correct sequence for the transport of
sperms from the testes.
(a) Epididymis
(b) Ejaculatory duct
(c) Vasa efferentia
(d) Rete testis
(e) Vas deferens
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)

(2) (d), (c), (a), (e), (b)
(3) (d), (e), (a), (c), (b)
(4) (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)

63) Name the cells present in seminiferous tubules that under goes meiosis
(A) Spermatogonia (B) Sertoli cell
(C) Primary spermatocyte (D) Spermatid
(E) Primary oocyte

(1) Only B
(2) A&C
(3) A,C&D
(4) C&E

64) Which statement is correct :-

(1) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called foreskin

The male accessory gland include paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate and paired
(2)
bulbourethral gland
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Breast are primary sex organ

65) Statement-I:- Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.
Statement-II:- The oviducts extends from the periphery of each ovary to the uterus.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

66) The last part of the oviduct that joins the uterus is

(1) Infundibulum
(2) Amupulla
(3) Isthmus
(4) Fimbriae

67) Identify the incorrect match

(1) Delivery of the baby - gestation

(2) Formation of gametes - gametogenesis
(3) Fusion of male and female gametes - fertilization
(4) Transfer of sperms into female genital tract-insemination

68) The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis is started respectively at :-

(1) Puberty and puberty

(2) Puberty and menopause
(3) Embryonic stage and menarche
(4) Puberty and embryonic stage

69) Releasing of sperms from seminiferous tubule is called:-

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Spermiation
(4) Ejaculation

70) Graafian follicle are found in

(1) Testis of mammal

(2) Ovary of frog
(3) Ovary of cockroach
(4) Ovary of mammals

71) Complete the following analogy with respect to male reproductive system.
Epididymes: Accessory duct:: ____ : accessory gland

(1) Rete testis

(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Vas deferens

72) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by:

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Primary spermatocytes
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Both 1 and 3
73) Statement-I: Primary follicle is with primary oocyte
Statement-II: Secondary follicle is with secondary oocyte

(1) Both Statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

74) Identify the incorrectly matched pair

(1) hymen - female external genitalia

(2) fimbriae - collection of ovum
(3) mammary lobes – alveoli
(4) labia minora - cushion of fatty tissue

75) Interstitial spaces of testis consists of

(1) spermatozoa, spermatogonia, Sertoli cells

(2) Leydig cells, immunocompetent cells, small blood vessels
(3) Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, small blood vessels
(4) spermatogonia, immunocompetent cells

76)

Identify correct path of milk in breasts from alveoli to outside of body –

(1) Alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipples
(2) Alveoli → Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipples
(3) Ampulla → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Nipples
(4) Ampulla → Alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Nipples

77) The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of mammary gland. Identify the

structures which are marked as A, B, C, D :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 Muscles Mammary Mammary
(1) Nipple
between ribs lobe duct

Pectoralis Lactiferous
(2) Fat Areola
major muscle duct

Pectoralis Mammary Lactiferous

(3) Nipple
major muscle duct duct

Muscles Mammary
(4) Ampulla Areola
between ribs alveolus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Hormone responsible for development of corpus luteum is

(1) Estrogen
(2) hPL
(3) Prolactin
(4) LH

79) Assertion :- Each Breast has 15-20 mammary lobes which contains cluster of cells called
Alveoli.
Reason :- Mammary duct joins to form a Narrow Ampulla, which is connected to Nipple.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

80) Identify the structure shown below and its location in the human, and select the right option.

Structure Site of occurrence

(1) Testis Abdominal cavity

(2) Penis Abdominal cavity

(3) Seminiferous tubules Testis

(4) Prostate Below the urinary bladder

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ........ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility,
at least ........... percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

82) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram. Which of the following among these has been

correctly identified along with its function-

(1) (A) Epididymis - Formation of sperm

(2) (B) Rete testis - Functional maturation of sperms
(3) (C) Seminal vesicle - store and transport the sperms
(4) (D) Bulbourethral gland - helps in the lubrication of penis

83) The secretion of which gland help in the lubrication of the penis :-

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Bulbourethral gland
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) All of the above

84) The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of

(1) Glucagon
(2) Androgens
(3) Progesterone
(4) Intestinal mucus

85) Process of spermatogenesis involves :-

(1) Mitosis only
(2) Meiosis only
(3) Mitosis and meiosis both
(4) Amitosis only

86) Of the following male organs, which one is considered a primary sex organ?

(1) ejaculatory ducts

(2) gonads (testes)
(3) penis
(4) seminal vesicles

87) Differentiation occurs in which stage :-

(1) Primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte

(2) Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatid
(3) Spermatid → Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonia → Ootid

88) The edges of the infundibulum posses finger like projections called fimbriae which helps in:

(1) Collection of sperms

(2) Collection of Secondary Oocyte after ovulation
(3) To facilitate implantation
(4) To pass nutrition towards ovum

89) The normal temperature of human testes is

(1) 39°C
(2) 37°C
(3) 38°C
(4) 35°C

90) For lactation to take place,_____ stimulates the synthesis of milk _________ causes milk expulsion.

(1) testosterone; dihydrotestosterone

(2) oestrogen; progesterone
(3) oxytocin; prolactin
(4) prolactin; oxytocin
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 2 4 1 2 4 4 3 3 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 3 4 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 3 4 3 4 2 4 2 1 2 4 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Coulomb's force between two charges obey Newton's third law (Action-reaction law)

2) Electric field due to a line charge

For per unit length experienced by λ2 wire
dF = dqj E1 = λ2dℓε1

3) q = ne
80 × 10–6 = n × 1.6 × 10–19

4) FNet on Q = 0

⇒ =0

⇒ Q = –q

5) F = ....(1)

4F = ....(2)

⇒R=

6) There is no point near electric dipole having E = 0.

7) F = qE ⇒ a =

⇒x= at2 =
k.E = WE = qE

8) Given diagram shows :

The direction of Enet is along OC.

9) Suppose that at point B, where net electric field is zero due to charges 8q and 2q.

EBO =

EBA = According to condition EBO + EBA = 0

⇒2=
So, a = L
Thus, at distance 2L from origin, net electric field will be zero.

10) Key Idea In steady state electric force on drop balances the weight of the drop.

In steady state, electric force on drop = weight of drop

∴ qE = mg ⇒ q =

= 3.3 × 10–18 C

11)

Electric field lines cannot be closed.

12)

∴ ϕtotal = ϕin + ϕout

= –E0a2 + 4E0a2
= 3E0a2

13) Suppose neutral point N lies at a distance x from dipole of moment p or at a distance

x2 from dipole of 64p. At N,|E. F. due to dipole –1| = |E. F. due to

dipole –2|

⇒ ⇒ x = 5 cm

14) Final charge on both spheres = 10 μC each.

=8:1

15)

16) Fe =
 T sin 30 = 9.0 × 109 × 100 × 10–12 T = 2 × 9.0 ×
10–1 = 18 × 10–1 = 18 × 10–1 = 1.8 N

17) Negative charge experiences force opposite to direction of electric field.

18)

T= ; where, geff =

=g–
∴ Time period increases.

19) (1) Asking About:

We need to determine the magnitude of the point charge (q) that produces an electric field (E)
of 2 N/C at a distance (r) of 30 cm.
(2) Concept:
The electric field due to a point charge in free space is given by Coulomb's law. The formula
relates the charge, distance, and electric field strength.
(3) Formula:

Where:

A. E = 2 N/C (Electric field)

B. r = 30 cm = 0.30 m (Distance)

C. = 9 x 109 N·m2 /C2 (Electrostatic constant)

D. q is the charge to be determined

Rearranging the formula to solve for q:

(4) Calculation / Explanation:
Substituting the values:

(5) Final Answer:

The required charge is 2 x 10-11 C.
Correct Option: (1) 2 x 10-11 C

20) Initially, F = k . (Fig. A). When a third spherical conductor come in contact alternately
with B and C and then removed, the charges on B and C are Q/2 and 3Q/4, respectively (Fig.
B)

Now force F' = k . =

21)

The total charge of a system is the algebraic sum of all individual charges.
Charges with positive signs contribute to the net positive charge, while charges with negative
signs reduce the total charge.

where :
Qtotal = 1 + 2 – 3 + 4 – 5 + 6 = (1 + 2 + 4 + 6) + (– 3 – 5) = 13 – 8 = 5 μC

Correct Answer is 1

22)

On the surface

23)
24) The time required fall through distance d is or .
Since a proton takes more time.

25)

Flux of through sphere is zero

But
For small section ds only
Statement-II

As change encloses within gaussian surface is equal to zero

Option (b) statement-I correct statement-II false.

26) F =

∴
= [MLT–2] [L2]
= [ML3T–2]

27)

Explanation:

To find electric field at point 'P'.

Concept:
Electric field due to large charge sheet.

Formula:

Electric field at any point is

Visual Diagram:

Calculation:

At point P
Enet =

28)

qenclosed = 0

29) Concept:
Maxima - minima

Formula:
If given function is 'F'
then for maximum value of F

=0
and calculate 'x'. [Here 'x' is variable]

Calculation:
Q = Q1 + Q2
 Q1 = Q – Q2

F=

⇒ F=
Here variable is 'Q2'

so, [QQ2 – Q22]

= [Q – 2Q2]

=0
⇒ Q – 2Q2 = 0

Q2 =

So, Q1 =

30) 1. Explain question:

The problem provides the spatial distribution of electric field lines due to two charges (A and
B). We are tasked with determining the correct relationship between the signs and magnitudes
of charges A and B.
2. Concept:

A. Electric field lines originate from positive charges and terminate at negative charges.
B. The number of field lines corresponds to the magnitude of the charge. More field lines indicate
a larger magnitude of charge.

3. Formula:

A. The electric field lines' direction and number indicate the charge's sign and magnitude.

4. Calculation:

A. Sign of charges: Field lines originate from A, so A is positive. Field lines terminate at B, so B is
negative.
B. Magnitude comparison: A has more field lines originating from it, implying that the magnitude
of A's charge is greater than B's charge, which has fewer field lines terminating at it.
C. Therefore, A is positive, B is negative, and |A| > |B|.

Answer: Option 4. A is +ve and B is-ve and |A| > |B|.

31) 1. Question Explanation:

Two charges 4C and 9C are placed on a line, and the net electric field at point P due to these
charges needs to be calculated.
2. Concept Based:
The electric field due to a point charge is given by Coulomb's law. The net electric field at a
point is the vector sum of electric fields due to individual charges.
3. Formula Used:
 where , q is the charge, and r is the distance from the charge to the point of interest.
4. Calculation:

A. Electric field due to 4C at P:

A. Electric field due to 9C at P:

A. Both fields act in the same direction. Hence, the net electric field at P is:

Substituting ,

Final Answer: Option 2 .

32) 1. Problem Explanation:

A ring of radius R has a uniformly distributed charge-Q along its circumference. A small test
charge +q is placed at the center and displaced along the axis of the ring. We need to
determine the nature of its motion.

2. Concept:

A. The electric field at the center due to the symmetric charge distribution is zero.
B. When the test charge +q is displaced along the axis, the net force acts as a restoring force
towards the center.
C. If this restoring force is proportional to displacement, the motion will be simple harmonic
motion (SHM).

3. Formula:
The axial electric field due to a charged ring at a distance from the center:

E=
Force on charge +q:

F = qE =
For small x (x < < R), we approximate:

where k is a constant, proving SHM along the axis.

4. Final Answer: Option 4: +q charge executes SHM along axis.

33)

Question Asking About:

Two identical spheres exert an electrostatic force F. When 50% charge of one sphere is
transferred to the other , we calculate the new electrostatic force between them.

Key Concept:
Electrostatic Based
The force between two point charges depends on the product of their charges and inversely on
the square of their separation. Charge redistribution alters the force magnitude.

Formula
Coulomb's Law

where:
• k = Coulomb's constant
• q1, q2 = charges on spheres
• r = Distance between spheres

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
• Initial force:

• After charge transfer:

• One sphere's charge becomes

• The other sphere's charge becomes =

• New force:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

34) For infinite non-conducting sheet ;

For infinite conducting sheet ;

For non conducting sphere (at surface) ;
For non conducting sphere at centre ; E = 0

35) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No.46

36) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No.68

37) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No.18

38) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No.37

39)

Conceptual.

40) Due to mutual repulsion of charges distributed on the surface of bubble.

41) (1) ∵ q = ne
= ne ⇒ n = 1.414(fraction) → not possible
(2) 1.6 × 10−18C = n(1.6 × 10−19)C
⇒ n = 10 → possible
(3) 3.2 × 10−17C = ne = n (1.6 × 10−19)C
⇒ n = 200 → possible
(4) 1C = ne = n (1.6 × 10−19)C
⇒ n = 625 × 1016 → possible

42)

43) The same force will act on both bodies although their directions will be different.

44) We have centripetal force equation

so
Now,

=
 where k=

45)

Electric flux qin is the charge enclosed by the Gaussian-surface which, in the
present case, is the surface of given sphere. As shown, length AB of the line lies inside the
sphere.

CHEMISTRY

46) M1V1 = M2V2

(0.5) (100) = (0.1) (V2)
V2 = 500 ml
Vwater added = 500 – 100
= 400 ml

47) NCERT Pg. # 39

48)

A. Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate the molality of an acetic acid solution,
given its molarity and density.

B. Given Data:

A. Molarity of acetic acid solution = 2.05 M (moles/L)

 B. Density of solution = 1.02 g/mL

C. Concept:

A. Molarity (M) = moles of solute / liters of solution

B. Molality (m) = moles of solute / kilograms of solvent

C. We need to convert the given molarity and density into molality.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Mass of 1 L of solution: Density = mass/volume. So, mass of 1 L (1000 mL) of solution =

1.02 g/mL × 1000 mL = 1020 g

B. Mass of acetic acid in 1 L solution: Molarity = moles of solute / liters of solution. So,
moles of acetic acid in 1 L = 2.05 moles. Molar mass of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) = 12 +
(3 × 1) + 12 + 16 + 16 + 1 = 60 g/mol. Mass of acetic acid = 2.05 moles × 60 g/mol =
123 g

C. Mass of water (solvent) in 1 L solution: Mass of solution = mass of solute + mass of

solvent. Mass of water = 1020 g - 123 g = 897 g = 0.897 kg

D. Molality of the solution: Molality (m) = moles of solute / kg of solvent = 2.05 moles /
0.897 kg = 2.285 mol/kg ≈ 2.28 mol/kg

E. Final Answer: The molality of the solution is approximately 2. 2.28 mol kg⁻¹.

49)

Theory.

50) at constant temperature.

51) [Old NCERT Page-41]

52) [Old NCERT Page-53]

53) Vapour pressure ∝

Glucose does not dissociate into ions so it

has minimum B.P. so maximum V.P. or (von' t Hoff factor)

54) ⇒ and ;

or

55) Solution from given graph PB° > PAº.

So B is more volatile than 'A'.

56) Ideal solution Toulene-Benzene

57)
XA = 0.8

58)

B. Given Data:

A. P₀: Vapor pressure of the pure solvent

B. Pₛ: Vapor pressure of the solution

C. N₁: Mole fraction of the solvent

D. N₂: Mole fraction of the solute

C. Concept:

A. Raoult's Law: This law states that for an ideal solution, the partial vapor pressure of
each component in the solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction.

B. Mathematical Representation:

Pₛ = N₁ * P₀

where: * Pₛ is the vapor pressure of the solution * N₁ is the mole fraction of the solvent *
P₀ is the vapor pressure of the pure solvent
 D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Not directly applicable in this case. The question focuses on understanding and applying
Raoult's Law.

E. Final Answer:

1. Pₛ = N₁ * P₀

F. Question Level:

Easy

59) C2H5OH + CH3OH form ideal solution .

60) For ideal solution,

61) In Ideal and non-ideal solution

62) Ncert, Class12th , Part-1 , Article No: 1.5.1 , Pg.No: 13 , Edition-2023-24.

63)

Ncert, Class12th , Part-1, Article No:1.3.2 , 1.4.1 , 1.6.1 , 1.6.3 , 1.6.4. Pg.No: 7,10,17 ,18 ,21.
Edition-2023-24.

64)
n=3

65)

Explanation:

A. Isotonic solutions have the same osmotic pressure.

B. Osmotic pressure depends on the number of solute particles in the solution.
C. Van't Hoff factor (i): Represents the number of particles a solute dissociates into in solution.

Concept:

A. Urea is a non-electrolyte, so i = 1.
B. NaCl dissociates into 2 ions (Na+ and Cl–), so i = 2.
C. MgCl2 dissociates into 3 ions (Mg2+ and 2Cl–), so i = 3.
 D. Na2SO4 dissociates into 3 ions (2Na+ and SO42–), so i = 3
E. Ca(NO3)2 dissociates into 3 ions (Ca2+ and 2NO3–), so i = 3

Calculation:To be isotonic, the product of molarity and the van't Hoff factor should be equal.

A. 0.2 M urea (i=1): 0.2 × 1 = 0.2 and 0.2 M NaCl (i = 2): 0.2 × 2 = 0.4. Not isotonic.
B. 0.1 M urea (i=1): 0.1 × 1 = 0.1 and 0.2 M MgCl2 (i = 3): 0.2 × 3 = 0.6. Not isotonic.
C. 0.1 M NaCl (i=2): 0.1 × 2 = 0.2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (i = 3): 0.1 × 3 = 0.3. Not isotonic.
D. 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 (i = 3): 0.1 × 3 = 0.3 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (i = 3): 0.1 × 3 = 0.3. Isotonic.

Answer option 4, (0.1 M Ca

(NO3)2 & 0.1 M Na2SO4).

66)

CCl4 + C6H6 = +ve deviation

So Vmix > V1 + V2
Vmix > 30 + 10
Vmix > 40 ml

67)

..............(1)

0
P = 20.22 torr.

68) Ncert , Class12th , Part-I , Pg.No:15 , Edition-2023-2024.

69) A. Question Explanation:

The question asks us to calculate the mass percentage of glucose in a solution. Mass
percentage is a way to express the concentration of a component in a mixture.
B. Given Data:
• Mass of glucose = 10 g
• Mass of water = 150 g
C. Concept:
Mass percent of a component in a solution is calculated as:

D. Mathematical Calculation:
1. Calculate the total mass of the solution: Total mass = Mass of glucose + Mass of water Total
mass = 10 g + 150 g = 160 g
2. Calculate the mass percent of glucose:

Mass % of glucose =
Mass % of glucose = 6.25%
E. Final Answer:
The mass percent of glucose in the solution is 6.25%. So the correct option is 2.

70)

Conceptual fact

71) Explanation:
The question asks which pair pf solutions can be separated by fractional distillation.
Concept:
Water - HNO3 and Water - HCl: These pairs form azeotropes (constant boiling mixtures).
Because they boil at a constant composition, they cannot be fully separated by fractional
distillation.
Benzene - Tolune: Benzene and toluene are miscible liquids with different boiling points. The
difference in their boiling points is sufficient for separation by fractional distillation.
C2H5OH - Water (Ethanol - Water): Ethanol and water also form an azeotrope (specifically, a
minumum boiling azeotrope at about 95.6% ethanol). Therefore, they cannot be completely
separated by fractional distillation. While you can get close to 95.6% ethanol, you can/t get
pure ethanol via fractional distillation alone.
Answer:
Option is 3: Benzene - Toluene.

72) Explanation:
Relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute.
Given data:
vapor pressure of pure solvent (P°) = 400 mmHg
Mass of urea (solute) = 12 g
moles of solvent = 9.8 mol
Molar mass of urea (NH2CONH2) = 60g/mol
Concept:
moles = mass/molar mass
mole fraction = moles of solute/(moles of solute + moles of solvent)
Calculation:
Calculate moles of urea moles = mass/ molar mass = 12g 60 g mol = 0.2 mol
Calculate mole fraction of urea (solute): mole fraction moles of solute /(moles of solute + moles
of solvent) = 0.2/(0.2 + 9.8) = 0.2/10 = 0.02

73) A. Question Explanation:

This question presents an Assertion and a Reason, and we need to determine the truth of each
statement and whether the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. This deals with colligative
properties, specifically relative lowering of vapor pressure.
B. Given Data:
• Assertion: Relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent.
• Reason: Relative lowering of vapor pressure is not a colligative property.
C. Concept:
• Relative Lowering of Vapor Pressure: (P∘- P)/ P∘ where P∘ is the vapor pressure of the pure
solvent and P is the vapor pressure of the solution.
 • Raoult's Law: (P∘- P)/ P∘= x_solute, where x_solute is the mole fraction of the solute.
• Colligative Properties: Properties of solutions that depend only on the number of solute
particles dissolved in the solvent, not on the nature of the solute particles. Relative lowering of
vapor pressure, boiling point elevation, freezing point depression, and osmotic pressure are
colligative properties.
D. Mathematical Calculation:
Raoult's Law itself is the "calculation" here. The key is that the relative lowering of vapor
pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute, not the solvent.
E. Final Answer:
The Assertion is False because relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to the mole fraction
of the solute, not the solvent. The Reason is also False because relative lowering of vapor
pressure is a colligative property. Therefore, the correct option is 4: If both Assertion &
Reason are False.

74)

75) Relative lowering in vapour pressure is a colligative property.

76)

⇒ m = 2.8 ~ 3

77) A. Question Explanation:

The question provides the freezing point depression of an aqueous solution and asks for the
corresponding elevation in boiling point. We are given the cryoscopic constant (Kf) and the
ebullioscopic constant (Kb) for water.
B. Given Data:

A. Freezing point depression (ΔTf) = 0.186°C

B. Kf = 1.86 °C kg/mol
C. Kb = 0.512 °C kg/mol

C. Concept:
The freezing point depression and boiling point elevation are colligative properties, meaning they
depend on the number of solute particles in the solution, not their identity. Both are related to the
molality (m) of the solution:

A. ΔTf = Kf × m
B. ΔTb = Kb × m

We can use the freezing point depression to find the molality and then use that molality to calculate
the boiling point elevation.
D. Mathematical Calculation:

1. Calculate the molality (m): m = ΔTf / Kf m = kg/mol m = 0.1 mol/kg

2. Calculate the boiling point elevation (ΔTb): ΔTb = Kb × m ΔTb = 0.512 °C kg/mol × 0.1
mol/kg ΔTb = 0.0512 °C
E. Final Answer:
The elevation in boiling point is 0.0512°C. So the answer is 4.

78)

NCERT (2017), Part-I, Pg # 49

79)

80)

ΔTb = 354.11 – 353.23

ΔTb = 0.88

ΔTb = Kb × m = 2.53 ×

0.88 = 2.53 × ×

MM = × 20 = = 57.5 g/mol

81)

Ncert , Class12th , Part-I , Article 2.6.4 Pg.No:22 , Edition-2023-2024.

82) The value of molal depression constant, Kf is constant for a particular solvent, thus, it will
be unchanged when molality of the dilute solution is doubled.

83) Tfº = 0ºC

On addition calcium nitrate freezing point will decrease. Hence below 0ºC.

84) ΔTf = = 7.78 K

85)

86)

= =
= 1.12 = 1.2
 87) NCERT XII Pg # 24, 27, Part-I

88)

89)

Module-4

90) 0.4 = ⇒ i = 2 = 1 + α or α = 1

BIOLOGY

98)

109)

In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release.

The correct answer is -(3)

110)

in some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, they maintain viability for
months.

The correct option is: (4)

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 5-10

113) NCERT Pg. # 27

114) NCERT Pg. # 25

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 10, 11

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 7

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 5,6,7

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 7

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 8

122)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 7

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 9, 10

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 9

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 7

135) NCERT Page no 25

141)

Infundibulum: The funnel-shaped part of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary, often
associated with the fimbriae.

Ovary: The organ where eggs are produced and released.

Fimbriae: The finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tube near the ovary, helping to
catch the released egg.

Cervix: The lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.

Vagina: The canal that connects the uterus to the outside of the body.
Fallopian Tube: The tubes that transport the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

Isthmus: The narrow part of the fallopian tube, closer to the uterus.
OPTION 3 IS ANSWER

142)

NCERT Pg # 47

144) NCERT (XII) Pg#48 Para: 3.3

145) NCERT (XII) Pg#44 Para: 3.1

146)

The correct answer is 3: Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Assertion is false because male germ cells (spermatogonia) undergo meiotic divisions, not
mitotic, to eventually form sperm during spermatogenesis. Mitotic divisions occur initially to
increase the number of spermatogonia, but the final stages involve meiosis.

Reason is true because Leydig cells, located in the interstitial spaces of the testes, synthesize
and secrete androgens (male sex hormones), such as testosterone.

147)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 27

151)

Ncert Page 45.

152)

NCERT Pg # 43

166)

NCERT Page # 47, First para

168)

NCERT Pg.No. 54

171)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 32

172)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 27

177) NCERT Pg. # 47

178)

NCERT XII, Page # 29