Volume 25

LAWS OF THE
REPUBLIC OF ZAMBIA

1995 Edition (Revised)

Volume 25

Contents

Chapter 444. Aviation Act

Chapter 445. Safety of Civil Aviation Act

Chapter 446. Air Services Act

Chapter 447. Carriage by Air Act

Chapter 448. Limitation of Liability (Passengers in Government Aircraft)

Act

Chapter 449. Tokyo Convention Act

Chapter 450. Air Passenger Service Charge Act

Chapter 451. Central African Civil Air Transport Act

Chapter 452. Vacant

Chapter 453. Railways Act

Chapter 454. Tanzania-Zambia Railway Act

Chapter 455. Zambia Tanzania Pipeline Act

Chapter 456. Railways (Deviations) Act

Chapter 457. Nkana-Nchanga Branch Railway Act

Chapter 458. Rhodesia Railways Act

Chapter 459. Mashona Railway Company Limited Act

Chapter 460. Roan Antelope Branch Railway Act

Chapter 461. Mufulira-Mokambo Railway Act

Chapter 462. Railways Transfer of Statutory Powers Act

Chapter 463. Rhodesia Railways Act, 1949

REPUBLIC OF ZAMBIA

THE AVIATION ACT

CHAPTER 444 OF THE LAWS OF ZAMBIA

CHAPTER 444 THE AVIATION ACTCHAPTER 444

THE AVIATION ACT

ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS

PART I GENERALPART I

GENERAL

Section

1. Short title

2. Interpretation

3. Effect given to Convention within Zambia

4. Regulations

5. Special powers in case of emergency

6. Establishment and maintenance of aerodromes by Minister

7. Powers of entry on land

8. Power to erect tents and graze animals

9. Power to construct drains

10. Discharge of storm water on to aerodrome prohibited

11. Licensing and registration of aerodromes

12. Trespass, nuisance and responsibility for damage

13. Inquiries

14. Postal provisions

15. Patent claims against aircraft not protected under Convention

16. Exemption from seizure of certain aircraft on patent claims

17. Detention of aircraft

18. Dangerous flying

19. Offences and penalties

20. Jurisdiction

21. Application

22. Expenses in administering this Part

PART II NATIONAL AIRPORTS CORPORATION LIMITEDPART II

NATIONAL AIRPORTS CORPORATION LIMITED

Section

23. Commencement of Act No. 16 of 1989

24. Interpretation

25. Transfer of designated airports, function, assets and liabilities

26. Functions of Company

27. Power of Company to determine charges, fees, etc.

28. Power to construct drains

29. Registration of property to be transfered by GRZ to Company

30. Agreements, etc., to be assumed by Company

31. Transfer of service of employees

32. Legal proceedings

33. Immunity of Company

34. Regulations relating to airports and Company

CHAPTER 444

AVIATION

An Act to enable effect to be given to the International Convention on Civil

Aviation and to make provision for the control, regulation, and orderly
development of aviation within Zambia.

[1st July, 1954]Federal Acts

10 of 1954
32 of 1957
25 of 1961
Government Notices
387 of 1963
497 of 1964
Act 57 of 1964
Statutory Instruments
153 of 1965
162 of 1965
Act No.
16 of 1989
13 of 1994

PART I GENERALPART I

GENERAL

1. This Act may be cited as the Aviation Act.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Short title

2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"aerodrome" means any definite and limited ground or water area used or intended
to be used either wholly or in part for the landing and departure of aircraft,
and includes any buildings on such ground or water area;

"aircraft" includes all flying machines, aeroplanes, seaplanes, flying boats,

and other aircraft designed to be heavier than air, also all airships and
balloons and other aircraft designed to be lighter than air;

"Annex" means an Annex to the Convention or an amendment of such Annex adopted

in accordance with the provisions of the Convention;

"Convention" means the Convention on International Civil Aviation drawn up at

Chicago and signed on behalf of the Government of the United Kingdom on the 7th
December, 1944, together with such amendments thereto as may, prior to the 1st
December, 1963, have been ratified on behalf of the former Federation of
Rhodesia and Nyasaland, or as may be ratified after the said date on behalf of
the former Protectorate of Northern Rhodesia or the Republic of Zambia;

"locally registered aircraft" means an aircraft registered in Zambia;

"owner", except where otherwise specially defined, means, in relation to an

aircraft or aerodrome, the person in whose name the aircraft or aerodrome is
registered, and includes any person who is or has been acting as agent in Zambia
for a foreign owner or any person by whom the aircraft or aerodrome is hired at
the time;

"proclamation" means any proclamation made and in force under this Act;

"superior police officer" means a police officer of or above the rank of

assistant superintendent.

(As amended by No. 25 of 1961, G.N. No. 387 of 1963,

G.N. No. 324 of 1964 and S.I. Nos. 64 and 153 of 1965)

3. (1) The Convention is hereby given and shall have effect within
Zambia.Effect given to Convention within Zambia
(2) Every amendment to the Convention which may be ratified on behalf of Zambia
shall, as soon as may be after such ratification, be laid before the National
Assembly.

(3) The Minister may do all such things as he may deem necessary and expedient
for giving effect to the Convention, or to any Annex.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

4. (1) The Minister may, by statutory instrument, make regulations relating to

all or any of the following matters or things, namely:Regulations

(a) the carrying out of, and giving effect to, the provisions of the
Convention and any Annex;

(b) generally for securing the safety, efficiency, and regularity of air
navigation and the safety of aircraft and of persons and property carried
therein, for preventing aircraft endangering other persons and property and in
particular for the detention of aircraft for any of the purposes specified in
this paragraph;

(c) prohibiting the flying of any aircraft-

(i) unless there is in force in respect of such aircraft a certificate of

airworthiness issued or recognised in accordance with regulations; and

(ii) except upon compliance with such conditions as to maintenance and repair
as may be prescribed;

(d) the licensing, registration, inspection, and regulation of aerodromes or

other places set apart for the use of aircraft, the scales of charges at
licensed aerodromes or at aerodromes established and maintained under the powers
of section six, the licensing or certification of persons employed in the
inspection or supervision of aircraft, the registers and records to be kept at
such aerodromes and the manner in which they shall be kept, prohibiting or
regulating the use of unlicensed aerodromes, access to aerodromes, buildings on
aerodromes, buildings and installations used for purposes related to air
navigation, and places where aircraft have landed, and access to aircraft
factories for the purpose of inspecting the work therein carried on;

(e) prohibiting persons, other than persons engaged or employed in the

maintenance at unlicensed aerodromes of aircraft not used for or in connection
with commercial, industrial, or other gainful purposes, from engaging in or
being employed in or in connection with air navigation in such capacities as may
be prescribed except in accordance with provisions of regulations;

(f) the manner and conditions of the issue and renewal of any certificate or
licence required under this Act or under the Convention, including the
examination and tests to be undergone and the form, custody, production,
cancellation, suspension, endorsement, and surrender of any such certificate or
licence;

(g) the keeping and form of the register of locally registered aircraft;

(h) the conditions under which aircraft may pass, or goods or passengers may
be conveyed by aircraft into, within or from Zambia;
(i) prohibiting the carriage by air of goods of such classes as may be
prescribed;

(j) the areas within which or the aerodromes at which aircraft coming from
any place outside Zambia shall land, and the areas within which or the
aerodromes from which aircraft shall depart to any place outside Zambia;

(k) the exemption from any of the provisions of this Act or of the Convention
of aircraft flown for experimental purposes, or any other aircraft or any
persons, when it appears to the authority prescribed for the purpose unnecessary
that such provisions should apply;

(l) the fees to be paid in respect of the grant of any certificate or licence
or otherwise for the purposes of this Act or of the Convention;

(m) minimising or preventing interference with the use or effectiveness of

radio or electronic apparatus or equipment used in connection with air
communication or navigation and prohibiting or regulating the use of such
apparatus or equipment and of the display of signs and lights liable to endanger
aircraft;

(n) prohibiting or regulating the erection or the coming into existence of

any obstruction exceeding a prescribed height within a prescribed distance from
any aerodrome and enforcing or regulating the lighting or marking of such
obstructions;

(o) the signals which may be made by aircraft and persons carried therein;

(p) requiring persons engaged in, or employed in, or in connection with, air
navigation to supply meteorological information for the purposes of air
navigation;

(q) measures for preventing aircraft flying over prohibited areas or entering
or leaving Zambia in contravention of any provision of this Act;

(r) the prevention of nuisances arising out of air navigation or aircraft

factories, aerodromes or other aircraft establishments;

(s) the persons who shall notify accidents involving aircraft or arising out
of or in the course of air navigation, the holding of inquiries either into such
accidents or into any other matter relating to aircraft or air navigation, the
procedure to be followed in notifying accidents and in holding inquiries, the
duties, membership and composition of any board appointed to conduct such
inquiries, and the appointment and duties of persons to conduct investigations;

(t) prohibiting access to or interference with aircraft to which an accident

has occurred, and authorising any person, so far as may be necessary for the
purposes of an investigation, to have access to, examine, remove, take measures
for the preservation of, or otherwise deal with, any such aircraft;

(u) the manner and conditions of recognition of certificates of

airworthiness, certificates of competency, and licences issued or recognised by
any State which is a party to the Convention, the renewal, extension, or
variation of such recognition, and the fees to be paid for such recognition,
renewal, extension, or variation;
(v) authorising or requiring the cancellation, suspension, endorsement, or
surrender of any licence or certificate granted under this Act where it appears
on an investigation that the licence ought to be cancelled, suspended, endorsed,
or surrendered, and authorising or requiring the production of any such licence
for the purpose of being dealt with;

(w) prohibiting or regulating, for the purpose of ensuring the safe operation
of aircraft, the use in aircraft or aero engines of spare parts, instruments,
accessories, or other materials which do not conform to prescribed
specifications or standards of quality or manufacture;

(x) establishing and regulating the use of the civil air ensign;

(y) for the purpose of ensuring the safe operation of aircraft or minimising
or preventing interference with the use or effectiveness of any aerodrome or any
radio or electronic apparatus or equipment which has been installed as a
communication or navigation aid, prohibiting or regulating-

(i) prospecting or mining on any aerodrome;

(ii) prospecting or mining on or the entry of persons upon any definite and
limited ground on which any such apparatus or equipment has been installed;

(z) prohibiting or regulating the emission or causing of smoke in any area

within forty thousand feet from the boundary of any aerodrome. For the purpose
of this paragraph, "smoke" includes soot, ash, grit, gritty particles, dust and
any other substance whatsoever which obscures visibility;

(aa) prohibiting or regulating the parking of vehicles on any aerodrome;

(bb) the fees to be paid in respect of parking of vehicles on any aerodrome;

and generally for the better carrying out of the objects and purposes of this
Act, the generality of this provision not being limited by the particular matter
provided in the preceding paragraphs of this subsection.

(2) Different regulations may be made for different classes of aircraft,

aerodromes, persons, or property, and for different parts of Zambia, but
regulations shall as far as is practicable be so framed as not to discriminate
in like circumstances between aircraft registered in Zambia and operated for
hire and reward.

(3) Regulations made under this section may prescribe penalties for the
contravention thereof or failure to comply therewith, may prescribe the mode of
enforcing such penalties, and may also impose different penalties in case of a
second or subsequent contravention or non-compliance, but no such penalty shall
exceed the penalties mentioned in section nineteen.

(As amended by No. 25 of 1961, G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and

S.I. Nos. 153 and 162 of 1965)

5. (1) Whenever it appears to the Minister necessary or desirable in the

public interest to exercise the powers conferred by this section, the Minister
may-Special powers in case of emergency

(a) by statutory notice declare that Zambia or any portion of Zambia shall be
a restricted area for the purposes of this section;
(b) in the notice referred to in paragraph (a) or in a like notice or
otherwise issue orders and instructions in respect of any restricted area or
part thereof-

(i) regulating, restricting or prohibiting the navigation of all or any

description of aircraft;

(ii) regulating, restricting, or prohibiting the use, erection, building,

maintenance or establishment of any aerodrome, flying school or landing ground,
or any class or description thereof;

(c) assign to any person in respect of any restricted area any of the powers
set forth in paragraph (b).

(2) Any person to whom is assigned the duty of carrying out and giving effect
to orders and instructions issued under this section is hereby empowered to take
all steps which are reasonable and necessary to secure compliance therewith, and
no action for damages or compensation shall lie against the Government or any
such person for any loss or damage sustained on account of such steps having
been taken, nor, save as is otherwise in this section provided, shall any
compensation be payable by reason of the operation of any order or instruction
issued under this section.

(3) Any person who refuses or, without good and proper cause, fails to comply
with any order or instruction made or issued under or by virtue of this section,
or who obstructs any person charged with the duty of carrying out and giving
effect to any such order or instruction, shall be guilty of an offence and
liable to a fine not exceeding fifteen thousand penalty units, or to
imprisonment for one year without the option of a fine, or to both.

(As amended by No. 25 of 1961, G.N. No. 387 of 1963

and Act No. 13 of 1994)

6. The Minister may, out of moneys to be appropriated by Parliament for the

purpose, establish and maintain aerodromes and provide and maintain roads and
approaches thereto and apparatus and equipment (including radio and electronic
apparatus and equipment) therefor, and may for the purpose acquire land and
interests in and rights to and over land.

(As amended by No. 25 of 1961, G.N. No. 387 of 1963

and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)Establishment and maintenance of aerodromes by Minister

7. (1) In the exercise of the powers conferred by section six, and subject to
the provisions of subsections (2) and (3), any person duly authorised thereto by
the Director of Roads authorised by S.I. No. 303 of 1965.*Minister, or by any
public officer deputed by the Minister to grant such authority on his behalf,
shall at all times have the power-

* Director of Roads authorised by S.I. No. 303 of 1965.Powers of entry on land

(a) to enter upon any land or part thereof and conduct such examinations and
surveys as are necessary for the purpose of determining its suitability for the
establishment or extension of an aerodrome, approaches thereto, or for the
installation of apparatus or equipment therefor;
(b) to take for the construction, extension or maintenance of an aerodrome
materials from any land which is not included in any township which has been
approved by the competent authority under the Town and Country Planning Act,
subject to the condition that no damage is done to any permanent improvements on
such land.

*Director of Roads authorised by S.I. No. 303 of 1965.Cap. 283

(2) The powers conferred under this section shall not be exercised without
previous notice to the owner or occupier of the land or the owner of the
materials. If the whereabouts of an owner or occupier to whom notice must be
given in terms of this subsection are unknown, the publication of a notice in
three consecutive issues of the Gazette and in three consecutive editions of a
newspaper circulating in the district where such land is situated stating the
action proposed to be taken shall be deemed to be a sufficient notice to such
owner or occupier for the purposes of this subsection.

(3) Reasonable compensation shall be paid to any person who suffers loss or
damage through the exercise of the powers conferred by this section in such
amount as may be agreed between such person and the Minister.

(4) In the event of any dispute arising under the provisions of subsection (3),
such dispute shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of the
Arbitration Act and for that purpose the parties shall be deemed to be parties
to a submission in which the reference is to two arbitrators.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)Cap. 40

8. (1) Any Director of Roads authorised by S.I. No. 303 of 1965.*person duly
authorised in terms of section seven may, in the discharge of his duties under
such section, place his vehicles, erect tents, huts, or temporary buildings on
any site convenient to him, and graze for such period as may be necessary on all
adjoining natural and unenclosed pasture lands such animals as are used by him
in the exercise of his duties, subject to the conditions set out in subsection
(2).

* Director of Roads authorised by S.I. No. 303 of 1965.Power to erect tents and
graze animals

(2) (a) Before exercising the rights conferred under this section, such person
shall give reasonable notice to the owner or occupier of such land, but if the
whereabouts of such owner or occupier are unknown, the publication of a notice
in three consecutive issues of the Gazette and in three consecutive editions of
a newspaper circulating in the district where such land is situated stating the
action proposed to be taken shall be deemed to be a sufficient notice to such
owner or occupier for the purposes of this paragraph.

(b) No tents, huts, or other temporary buildings shall be erected within five
hundred yards of any dwelling-house.

(c) If the owner or occupier of such land to whom notice has been given in
terms of paragraph (a) objects to any site chosen for the erection of tents,
huts, or other temporary buildings, the matter shall be referred to a magistrate
of the district, who may make such order thereon as he may deem just and
reasonable.
(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

*Director of Roads authorised by S.I. No. 303 of 1965.

9. (1) The *Powers delegated to Director of Roads by S.I. No. 304 of

1965.*Minister shall have power to construct such drains as may be necessary for
the purpose of leading storm water, which would otherwise naturally gather or
impinge on an aerodrome or any radio or electronic apparatus or equipment which
has been installed as a communication or navigation aid, to its nearest natural
drainage.

*Powers delegated to Director of Roads by S.I. No. 304 of 1965.Power to

construct drains

(2) If as a result of the construction of any such drain such storm water
causes damage to any property, the Minister shall pay reasonable compensation to
any person aggrieved. In the event of any dispute as to the cause of such damage
or the amount of compensation, the matter shall be referred to arbitration in
accordance with the provisions of subsection (4) of section seven.

(As amended by No. 25 of 1961)

10. The owner or occupier of any land adjoining any aerodrome or any radio or
electronic apparatus or equipment which has been installed as a communication or
navigation aid shall not cause or permit storm water to discharge from drains,
or contour ridges constructed on such land, on to such aerodrome or such
apparatus or equipment.

(As amended by No. 25 of 1961)Discharge of storm water on to aerodrome

prohibited

11. (1) No place or building shall be used as a public aerodrome unless it has
been registered and licensed under this Act or approved by a prescribed
authority.Licensing and registration of aerodromes

(2) For the purposes of this section, "public aerodrome" means any aerodrome at
which charges are levied for the landing or housing of aircraft, or at which
aircraft carrying passengers or goods for hire land or depart:

Provided that a prescribed authority may, in such special circumstances and

subject to such conditions or limitations as it may think fit, temporarily
exempt any such aerodrome from this classification as a public aerodrome.

12. (1) No action shall lie in respect of trespass or in respect of nuisance,

by reason only of the flight of an aircraft over any property at a height above
the ground, which, having regard to wind, weather and all the circumstances of
the case, is reasonable, or the ordinary incidents of such flight, so long as
the provisions of this Act and of the Convention are duly complied
with.Trespass, nuisance and responsibility for damage

(2) Where material loss or damage is caused to any person or property on land
or water by, or by a person in, or an article or person falling from, an
aircraft while in flight, taking off or landing, then, unless the loss or damage
was caused or contributed to by the negligence of the person by whom it was
suffered, damages in

*Powers delegated to Director of Roads by S.I. No. 304 of 1965.

respect of the loss or damage shall be recoverable without proof of negligence
or intention or other cause of action, as if the loss or damage had been caused
by the wilful act, neglect, or default of the owner of the aircraft:

Provided that where material loss or damage is caused as aforesaid in

circumstances in which-

(i) damages are recoverable in respect of the said loss or damage by virtue
only of the foregoing provisions of this subsection; and

(ii) a legal liability is created in some person other than the owner to pay
damages in respect of the said loss or damage;

the owner shall be entitled to be indemnified by that other person against any
claim in respect of the said loss or damage.

13. (1) Any board appointed to conduct any anquiry under the provisions of
this Act shall, if the accident occurred or if the matter to be inquired into is
situated within Zambia, have power to summon and examine witnesses on oath and
to call for the production and grant inspection of books, logs, certificates,
licences, and other documents. The provisions of the Subordinate Courts Act and
the rules made thereunder shall, mutatis mutandis, apply to procuring the
attendance of witnesses, their examination, the production of books and
documents and the like, and for that purpose the chairman of such board shall
have power to sign such documents as may be necessary for the purpose of the
inquiry in the same manner as the magistrate or the clerk of the court has power
to do. Any process to be served for purposes of such an inquiry shall be served
by the messenger of such court of the district in which the person upon whom
service is made resides.Inquiries
Cap. 28

(2) Nothing in this section contained shall be construed as affecting the

powers or duties conferred upon coroners or magistrates by the provisions of any
written law relating to inquests, but where an accident involving loss of life
is inquired into under this section by a coroner or magistrate, or by a board of
which a coroner or magistrate is a member, the inquiry held under this Act may
be a joint inquiry of the board and inquest of the coroner or magistrate.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

14. No mails shall be carried by any aircraft without the consent in writing of
the Director of Postal Services, and all provisions contained in the Postal
Services Act with regard to the despatching, conveying, and delivering of mails
and all incidental services relating thereto shall, with such modifications,
adaptations and such consequential and supplementary provisions as may by the
Minister be declared by statutory notice to be expedient and necessary, apply to
the despatching, conveying, and delivering of mails by aircraft.

(As amended by No. 32 of 1957 and G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Postal provisions
Cap. 470

15. (1) Where it is alleged by any person interested that a foreign aircraft,
which is not an aircraft to which section sixteen applies, and which is making a
passage through or over Zambia, infringes in itself or in any part of it any
invention, design, or model which is entitled to protection in Zambia, the High
Court may, pending action to be brought, order the detention of such aircraft
until the owner thereof deposits or secures in respect of the alleged
infringement a sum, in this section called the deposited sum, and upon such
order being complied with the aircraft shall not, during the continuance or in
the course of the passage, be subject to further detention in respect of the
same course of action.Patent claims against aircraft not protected under
Convention

(2) The deposited sum shall be such a sum as may be agreed between the parties
interested, or in default of agreement shall be fixed by the Court, and payment
thereof shall be made or secured to the applicant in such manner as the parties
may agree or the Court may direct. In giving judgment in the action so to be
brought by the claimant, the Court shall grant an order as to the disposal of
the deposited sum.

(3) For the purposes of this section, "owner" includes the actual owner of an
aircraft and any person claiming through or under him, and "passage" includes
all landings and stoppages in the course or for the purpose of a flight.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

16. (1) Any lawful entry into Zambia or any lawful transit across Zambia with
or without landing of aircraft to which this section applies shall not entail
any seizure or detention of such aircraft, or any proceedings being brought
against the owner or operator thereof, or any other interference therewith by or
on behalf of any person in Zambia, on the ground that the construction,
mechanism, parts, accessories, or operation of such aircraft is or are an
infringement of any patent, design, or model.Exemption from seizure of certain
aircraft on patent claims

(2) The importation into, and storage in, Zambia of spare parts and spare
equipment for aircraft to which this section applies, and the use and
installation thereof in the repair of any such aircraft, shall not entail any
seizure or detention of such aircraft or of such spare parts or spare equipment,
or any proceedings being brought against the owner or operator of such aircraft
or the owner of such spare parts or spare equipment, or any other interference
with such aircraft by or on

behalf of any person in Zambia on the ground that such spare parts or spare
equipment or their installation is or are an infringement of any patent, design,
or model:

Provided that this subsection shall not apply in relation to any spare parts or
spare equipment which are sold or distributed in Zambia or are exported from
Zambia for sale or distribution.

(3) This section applies to aircraft other than aircraft used in military,
customs, or police services registered in any country or territory in respect of
which there is for the time being in force a declaration made by the President
by statutory proclamation with a view to the fulfilment of the provisions of the
Convention to which this section relates, that the benefits of these provisions
apply to that country or that territory and to such other aircraft as the
President may by statutory proclamation specify.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

17. (1) If the owner, pilot, or person in charge of any aircraft commits any
offence under this Act, or if reasonable suspicion exists that such an offence
has been committed or attempted, or is about to be committed or attempted, any
customs officer or any superior police officer or any police officer authorised
by a superior police officer may, pending the trial of the charge, detain the
aircraft from or in respect of which the offence was or is about to be
committed. Any person who, knowing of such detention, removes or causes to be
removed any aircraft so detained shall be guilty of an offence and shall be
liable to a fine not exceeding four hundred kwacha, or to imprisonment for a
period not exceeding twelve months without the option of a fine, or to both such
fine and such imprisonment:Detention of aircraft

Provided that where recognizances are entered into or security deposited to the
satisfaction of the authority having power to demand and receive the same, that
authority may, if satisfied that the ends of justice will not thereby be
prejudiced, order the release of the aircraft from further detention.

(2) No customs officer authorised to grant clearance to any aircraft shall

grant clearance to any aircraft while detained under the provisions of this
section.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

18. (1) Where an aircraft is flown in such a manner as to be the cause of

unnecessary danger to any person or property on land or water, the pilot or the
person in charge of the aircraft, and also the owner thereof unless he proves to
the satisfaction of the court that the aircraft was so flown without his actual
fault or privity, shall be liable on conviction in any subordinate court to a
fine not exceeding four hundred kwacha, or to imprisonment for a period not
exceeding six months, or to both such fine and such imprisonment.Dangerous
flying

(2) The provisions of this section shall be in addition to and not in

derogation of the powers conferred upon the Minister by section four.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

19. (1) Any person who contravenes or fails to comply with any provision of
this Act with which it is his duty to comply shall be guilty of an offence and
shall, except where any penalty is specially provided for such contravention or
failure, be liable to a fine not exceeding six thousand penalty units, or to
imprisonment without the option of a fine for a period not exceeding six months,
or to both.Offences and penalties

(2) Where an offence is committed in relation to an aircraft, the operator of

the aircraft and the person in command thereof, unless he is also the operator,
shall, without prejudice to the liability of any other person, be deemed to have
committed such offence, unless he proves that the contravention or failure to
comply-

(a) was due to accident, stress of weather, or other unavoidable cause; or

(b) took place without his actual fault or privity.

(3) The penalties provided in this Act shall be in addition to, and not in
substitution for, any penalties imposed under the Customs and Excise Act
relating to the importation or exportation of goods and to persons entering or
leaving Zambia by aircraft.
(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and Act No. 13 of 1994)Cap. 322

20. Any offence under this Act and any offence committed on a locally
registered aircraft shall, for purposes in relation to jurisdiction of a court
to try the offence, be deemed to have been committed in any place where the
accused happens to be:Jurisdiction

Provided that if any such offence is committed within Zambia, the offence may be
tried by any court having jurisdiction where the offence was committed.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

21. (1) The provisions of this Act and of the Convention shall, except where
expressly excluded under this Act or by proclamation or regulation, apply
to-Application

(a) all aircraft whilst in or over any part of Zambia; and

(b) all locally registered aircraft and personnel wherever they may be.

For the purposes of this subsection, the personnel of an aircraft shall be

deemed to include the commander or other person in charge of the aircraft, and
all other members of the crew of the aircraft.

(2) Such provisions of this Act as may be specified by the Minister by

statutory notice shall not apply to aircraft or aerodromes belonging to, or for
the time being in use exclusively by, the Defence Force.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

22. Any expenditure incurred in connection with the administration of this

Part, and the carrying out and giving effect to the provisions of the
Convention, shall be defrayed out of moneys appropriated by Parliament for the
purpose.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963, S.I. No. 153 of 1965
and Act No. 16 of 1989)Expenses in administering this Part

PART II THE NATIONAL AIRPORTS CORPORATION LIMITEDPART II

THE NATIONAL AIRPORTS CORPORATION LIMITED

23. This Part shall come into operation on 11th September 1989.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)Commencement

(S.I. 116 of 1989)

24. In this Part unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"appointed date" means the date appointed by the Minister under section
twenty-three as the date of commencement of this Part;

"Company" means the National Airports Corporation Limited, a company limited by

shares and registered under the Companies Act;Cap. 388

"designated airport" means Lusaka International Airport, Ndola Airport,

Livingstone Airport, Mfuwe Airport, and any other airport which the Minister may
designate by statutory instrument;

"designated aerodrome" means any aerodrome designated by the Minister, by

statutory instrument, to be owned, managed and administered, by a designated
company;

"designated company" means any company designated by the Minister, by statutory

instrument, to own, manage and administer any designated aerodrome and to carry
out specific functions relating to the aerodromes;

"specific functions" means any function transferred to a designated company by

virtue of this Act.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

25. On and after 11th September 1989 there shall be transferred to, and
vested in, the Company-

(a) designated airports;

(b) subject to any conditions which may be imposed by the Minister, those
functions which prior to the commencement of this Part were functions exercised
by the Government in relation to designated airports; and

(c) all property, rights, liabilities and obligations which immediately

before the appointed date were property, rights, liabilities and obligations of
the Government relating to designated airports.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)Transfer of designated airports, functions,

assets and liabilities

26. (1) The functions of the Company shall be-Functions of company

(a) functions referred to in paragraph (b) of section twenty-five;

(b) subject to the direction of the Minister, to provide air traffic control
service throughout the Republic;

(c) to provide aircraft services at designated airports;

(d) to provide fire and rescue services at designated airports and if

directed by the Minister provide fire and rescue services at other airports;

(e) to provide and maintain navigational and telecommunications aids

throughout the Republic;

(f) to provide security at designated airports; and

(g) to provide terminal facilities for passengers and cargo at designated

airports.

(2) In performing the functions set out in subsection (1) the Company may-

(a) plan, develop, construct and maintain runways taxiways, aprons, terminal
and ancillary buildings;

(b) arrange for postal, money exchange, insurance and telephone, facilities
for the use of passengers and other persons at designated airports;

(c) regulate and control the movements of vehicles and the entry and exit of
passengers at designated airports; and

(d) do all acts and things as may be necessary or incidental for the
performance of its functions under this Part.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

27. (1) The Company may, with the approval of the Minister, determine-Power of
Company to determine charges, fees, etc.

(a) landing charges, hangar charges, parking charges, other charges and fees
for any service rendered by the company to aircraft, passengers and cargo and
the public at designated airports; and

(b) overflying charges throughout the Republic.

(2) The charges determined under subsection (1) shall be published in the
Gazette.

(3) Notwithstanding subsection (2), the Company may, in relation to special

circumstances of any particular case determine the charges and fees applicable
to such case in respect of any services to aircraft, passengers, cargo, and the
public provided by it and the charges and fees shall have immediate effect in
relation to such case:

Provided that such conditions, charges, and fees shall as soon as practicable
after such determination, be published in the Gazette.

(4) The Company may determine and charge rentals at designated airports.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

28. (1) The Company may construct any drains which may be necessary for the
purpose of leading storm water, which would otherwise naturally gather or
impinge on any designated airport or any radio or electronic apparatus or
equipment which has been installed as a communication or navigation aid, to its
nearest natural drainage.Power to construct drains

(2) If as a result of the construction of any such drain such storm water
causes damage to any property, the Company shall pay reasonable compensation to
any person aggrieved.

(3) In the event of any dispute as to the cause of the damage or the amount of
compensation, the matter shall be referred to arbitration in accordance with
subsection (4) of section seven.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

29. (1) Whenever in pursuance of this Part any property, rights, liabilities
or obligations, of the Government are deemed transferred in respect of which
transfer a written law provides for registration, the Company shall make an
application in writing to the proper officer of the appropriate registration
authority for the registration of the transfer.Registration of property to be
transferred by GRZ to Company
(2) The officer referred to in subsection (1) shall make such entries in the
appropriate register as shall give effect to the transfer and, where
appropriate, issue the transferee concerned a certificate of title in respect of
the property or make necessary amendments to the register, as the case may be
and shall make endorsement on the deeds relating to the title, right or
obligation concerned; and no registration fees, stamp duty or other duties shall
be payable.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

30. (1) On and after the appointed date except as provided in this Part, every
deed, bond and agreement (other than an agreement for personal service) to which
the Government was a party immediately before the commencement of this Part,
relating to designated airports and functions referred to in section twenty-six,
whether in writing or not, and whether or not of such nature that rights,
liabilities and obligations thereunder could be assigned, shall, unless its
subject-matter or terms make it impossible that it should have effect as
modified in the manner provided by this subsection, have effect as from the date
of the assignment, as if-Agreements, etc., to be assumed by Company

(a) the Company had been a party to them;

(b) for any reference to the Government there was substituted, as respects
anything falling to be done, on or after the commencement of this Part, a
reference to the Company; and

(c) for any reference to an officer of the Government who is not a party to
the deed, bond or agreement and beneficially interested in them there were
substituted, as respects anything to be done on or after the commencement of
this Part, a reference to such officer of the Company as the Company shall
designate.

(2) Subject to subsection (1), documents other than those referred to in that
subsection which refer specifically or generally to the Government of the
Republic of Zambia shall be construed in accordance with that subsection as far
as applicable.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

31. (1) Where any person who was in the service of the Government at
designated airports or was performing functions referred to in section
twenty-six, immediately before the commencement of this Part, voluntarily
transfers from that service to the service of the Company, his terms and
condition of service with the Company shall be no less favourable than those he
enjoyed while in the service of the Government and his previous service with the
Government shall be treated as service under the Company for the purposes of
determining his rights, to or eligibility for, pension, gratuity, leave or other
benefits.Transfer of service of employees

(2) A person to whom subsection (1) applies shall be deemed to have voluntarily
transferred his services to the Company unless within three months from the
commencement of this Part he gives notice in writing to the Government with a
copy to the Company stating his intention not to transfer from the service of
the Government.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

32. (1) Without prejudice to the other provisions of this Part, where any
right, liability or obligation vests in the Company by virtue of the Part, the
Company and all other persons shall, as from the commencement of this Part, have
the same rights, powers and remedies (and in particular the same rights as to
the instituting or defending of legal proceedings or the making or resisting of
applications to any authority) for ascertaining, perfecting or enforcing that
right, liability or obligation as they would have had if it had at all times
been a right, liability or obligation of the Company.Legal proceedings

(2) Any legal proceedings or application to any authority pending immediately

before the commencement of this Part by or against the Government in relation to
the assets and functions transferred to the Company may be continued by or
against the Company.

(3) After the commencement of this Part, proceedings in respect of any right or
obligation which was vested in, held, enjoyed, incurred or suffered by the
Government relating to the designated airports and functions transferred to the
Company, may be instituted by, or against the Company.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

33. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the
Company or any member or any officer or any employee or any agent of the Company
for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done in pursuance of
this Part or of any rule or regulation made thereunder or for damage sustained
by any aircraft or vehicle or for loss of life or personal injury in consequence
of any defect in any of the designated airports or other things belonging to or
under the control of the Company except where such damage, loss, loss of life or
injury or personal injury is caused by want of reasonable care, diligence or
skill on the part of the Company or any member or any officer or any employee or
any agent.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)Immunity of Company

34. (1) The Minister may, after consultation with the Company, make
regulations to provide for matters necessary to give effect to this
Part.Regulations relating to designated airports and Company

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1) such regulations may-

(a) provide for securing the safety of aircraft, vehicles and persons using
designated airports and preventing danger to the public arising from the use and
operation of aircraft in the designated airport;

(b) provide for preventing obstruction within designated airports for its
normal functioning;

(c) prohibit the parking or waiting of any vehicle or carriage within a

designated airport except at places specified by the Company;

(d) prohibit or restrict access to any part of designated airports; and

(e) provide for preserving order within the designated airports and
preventing damage to property therein.

(As amended by Act No. 16 of 1989)

SUBSIDIARY LEGISLATION

AVIATION

THE AIR NAVIGATION REGULATIONSCAP. 444

ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS

PART I PRELIMINARYPART I

PRELIMINARY

Regulation

1. Title

2. Interpretation

3. Appointment of officers

4. Aircraft to which these Regulations apply

5. Offences and penalties

6. Application to State aircraft

7. Nationality of aircraft

8. Powers of Director in relation to maintenance, etc., of locally

registered aircraft

9. Exemptions

PART II REGISTRATION AND MARKS ON AIRCRAFTPART II

REGISTRATION AND MARKS ON AIRCRAFT

10. Unregistered aircraft not to fly

11. Permission for unregistered aircraft to fly

12. Registration

13. Restrictions on and cancellation of registration

14. Registration void on change of ownership

15. Registration void if aircraft destroyed

16. Aircraft not to fly without appropriate marks

17. Marks on locally registered aircraft

18. Use of State marks

PART III CERTIFICATES OF AIRWORTHINESSPART III

CERTIFICATES OF AIRWORTHINESS

19. Meaning of "aircraft" in Part III

20. Certificate to be in force

21. Issue, renewal and validation of certificates

Regulation

22. Classification of aircraft

23. Restrictions on use of classified aircraft

24. Access to establishments

PART IV INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT AND SAFETY DEVICES FOR AIRCRAFTPART IV

INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT AND SAFETY DEVICES FOR AIRCRAFT

25. Aircraft to which Part IV applies

26. Instruments and equipment: for all flights

27. Instruments and equipment: special circumstances

28. Instruments and equipment: public transport flying machines

29. Instruments and equipment: public transport gliders

30. Instruments and equipment: gliders: special circumstances

31. Instruments and equipment: free balloons

32. Instruments and equipment: captive balloons

33. Approval of instruments, equipment and installation

34. First-aid equipment

35. (Revoked by S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

PART V INSPECTION, OVERHAUL, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION OF AIRCRAFTPART V

INSPECTION, OVERHAUL, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION OF AIRCRAFT

36. Aircraft to which Part V applies: inspection by authorised persons

37. Approval of modifications

38. Requirements for overhauls, repairs, replacements and approved

modifications

39. Certification of overhauls, repairs, replacements and approved

modifications
 40. Work by private owners

PART VI WEIGHING OF AIRCRAFTPART VI

WEIGHING OF AIRCRAFT

41. Aircraft to which Part VI applies

42. Weighing

43. Weight schedules

Regulation

44. Weights to be affixed

45. Alterations of weight schedules

PART VII CERTIFICATES OF MAINTENANCEPART VII

CERTIFICATES OF MAINTENANCE

46. Certification of public transport aircraft

47. Inspection of public transport aircraft for issue of certificate

48. Form of certificates

49. Certificates in ink or indelible pencil

PART VIII SAFETY PRECAUTIONSPART VIII

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS

50. Precautionary action to be taken by person in command

51. Exemption of training aircraft

52. Weight and performance requirements for public transport aircraft

53. Measurement of distances for assessing performance

54. Loading and load sheets

55. Flights over water

56. Miscellaneous

PART IX NAVIGATIONAL RESTRICTIONS, MANAGEMENT OF AIRCRAFT AND SAFETY

PROVISIONSPART IX

NAVIGATIONAL RESTRICTIONS, MANAGEMENT OF AIRCRAFT AND SAFETY PROVISIONS

57. Specified areas

58. Power to restrict flying

 59. Carriage of munitions of war forbidden

60. Carriage of dangerous goods

61. Restrictions on captive balloons, kites and moored airships

62. Imperilling safety of aircraft

63. Drunkenness

64. Smoking

65. Notices in aircraft

Regulation

66. Exists in aircraft

67. Persons not to be carried in certain parts of aircraft

68. Towing

69. Control of aircraft by young persons

70. Special signals and other communications

PART X OPERATIONAL TRAINING AND OPERATIONS MANUALPART X

OPERATIONAL TRAINING AND OPERATIONS MANUAL

71. Training of operating crew, Operations Manual and aerodrome

meterological minima

PART XI OPERATING CREWPART XI

OPERATING CREW

72. Holding of licences

73. Operating crew to be carried

74. Duty time limitations for flight crews

75. Crediting of flight time

PART XII LOG BOOKS AND DOCUMENTSPART XII

LOG BOOKS AND DOCUMENTS

76. Log books for aircraft

77. Log books

78. Flying log books

79. Entries in log books

 80. Documents to be carried in aircraft

81. General provisions

82. Production of documents

83. Powers of Director as to cancellation, etc., of documents

84. Forgery, etc., of documents

PART XIII RADIOCOMMUNICATION AND TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICEPART XIII

RADIOCOMMUNICATION AND TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICE

85. Aircraft to carry radio apparatus

86. Types of apparatus: modification: carriage of licensed operators

Regulation

87. Operation of aircraft station

88. Laws relating to radiotelegraphy and radiotelephony

89. Definition

89A. Telecommunication Service Charges

PART XIV PERSONNEL LICENSING REQUIREMENTSPART XIV

PERSONNEL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

90. General provisions

91. Exemptions

92. Flying instruction

93. Privileges of instrument rating

94. Qualifying conditions for towing rating

95. Practice flights

96. Qualifying flights for licence extensions

97. Requirements

98. Student pilot

99. Private pilot

100. Commercial pilot

101. Senior commercial pilot

102. Airline transport pilot

103. Commerical pilot (soaring gliders)

104. Commercial pilot (trailing gliders)

105. Instrument rating requirements

106. Assistant instructor's rating

107. Instructor's rating

108. Instructor's rating (towed gliders)

109. Towing rating requirements

110. Age of applicant and period of licence for flight navigator

111. Age of applicant and period of licence for flight engineer

112. Age of applicant and period of licence for cabin attendant's licence

113. Age of applicant and period of licence for flight radiotelephony

operator

113A. Age of applicant and period of licence for Air Traffic Controller's
licence

Regulation

113B. Age of applicant and period of licence for Aeronautical Station

Operator's licence

114. Medical requirements

115. Age of applicant and period of licence for Licensing and duties of
aircraft maintenance engineers

115A. Age of applicant and period of licence for Telecommunication and

Navigation Aids engineer's Licence

PART XV AERODROMESPART XV

AERODROMES

116. Licensing of aerodromes

117. Authorisation by Director

118. Charges at and accessibility of aerodromes

119. Use of Government and designated aerodromes

120. Passenger aerodromes

121. Noise on aerodromes

122. Prohibition of entry on aerodromes

PART XVI INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTSPART XVI

INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS

123. Application of Part XVI

124. Interpretation of terms in Part XVI

125. Notification of accidents

126. Interference with aircraft

127. Appointment of inspectors

128. Boards of inquiry

129. Powers of boards of inquiry

130. Remuneration and costs

131. Reports of boards of inquiry

PART XVII GENERAL AND SUPPLEMENTARYPART XVII

GENERAL AND SUPPLEMENTARY

132. Civil Air Ensign

133. Stowaways

134. Power to prevent flights

Regulation

135. Powers of authorised persons and police officers

136. Obstruction of authorised persons

137. Department not liable

138. Changes of address

139. Statistical returns

140. Prescribed fees

FIRST SCHEDULE-Nationality and registration marks

SECOND SCHEDULE-Standards of fitness and medical examinations

THIRD SCHEDULE-Prescribed fees

FOURTH SCHEDULE-Certification of inspections, overhauls, repairs, replacements

and modifications

FIFTH SCHEDULE-Prescribed forms

SECTION 4-THE AIR NAVIGATION REGULATIONS

Regulations by the Minister Federal Government Notices

246 of 1954
641 of 1954
151 of 1957
269 of 1957
130 of 1962
71 of 1963
Government Notices
387 of 1963
497 of 1964
Statutory Instruments
153 of 1965
221 of 1968
345 of 1969
212 of 1973
33 of 1984
48 of 1985
113 of 1986
66 of 1987
174 of 1987
175 of 1987
98 of 1988
177 of 1989
87 of 1991
63 of 1991
7 of 1991
130 of 1994
Act No.
13 of 1994

PART I PRELIMINARYPART I

PRELIMINARY

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Air Navigation Regulations.Title

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"aerial work aircraft" means an aircraft of any class other than a public
transport aircraft which is flown for remuneration payable to the operator of
such aircraft in respect of the flight or in respect of the purpose for which
the flight is carried out;

"aeroplane" means a flying machine supported in flight by fixed wings;

"airship" means an aircraft having gas lighter than air as a means of support,
which has means of propulsion and means of directional control;

"approved" means approved by the Director;

"authorised person" means any member of the inspection staff appointed in terms
of regulation 3 or any person acting under the instructions of the Director;

"balloon" means an aircraft having gas lighter than air as a means of support
which has no means of propulsion;

"captive balloon" means any balloon moored to or towed from the ground or water;

"certificate of airworthiness" includes any flight manual or performance

schedule relating to and required to be carried with the certificate under the
law of the country in which the certificate is issued;

"certificate of maintenance" means a certificate of maintenance issued in terms

of regulation 8 or Part VII;

"class", in relation to flying machines, means either single-engine land, or

single-engine sea, or multi-engine land, or multi-engine sea flying machines;

"contracting State" means any State which is a party to the Convention;

"controlling authority", in relation to a Government aerodrome, means-

(a) the Director;

(b) the officer appointed to be the Commander of the Air Force under the
provisions of section one hundred and sixty-five of the Defence Act; orCap. 106

(c) the officer in control of such aerodromes;

as the case may be;

"description", in relation to aircraft, refers to-

(a) the purpose for which an aircraft is, or intended to be, flown; and

(b) any physical characteristics of an aircraft (including its weight and its
engines, instruments, equipment and apparatus) which may be material for the
purpose with respect to which the expression is used;

"designated aerodrome" means any public aerodrome operated by a Commerical

enterprise registered by the Registrar of Companies in Zambia;

"Director" means the Director of Civil Aviation appointed in terms of regulation

3;

"flying machine" means an aircraft heavier than air and having means of
mechanical propulsion;

"free balloon" means a balloon floating freely in the air;

"glider" means an aircraft heavier than air, not fixed to the ground and having
no means of mechanical propulsion, but having means of directional control;

"goods" includes mails and animals;

"Government aerodrome" means-

(a) any aerodrome under the control of the Director;

(b) any aerodrome belonging to or under the control of the Defence Force;
"instrument flight rules" bears the meaning assigned to it in the Aviation
(Rules of the Air) Regulations;

"kite" means a non-mechanically driven aircraft, heavier than air, moored to or

towed from the ground or water;

"land" and "landing", in relation to aircraft, include alighting on water;

"licence" includes any certificate of competency required to be held in

connection with any licence by the law of the country in which such licence is
granted;

"licensed aerodrome" means any aerodrome licensed in terms of these Regulations;

"military aircraft" includes any naval, military and air force aircraft, and any
aircraft commanded by a person in naval, military or air force service detailed
for the purpose of commanding such aircraft;

"nautical mile" means a distance of 6,080 feet;

"night" means the hours of darkness from fifteen minutes after sunset until
fifteen minutes before sunrise or any other time when an unlighted aircraft or
other unlighted prominent object cannot clearly be seen at a distance of at
least 5,000 yards;

"notified" means shown in any notice to airmen, notice to aircraft owners and
aircraft maintenance engineers, or any other circular or publication issued by
the Director for the purposes of these Regulations;

"operating crew", in relation to an aircraft, includes pilots, flight

navigators, flight engineers, flight radio operators, and flight radiotelephony
operators;

"passengers carried for hire or reward" includes persons carried in aircraft for
the purpose of instruction in flying for which payment is made:

Provided that, for the purpose of determining whether a pilot is required to

hold a licence to fly aircraft carrying passengers or goods for hire or reward,
a member of a recognised club, carried in an aircraft belonging to the club for
the purpose of instruction or otherwise, shall not, if the pilot is also a
member of the same club, be deemed to be a passenger carried for hire or reward,
notwithstanding that payment is made in respect of such instruction;

"person in command", in relation to an aircraft, means, if any person other than

the pilot in charge is in command, such person, and in any other case, the pilot
in charge;

"person in control", in relation to an aerodrome, includes any person having a

right to control the aerodrome and, in the case of a licensed aerodrome, the
licensee thereof;

"personnel", in relation to an aircraft, includes the operating crew and any

other persons having any duties to perform in such aircraft;

"primary airframe structure" means those portions of an aircraft, exclusive of

the engines, the failure of which would seriously endanger such aircraft or any
persons therein;
"private aircraft" means any aircraft of any class other than a public transport
or aerial work aircraft;

"privilege" means any right conferred by a licence entitling the holder of such
licence to perform any function to which such licence relates;

"prototype aircraft" means any aircraft in respect of which an application has

been made for a certificate of airworthiness and the design of which, in whole
or in part, has not previously been investigated in connection with any such
application;

"public transport aircraft" means an aircraft of any class-

(a) carrying passengers or goods for hire or reward; or

(b) comprised in a combination of aircraft where an aircraft is towing other

aircraft, if any such aircraft, either towing or being towed, is carrying
passengers or goods, but does not include any aircraft carrying passengers or
goods if the carriage of such passengers or goods-

(i) is not for hire or reward and is not effected by an air transport
undertaking; or

(ii) is effected by an air transport undertaking but the passengers are

persons in control of or in the employment of such undertaking and the goods are
goods belonging to such undertaking;

"qualified instructor" means a person holding a pilot's licence, which includes

a rating to act in the capacity of instructor or assistant instructor;

"radio" is to be interpreted as a general term applied to the use of

electromagnetic waves of frequencies between 10 kilocycles a second and
3,000,000 megacycles a second;

"radio apparatus" includes all apparatus, including any ancillary equipment, for
sending or receiving by means of radio;

"rating" means an entry in a licence specifying a privilege or limiting the

effect of a privilege;

"scheduled journey" means one of a series of journeys which are undertaken

between the same two places and which together amount to a systematic service
operated in such a manner that the benefits thereof are available to members of
the public from time to time seeking to take advantage of them;

"second pilot" means a pilot duly licensed under the provisions of these
Regulations and performing piloting duties under the direction of the pilot in
charge of the aircraft;

"series aircraft" means an aircraft in respect of which an application has been

made for a certificate of airworthiness and the design of which is similar in
every respect to the design of a prototype aircraft in respect of which a
certificate of airworthiness has previously been issued;

"State aircraft" means military aircraft and aircraft used in Customs and police
services;
"type", in relation to aircraft or engines, means any design which in the
opinion of the Director constitutes a type;

"visual flight rules" bears the meaning assigned to it in the Aviation (Rules of
the Air) Regulations.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954, F.G.N. Nos. 151 and 269 of 1957,
S.I. No. 153 of 1965, S.I. No. 221 of 1968
and S.I. No. 87 of 1991)

3. There shall be a Director of Civil Aviation and such other officers as

members of the inspection staff as may be necessary for carrying out the
provisions of these Regulations.Appointment of officers

4. These Regulations apply (unless the contrary intention appears) to or in

relation to-

(a) all locally registered aircraft and personnel wherever they may be;

(b) all other aircraft when in or over Zambia and their personnel.

(As amended by G.N. No. of 387 of 1963)Aircraft to which these Regulations apply

5. (1) Save as is provided in sub-regulation (2), any person who contravenes

these Regulations or any provision thereof or who, in accordance with the
provisions of sub-regulation (4), is deemed to have contravened these
Regulations, shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding six thousand
penalty units or to imprisonment without the option of a fine for a period not
exceeding six months, or to both.Offences and penalties

(2) Any person who contravenes or fails to comply with, or who in accordance
with the provisions of sub-regulation (4), is deemed to have contravened or
failed to comply with any of the following provisions:

(a) sub-regulation (3) of regulation 10;

(b) sub-regulation (7) of regulation 115;

(c) sub-regulation (10) of regulation 90;

(d) paragraph (b) (iv) of sub-regulation (5) of regulation 90:

(e) regulation 80;

(f) regulation 81;

(g) regulation 82;

(h) sub-regulation (2) of regulation 83;

(i) paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 118;

shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding one hundred and fifty
penalty units or, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction for a like
offence, to a fine not exceeding three hundred penalty units.
(3) If any body corporate contravenes or fails to comply with any provision of
these Regulations, any person who, at the time of the commission of the offence,
was a director, general manager, secretary or other similar officer of such body
corporate or was purporting to act in any such capacity, shall be deemed to be
guilty of such contravention or default unless he proves that the offence was
committed without his consent or connivance, and that he exercised all such
diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he ought to have
exercised, having regard to the nature of his office in that capacity and to all
the circumstances.

(4) If an aircraft contravenes or fails to comply with any provision of these

Regulations, the operator of the aircraft and the person in command (unless he
is also the operator) thereof shall, without prejudice to the liability of any
other person under that provision, be deemed to have contravened or failed to
comply with such provision unless he proves that the contravention or default-

(a) was due to accident, stress of weather, or other unfavourable cause; or

(b) took place without his actual fault or privity.

(As amended by Act No. 13 of 1994)

6. No State aircraft other than a locally registered aircraft shall fly over
or, unless it is required to land in terms of regulation 12 of the Aviation
(Rules of the Air) Regulations, shall land in Zambia unless-

(a) such flight or landing has been authorised by the Minister; and

(b) the aircraft is flown in accordance with the terms and conditions of such
authorisation.

(F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957 as amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Application to State
aircraft

7. An aircraft shall be deemed to possess the nationality of the State on the

register of which it is entered.Nationality of aircraft

8. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in these Regulations, the

Director may, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, issue a certificate
of validation rendering valid for the purposes of these Regulations the
maintenance of a locally registered aircraft which is maintained in accordance
with the requirements of the law relating to airworthiness of any contracting
State specified by the Minister and in such case-

(a) a certificate of maintenance (in such form as may be approved by the

Director for the purpose) in respect of the aircraft issued by a person
authorised in writing by the Director in that behalf and in accordance with that
authority shall be a valid certificate of maintenance for the purposes of these
Regulations; and

(b) an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted or rendered valid by

the duly competent authority under the law of the contracting State specified as
aforesaid shall, for the purposes of these Regulations, be a valid maintenance
engineer's licence in accordance with the privileges endorsed on the licence and
subject to any conditions imposed by the Director.

(S.I. No. 221 of 1968)Powers of Director in relation to maintenance, etc., of

locally registered aircraft

9. The Minister may, by written authority, exempt from the provisions of

these Regulations or any of them any government or aircraft or persons or
classes of aircraft or persons, and such exemption may in any particular case be
subject to any conditions or limitations which in the circumstances of that case
may appear to him to be required.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)Exemptions

PART II REGISTRATION AND MARKS ON AIRCRAFTPART II

REGISTRATION AND MARKS ON AIRCRAFT

10. (1) No aircraft shall fly within Zambia unless it is registered

in-Unregistered aircraft not to fly

(a) a contracting State; or

(b) a country with which a special convention relating to air navigation

entered into by or on behalf of the Government is for the time being in force:

Provided that the Director may, in such special circumstances and subject to
such conditions or limitations as he may think fit, temporarily exempt from the
provisions of this sub-regulation any aircraft not registered in terms of
paragraph (a) or (b).

(2) An aircraft registered in a country with which such a special convention as

aforesaid is in force shall, in addition to complying with the provisions of
these Regulations, also comply with the conditions of that convention.

(3) An aircraft exempted under the proviso to sub-regulation (1) shall carry,
in addition to other documents which it is required by these Regulations to
carry, a certificate, granted either by the Director or by the competent
authority in the country in which the aircraft is registered, certifying that
the aircraft is so exempted and stating any conditions or limitations subject to
which the exemption was granted.

(4) If any aircraft flies in contravention of sub-regulation (1) and in a

manner or in circumstances such that, if the said aircraft had been a locally
registered aircraft, an offence against these Regulations would have been
committed, the like offence shall be deemed to have been committed in respect of
the said aircraft.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

11. (1) Notwithstanding anything in regulation 10 contained, an aircraft may

fly within Zambia unregistered if and so long as it is flown for the purpose of
or in connection with any experiment or test, or for any other purpose for which
it appears to the satisfaction of the Director that the aircraft may be
permitted to fly unregistered:Permission for unregistered aircraft to fly

Provided that in any such case the aircraft shall be flown in accordance with
the provisions of these Regulations, or as may be specified in a special
permission in writing given by the Director.

(2) An aircraft flying in pursuance of the provisions of sub-regulation (1)

shall be deemed to be registered in Zambia for the purposes of these
Regulations.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

12. (1) The registration of aircraft in Zambia shall be carried out by the
Director.Registration

(2) Application for registration of an aircraft shall be made to the Director

and the applicant shall furnish the Director with such particulars relating to
the aircraft and the ownership thereof as he may require in connection with the
application and with such evidence as he may require in support thereof.

(3) The register of locally registered aircraft shall show, in respect of each
aircraft registered, the person appearing to the Director to be owner for the
time being of such aircraft, hereinafter referred to as "registered owner"
(which expression shall be deemed to include the personal representative or in
the case of a body corporate, the successor of that person) and such further
particulars as the Director may fix.

(4) After completion of the registration, the Director shall issue a

certificate of registration.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

13. (1) An aircraft shall not be registered in Zambia-Restrictions on and

cancellation of registration

(a) if it appears to the Director that such aircraft is already registered in

any other country; or

(b) unless it appears to the Director that such aircraft is owned wholly by
persons qualified to be owners of an aircraft registered in Zambia.

(2) The following persons shall be qualified to be owners of a locally

registered aircraft:

(a) citizens of Zambia or persons bona fide resident in Zambia or such other
persons as the Director may approve; and

(b) bodies corporate-

(i) established under and subject to the law of Zambia; or

(ii) established under and subject to the laws of such other country as the
Minister may approve.

(3) If the usual station of an aircraft and its ordinary area of operation are
not situated in Zambia and the owner of the aircraft is neither resident nor has
his principal place of business in Zambia, the Director may decline to accept an
application for registration of the aircraft in Zambia, or, as the case may be,
to permit the aircraft to remain registered in Zambia if in his opinion the
aircraft could more suitably be registered in some other country.

(4) The Director may decline to accept an application for registration of an

aircraft in Zambia if in the circumstances it appears to him to be inexpedient
in the public interest that the aircraft should be so registered.
(5) The registration of any locally registered aircraft may be cancelled at any
time by the Director as from a date to be specified by him on his being
satisfied that the ownership of the aircraft is not as shown on the register, or
that such registration is not in conformity with the provisions of subregulation
(1), or that the aircraft could more suitably be registered in some other
country, or that it is inexpedient in the public interest that the aircraft
should remain registered in Zambia, and thereupon the certificate of such
registration shall become void as from the specified date.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

14. (1) If there is any change in the ownership of any locally registered
aircraft-Registration void on change of ownership

(a) the registered owner shall forthwith notify the Director in writing of
the change and the date thereof; and

(b) the registration and the certificate thereof shall become void as from
the date of the change.

(2) For the purposes of this regulation, there shall be deemed to be a change
in the ownership of an aircraft if-

(a) any registered owner ceases to be an owner; or

(b) any person other than a registered owner becomes owner; or

(c) the aircraft ceases to be owned wholly in conformity with the provisions
of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 13.

15. If any locally registered aircraft is destroyed or permanently withdrawn

from use, the registered owner shall forthwith notify the Director in writing
accordingly and the registration and the certificate thereof shall become void
as from the date of the notification.Registration void if aircraft destroyed

16. No aircraft shall fly unless it bears painted thereon or affixed thereto,
in the manner required by the law of the country in which it is registered, the
nationality and registration marks required by the law of that country, and no
aircraft shall bear any mark purporting to indicate that it is registered in a
country in which it is not registered.Aircraft not to fly without appropriate
marks

17. (1) Locally registered aircraft shall bear in the manner prescribed in
this regulation the nationality and registration marks described in this
regulation.Marks on locally registered aircraft

(2) The nationality mark of the aircraft shall be the figure and capital letter
"9J" and the registration mark shall be a group of three capital letters in
Roman character assigned by the Director on the registration of the aircraft.
The letters shall be without ornamentation and a hyphen shall be placed between
the nationality mark and the registration mark.

(3) The nationality and registration marks-

(a) shall be painted on the aircraft or shall be affixed thereto by any other
means ensuring a similar degree of permanence in the manner provided in the
First Schedule;

(b) shall be inscribed, together with the full name and address of the
registered owner of the aircraft, on a fireproof metal plate affixed in a
prominent position to the fuselage or car or basket and near the main entrance
to the aircraft; and

(c) shall always be kept clean and visible.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

18. An aircraft other than a State aircraft shall not bear any mark or sign
appropriated for use on a State aircraft.Use of State marks

PART III CERTIFICATES OF AIRWORTHINESSPART III

CERTIFICATES OF AIRWORTHINESS

19. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires-Meaning of "aircraft"

in Part III

"aircraft" includes the engines, components, accessories, instruments, equipment

and apparatus, and their installations.

20. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no aircraft shall fly
or attempt to fly unless-Certificate to be in force

(a) there is in force in respect thereof a certificate of airworthiness, duly

issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is
registered; and

(b any conditions on which the certificate was issued or rendered valid are
duly complied with.

(2) Sub-regulation (1) shall not apply-

(a) in the case of-

(i) a balloon not carrying passengers for hire or reward; or

(ii) a kite; which is to be flown within Zambia; or

(b) in the case of any locally registered aircraft which is to be flown for
the purpose of or in connection with any experiment or test or for any other
purpose for which it appears to the satisfaction of the Director that the
aircraft may be permitted to fly without a certificate of airworthiness being in
force in respect thereof:

Provided that in any such case the aircraft shall be flown in accordance with
the conditions specified in a special permission in writing given by the
Director or in accordance with the following conditions:

(i) an application for the issue or renewal of a certificate of airworthiness

in respect of the aircraft or of a validation of such a certificate or an
application for the approval of modifications under regulation 37 shall be made
prior to the flight;
(ii) the aircraft shall be a series aircraft;

(iii) the flight shall be carried out only for the purpose of either
qualifying for the issue or renewal of a certificate of airworthiness or a
validation of such a certificate or obtaining the approval of modifications or
for the purpose of testing radio apparatus installed in such aircraft;

(iv) the flight shall take place wholly within 10 nautical miles of the place
of departure which shall be a licensed aerodrome, a Government aerodrome or an
aerodrome used in connection with an aircraft factory;

(v) the aircraft shall not fly over any town or populous area, over any
assembly of persons in the open air, or over any aerodrome where at the time
conditions are such as to make the flying of the aircraft dangerous;

(vi) the flight shall not be forbidden by the Director.

(3) Paragraphs (iv) and (v) of the proviso to sub-regulation (2) shall not
apply to any locally registered aircraft which is flown for the purpose
mentioned in paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (2) if such flight is being made
for the purpose of testing the radio apparatus installed in the aircraft, and
the aircraft may be flown to and within the vicinity of the radio testing
station suitable for the carrying out of the said tests which is nearest to the
place of departure.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

21. (1) A certificate of airworthiness in respect of an aircraft may be issued

by the Director if he is satisfied that the aircraft complies with the
requirements approved by him in respect of-Issue, renewal and validation of
certificates

(a) design;

(b) construction, including workmanship and materials;

(c) instruments and equipment;

(d) weighing; and

(e) flying trials and other tests;

and if the aircraft, when fitted with an engine or engines, is fitted with an
engine or engines of which an approval in writing has been given by him or under
his authority or by the duly com-petent authority in the country of manufacture
of such engine or engines:

Provided that the Director may delegate the power of granting the aforesaid
approval to any person or body of persons that he may nominate to do so.

(2) When the Director has issued a certificate of airworthiness in respect of a

prototype or prototype (modified) aircraft, he may dispense with all or any of
the tests aforesaid in the case of a series aircraft conforming with such
prototype or prototype (modified) aircraft.

(3) The following provisions shall have effect with respect to a certificate of
airworthiness:
(a) such particulars relating to the aircraft in respect of which the
certificate is issued as may be determined by the Director shall be specified in
the certificate or in a flight manual which may be issued by the Director or by
the duly competent authority in the country of manufacture of the aircraft;

(b) the certificate shall be issued on such conditions as the Director may
think fit, which shall be specified in the certificate or such flight manual;

(c) the particulars specified in the certificate or such flight manual may
from time to time be varied by the Director on sufficient grounds being shown to
his satisfaction;

(d) the conditions specified in the certificate or such flight manual may
from time to time be varied by the Director if he is satisfied that they may be
properly relaxed or that reasonable doubt exists as to whether they afford a
sufficient margin of safety;

(e) a flight manual issued as provided by paragraph (a) shall be deemed to

form part of the certificate with which it is issued and shall be carried with
that certificate.

(4) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the Director shall, subject to the

provisions of sub-regulation (7) and of regulation 83, remain in force for such
period as may be shown therein but may be renewed as provided in sub-regulation
(6).

(5) If a certificate of airworthiness has been duly issued under the laws of
any other country in respect of any locally registered aircraft, the Director
may issue a validation conferring on that certificate, subject to such
conditions and for such period as he may think fit, the same validity as if it
had been issued under the provisions of these Regulations or may, if he thinks
fit, issue a new certificate of airworthiness in respect of the aircraft under
the said provisions.

(6) The Director may from time to time renew a certificate of airworthiness
issued or rendered valid or a validation issued in accordance with the
provisions of these Regulations on being furnished with such evidence as he may
require with respect to the condition of the aircraft to which the certificate
or validation relates, and if such validation has been issued he may, if he
thinks fit and on being furnished with such evidence, issue a new certificate of
airworthiness in respect of the aircraft under the same provisions instead of
renewing the validation.

(7) As a condition of the renewal or continuing validity of a certificate of

airworthiness or a validation of such a certificate issued under these
Regulations, the Director may require that such work as appears to him to be
necessary for ensuring the safety of the aircraft shall be carried out within a
given period.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

22. (1) Any aircraft in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness has

been issued or validated under the provisions of these Regulations shall be
classified as belonging to one or more of the following categories and to one or
more of the following subdivisions:Classification of aircraft
(a) Normal Category-

subdivision (a), public transport for passengers;

subdivision (b), public transport for mails;

subdivision (c), public transport for goods;

subdivision (d), private;

subdivision (e), aerial work;

subdivision (h), demonstration;

subdivision (i), crew familiarisation.

(b) Semi-aerobatic Category-

subdivisions (a) to (e) and (h) and (i) as in the Normal Category.

(c) Aerobatic Category-

subdivisions (a) to (e) and (h) and (i) as in the Normal Category.

(d) Special Category-

subdivision (f), racing or record;

subdivision (g), research or experimental;

subdivisions (h) and (i) as in the Normal Category.

(2) (a) If it is desired to have any aircraft classified in subdivision (e),

(f), (g), (h) or (i), the particular purposes for which it is proposed to use
such aircraft should be quoted on the form of application for the issue or
validation of a certificate of airworthiness.

(b) An application for the re-classification of an aircraft should be made in

writing and forwarded to the Director. The aircraft may be re-classified if it
conforms to the requirements applicable to the proposed classification.

23. (1) Any locally registered aircraft being flown in accordance with a
certificate of airworthiness or a validation of such a certificate issued under
these Regulations may be used only in such manner and for such purposes as may
be specified in that certificate of airworthiness or validation in accordance
with the category and subdivisions thereof in which the aircraft is
classified.Restrictions on use of classified aircraft

(2) The conditions specified in sub-regulation (1) shall apply in the case of
an aircraft registered in any foreign country when being flown in Zambia in
accordance with a certificate of airworthiness or validation issued by the
country of registration.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

24. If an application has been made for a certificate of airworthiness in

respect of an aircraft, any person authorised in writing by the Director shall
at all times during working hours while the aircraft is under construction have
the right of access to any place in any establishment to which access is
necessary for the purpose of inspecting the manufacture or assembly of any part
of the aircraft or any drawings of any part of the aircraft.Access to
establishments

PART IV INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT AND SAFETY DEVICES FOR AIRCRAFTPART IV

INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT AND SAFETY DEVICES FOR AIRCRAFT

25. The provisions of this Part shall apply to locally registered aircraft
when flying or about to fly.Aircraft to which Part IV applies

26. According to the class and description of the aircraft and the
circumstances of the flight, there shall be carried in the aircraft and
maintained in a fit condition for immediate use the following instruments and
equipment, and the devices to be used and the precautionary measures to be taken
for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft shall be as prescribed
hereunder:Instruments and equipment: for all flights

In flying machines for all flights-

(a) the instruments, equipment and devices required by the Director, or by

the duly competent authority in the country of manufacture, for the issue of a
certificate of airworthiness in respect of the particular aircraft;

(b) maps or charts to cover the whole route of the proposed flight and any
route to which the pilot in charge of the flying machine may reasonably expect
to be diverted. Information to which the pilot in charge may need to refer in
flight in order to comply with the rules;

(c) first-aid kit, except in the case of private flying machines;

(d) spare electrical fuses for all electrical circuits, the fuses of which
can be replaced in flight, consisting of 10 per centum of the number of each
rating, or three of each rating, whichever is the greater;

(e) in flying machines designed to manoeuvre on the water, the equipment for
making the sound signals specified in regulation 24 of the Aviation (Rules of
the Air) Regulations.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957)

27. The items specified in this regulation and in regulation 28, in so far as
they may not be included in the requirements specified in regulation 26, shall
also be carried by flying machines in the cases indicated in this regulation or
in regulation 28, whichever may be applicable.

(1) In flying machines for flights by night-Instruments and equipment:

special circumstances

(a) the equipment for displaying the lights described in regulation 73 and,
if the flying machine is designed to manoeuvre on the water, regulation 74 of
the Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations;

(b) in flying machines not equipped with radiocommunication apparatus,

equipment for making the visual signal specified in sub-regulation (2) of
regulation 47 of the Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations;

(c) adequate electrical illumination, supplied from the main source of supply
in the flying machine, for the instruments and equipment (including maps) the
carriage of which is prescribed and the illumination of which is necessary to
enable use to be made of them during flight;

(d) turn-and-slip indicator, or a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a

gyroscopic direction indicator.

(2) Revoked by S.I. No. 212 of 1973.

(3) Revoked by S.I. No. 212 of 1973.

(4) In flying machines for flights made under Instrument Flight Rules-

(a) turn-and-slip indicator;

(b) gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator;

(c) gyroscopic direction indicator;

(d) two sensitive altimeters adjustable for changes in barometric pressure,

one of which may be the altimeter required for the issue of a certificate of
airworthiness;

(e) timepiece with a centre seconds hand;

(f) means of indicating that the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments
is working satisfactorily;

(g) rate of climb and descent indicator;

(h) in flying machines of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds
12,500 lb., a means of indicating the outside air temperature;

(i) in flying machines of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds
12,500 lb., two air speed indicators;

(j) approach chart for each aerodrome specified in the flight plan.

(k) an alternative supply for the static pressure line or lines;

(5) In flying machines for flights involving aerobatic manoeuvres-

safety harness for every seat in use.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957 and S.I. no. 212 of 1973)

28. In public transport flying machines-

(1) For all flights-Instruments and equipment: public transport flying

machines

(a) safety harness for every seat in use by a member of the crew;

(b) safety belt or safety harness for every passenger's seat and means of
indicating to the passengers when they should be fastened;

(c) sensitive altimeter adjustable for changes in barometric pressure, unless

the altimeter required for the issue of the certificate of airworthiness meets
this condition;

(d) timepiece with a centre seconds hand;

(e) turn-and-slip indicator, or a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a

gyroscopic direction indicator;

(f) such other instruments, equipment and supplies as the Director may, at
his discretion, require to be carried on flights across notified areas where
search and rescue would be especially difficult, or in the particular
circumstances of the case.

(2) For flights by night or under Instrument Flight Rules by public transport
flying machines the maximum total weight authorised of which exceeds 2,500 lb.-

the equipment specified in paragraph (4) of regulation 27.

(3) For all flights which involve manoeuvres on the water-

(a) lifejacket, or equivalent, equipped with a waterproof torch and whistle

for each person on board and stowed in a position easily accessible from the
person's seat;

(b) notices displayed in each passenger compartment stating where the

lifejackets are situated and instructing passengers how to use them in the event
of their being required;

(c) additional flotation equipment, of not less than 20 per centum of the
capacity of the equipment required under sub-paragraph (a), provided in a
stowage accessible from outside the flying machine;

(d) equipment of marine type for making, from the surface of the water, the
pyrotechnical signal of distress specified in regulation 79 of the Aviation
(Rules of the Air) Regulations;

(e) equipment for mooring or for anchoring appropriate to the maximum total
weight authorised for the flying machine.

(4) For flights which involve manoeuvres on the water by flying machines the
maximum total weight authorised of which exceeds 5,000 lb.-

(a) sea anchor (drogue);

(b) apparatus necessary to facilitate manoeuvring the aircraft under its own
engine power on the water appropriate to its weight, size and handling
characteristics, and, if such apparatus is not controlled by the pilot, a
communication system enabling him to instruct the operator thereof.

(5) For flights over water beyond gliding distance from any coast or shore-

(a) the equipment and notices specified in sub-

paragraphs (a) and (b) respectively of paragraph (3);
(b) equipment necessary for making the pyrotechnical signal of distress and
the green light urgency signals specified in regulations 79 and 80 of the
Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations.

(6) For flights by aeroplanes over water, the following equipment if required
under sub-regulations (2) and (3) of regulation 55:

(a) suitably equipped dinghies of an approved type sufficient to accommodate

all occupants of the aeroplane. Each dinghy shall carry the following equipment:

(i) means for maintaining buoyancy;

(ii) a drogue to reduce drift;

(iii) life lines and means of attaching one raft to another;

(iv) paddles or other means of propulsion;

(v) equipment to protect the occupants from the elements;

(vi) a waterproof torch;

(vii) marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;

(viii) means of making sea water drinkable;

(ix) sufficient food and water to sustain the occupants of the dinghy for
a period as notified;

(x) first-aid equipment;

(b) the items mentioned in sub-paragraphs (i) to (v) and (vii) of

sub-paragraph (a) shall be of a type approved for operation in the type of
dinghy in which they are installed;

(c) routine maintenance and inspection of dinghies and dinghy equipment shall
be carried out to ensure that they are maintained in a serviceable condition;

(d) the method of stowage of dinghies required by sub-paragraph (a) and the
method of launching shall be such as to ensure the most expeditious and
efficient use of them in the event of a forced landing of the aeroplane;

(e) the equipment specified in sub-paragraphs (vi) to (x) of sub-paragraph

(a) shall be contained in a pack and one such pack shall be stowed with each
dinghy so that it is immediately available when the dinghy is launched;

(f) for every four or proportion of four dinghies, one dinghy radio
transmitter shall be carried in the aeroplane in the position in which it would
be most readily available for use in an emergency. The radio transmitter shall
be of an approved type and the method of stowage in the aeroplane and subsequent
operation in the dinghy shall be approved;

(g) in the case of flights over water by flying machines other than
aeroplanes, such items of equipment shall be carried as the director may
require.

(7) For flights by night-

(a) landing lights consisting of two single-filament or one dual-filament
lamp with separately energised filaments;

(b) cabin lights in all passengers' compartments;

(c) one electric torch for each member of the aircraft personnel on duty:
Provided that, if a flying machine is authorised by the certificate of
airworthiness to carry more than nineteen persons, it shall be equipped with two
electric torches and with an emergency lighting system of approved type, design
and construction, which will provide illumination in the passenger compartments
in the event of failure of the lights specified in sub-paragraph (b);

(d) means of observing the existence and build-up of ice on the aircraft if
the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised which exceeds 12,500 lb.

(8) For flights in the course of which a height of 10,000 feet or more above
sea level is likely to be reached-

(a) an adequate supply of oxygen together with suitable apparatus for the use
thereof-

(i) by the crew, when the aircraft will be operated at heights above 10,000
feet above sea level for periods in excess of 30 minutes;

(ii) by the crew and passengers, when the aircraft will be operated at
heights above 13,000 feet above sea level for any period of time, in which case
the supply and apparatus shall be under the control of a member of the operating
crew;

(b) an adequate emergency portable supply of oxygen for the relief of

individual passengers;

(c) when a supply other than an emergency supply of oxygen must be carried,
means of indicating to the passengers in each passenger compartment at
appropriate times when oxygen should be used, and method of use;

(d) notwithstanding anything in this regulation

contained, where the air space in the control compartment and passenger
compartments, if any, is kept at a pressure greater than that of the
international standard atmosphere at 10,000 feet, then such oxygen only as would
be necessary for the operating crew of the aircraft as an emergency measure in
the event of pressure failure need be provided.

(9) For flights on which a licensed flight navigator is required to be on

board-

(a) chart table;

(b) such navigational instruments as are necessary for the particular flight;

(c) adequate facilities for the taking of astronomical observations,

including observations for checking the magnetic compass.

(10) For flights when the weather reports available at the time of departure
indicate the probability that conditions pre-disposing to ice formation will be
encountered-
(a) means of preventing the formation of or means of removing such ice on the
wings, tail surfaces and control surfaces as would seriously alter the
aero-dynamic characteristics of the aircraft or interfere with the proper
functioning of its flying controls;

(b) means of preventing the formation of or means of removing such ice on the
propellers as would seriously alter their aero-dynamic characteristics, and, in
the case of a variable-pitch propeller, would interfere with its pitch-changing
mechanism;

(c) means of protecting any fixed aerial to ensure that ice accretion will
not interfere with the electrical insulation;

(d) if a non-retractable direction-finding loop is fitted, means of

preventing ice accretion thereon;

(e) such safeguards, whether by heating or otherwise, as are necessary to

ensure that all instruments and equipment required for use during the flight of
the aircraft will continue to function under icing conditions;

(f) means of preventing the formation of or means of removing ice on such

portion of the pilot's windscreen as is necessary to provide an adequate view.

(11) For flights on which passengers are carried-

The pilot in charge of the flying machine, or other member of the crew
to whom the responsibility has been delegated by the operator of the flying
machine, shall-

(a) before the commencement of a flight, take reasonable steps to ensure that
all safety belts and safety harnesses have been correctly fastened and that the
passengers have been made aware of their method of operation;

(b) before each landing of the flying machine, take reasonable steps to
ensure that all safety belts and safety harnesses have been correctly fastened;

(c) when conditions of turbulent air prevail and if he considers such a

precaution necessary, take reasonable steps to ensure that all safety belts and
safety harnesses have been correctly fastened;

(d) in the case of flights by landplanes over water beyond 30 minutes' flying
distance from the nearest shore, show the passengers by practical demonstration
before the take-off or before reaching 30 minutes' flying distance from the
nearest shore, the position of the lifejackets, or equivalents, and the method
of their operation;

(e) in the case of flights by flying boats over water, show the passengers by
practical demonstration before the take-off the position of the lifejackets, or
equivalents, and the method of their operation.

(As amended by F.G.N. Nos. 151 and 269 of 1957)

29. In public transport and aerial work gliders-

The instruments, equipment and devices required for the issue of a

certificate of airworthiness in respect of the particular glider. Such
additional instruments and equipment as the Director may, at his discretion,
require to be carried in any particular case.Instruments and equipment: public
transport gliders

30. The items specified in this regulation shall, in so far as they may not
be included in the requirements specified in regulation 29, also be carried by
gliders in the cases respectively indicated.

(1) In all gliders for flights by night-Instruments and equipment: gliders:

special circumstances

(a) equipment for displaying the lights described in regulation 76 of the

Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations;

(b) adequate electrical illumination, supplied from the main source of supply
in the glider, for the instruments and equipment (including maps) required to be
carried and the illumination of which is necessary to enable use to be made of
them during flight.

(2) In all gliders for flights involving aerobatic manoeuvres-

safety harness for every seat in use.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957)

31. In free balloons-

(1) For all flights-Instruments and equipment: free balloons

(a) equipment necessary for making the pyrotechnical signal of distress

specified in regulation 79 of the Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations;

(b) such other instruments and equipment as the Director may, at his
discretion, require to be carried in any particular case.

(2) In addition for flights by night-

equipment for displaying the light described in regulation 77 of the

Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957)

32. In captive balloons-Instruments and equipment: captive balloons

For all flights-

(a) such instruments and equipment as the Director may, at his discretion,
require to be carried in any particular case;

(b) equipment for displaying the lights and markings described in regulation
78 of the Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957)

33. All the instruments and equipment referred to in paragraphs (a) and (d)
of regulation 26 or in regulations 27 to 32 (both inclusive) shall be of such
type, construction and design, and shall be fitted and installed in such manner
as may be approved by the Director.

the navigational instruments referred to in sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph (9)

of regulation 28;

the apparatus referred to in sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph (4) of regulation

28;

timepieces;

chart tables;

first-aid kits;

sea anchors (drogues);

torches;

whistles;

sound signals;

equipment for mooring or for anchoring;

mooring lights.

(As amended by S.I. No. 212 of 1973)Approval of instruments, equipment and

installation

34. In the case of aircraft carrying passengers for hire and reward,
first-aid kits shall contain equipment suitable for rendering first-aid in any
accident that may occur and sufficient for the purpose having regard to the
number of persons in the aircraft and shall include the following items:

materials-bandages, splints, antiseptic gauze, adhesive plaster, lint, cotton

wool, safety pins;

instruments-tourniquet or haemostatic bandage, scissors, forceps;

drugs-water-miscible antiseptic, analgesic, narcotic (if morphine, or any other

drug to which the Dangerous Drugs Act applies, is carried, the quantity shall
not amount to more than one-quarter grain per person and shall be in the form of
ampoule syringes), stimulant, remedy for burns.First-aid equipment
Cap. 252

35. (Revoked by S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

PART V INSPECTION, OVERHAUL, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION OF AIRCRAFTPART V

INSPECTION, OVERHAUL, REPAIR AND MODIFICATION OF AIRCRAFT

36. (1) The provisions of this Part shall apply to locally registered aircraft
in respect of which certificates of airworthiness issued or rendered valid under
these Regulations are or have been in force.Aircraft to which Part V applies:
inspection by authorised persons

(2) Any such aircraft may be inspected by any person or firm authorised in
writing by the Director for that purpose. In addition any person or firm so
authorised as aforesaid may in any particular case give any special instructions
with regard to the inspection, overhaul, repair, replacement of parts and
modification of any such aircraft (including all its equipment and the
installation thereof) which appear to him to be required for the purpose of
securing the safety of the aircraft.

(3) The Director may at any time inspect the premises and equipment of any
person or firm authorised to inspect aircraft or give instructions in terms of
sub-regulation (2).

37. (1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not carry out any
modifications (including changes of equipment or its installation) which, in the
opinion of a person authorised as aforesaid, affect the safety of the aircraft
without first obtaining the approval of the Director, who must be furnished with
copies of such design, data, calculations, reports on tests and drawings as may
be required:Approval of modifications

Provided that, if a modification to a type of aircraft has already been approved

under this regulation or by the duly competent authority in the country of
manufacture, it shall not be necessary save as is provided in regulation 39 to
obtain approval for the same modification when incorporated in another aircraft
of the same type. The Director may require that, if any modification of an
aircraft is carried out, a new certificate of airworthiness in respect of that
aircraft is obtained.

(2) An aircraft in respect of which any requirements or special instructions

mentioned in sub-regulation (2) of regulation 36 have not been complied with or
in respect of which an approval in terms of subregulation (1) or a new
certificate of airworthiness required under sub-regulation (1) has not been
obtained shall not, pending compliance with such requirements or special
instructions or pending the obtaining of such approval or new certificate of
airworthiness, as the case may be, fly or attempt to fly except in so far as it
may be permitted to fly by the Director or except in so far as it might fly if
no certificate of airworthiness was in force in respect thereof.

38. The following requirements shall apply to inspections, overhauls, repairs,

replacements, and to approved modifications carried out to an
aircraft:Requirements for overhauls, inspections, repairs, replacements and
approved modifications

(1) The work shall be carried out in accordance with the relevant technical
publications or approved maintenance schedules and in all essential respects
shall comply with the approved design in conformity with which the aircraft was
constructed, including such modifications as have been approved for embodiment
therein or, alternatively, shall be undertaken in accordance with a repair
scheme approved in writing by the Director or by the duly competent authority in
the country of manufacture of the aircraft. Records of work carried out shall be
maintained in a manner acceptable to the Director.

(2) All materials used shall be as approved for the design in conformity with
which the aircraft was constructed, or as otherwise approved, and shall have
been obtained from sources acceptable to, and stored in a manner and in
conditions approved by the Director.

(3) All work shall be inspected, to the extent necessary in the circumstances
of the case, in accordance with the requirements of the Director.
(4) A certificate in accordance with the terms of regulation 39 shall be
given and, if the Director so requires, the certificate of airworthiness of the
aircraft shall be forwarded forthwith to the Director in order that it may be
amended.

(5) No unlicensed person shall do work of any nature to an aircraft unless he

has first obtained the consent in writing of the Director, nor shall any person
permit or direct any unlicensed person to do such work unless the consent as
aforesaid has been obtained.

(6) Any welding process applied to the primary airframe structure shall be
applied only by a person approved for the purpose by the Director:

Provided that in emergency if it is not reasonably practicable to

comply
with the requirements mentioned in this regulation, a temporary repair of the
part or parts affected may be made for the sole purpose of enabling the aircraft
to proceed to the nearest place at which a repair complying with the above
requirements can be carried out, and if the person in command of the aircraft is
satisfied that, having regard to the circumstances and exigencies of the case,
such repair is adequate for the purpose, the aircraft may then proceed to fly to
such place without having such temporary repair certified in accordance with the
foregoing requirements.

(As amended by S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

39. The following provisions shall apply to or in relation to every

certificate required under regulations 37 and 38:

(1) The certificate shall be appended to the particulars of the inspection

overhaul, repair, replacement or modification to which it relates and shall be
in the form prescribed in the Fourth Schedule.

(2) The certificate shall be signed by an aircraft maintenance engineer

qualified under the terms and conditions of his licence to certify the
inspection overhaul, repair, replacement or modification to which the
certificate relates, or by the authorised representative of a firm or company
approved for the purpose of giving such certificates or by some other approved
person.

(3) The certificate shall, if relating to the aircraft exclusive of the

engines, be written in the aircraft log book; if relating to the engines, be
written in the appropriate engine log book; and if relating to a variable-pitch
propeller, be written in the appropriate propeller log book:

Provided that-Certification of inspections, overhauls, repairs,

replacements and approved modifications

(i) if the details of any inspections, overhaul, repair, replacement or

modification are so voluminous as to render it inconvenient to enter them in the
space provided in the log book, such details shall be entered in a separate
maintenance record which shall be numbered for identification purposes,
certified in like manner to that required for the relevant entry in the log book
and retained in safe custody in order that it may be produced on such occasions
as it may be required for inspection. The number of such record and particulars
of the place where it may be inspected shall be inserted in the log book
together with a brief description of the inspection overhaul, repair,
replacement or modification to which the record relates;

(ii) if the appropriate log book is not at the place where the inspection
overhaul, repair, replacement or modification is carried out, the certificate
may be given separately from the log book, in which case it shall be pasted in
the log book in terms of paragraph (3) of regulation 79.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954 and S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

40. (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (4) and (5) of regulation
38 and paragraph (2) of regulation 39, the owner or owners of an aircraft
classified in its certificate of airworthiness solely in subdivision (d)
"private" may perform such work on the aircraft as may be necessary to maintain
it in an airworthy condition, provided that the work does not involve any
dismantling of any component of the primary airframe structure; or of the engine
other than that which is essential to carry out those maintenance and inspection
operations normally necessary to ensure satisfactory engine functioning. After
the performance of any work under this regulation, an appropriate entry in the
relevant log book shall be made, accompanied by a certificate in terms of
paragraph (1) of regulation 39 signed by the owner or, if the aircraft is owned
jointly by a number of persons, by one of that number.Work by private owners

(2) If the owner or owners of an aircraft classified in the manner described in

sub-regulation (1) require to carry out on the aircraft work of a nature other
than that described in sub-regulation (1), permission to do shall first be
obtained from the Director who may, in granting permission, impose special
requirements in respect of the work with which the applicant shall comply.

(3) For the purposes of this regulation-

"dismantling" means taking apart or altering the position of;

"inspection" means visual examination;

"maintenance" means work necessary to ensure the continuation of a degree of

serviceability which, substantially, already exists.

PART VI WEIGHING OF AIRCRAFTPART VI

WEIGHING OF AIRCRAFT

41. (1) The provisions of this Part shall apply to locally registered aircraft
in respect of which certificates of airworthiness are or have been in
force.Aircraft to which Part VI applies

(2) Any such aircraft may be inspected by a person authorised in writing by the
Director for the purpose.

42. An aircraft shall, under arrangements to be made by the operator thereof,

be weighted at such times as the Director may require and to his
satisfaction.Weighing

43. An aircraft shall carry, exhibited in a prominent position inside it, a

weight schedule giving the following information:

(1) The nationality and registration marks of the aircraft;

(2) The weight of the aircraft empty, which shall include-Weight schedules

(a) the weight of the liquid in the system if the aircraft is fitted with
liquid cooled engines; and

(b) the weight of all accessories, instruments, equipment and apparatus

(including radio apparatus) and other parts which in the opinion of the Director
should be regarded as fixed and irremovable;

(3) A list of the accessories, instruments, equipment, and apparatus

(including radio apparatus) and other parts which in the opinion of the Director
should be regarded as fixed and irremovable, which have been included in the
weight of the aircraft empty;

(4) A list of the accessories, instruments, equipment and apparatus and other
parts (excluding radio apparatus and radio parts) which in the opinion of the
Director should be regarded as not fixed but removable, together with details of
their respective weights;

(5) A list of the radio apparatus and radio parts which in the opinion of the
Director should be regarded as removable, together with details of their
respective weights.

44. The aircraft shall also bear clearly painted upon the outside in a
prominent position-

(a) its weight empty, that is to say, the weight referred to in paragraph (2)
of regulation 43; and

(b) the maximum total weight authorised for the aircraft as shown for the
time being in its certificate of airworthiness.

Alterations of weight schedulesWeights to be affixed

45. (1) Whenever any alteration affecting the particulars or weights entered
in the weight schedule is made, the weight schedule carried in the aircraft in
accordance with regulation 43 shall be amended or replaced by a revised
schedule.Alterations of weight schedules

(2) Whenever the aircraft is weighed in accordance with regulation 42, the
fixed accessories, instruments, equipment, apparatus and parts shall be checked
against the particulars entered in the weight schedule referred to in regulation
43.

PART VII

CERTIFICATES OF MAINTENANCE(F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954)

46. (1) Subject to the provisions of this Part, no locally registered public
transport or aerial work aircraft shall fly or attempt to fly unless it has been
maintained in accordance with maintenance schedules approved in writing by the
Director (in this Part called "the maintenance schedules") in respect of that
aircraft and a certificate has been issued and is in force under this
regulation, certifying that the aircraft has been so maintained or has been
issued under regulation 8:Certification of public transport aircraft.
Provided that nothing in this regulation contained shall be deemed to require
the landing of an aircraft which is actually in flight.

(2) The operator shall incorporate in the maintenance schedules any amendments
which may from time to time be required by the Director.

(3) The certificate of maintenance shall come into force immediately after it
has been issued and shall cease to be in force-

(a) on the expiry of its period of validity, being a period of time from its
issue which shall be specified in the maintenance schedules relating to the
aircraft; or

(b) as soon as the aircraft has flown for the number of hours which shall be
specified for this purpose in the maintenance schedules relating to it;

whichever is the sooner.

(4) The operator of the aircraft shall record on the certificate of maintenance
relating to the aircraft the period of its validity.

(5) As soon as a certificate of maintenance in respect of the aircraft is

issued, the operator of the aircraft shall provide a technical log (in this Part
called a "record of flying hours") for the purpose of recording the number of
hours during which the aircraft has flown since the issue of such certificate of
maintenance. The technical log shall be carried in the aircraft on all flights.

(6) On the termination of every flight, the person in command of the aircraft
shall enter in the record of flying hours the duration of the flight in hours
and minutes and shall sign and date such entry.

(7) The entry referred to in sub-regulation (6) shall be preserved by the

operator for two years after the expiry of the certificate of maintenance.

(8) As soon as a certificate of maintenance in respect of the aircraft is

issued, the operator of the aircraft shall provide a technical log (in this Part
called a "record of defects") for the purpose of recording defects in the
aircraft occurring during the period of validity of such certificate of
maintenance and the rectification of such defects. The technical log shall be
carried in the aircraft on all flights.

(9) On the termination of every flight, the person in command of the aircraft
shall enter in the record of defects-

(a) particulars of any defects in the aircraft, including its engines,

components, accessories, instruments, equipment, apparatus and their
installations, observed by him during the flight or reported to him; or

(b) if no such defect has been observed by him during the flight, or reported
to him, a statement to that effect; and shall sign and date such entry.

(10) After rectifying any such defect in the aircraft, the appropriately
licensed aircraft maintenance engineer or other approved person effecting such
rectification shall enter in the record of defects particulars of such
rectification and shall sign and date such entry.

(11) The operator shall either preserve each entry in the record of defects for
a period of two years after the expiry of the period of validity of such
certificate of maintenance, or shall, in terms of paragraph (3) of regulation
79, cause a copy of the entry to be made in the aircraft log book, engine log
book or propeller log book, whichever is appropriate, kept in respect of the
aircraft.

(12) If no copy of an entry is made in the appropriate log book, the operator
shall, as soon as is reasonably practicable, and in any case within six months
of the expiry of the period of validity of such certificate of maintenance,
cause particulars sufficient to identify the entry to be written in such log
book.

(13) A certificate of maintenance may be issued for the purposes of this

regulation only by-

(a) the holder of a licence granted under these Regulations as an aircraft

maintenance engineer, being a licence of appropriate category in accordance with
regulation 115; or

(b) the holder of a licence as such an engineer granted under the law of a
country other than Zambia and rendered valid under these Regulations, in
accordance with the privileges endorsed on the licence; or

(c) a person whom the Director has authorised to issue a certificate of

maintenance in a particular case, and in accordance with that authority:

Provided that, upon approving a maintenance schedule, the Director may direct
that certificates of maintenance relating to that schedule, or to any part
thereof specified in his direction, may be issued only by the holder of such
licence as is so specified.

(14) The rectification of any defect in terms of sub-regulation (10) shall be

certified by an aircraft maintenance engineer holding an appropriately rated
licence in Category A, C, X or A(R) in respect of the relevant type of aircraft,
engine, instrument, accessory or radio which has been granted or rendered valid
under these Regulations, or by a person authorised in writing by the Director
for that purpose.

(15) In such cases as the Director may approve, a certificate of maintenance in

respect of a locally registered aircraft may be issued by the holder of a
licence as an aircraft maintenance engineer which has been granted or rendered
valid by the duly competent authority in any country specified by the Director,
and a defect may likewise be rectified.

(As amended by S.I. No. 221 of 1968 and S.I. No. 345 of 1969) and S.I. No. 212
of 1973)

47. The following provisions shall apply to the maintenance and inspection of
any public transport aircraft carried out in connection with the issue of a
certificate of maintenance:

(a) prior to the issue of a certificate of maintenance, the operator of the

aircraft shall furnish such information as may be necessary to enable the
aircraft maintenance engineers who are to sign the certificate to be satisfied
that up to the date of issue of such certificate all maintenance and inspection
required to be carried out in accordance with the maintenance schedules for the
aircraft has been so carried out;
(b) the aircraft (including the instruments and equipment prescribed in Part
IV but excluding its engines and engine installations and all instruments
relating thereto) shall, subject to the provisions of paragraph (d), be
certified in the form and manner shown in the Fourth Schedule by the holder of
an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence in Category A in respect of such
aircraft;

(c) in the case of a flying machine or an airship, the engines and engine
installations and the instruments prescribed in Part IV relating thereto shall,
subject to the provisions of paragraph (d), be certified in the form and manner
shown in the Fourth Schedule by the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's
licence in Category C in respect of such engines;

(d) the aircraft and engines may be certified by the same aircraft
maintenance engineer if he is the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's
licence both in Category A and Category C in respect of such aircraft and
engines:Inspection of public transport aircraft for issue of certificate

Provided that the magnetic compasses may be adjusted and compensated by the
holder of an airline transport pilot's licence, a senior commercial pilot's
licence or a flight navigator's licence, who shall certify to that effect on the
deviation cards. In such case the next subsequent certificate of maintenance
issued may be altered by inserting after the word "equipment" the words "other
than magnetic compasses". Such alteration to a certificate of maintenance shall
be initialled by the aircraft maintenance engineer who issues the certificate.

48. The certificate of maintenance issued in accordance with the provisions

of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 46 shall, according to the class of the
aircraft concerned, be in one of the forms prescribed in the Fourth Schedule, or
in such other form as may be approved as suitable for the purpose.Form of
certificates

49. Every certificate of maintenance shall be prepared in ink or indelible

pencil.Certificates in ink or indelible pencil

PART VIII SAFETY PRECAUTIONSPART VIII

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS

50. (1) The provisions of this regulation shall apply to locally registered
aircraft.Precautionary action to be taken by person in command

(2) No aircraft shall fly or attempt to fly unless the person in command of the
aircraft satisfies himself-

(a) that the aircraft is equipped with the appropriate instruments and
equipment required in terms of Part IV and, in the case of an aircraft required
to be equipped with radio apparatus, that the aircraft is so equipped, and that
the aircraft and its instruments, equipment and radio apparatus are fit in every
way for the proposed flight;

(b) that provision as may be necessary in the circumstances of the proposed

flight has been made for the use of any of the devices prescribed in Part IV and
for the taking of any similarly prescribed precautionary measures in the
aircraft for the purpose of promoting the safety thereof;
(c) that the load carried is of such weight, and so distributed and secured,
that it may safely be carried on the proposed flight;

(d) that the view of the pilot is not interfered with by any obstruction not
forming part of the structure of the aircraft and is not obscured by reason of
any discoloration of, damage to, or deposit on any of the windows, windscreens
or sidescreens of the aircraft;

(e) in the case of a flying machine or airship, that sufficient fuel and oil
and cooling fluid (when required) are carried therein for the proposed flight,
including a safe margin for contingencies, and that the output of electricity
which will be available is sufficient to ensure the effective operation of all
the electrical equipment installed in the aircraft which it is intended or which
it may be necessary to bring into operation during the flight;

(f) in the case of a flying machine or glider, that the wings and control
surfaces are free from ice and hoar frost;

(g) in the case of a flying machine, that, having regard to the performance
of the flying machine in the conditions to be expected on the proposed flight,
it is capable of clearing by a safe margin the edge of the aerodrome of
departure, of reaching and maintaining a safe height thereafter along the route
of the proposed flight and of making a safe landing at the aerodrome of
destination; and

(h) in the case of an airship or balloon-

(i) that sufficient ballast is carried for the proposed flight; and

(ii) that the conditions laid down in the certificate of airworthiness have
been complied with.

(3) No aircraft shall fly or manoeuvre on land or water unless the pilot of the
aircraft has taken all such steps as are practicable to secure that the windows,
windscreens or side-screens of the aircraft through which he obtains his view
forward or sideways are maintained in such a condition as not to obscure his
view.

51. The requirements specified in regulation 52 shall apply to locally

registered public transport and locally registered aerial work aeroplanes other
than public transport aeroplanes which are being used solely for the purpose of
training any persons carried therein, in addition to the personnel thereof, to
perform duties in an aeroplane.Exemption of training aircraft

52. Subject to the provisions of regulation 51, a public transport or aerial

work aeroplane shall not fly or attempt to fly unless-

(1) the weight of such aeroplane immediately before the commencement of the
proposed flight is such that one of the following conditions is complied
with:Weight and performance requirements for public transport aircraft

(a) the wing loading of the aeroplane does not exceed 20 lb. per square foot;
or

(b) the stalling speed of the aeroplane in the landing configuration does not
exceed 60 knots; or
(c) the aeroplane, with any one of its engines inoperative and the remaining
engines developing maximum continuous power, has a positive rate of climb at an
altitude of 5,000 feet above sea level in conditions of standard atmosphere;

(2) the person in command of the aeroplane has satisfied himself that the
distance estimated to be required for the take-off under the meteorological
conditions prevailing at that time does not exceed the length of the landing
strip to be used or the extent of the landing area measured in the direction in
which the take-off will be made and that the aeroplane will be able to clear by
a safe margin all obstructions in the flight path which the aeroplane will
follow immediately after take-off;

(3) having regard to the best information available to him at the time of the
start of the proposed flight of the meteorological conditions likely to prevail
at the aerodrome of destination when the aeroplane arrives there, the person in
command of the aeroplane has satisfied himself that the aeroplane will be able,
when landing, to clear by a safe margin all obstructions in the vicinity of the
aerodrome of destination and that the distance estimated to be required for the
landing, under those conditions, does not exceed 70 per centum of the length of
the appropriate landing strip or the extent of the landing area measured in the
direction in which the landing is expected to be made;

Provided that, when a visual approach and landing is expected to be

made, such estimated distance may be increased to 80 per centum of the length of
the landing strip or the extent of the landing area;

(4) the person in command of the aeroplane is satisfied, in the event of the
engine or any one of the engines becoming inoperative at any stage of the
proposed flight subsequent to the take-off and initial climb, that-

(a) in the case of an aeroplane unable to comply with the provisions of

sub-paragraph (c) of paragraph (1), the aeroplane could, having regard to the
nature of the route of the proposed flight and to the meteorological conditions
forecast as likely to prevail along the route, be flown at such heights as would
enable the person in command to have sufficient time to select a safe landing
place and make a landing thereat;

(b) in the case of an aeroplane unable to comply with any of the provisions
of sub-paragraph (a) or (b) of paragraph (1), the weight of the aeroplane does
not exceed the weight at which, having regard to the meteorological conditions
to be expected on the route of the proposed flight, the aeroplane would be
capable of maintaining a safe height until a landing could be made by a safe
margin at an aerodrome either along the route (including the aerodrome of
departure) or along a divergence from that route planned in advance to provide
for such a contingency.

53. The distances and lengths mentioned in paragraphs (2) and (3) of
regulation 52 shall be computed as follows:

(a) the take-off distance shall be measured along the ground (or water) in
the direction of take-off from the point at which the aeroplane is to start its
run for that purpose to the point above which the aeroplane after taking-off
would attain a height of 50 feet above the ground (or water) and be flying at a
safe speed;

(b) the landing distance shall be measured along the ground (or water) in the
direction of landing from the point above which the aeroplane, when descending
in preparation for landing, would be at a height of 50 feet above the ground (or
water) and flying at a safe speed, to the point at which, on completion of its
landing, it would first come to rest, or, in the case of a seaplane, first be
under full control on the water;

(c) the length of the landing strip for take-off shall be that part of the
surface of the aerodrome of departure which is available for the purpose and is
free from obstructions, measured in the direction in which the take-off is to be
made from the point at which the aeroplane is to commence its run for that
purpose to the limit of the available aerodrome surface; and

(d) the length of the landing strip for landing shall be that part of the
surface of the aerodrome of destination which is available for the purpose and
is free from obstructions, measured in the direction in which the landing is
expected to be made.Measurement of distances for assessing performance

54. (1) A locally registered public transport aircraft shall not fly or
attempt to fly unless-Loading and load sheets

(a) the operator of the aircraft has obtained the approval of the Director to
written loading instructions in respect of the aircraft;

(b) the loading thereof for the proposed flight has been carried out in
accordance with the said instructions and such conditions as may be prescribed;
and

(c) the person superintending the loading of the aircraft for the proposed
flight has made out, signed, and dated a load sheet in duplicate containing the
particulars specified in sub-regulation (2), and the said load sheet has been
submitted to and examined by the person in command of the aircraft in order to
assist him to ascertain, for the purpose of paragraph (c) of sub-regulation (2)
of regulation 50, whether the load carried by the aircraft is of such weight and
so distributed and secured that it may safely be carried on the proposed flight:

Provided that the requirements of this paragraph shall not apply in

respect of a flight to be made by a public transport aeroplane-

(i) solely for the purpose of training any persons carried therein, in
addition to the personnel thereof, to perform duties in an aeroplane; or

(ii) as a local pleasure flight of short duration commencing from and

finishing at one and the same aerodrome with no intermediate landing.

(2) Every load sheet required in accordance with the provisions of paragraph
(c) of sub-regulation (1) shall contain-

(a) particulars of the nationality and registration marks of the aeroplane;

(b) sufficient data to enable the particular flight to be readily identified;

(c) particulars of the several weights (e.g. weight empty, removable

equipment, fuel and oil, passengers, goods, etc.) from which the total weight of
the aeroplane as loaded has been computed; and

(d) a certificate by the person superintending the loading of the aeroplane

that the load has been distributed in accordance with the written loading
instructions submitted to the Director and approved by him in respect of the
aeroplane.

(3) Except as provided in sub-regulation (4), the weight of the crew and
passengers of an aeroplane entered in the load sheet shall be computed from the
actual weight of each person as ascertained by individual weighings.

(4) In respect of an aeroplane having a total seating capacity of 12 persons or

more, the person superintending the loading of the aeroplane may, if so
instructed by the person in command of the aeroplane, compute the weight of the
crew and passengers to be entered in the load sheet in accordance with the
following table of average weights instead of from the actual weight of each
person as ascertained by individual weighings:

For adult males, including crew . . . . . . . . . . 165 lb.

For adult females, including crew . . . . . . . . 143 lb.

For children of either sex two years of age, or more,

but less than twelve years . . . . . . . . . . 85 lb.

For infants under two years of age . . . . . . . . 17 lb.

(5) The person in command of an aeroplane shall, however, have regard to any
undue preponderance among the persons to be carried of persons appearing to be
above the average weights as set out in the above table and shall, if he
considers it necessary, require the actual weights of such persons to be
ascertained by individual weighings.

(6) Whenever the weights of persons entered in a load sheet are average weights
computed in accordance with the table set out in sub-regulation (4), the load
sheet shall be endorsed to show that the said method of computation has been
used.

55. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), a public transport

aeroplane shall not carry out or attempt to carry out a flight over water in the
course of which the aeroplane may at any time be more than 30 minutes' flying
distance in still air from the nearest shore calculated at the most economical
cruising speed of the aeroplane at sea level, according to the best information
available, unless the person in command has satisfied himself-Flights over water

(a) that the weight and performance of the aeroplane is such that the
condition specified in sub-paragraph (c) of paragraph (1) of regulation 52 can
be complied with; and

(b) that the quantity of fuel carried by the aeroplane is sufficient to

ensure that, in the event of failure of one of its engines during the period of
the flight over water, the aeroplane could safely reach the nearest landing
ground.

(2) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (3), a public transport

aeroplane in respect of which the requirements specified in sub-regulation (1)
cannot be complied with may nevertheless carry out or attempt to carry out a
flight over water in the circumstances mentioned in sub-regulation (1) provided
that the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (a) of paragraph (6) of regulation
28 is carried in the aeroplane.
(3) A public transport aeroplane shall not carry out or attempt to carry out a
flight over water in the course of which the aeroplane may at any time be more
than 90 minutes' flying distance in still air from the nearest shore calculated
at the most economical cruising speed of the aeroplane at sea level, according
to the best information available, unless-

(a) the person in command has satisfied himself that the requirements
specified in sub-regulation (1) are complied with; and

(b) the equipment (i.e. dinghies, etc.) specified in sub-paragraph (a) of

paragraph (6) of regulation 28 is carried in the aeroplane.

56. (1) If aircraft about to fly consist of one or more flying machines with a
glider or gliders in tow, they shall not fly or attempt to fly unless the person
in command of the flying machine, or, if there is more than one flying machine,
the person in command of one of them who is to be in charge of the tow, has
satisfied himself that-Miscellaneous

(a) the types of the flying machine or flying machines and the glider or
gliders are such as to form a combination which is in accordance with the
authorisations as to towing operations included in the terms of the certificates
of airworthiness or any validation of such a certificate in force in respect of
such aircraft;

(b) the tow rope or ropes to be used are in good condition and of adequate
strength for the purpose of the towing operation; and

(c) the weights of the flying machine or flying machines and the glider or
gliders considered in combination are such as to satisfy on the proposed flight
the requirements of paragraph (g) of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 50 and,
where applicable, of regulation 52.

(2) In the case of a public transport aircraft, which for the purpose of this
sub-regulation shall be deemed to include an aircraft belonging to or being
flown under arrangements made by a flying club and carrying a member of the club
whether for the purpose of instruction or otherwise, the person in command
thereof, if other than the operator of the aircraft, shall, immediately on the
termination of any flight in which the aircraft has been engaged, furnish to the
operator of the aircraft or to the representative of such operator particulars
of any defects in the aircraft including its engines, components, accessories,
instruments, equipment and apparatus and their installations, observed by him
during the flight.

(3) No aircraft which is a flying machine or glider shall carry out any trick
flying or exhibition flying while carrying passengers for hire or reward unless
the person in command of the flying machine or glider has satisfied himself
before commencing the flight that every passenger (whether carried for hire or
reward or not) and the pilot (or pilots, if more than one) are properly secured
by the safety harness or other similar devices carried in accordance with Part
IV and maintained in a fit condition for immediate use in the flying machine or
glider.

PART IX NAVIGATIONAL RESTRICTIONS, MANAGEMENT OF AIRCRAFT AND SAFETY

PROVISIONSPART IX

NAVIGATIONAL RESTRICTIONS, MANAGEMENT OF AIRCRAFT AND SAFETY PROVISIONS

57. (1) The Director may, by notice to airmen-Specified areas

(a) specify within Zambia control zones, control areas, airways, flight
information centres and regions, corridors and flight advisory routes;

(b) restrict, prohibit and control the flying of aircraft in any such control
zone, control area, airway, flight information region, corridor or flight
advisory route or in such other area of Zambia as he may specify in such notice.

(2) No aircraft shall fly in contravention of the provisions of any notice to

airmen made in terms of paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (1).

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

58. (1) If it is brought to the notice of the Director-Power to restrict

flying

(a) that a large number of persons are likely to gather in any area in Zambia
for the purpose of witnessing some event of public interest; or

(b) that any area in Zambia is to be used for purposes relating to national
defence which render expedient the temporary restriction of the flying of
aircraft within or in the neighbourhood of such area; the Director may, by a
notice to airmen, impose such temporary restriction on the flying of aircraft
within or in the neighbourhood of any such area as he may consider expedient in
the interest of public safety, and no aircraft shall fly in contravention of any
such notice.

(2) No aircraft race, contest, exhibition of flying or air rally shall be held
unless the Director has first given permission in writing for the event to take
place. In giving permission, the Director may impose such conditions as he may
consider expedient in the interest of public safety and the safety of those
persons taking part. The Director may also, by a notice to airmen, impose such
temporary restrictions on the flying of aircraft as may be required with respect
to an area affected by such race, contest, exhibition or rally, and no aircraft
shall fly in contravention of such notice.

(3) Any notice to airmen made in pursuance of this regulation shall specify the
area or areas to which the restrictions extend and the time or times during
which the restrictions are to be in force, and, in the case of restrictions
applying only to aircraft of, or other than, any particular class or
description, the class or description of aircraft to which the restrictions
apply, or do not apply, as the case may be.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957 and G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

59. No aircraft shall carry munitions of war or implements of war.Carriage of

munitions of war forbidden

60. (1) No person shall carry in-Carriage of dangerous goods

(a) any aircraft in or over Zambia; or

(b) any locally registered aircraft when flying outside Zambia;

any dangerous goods except with the permission in writing of the Director and
subject to any conditions imposed in such permission:
Provided that the permission of the Director shall not be required for the
carriage of-

(i) safety cartridges, so long as, when carried as cargo in an aircraft

carrying passengers or goods for hire or reward, such cartridges are packed in
substantial tin-lined wooden cases in such a manner as to ensure that there is
not undue movement within the package; and

(ii) any article of equipment of the aircraft or any article required for the
purposes of the operation, navigation or safety of the aircraft or the safety or
well-being of any person or persons on board, so long as, in the case of a
locally registered aircraft, fuel and oil are carried in the fuel and oil tanks
of such aircraft or in special stowage approved in writing for the purpose by or
under the authority of the Director and articles of an inflammable nature
required in connection with the navigation or safety of the aircraft are of a
type approved in writing by or under the authority of the Director.

(2) Any person consigning for carriage by any aircraft any dangerous goods
shall-

(a) mark distinctly on the outside of the package or container containing

such goods their nature, weight and quantity;

(b) give to the carrier of the goods written notice of such nature, weight
and quantity and of the name and address of the sender thereof by means of an
air consignment note coloured red or bearing the words "dangerous goods" in
prominent red letters; and

(c) in any case where the permission in writing of the Director given under
sub-regulation (1) is required for the carriage of such goods, attach such
permission to the air consignment note:

Provided that -

(i) paragraph (b) in so far as it requires the air consignment note to be

coloured red or to bear the words "dangerous goods" in prominent red letters
shall not apply to the case of the carriage of safety cartridges in accordance
with proviso (i) to sub-regulation (1);

(ii) the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not apply to the carriage of
equipment or other articles in accordance with proviso (ii) to sub-regulation
(1).

(3) Any person who consigns by air any dangerous goods other than safety
cartridges packed in the manner prescribed in proviso (i) to sub-regulation (1)
or articles of equipment mentioned in proviso (ii) to sub-regulation (1) shall
inform the person in command of the aircraft of the nature, weight and quantity
of the goods at or before the time of sending such goods to be carried or taken
on board the aircraft.

(4) In this regulation-

"dangerous goods" means any explosive substance and any other goods (whether
explosive or not) which by reason of their nature are liable to endanger the
safety of the aircraft or persons on board the aircraft;
"safety cartridge" means any cartridge used in small arms which is so
constructed that-

(a) after firing, the case of the cartridge may be extracted;

(b) an explosion in one cartridge cannot be communicated to any other

cartridge.

(5) The provisions of this regulation shall be in addition to and not in

derogation of the provisions of regulation 59.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

61. (1) (a) (i) A captive balloon shall not be flown within
Zambia;Restrictions on captive balloons, kites and moored airships

(ii) A kite shall not be flown within Zambia at a distance of less than 3
miles from the boundary of an aerodrome or be elevated at any place within
Zambia above a height of 200 feet from ground level; and

(iii) An airship shall not be moored at any place within Zambia;

except with the permission in writing of the Director and subject to any
conditions which may be prescribed or specified in such permission.

(b) The Director may, on the granting of such permission or subsequently,

direct that any of the provisions of these Regulations which he may specify
shall not apply to a particular captive balloon, kite or airship, as the case
may be, or shall apply thereto subject to any modification which he may consider
to be required in the circumstances of the case.

(2) An application for the permission referred to in subregulation (1) shall be

made to the Director and in connection therewith the applicant shall furnish the
director with particulars and information in accordance with such requirements
as he may require.

(3) A captive balloon or kite flown within Zambia and an airship when moored at
any place within Zambia shall comply with such conditions as to mooring,
lighting and marking as the Director may in the circumstances of any particular
case impose.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

62. No person shall commit any act likely to imperil the safety of an
aircraft or any person on board, whether by interference with any member of the
personnel of the aircraft, or by tampering with the aircraft or its equipment,
or by disorderly conduct or by any other means.Imperilling safety of aircraft

63. (1) No person shall enter or be in any aircraft while in a state of

intoxication.Drunkenness

(2) No person, while acting as a member of the personnel of an aircraft or

carried in an aircraft for the purpose of so acting, shall be in a state in
which his capacity so to act is impaired by reason of his having taken any
intoxicating liquor or taken or used any sedative, narcotic or stimulant drug or
preparation prior to embarkation or in flight.
(3) No aircraft shall fly or commence to fly carrying any person who is acting
in contravention of this regulation.

64. (1) No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless the certificate of
airworthiness of such aircraft contains a condition stating in what compartment
or compartments of the aircraft smoking is or is not permissible.Smoking

(2) No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless the operator of such
aircraft causes to be exhibited and kept exhibited in a conspicuous place in
every compartment (including every control cabin) of the aircraft a legible
notice, consistent with the conditions referred to in sub-regulation (1),
stating either that smoking is or that smoking is not permitted in that
compartment and no person shall smoke in any compartment of the aircraft unless
smoking therein is stated by such notice to be permitted.

65. No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless such particulars of or

notice relating to the design, construction and weight of the aircraft or the
equipment thereof or to any restrictions to be observed and precautions to be
taken to secure the safety of the aircraft are exhibited in such manner and in
such places in the aircraft as are prescribed in Parts IV, V, VIII and IX or as
may in any particular case be required by the Director.Notices in aircraft

66. No locally registered aircraft carrying passengers for hire or reward,

or, if the carriage is effected by an air transport undertaking whether for hire
or reward or not, shall fly unless-

(a) every means of exit from the aircraft and from every passenger
compartment therein is kept free from obstruction and no such means of exit is
so fastened by locking or otherwise as to hinder the immediate use thereof in an
emergency; andExits in aircraft

(b the position of every such means of exit which is specially provided for
use in an emergency is clearly marked with the words "Emergency Exit" and in
each case the method of operation is indicated.

67. (1) When any aircraft is flying within Zambia no person shall at any time
be carried on the wings or undercarriage of the aircraft, or on or in any other
part thereof which is not designed for the accommodation of the personnel or
passengers, or on or in anything (other than a glider or a flying machine)
attached to the aircraft:Persons not to be carried in certain parts of aircraft

Provided that-

(a) nothing in this regulation shall prevent a person having temporary

access-

(i) to any part of the aircraft for the purpose of executing repairs to the
aircraft or adjusting the machinery or equipment thereof or for the purpose of
doing anything which may be necessary for the safety
of the aircraft or persons or goods carried therein; or

(ii) to any part of the aircraft in which goods or stores are being carried
and to which proper means of access is provided; and

(b) a person may be carried on or in any part of the aircraft, or anything

attached thereto, with the permission in writing of the Director and subject to
any conditions which may be specified in that permission.
(2) No aircraft shall fly or commence to fly carrying any person who is acting
in contravention of this regulation.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

68. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no flying machine

shall fly towing another aircraft, other than a glider of which the maximum
total weight authorised does not exceed 1,250 lb. and no aircraft, other than
such a glider as aforesaid, shall be towed in flight by a flying machine unless
the pilot in charge of the flying machine is entitled or permitted in accordance
with the provisions of this regulation to fly as pilot in charge of a flying
machine towing another aircraft.Towing

(2) Save with the special permission in writing of the Director and subject to
any conditions or limitations contained therein, a person shall not fly or
attempt to fly as pilot in charge of a flying machine towing another aircraft,
other than such a glider as aforesaid, unless he is the holder of a pilot's
licence (flying machines) granted or rendered valid under these Regulations and
is entitled by virtue of a towing rating included in such licence to fly as
pilot in charge of a flying machine towing another aircraft:

Provided that the holder of such a licence may fly within Zambia as pilot in
charge of a flying machine towing another aircraft if he flies in accordance
with the provisions of regulation 109 and for the purpose of becoming qualified
to have a towing rating included in his licence. For this purpose he may also
fly as pilot in charge of any other aircraft, notwithstanding that his licence
does not entitle him to fly as pilot thereof, which he may be required to fly in
order to comply with the requirements set out in sub-regulation (3).

(3) The provisions of this sub-regulation shall have effect with respect to the
towing rating required under sub-regulation (2)-

(a) the rating may be included by the Director in a licence on application

being made and on the Director being satisfied that the applicant is qualified
in accordance with the requirements for the rating;

(b) the rating shall, subject to the provisions of regulation 83, continue in
operation while the licence in which it is included remains in force:

Provided that upon the renewal of such licence the holder thereof may
be
required to satisfy the Director in accordance with the provisions of regulation
109 that the rating may so continue in operation;

(c) application for the rating shall be made in accordance with the
provisions of regulation 109 and the applicant shall furnish the Director with
such particulars as he may require in connection therewith.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

69. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no person under the
age of seventeen years shall have sole control of any aircraft in motion.Control
of aircraft by young persons

(2) A person over the age of fourteen years may have sole control of a glider
in motion, if-
(a) such person is exercising control thereof in accordance with arrangements
made for the supervision of that person by a gliding club of which he is a
member;

(b) if the glider is being towed by a flying machine, the authorised maximum
total weight of the glider does not exceed 1,250 lb.

(3) No person shall cause or permit-

(a) any person under the age of seventeen years to have sole control of an
aircraft in motion other than a glider;

(b) any person under the age of fourteen years to have sole control of any
glider;

(c) any person who has attained the age of fourteen years but not the age of
seventeen years to have sole control of any glider unless compliance is made
with the provisions of sub-regulation (2).

70. The Director may, for the purpose of promoting the safety of aircraft,
approve and publish by means of a notice to airmen any special rule or rules as
to signals and other communications to be made by or to an aircraft, as to the
course on which and the height at which an aircraft shall fly and as to any
other precaution to be observed in relation to the navigation and control of
aircraft which the Director may consider expedient for the purpose aforesaid,
and no aircraft shall fly in contravention of any such rules.Special signals and
other communications

PART X OPERATIONAL TRAINING AND OPERATIONS MANUALPART X

OPERATIONAL TRAINING AND OPERATIONS MANUAL

71. (1) In this regulation-

"aerodrome meterological minima" means minimum heights of cloud base and minimum
values of visibility defined for the purpose of determining the suitability of
an aerodrome either for take-off or landing;

"alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome selected prior to take-off to which a

flight may proceed when a landing at the intended destination becomes
inadvisable;

"appropriate authority" means the national authority of a contracting State

responsible for the safety of air navigation over the territory of that State
and, in the case of Zambia, means the Director;

"flight time" means the period from the moment at which an aircraft first moves
under its own power for the purpose of taking off for a flight until the moment
at which it comes to rest at the end of that flight during which a member of the
operating crew of the aircraft is engaged in discharging or remains liable to
discharge his duties and responsibilities in the capacity in which he is acting
as such member.Training of operating crew, Operations Manual and aerodrome
meteorological minima

(2) The provisions of this regulation shall apply to every locally registered
public transport aircraft, except that-
(a) the said provisions shall not apply to such aircraft which are being used
solely for the purpose of training any persons carried therein, in addition to
the personnel thereof, to perform duties in an aircraft; and

(b) sub-regulations (5), (6), (8), (10), (11) and (12) shall not apply to
such aircraft having a maximum weight of less than 12,500 lb. when operated on a
non-scheduled journey and in accordance with visual flight rules.

(3) The operator of the aircraft (hereinafter in this regulation called "the
operator") shall ensure that every member of the operating crew thereof is fully
instructed in the duties and responsibilities to be discharged by him in the
capacity in which he is acting as such member and in the relationship of such
duties and responsibilities to the operations system on any air route over which
he may be called upon to discharge the same and that he has adequate knowledge
of every such air route.

(4) The operator shall ensure that every member of the operating crew has
training, practice and periodical tests in accordance with such requirements as
may be notified with respect to those matters.

(5) The operator shall provide for the use and guidance of the members of the
operating crew an Operations Manual containing such particulars as may be
notified, such further information as to the conduct of flying operations as
will enable them to become fully acquainted with the nature of such operations
and clearly outlining the duties and responsibilities of each of them, and the
particulars referred to in sub-regulation (8).

(6) The provisions of this sub-regulation shall have effect with respect to the
said Manual-

(a) the operator shall cause the Manual to be revised from time to time as
may be necessary in consequence of any change affecting the operation of the
aircraft or the equipment thereof or as may otherwise appear to the operator to
be necessary or as may be required by the Director;

(b) the operator shall cause copies of the Manual and of any revised portion
thereof to be furnished to the members of the operating crew and to such other
persons as appear to the operator to be persons to whom it is necessary or
expedient that such copies should be supplied or as may be designated by the
Director;

(c) the operator shall ensure that all copies of the Manual in the hands of
members of the operating crew are kept so revised as to show at any time any
variation which may then have been made in the requirements with respect to the
matters to which the Manual relates.

(7) The operator shall maintain current records of the flight times of every
member of the operating crew and shall establish limitations on those flight
times in accordance with the provisions of regulation 74 to ensure that the
safety of the aircraft is not endangered by reason of fatigue of any such member
attributable to the length or frequency of his flight times.

(8) (a) In respect of any flight to be made by the aircraft on a scheduled

journey, the operator shall establish in the said Manual-

(i) the aerodrome meterological minima for each aerodrome of intended

destination and any alternate aerodrome on the route of such a flight:

Provided that no such minima for any particular aerodrome shall be

lower
than the aerodrome meteorological minima, if any, for that aerodrome established
by the appropriate authority, unless such minima have been specifically approved
by or on behalf of that authority;

(ii) the minimum safe flight altitudes for each route to be flown;

(iii) a route guide for each route flown, containing information relating to
communication facilities, navigation aids, aerodromes, in-flight procedures, and
such other information as the operator may deem necessary for the proper conduct
of flight operations.

(b) In respect of any flight to be made by the aircraft otherwise than on a

scheduled journey, the operator shall establish in the said Manual-

(i) the method by which the aerodrome meteorological minima for each
aerodrome of intended destination and any alternate aerodrome on the route of
such a flight shall be determined:

Provided that, if any such aerodrome will frequently be used, the

operator shall establish such minima for that aerodrome and shall specify such
minima in the said Manual;

(ii) the method of determining minimum safe flight altitudes;

(iii) instructions regarding the procurement of detailed information with

respect to communication facilities, navigation aids, aerodromes, in-flight
procedures, and such other information as the operator may deem necessary.

(c) In respect of any flight to be made by the aircraft on all journeys, the
operator shall establish in the said Manual-

(i) instructions outlining the responsibilities of operations personnel

pertaining to the conduct of flight operations;

(ii) the flight crew for each type of operation to be conducted including the
designation of the succession of command;

(iii) emergency flight procedures, including procedures for pilots-in-command

observing an accident;

(iv) the circumstances in which a radio listening watch is to be maintained;

(v) a list of the navigational equipment to be carried;

(vi) specific instructions for the computation of the quantities of fuel and
oil to be carried having regard to all circumstances of the operation including
the possibility of the failure of one or more power plants while en route;

(vii) the conditions under which oxygen shall be used.

(9) When a flight is planned and the meteorological information obtained by the
person in command of the aircraft indicates that Instrument Flight Rules will be
in force at the aerodrome of first intended landing, the person in command shall
select an alternate aerodrome unless no such aerodrome suitable for use in the
circumstances of the case is available.

(10) Prior to commencing a flight, the person in command of the aircraft shall
obtain the aerodrome meterological minima for take-off at the aerodrome of
departure and for landing at the aerodrome of first intended landing, and, if
the provisions of sub-regulation (9) apply, the aerodrome meteorological minima
for landing at any alternate aerodrome selected by him, as specified in the said
Manual, or, in a case where such minima are not so specified, as determined by
him in accordance with the method specified in the said Manual:

Provided that, if the minima for any such aerodrome are determined by the person
in command in accordance with the method specified in the Manual, they shall not
be lower than the aerodrome meterorological minima, if any, for that aerodrome
established by the appropriate authority, unless such minima have been
specifically approved by or on behalf of that authority.

(11) The aircraft shall not commence a flight unless the meterological
information obtained by the person in command thereof indicates that weather
conditions at the aerodrome of first landing or, if the provisions of
sub-regulation (9) apply, at any alternate aerodrome selected by him, will at
the estimated time of arrival at that aerodrome be at or above the aerodrome
meteorological minima for landing at that aerodrome as specified in the said
Manual or, as determined by him in accordance with the provisions of
sub-regulation (12), as the case may be.

(12) The aircraft shall not, unless compelled by accident or other unavoidable
cause, continue its approach to landing at any aerodrome beyond a point at which
the limits of the aerodrome meteorological minima for landing at that aerodrome
as specified in the said Manual, or, as determined by the person in command
thereof in accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation (10), as the case
may be, would be passed.

(13) The Director may take such measures as he may consider necessary to
satisfy himself that the provisions of sub-regulations (3) to (8) are being
complied with by the operator.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957 and G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

PART XI OPERATING CREWPART XI

OPERATING CREW

72. (1) Subject to the provisions of this regulation, no person shall fly or
attempt to fly as a member of the operating crew of a locally registered
aircraft unless he is the holder of a licence granted or rendered valid under
these Regulations.Holding of licences

(2) No person shall fly or attempt to fly within Zambia as a member of the
operating crew of an aircraft registered outside Zambia unless he is the holder
of a licence granted or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the
aircraft is registered.

(3) No aircraft shall fly or attempt to fly unless every member of the
operating crew thereof is the holder of the licence which he is required to hold
under the provisions of this Part.
(4) For the purposes of this regulation, "licence" means a licence which
entitles the holder thereof to act in the capacity in which he is flying as a
member of the operating crew of an aircraft having regard to the privileges
conferred by the licence and any limitation affecting such privileges in
relation to the class, type and description of the aircraft or otherwise and to
the circumstances of the flight in which the aircraft is engaged.

(5) For the purposes of this regulation, a person shall not be deemed to be a
member of the operating crew of an aircraft-

(a) if he is flying in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations

for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of a pilot's
licence of any class; or

(b) if he is flying in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations

for the purpose of undergoing tests or receiving instruction in flying required
to be undertaken for admission into any military or naval air force.

(6) (a) The holder of a pilot's licence of any class may fly as pilot in
charge of classes or types of aircraft other than those to which the licence
applies if he flies in accordance with the provisions of Part XIV and for the
purpose of qualifying for an extension of the aircraft rating included in the
licence to cover additional classes or types of aircraft.

(b) A person may fly in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a) as
pilot in charge of a public transport flying machine provided that the licence
he holds entitles him to fly as pilot in charge of a public transport flying
machine and every passenger carried in the flying machine is being carried for
the purpose of being trained to perform duties as a member of the operating crew
of a flying machine.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963

and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

73. (1) No aircraft shall fly or attempt to fly unless the members of its
operating crew are of the number and description required by the law of the
country in which the aircraft is registered.Operating crew to be carried

(2) No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless the number and description
of the members of the operating crew carried in such aircraft and the
arrangements made as to their duties are in accordance with the following
requirements:

(a) Minimum crew for any flight.

On all flights an aircraft shall have on board, for the purpose of

acting as members of the operating crew, the number and description of persons
specified as the minimum operating crew for that aircraft in its certificate of
airworthiness.

(b) Carriage of a flight engineer.

Where a flight engineer is required by the terms of the certificate of

airworthiness to be carried in an aircraft, and a separate flight engineer's
station is incorporated in the design of the aircraft, a flight engineer,
qualified under the terms of his licence to act in that capacity in the
aircraft, shall be carried and assigned for duties only at the said station
unless the operating crew includes a person, licensed for flight duties in
another capacity and being also the holder of the appropriate flight engineer's
licence who could, without interference with his normal duties, carry out
satisfactorily the duties also of flight engineer, in which case that person may
act in the capacity of flight engineer.

(c) Carriage of additional pilots.

(i) When an aircraft carries two or more pilots as members of the operating
crew-

A. one of them shall, before the flight commences, be designated by the

operator of the aircraft as the senior pilot and the other pilots shall act only
under his direction;

B. two pilots shall remain at the controls when the aircraft is departing
from or landing at an aerodrome; and

C. at least one pilot shall remain at the controls at all times during
flight.

(ii) A public transport flying machine having a maximum total weight

authorised of more than 22,550 lb. when departing from or arriving at an
aerodrome in instrument meteorological conditions as defined in regulation 2 of
the Aviation (Rules of the Air) Regulations shall carry, to act in the capacity
of second pilot and for the particular purpose of assisting the senior pilot
during such departure and arrival as aforesaid, a person who is the holder of a
commercial, senior commercial or airline transport pilot's licence (flying
machines) including an instrument rating.

(d) Carriage of a flight navigator.

(i) A public transport flying machine carrying out-

A. a flight during the course of which it may be over water for a great
circle distance of more than 1,000 nautical miles; or

B. a flight without landing for a great circle distance of more than 1,500
nautical miles; shall have on board to act in the capacity of flight navigator a
person who is the holder of a flight navigator's licence. Save as provided in
sub-paragraph (ii), he shall be a separate person from any other member of the
operating crew and shall not carry out any duties in the flying machine other
than navigational duties.

(ii) When a pilot and second pilot are carried, either the pilot or the
second pilot, whichever is licensed as a flight navigator, may be responsible
for the navigation of the flying machine if he holds a commercial, senior
commercial or airline transport pilot's licence (flying machines) having an
aircraft rating in respect of the particular type of flying machine.

(3) The Director may vary any of the requirements prescribed in sub-regulation
(2) or add further requirements thereto including requirements with respect to
the class, type and description of the aircraft or the circumstances of the
flight in which it is engaged, or may exempt an aircraft from compliance with
any of the prescribed requirements subject to such conditions, if any, as he may
consider to be required, if in the circumstances of that case it appears to him
to be expedient.
(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957)

74. (1) For the purposes of this regulation-Duty time limitations for flight
crews

(a) a member of a flight crew shall be deemed to be performing duty during-

(i) the period commencing not less than thirty minutes before the scheduled
time of the first take-off of the aeroplane on a flight and ending the moment
the aeroplane moves under its own power before take-off on that flight;

(ii) any period spent on flying duty;

(iii) the period of fifteen minutes immediately following the moment when the
engines of the aeroplane are switched off after landing;

(iv) any period spent at an aerodrome or elsewhere in the course of a flight

which is not a rest period;

(v) any period of dead head flying;

(b) "commander" means the person in charge of a public transport aircraft;

(c) "dead head flying" means any flying as a passenger by a member of a

flight crew for the purpose of travelling to or from a duty assignment;

(d) "flying duty" means any period spent on duty as a member of the flight
crew in an aeroplane while it is in actual flight, such period being calculated
from the moment the aeroplane moves under its own power before take-off to the
moment when the engines of the aeroplane are switched off after landing;

(f) "month" means any one of the twelve named parts into which a year is
ordinarily divided in the calendar;

(g) "rest period" means a period during which no duties whatsoever are
performed by a member of a flight crew in connection with the business of an air
transport undertaking including any such period spent in an aeroplane equipped
with sleeping quarters in terms of sub-paragraph (i) of paragraph (b) of
sub-regulation (6) but not including any period spent in travelling to or from a
duty assignment;

(h) "year" means a period of twelve months ending at midnight on the 31st
December.

(2) No operator of an air transport undertaking shall cause, permit or schedule

any member of a flight crew to perform duty or flying duty, and no member of a
flight crew shall perform duty or flying duty, otherwise than in accordance with
the provisions of this regulation.

(3) In relation to any flight or flights by an aeroplane with an operating crew

of one pilot only-

(a) a pilot shall not perform duty for more than eleven hours or, if such
duty commences after 6 a.m. local time and ends before 10 p.m. local time, for
more than twelve hours during any twenty-four consecutive hours:
Provided that he may exceed these limits for the purpose of dead head flying
after he has performed eleven or twelve hours' duty, as the case may be;

(b) a pilot shall not perform flying duty for more than eight hours during
any twenty-four consecutive hours unless he has a continuous rest period of not
less than eight hours' duration at or before the end of eight hours' flying
duty, and to this rest period there shall be added a further rest period
calculated at the rate of one and a half hours for every hour spent by him in
dead head flying after he has performed eleven or twelve hours' duty, as the
case may be;

(c) a pilot shall have a continuous rest period of not less than thirty-six
hours' duration once in every seven consecutive days;

(d) a pilot shall not perform flying duty for periods exceeding in the
aggregate-

(i) twenty-eight hours in any seven consecutive days;

(ii) ninety hours in any month;

(iii) nine hundred hours in any year.

(4) In relation to any flight or flights by an aeroplane with an operating crew

of two pilots only or one pilot and one licensed member of an operating crew who
is not a pilot-

(a) a pilot shall not perform duty for more than twelve hours or, if such
duty commences after 6 a.m. local time and ends before 10 p.m. local time, for
more than thirteen hours during any twenty-four consecutive hours:

Provided that he may exceed these limits for the purpose of dead head flying
after he has performed twelve or thirteen hours' duty, as the case may be;

(b) a pilot shall not perform flying duty for more than nine hours or, if
such duty commences after 6 a.m. local time and ends before 10 p.m. local time,
for more than ten hours during any twenty-four consecutive hours unless he has a
continuous rest period of not less than eight hours' duration at or before the
end of nine or ten hours' flying duty, as the case may be, and to this rest
period there shall be added a further rest period calculated at the rate of one
and a half hours for every hour spent by him in dead head flying after he has
performed twelve or thirteen hours' duty, as the case may be;

(c) a pilot shall have a continuous rest period of not less than thirty-six
hours' duration once in every seven consecutive days;

(d) a pilot shall not perform flying duty for periods exceeding in the
aggregate-

(i) thirty-two hours in any seven consecutive days;

(ii) one hundred hours in any month:

(iii) nine hundred hours in any year.

(5) In relation to any flight or flights by an aeroplane with an operating crew

of two pilots and one licensed member of an operating crew who is not a pilot-
(a) a pilot shall not, during any twenty-four consecutive hours, perform-

(i) duty for more than fifteen hours; or

(ii) flying duty for more than eleven and a half hours; unless he has, before
and after such duty, rested in accordance with paragraph (b);

Provided that these limits may be exceeded for the purpose of

emergencies or dead head flying;

(b) a pilot shall have a continuous period of rest for eight hours' duration
and to this rest period there shall be added a further rest period calculated at
the rate of one and a half hours for every hour spent by him in dead head flying
after fifteen hours' duty; hours for every hour spent by him in dead head flying
after he has performed fourteen or fifteen hours' duty, as the case may be;

(c) a pilot shall have a continuous rest period of not less than thirty-six
hours' duration once in every seven consecutive days;

(d) a pilot shall not perform flying duty for periods exceeding in the
aggregate-

(i) thirty-six hours in any seven consecutive days;

(ii) one hundred hours in any month;

(iii) nine hundred hours in any year.

(6) In relation to any flight or flights by an aeroplane with an operating crew

of three or more pilots and one or more licensed members of an operating crew
who are not pilots-

(a) flying duty shall be scheduled in such a manner as to provide for

adequate rest periods on the ground while the operating crew is away from base;

(b) when pilots are scheduled to proceed on a flight for a period exceeding
twelve hours during any twenty-four consecutive hours-

(i) adequate sleeping quarters providing comfort in the fully prone position
shall be available on the aeroplane; and

(ii) two pilots shall be designated proficient to act as pilot-in-command of

the aeroplane by the operator of the air transport undertaking; and

(iii) the senior pilot-in-command shall ensure that adequate rest periods are
given to members of the operating crew;

(c) upon return to base from any flight a pilot shall have at base a rest
period of not less than twice the total number of hours of flying duty performed
by him since his last rest period;

(d) a pilot shall not perform flying duty for periods exceeding in the
aggregate-
(i) one hundred and twenty hours in any one month;

(ii) three hundred hours in any three consecutive months;

(iii) nine hundred hours in any year.

(7) Licensed members of an operating crew, who are not pilots, shall-

(a) perform duty and flying duty within the limits prescribed for pilots who
are members of the same operating crew;

(b) have rest periods equal to those prescribed for pilots who are members of
the same operating crew.

(8) Pilots assigned to instructional duties, who during any month exceed twenty
hours' flying duty spent in flight instruction, shall not perform more than
eighty hours' flying duty in that month.

(9) If a pilot performs flying duty as a member of more than one of the
operating crews referred to in sub-regulations (3), (4), (5) and (6), then the
aggregate of his periods of flying duty in any month shall not exceed the limit
prescribed for that aggregate in respect of a pilot member of that operating
crew, with which the pilot has operated, which contains the least number of
pilots:

Provided that if a pilot performs flying duty for a total period of not more
than ten hours as a member of an operating crew or crews containing a lesser
number of pilots than any other operating crew to which he is assigned, then the
provisions of this sub-regulation shall not apply.

(10) In times of any public emergency the limits of duty and flying duty fixed
in this regulation may, with the permission of the Director, be exceeded to an
extent to be determined by the Director when he grants permission.

(11) A person shall be deemed not to have contravened the provisions of this
regulation by making any flight during which he exceeds the limits of duty or
flying duty or does not have the rest period fixed in this regulation and
applicable to that person, if he proves-

(a) that he was only flying at that time due to an unavoidable delay in
completing the flight; and

(b) that before commencing the flight he could not reasonably have foreseen
that any delay in completing it was likely to occur.

(12) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this regulation, the

commander of a public transport aircraft may make or authorise any other person
to make a flight in that aircraft in such circumstances that the commander or
that other person, as the case may be, will exceed the limits of duty or flying
duty or not have the rest period fixed in this regulation and applicable to the
commander or that other person, if the commander is satisfied that the safety of
the aircraft on that flight will not be endangered if he or that other person
makes that flight, and-

(a) it appears to the commander-

(i) that arrangements had been made for the flight to be made; and
(ii) if the flight had been made in terms of those arrangements, each member
of the flight crew would not have exceeded the limits of duty or flying duty and
would have had the rest period fixed in this regulation and applicable to him;
and

(iii) that the flight had been or will be prevented from being made in
accordance with those arrangements by reasons of-

A. exceptional circumstances; or

B. circumstances which were not foreseen as likely to prevent that flight

from being made; or

(b) in the opinion of the commander the flight is one which ought to be made
in the interests of the safety or health of any person.

(13) Where a flight is made in a public transport aircraft in terms of

sub-regulation (12), a written report stating-

(a) the name of the person who made the flight; and

(b) the circumstances in which the flight was made; and

(c) the reason for making the flight;

shall be submitted by the commander to the operator of the aircraft who shall
submit the report to the Director and furnish such further information relating
to the flight as the Director may require.

(F.G.N. No. 130 of 1962) and S.I. No 180 of 1985)

75. (1) A student pilot shall credit the total flight time during which he is
the sole manipulator of the controls or is being instructed towards the
experience required for a private pilot licence.Crediting of flight time

(2) A private pilot shall be entitled to be credited with the total flight time
during which he acts as pilot-in-command and is the sole manipulator of the
controls, towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of licence.

(3) A private pilot, when acting as co-pilot in an aircraft normally required

to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more
than fifty per centum of such flight time towards the total flight time required
for a commercial pilot licence. Flight time so credited shall not exceed fifty
hours.

(4) A commercial pilot or senior commercial pilot shall be entitled to be

credited with the total flight time whilst acting as pilot-in-command.

(5) A commercial pilot or senior commercial pilot, whilst acting as co-pilot in

an aircraft normally required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled
to be credited with not more than fifty per centum of such flight time towards
the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

(6) An airline transport pilot shall be entitled to be credited with the total
flight time whilst acting as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot, provided that he
is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type rating.
(7) A pilot actually manipulating the flight controls of an aircraft under
actual or simulated instrument flight conditions solely by reference to
instruments and without external reference points, shall be entitled to be
credited with the instrument flight time thus acquired.

(8) Dual instruction time shall be counted in full towards the total flight
time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

(9) Flight crew members other than the aforementioned shall be entitled to
credit the flight time of any flight whilst acting in the respective category.

(10) A flight radio operator who, during flight, manipulates radio or radar
equipment other than radio compass, direction-finding loop or communication
equipment, shall be credited, under each type of equipment, with the flight time
thus acquired.

(11) Where a flight crew member, other than a flight radio operator, undertakes
the duties of a flight radio operator, he may credit the flight time spent
exclusively on such duties in his radio operator log book and the log book
applicable to his briefed flight-crew capacity.

PART XII LOG BOOKS AND DOCUMENTSPART XII

LOG BOOKS AND DOCUMENTS

76. (1) No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless the following log
books are kept in respect of such aircraft:Log books for aircraft

(a) an aircraft log book;

(b) an engine log book, or if the aircraft is fitted with more than one
engine, a separate log book for each engine;

(c) a variable pitch propeller log book, or if the aircraft is fitted with
more than one such propeller, a separate log book for each propeller;

(d) in addition for every aircraft equipped with radio apparatus, a

telecommunication log book.

(2) The following log books shall be in all essentials in the form of the
authorised patterns:

Aircraft log book, other than for airships and balloons;

Engine log book;

Variable pitch propeller log book;

Personal flying log book.

(3) The log books specified in sub-regulation (2) may be obtained from the
Director on payment of the appropriate fees.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

77. All log books shall show all the information and particulars which are
required to be supplied, and the instructions for use set out therein shall be
followed.

(F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)Log books

78. No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless every member of the
operating crew of such aircraft and every person flying in accordance with the
provisions of these Regulations and the conditions prescribed for the purpose of
becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of a licence by the Director, or
flying in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations for the purpose of
undergoing tests or receiving instruction in flying required to be undertaken
for admission into any military or naval air force, keeps a personal flying log
book, and all flight time spent as a flight crew member is recorded therein. The
form of log book and the manner in which log books are to be maintained shall be
as notified.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)Flying log books

79. The following provisions shall have effect with respect to the log books
specified in regulations 76 and 78:

(1) All entries, other than preliminary data ordinarily furnished by the
constructor in the original aircraft, engine and variable pitch propeller log
books shall-Entries in log books

(a) in the case of a certificate under regulation 39, be made and signed in
accordance with that regulation or regulation 40, as the case may be;

(b) in other cases, be made and signed by a licensed aircraft maintenance

engineer:

Provided that-

(i) in respect of matters which could not have come to the notice of a
licensed aircraft maintenance engineer, entries shall be made and signed by the
pilot;

(ii) this sub-paragraph shall not apply in respect of any entry prescribed to
be made by the persons referred to in regulation 40.

(2) Where repairs to an aircraft, engine or variable pitch propeller have

been required in consequence either of damage caused by a forced landing or of
defects which have occasioned a forced landing, the entry of such repairs made
in the aircraft, engine or variable pitch propeller log book shall state that
they have been so required and shall identify the forced landing in question.

(3) Entries in the personal flying log book shall be made at latest 24 hours
after the events to which they relate, and entries in the aircraft, engine or
variable pitch propeller log book shall be made at latest within 24 hours after
the aircraft has been rendered airworthy by the execution of the work to which
they relate or, if the work was performed whilst the aircraft was away from its
station, within 24 hours of the return of the aircraft to its station.

(4) Every entry and signature in any log book shall be made in ink or
indelible pencil.

(5) The log book, except the telecommunication log book, shall be preserved
for a period of two years from the date of the last entry therein; the
telecommunication log book shall be preserved for a period of at least six
months from the date of the last entry therein and, in a case where that log
book is required in connection with any inquiry or proceedings, for such longer
period as may be required for the purposes thereof.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

80. (1) No aircraft shall fly unless it carries the documents required to be
carried therein by the law of the country in which it is registered.Documents to
be carried in aircraft

(2) There shall be carried in every locally registered aircraft-

(a) when engaged in international navigation-

(i) its certificate of registration;

(ii) its certificate of airworthiness;

(iii) the licences of its operating crew;

(iv) sufficient copies of the general declaration form specified in the Fifth
Schedule;

(v) Revoked by S.I. No. 212 of 1973);

(vi) any licence to install and operate radio apparatus in the aircraft for
the time being in force;

(vii) in the case of a public transport aircraft, one of the duplicate copies
of the certificate of maintenance which was last issued in respect of the
aircraft;

(viii) in the case of a public transport aircraft, one of the duplicate

copies of any load sheet relating to the aircraft required under these
Regulations;

(ix) in the case of an aircraft carrying passengers, a list of their names

and places of embarkation and destination;

(x) in the case of an aircraft carrying goods, a manifest of the goods;

(b) when not engaged in international navigation-

(i) if flying as a public transport aircraft, the documents specified in

sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (vi), and (vii) of paragraph (a) and the
documents,
if required, specified in sub-paragraph (viii) thereof;

(ii) if flying as an aerial work aircraft, the documents specified in

sub-paragraphs (ii), (iii) and (vi) of paragraph (a);

(iii) when flying as a private aircraft, the documents specified in

sub-paragraphs (ii), (iii) and (vi) of paragraph (a);

(iv) (Revoked by S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

(3) In any case where a certificate of airworthiness or a licence required to
be carried in an aircraft in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations
has been rendered valid by a validation issued by the Director under these
Regulations, there shall be carried in the aircraft with the certificate or
licence the validation so issued.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954 and F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957 and S.I. No.
212 of 1973)

81. (1) No aircraft registered outside Zambia shall fly unless the documents
required by these Regulations to be carried therein are kept in the form and
manner required by the law of the country in which the aircraft is
registered.General provisions

(2) No locally registered aircraft shall fly unless the certificate of

airworthiness of such aircraft and, if such certificate has been rendered valid
by a validation issued by the Director under these Regulations, the validation
so issued is kept with the general declaration when the document is required
under these Regulations to be carried in the aircraft.

(3) The provisions of this sub-regulation shall have effect with respect to the
duplicate copies of a certificate of maintenance-

(a) one copy shall, if the certificate is issued by a person in the

employment of the operator of the aircraft, be retained by the operator and, if
not issued by such a person, shall be sent by the person in command of the
aircraft to the operator thereof;

(b) no aircraft shall fly unless it carries the other copy kept with the
general declaration whenever such document is required under these Regulations
to be carried in the aircraft. When a further certificate is issued, the old
copy of the certificate shall be sent by the person in command of the aircraft
to the operator thereof;

(c) the operator of the aircraft shall preserve both copies until the
expiration of a period of six months from the date of the certificate.

(4) The following provisions of this sub-regulation shall have effect with
respect to the duplicate copies of a load sheet:

(a) after the load sheet has been completed and examined in accordance with
the provisions of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 54, the operator of the
aircraft shall cause one copy thereof to be sent to him;

(b) no aircraft shall fly unless it carries the other copy kept with the
general declaration whenever such document is required under these Regulations
to be carried in the aircraft. When the flight to which such copy relates has
been completed, the person in command of the aircraft shall send it to the
operator thereof;

(c) the operator of the aircraft shall preserve both copies until the
expiration of six months from the date of completion thereof;

(d) in any case where the loading of the aircraft to which the load sheet
relates forms the subject of inquiry or proceedings, the particulars contained
in the load sheet shall be deemed to be correctly stated unless the contrary is
proved.

(5) If the operator of an aircraft is also the person in command thereof, he

shall cause the copy of the certificate of maintenance referred to in paragraph
(a) of sub-regulation (3) or the copy of the load sheet referred to in paragraph
(a) of sub-regulation (4), as the case may be, to be kept at his principal
office or place of business and shall retain the copy of the certificate of
maintenance referred to in paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (3) or the copy of
the load sheet referred to in paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (4), as the case
may be, for a period of six months after the issue in the one case of the
further certificate referred to in paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (3) or the
completion in the other case of the flight referred to in paragraph (b) of
sub-regulation (4).

(6) As from the time when any copy of a certificate of maintenance or any load
sheet becomes retainable by or transmissible to the operator of the aircraft, it
shall not be carried in the aircraft to which it relates.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954, F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957 and G.N. No. 387
of 1963)

82. (1) The person in command of an aircraft shall, on demand made on the
landing or departure of the aircraft by an authorised person, produce to that
person any of the following documents relating to the aircraft or to persons or
goods carried therein:Production of documents

(a) its certificate of registration;

(b) any certificate of airworthiness for the time being in force with respect
to the aircraft and, in the case of a locally registered public transport
aircraft, one of the duplicate copies of its certificate of maintenance;

(c) the licences of its operating crew, and the student pilot's licence of
any person required under regulation 98 to be the holder of such a licence;

(d) the general declaration in all cases in which the general declaration is
required under these Regulations to be carried in the aircraft;

(e) (Revoked S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

(f) any licence to install and operate radio apparatus in the aircraft for
the time being in force;

(g) in the case of a locally registered public transport aircraft, one of the
duplicate copies of any load sheet relating to the aircraft which may be
required under these Regulations;

(h) if it is engaged in international navigation and carries passengers, a

list of their names and places of embarkation and destination;

(i) if it is engaged in international navigation and carries goods, a

manifest of the goods:

Provided that, in the case of a locally registered aircraft which is within

Zambia and is not engaged in international navigation, it shall be deemed to be
a sufficient compliance with this regulation, as regards the production of the
documents specified in paragraphs (b), (c), and (f) in the case of an aircraft
flying as a public transport, aerial work, or private aircraft, and as regards
the document specified in paragraph (g), if the person in command of such
aircraft to whom any such demand has been made to produce any of the said
documents, within five days after such demand has been made, produces or causes
to be produced the document or documents so demanded at such police station as
may be specified by such person in command at the time of such demand.

(2) (a) The operator of a locally registered aircraft shall, on demand made by
an authorised person, produce or cause to be produced, within a reasonable time,
to that person-

(i) any certificate of registration or certificate of airworthiness for the

time being in force with respect to the aircraft;

(ii) one of the duplicate copies of any certificate of maintenance issued, or

of any load sheet in respect of the aircraft completed and examined in
accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 54 within the
period of six months next before the date of the demand;

(iii) any general declaration or log book required by these Regulations to be

kept in respect of the aircraft wherein any entry was made within the period of
two years next before the date of the demand;

(iv) any licence to install and operate radio apparatus in the aircraft for
the time being in force.

(b) Any person having the possession or custody of any record or certificate
made or given in accordance with requirements prescribed with respect to the
maintenance and certification of radio apparatus in aircraft shall, on demand
made by an authorised person, produce or cause to be produced such record or
certificate.

(3) The holder of any licence granted or rendered valid under these Regulations
shall, on demand made by an authorised person, produce such licence:

Provided that, if a demand is made for the production of a licence granted under
regulation 90 or rendered valid under sub-regulation (13) of regulation 90 which
is not a licence entitling the holder thereof to act in any capacity as a member
of the operating crew of a public transport aircraft or an aerial work aircraft,
it shall be deemed to be a sufficient compliance with this sub-regulation if the
holder of such licence, within five days after such demand has been made,
produces or causes to be produced the licence so demanded at such police station
as may be specified by such holder at the time of such demand.

(4) Every person required in accordance with the provisions of regulation 78 to

keep a personal flying log book shall, on demand by an authorised person,
produce or cause to be produced, within a reasonable time, to that person any
personal flying log book kept by him.

(5) If a certificate of airworthiness or a licence required to be produced in

accordance with the provisions of this regulation has been rendered valid by a
validation issued by the Director under these Regulations, there shall be
produced with the certificate or licence the validation so issued.

(6) For the purposes of this regulation, "authorised person" includes a

superior or commissioned police officer.
(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954, F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957, G.N. No. 387 of
1963 and S.I. No. 212 of 1973)

83. (1) The Director may, on sufficient ground being shown to his satisfaction
after due investigation by him and with effect from such date as he may
determine, cancel, suspend or endorse any certificate, licence or other document
issued under these Regulations, or cancel, suspend or vary any particulars or
other matter entered by him in or on any such certificate, licence or other
document and may in any particular case provisionally suspend any such
certificate, licence or other document pending investigation of the case. Such
cancellation, suspension or endorsement shall be subject to confirmation by the
Minister.Powers of Director as to cancellation, etc., of documents

(2) The holder or any person having the possession or custody of any
certificate, licence or other document issued under these Regulations shall,
within a reasonable time after demand made by the Director, surrender the same
to the Director.

(3) The Director may, on being satisfied that the original of any certificate,
licence or other document issued under these Regulations has been lost or
destroyed, issue a copy thereof or a similar document in replacement thereof.

(4) Upon application being made to the Director for the renewal of any
certificate, licence or other document issued under these Regulations after such
certificate, licence or other document has ceased to be of force, the Director
may, if he is satisfied that the conditions prescribed under these Regulations
relating to the renewal of such certificate, licence, or other document have
been complied with, either renew the same or, if he thinks fit, issue to the
applicant a fresh certificate, licence or other document, as the case may be.

84. (1) No person shall with intent to deceive-Forgery, etc., of documents

(a) forge, alter, assist in forging or altering, or procure to be forged or

altered, any certificate, licence or other document required by these
Regulations or authorised by these Regulations to be issued; or

(b) use any such certificate, licence or other document which has been
forged, altered, cancelled or suspended, or to which he is not entitled; or

(c) lend any such certificate, licence or other document to or allow it to be

used by any other person; or

(d) make, assist in making, or procure to be made, any false representation

for the purpose of procuring for himself or any other person the grant, issue,
renewal or variation of any such certificate, licence or other document.

(2) No person shall mutilate, alter or render illegible any log book or any
entry made therein, or wilfully make, or procure or assist in the making of, any
false entry in or omission from any log book, nor shall any person destroy any
log book during the period for which it is required under these Regulations to
be preserved.

(3) No person shall wilfully or negligently make in a load sheet any entry
which is incorrect in any material particular.

PART XIII RADIOCOMMUNICATION AND TELECOMMUNICATION SERVICEPART XIII

RADIOCOMMUNICATION AND TELECOMMUNICATION SERVICE

85. No aircraft shall fly unless it is equipped with radio apparatus to such
extent and in such manner as may be required by the law of the country in which
the aircraft is registered.Aircraft to carry radio apparatus

86. (1) A locally registered aircraft shall be equipped with such radio
apparatus when engaged in any flight as the Director may from time to time
require. Such radio apparatus shall be of such type and operational capacity as
may be required by the duly competent authority of the country of manufacture or
by the Director, and shall be installed in the aircraft in such manner as may be
approved by the Director, and shall be maintained in working order:Types of
apparatus: modification: carriage of licensed operators

Provided that the approval in writing of the Director shall be required as to

each type of such radio apparatus and as to each aircraft radio station.

(2) No modification shall be made to any such radio apparatus or installations

to which the approval of the Director in writing has been given without the
approval of the Director.

(3) Every aircraft required under sub-regulation (1) to be equipped with radio
apparatus shall carry the number of licensed flight radio operators or flight
radiotelephony operators qualified to operate that apparatus required by
paragraph (a) of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 73, and every such operator
shall perform duties with respect to that apparatus in accordance with such
requirements as may be prescribed by the Director or by international agreement:

Provided that-

(i) the Director may exempt any particular aircraft or type of aircraft from
compliance with all or any of the requirements prescribed in this regulation
subject, if he thinks fit in the circumstances of the case, to such conditions
as he may impose;

(ii) an aircraft employed on a scheduled journey shall comply with such

further conditions, relating to any of the matters mentioned in this regulation,
as the Director may in any particular case impose in addition to such other
conditions as may be prescribed in terms of this regulation;

(iii) nothing in sub-regulation (1) shall be deemed to prevent an aircraft,

the radio apparatus in which has sustained any defect, from undertaking or
continuing a flight to the nearest convenient place at which the defect can be
remedied, if the person in command of the aircraft is satisfied that such flight
can safely be performed having regard to the circumstances and exigencies of the
case.

(As amended by S.I. No. 345 of 1969)

87. No aircraft shall fly unless the radio station on board such aircraft is
operated in accordance with such conditions as may from time to time be
prescribed by international agreement.Operation of aircraft station

88. Nothing in these Regulations shall be deemed to affect any of the

provisions of the laws relating to radiotelegraphy and radiotelephony.Laws
relating to radio-telegraphy and radiotelephony
89. For the purposes of this Part-Definition

"licensed flight radio operator" means an operator who is the holder of a flight
radio operator's licence granted under regulation 112.

89A. (1) An operator who owns radio navigation aids for domestic or
international use by aircraft in Zambia shall maintain such aids to the highest
standards possible and shall have them calibrated according to ICAO
Standards.Telecommuni-cation service charges

(2) During calibration of the equipment the Director of Civil Aviation shall
send an inspector to participate and make a report on the exercise.

(3) All telecommunication equipment at all airports in Zambia shall be

inspected by the Director of Civil Aviation from time to time.

(As amended by S.I. No. 177 of 1989)

PART XIV PERSONNEL LICENSING REQUIREMENTSPART XIV

PERSONNEL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

Licensing of Members of Operating Crew and Other Ground Personnel

90. (1) For the purpose of entitling persons to act as members of the
operating crew and other ground personnel of a locally registered aircraft, the
Director may grant licences of any of the following classes:General provisions

Student pilot's licence (flying machines);

Private pilot's licence (flying machines);

Private pilot's licence (free balloons);

Commercial pilot's licence (flying machines);

Commercial pilot's licence (free balloons);

Airline transport pilot's licence (flying machines);

Commercial pilot's licence (soaring gliders);

Commercial pilot's licence (trailing gliders);

Flight navigator's licence;

Flight engineer's licence;

Flight radio operator's licence;

Flight radiotelephony operator's licence;

Air traffic controller's licence;

Aeronautical station operator's licence;

Telecommunications and navigation aids engineer's licence;

and of any other class which he may prescribe, and the provisions of this
regulation shall apply to any licence so prescribed.

(2) An applicant for the grant of a licence of any of the classes mentioned in
sub-regulation (1) shall be able to read, write and converse fluently in the
English language.

(3) The Director may grant a licence of any class on his being satisfied that
the applicant is qualified in accordance with such requirements as may for the
purposes of this Part be prescribed by the Director or from time to time
specified in a publication issued by him (hereinafter in this Part referred to
as "the requirements") to hold a licence of the class to which the application
relates.

(4) (a) A licence shall, subject to the provisions of regulation 83, remain in
force for such period as the Director may prescribe in the certificate of
validity issued by the Director with the licence but on the Director being
satisfied that the applicant is qualified in accordance with the requirements to
have the licence renewed, may from time to time be renewed by the Director so as
to remain in force for the further period, not exceeding the prescribed period,
shown in the certificate of validity issued by the Director on the occasion of
the renewal:

Provided that the applicant may be required to satisfy the Director as to his
qualifications in accordance with all or any of the requirements applicable with
respect to the grant of a licence of the class to which the application relates.

(b) A certificate of validity issued in accordance with the provisions of

paragraph (a) shall, while it remains in force, be deemed to form part of the
licence to which it relates and the certificate of validity which is for the
time being in force shall be carried with that licence.

(5) (a) (i) With respect to each class of licence the privileges which may
be conferred by a licence of that class shall, subject to the provisions of
paragraph (b), be as prescribed by the Director and shall be subject to any
prescribed conditions or limitations.

(ii) A rating may be included by the Director in a licence on the grant thereof
or at any time while the licence remains in force on application being made.

(iii) A rating specifying a privilege may be included in a licence if the

Director is satisfied that the applicant for, or the holder of, the licence is
qualified in accordance with the requirements for such rating, as the case may
be.

(iv) A rating may be deleted by the Director at any time while the licence in
which it is included remains in force if the Director is satisfied that it
should no longer be included in that licence.

(b) (i) A pilot's licence (flying machines) of any class shall include a
rating or ratings (in this regulation collectively called "an aircraft rating")
specifying the classes and types of flying machine which the holder of the
licence may fly as pilot-in-charge or as second pilot.

(ii) A pilot's licence of any other class shall include a corresponding

aircraft rating, if so prescribed by the Director.
(iii) A pilot's licence (flying machines) of any class may, and, if so
prescribed by the Director, shall include an instrument rating entitling the
holder of the licence to fly as pilot-in-charge or as second pilot under
instrument flight rules.

(iv) The holder of a private pilot's licence (flying machines) shall not fly by
night unless there is included in the licence a night rating entitling him to do
so.

(v) A flight engineer's licence shall include an aircraft rating specifying the
types of aircraft in which he is entitled to act as flight engineer.

(vi) A flight radio operator's licence may include a rating showing the type of
radio apparatus which he is entitled to operate.

(vii) The ratings specified in this paragraph shall be framed in accordance

with such provisions as may be prescribed by the Director.

(viii) There may be included in a licence other ratings to which the provisions
of regulations 92 and 94 apply.

(6) The Director may, on the grant or renewal of any particular licence or at
any time during the period it remains in force, impose any special limitation on
or in connection with the exercise of the privileges conferred by the licence.
Any such limitation shall be entered in the licence and may at any time be
removed by the Director upon his being satisfied that the same need no longer be
imposed.

(7) Where any privilege is limited to the class or type of aircraft with
respect to which it is conferred, the Director may, at any time while the
licence remains in force, extend the rating limiting the effect of the privilege
to cover additional classes or types of aircraft if he is satisfied that the
applicant is qualified in accordance with the requirements to have the rating so
extended.

(8) The holder of a flight engineer's licence may carry out the duties of a
flight engineer in an aircraft of a type other than a type to which the licence
applies if he is so acting under the direct supervision of the flight engineer
of that aircraft.

(9) Every holder of a licence shall submit himself to medical examination as

prescribed in regulation 114 and the Second Schedule.

(10) On the issue of a licence to an applicant, he shall forthwith sign his

name thereon in ink with his ordinary signature.

(11) A licence shall not be granted or renewed if the Director is satisfied

that the applicant is not a fit and proper person to hold a licence and the
Director may refuse to grant or renew a licence if in the circumstances of the
case it appears to him to be inexpedient in the public interest that the licence
should be granted or renewed, as the case may be.

(12) Application for the grant or renewal of a licence or for a rating or for
an extension of a rating shall be made in the manner prescribed by the Director
and the applicant shall furnish the Director with such particulars as he may
require in connection therewith.
(13) When a licence has been granted by a duly competent authority in any
foreign country, the Director may issue and from time to time renew validations
conferring on such licence, subject to such conditions and limitations and for
such period as he may think fit, the same validity as if such licence had been
granted under these Regulations:

Provided that-

(i) a validation shall not be issued or renewed if the Director is satisfied

that the holder of such licence is not a fit and proper person to hold such a
validation;

(ii) the Director may refuse to issue or to renew a validation if in the

circumstances it appears to him to be inexpedient in the public interest that
the validation should be issued or renewed, as the case may be.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963, S.I. No. 153 of 1965,
177 of 1989, S.I. No. 87 of 1991 and S.I. No. 169 of 1992)

91. (1) A person shall not fly within Zambia as pilot-in-charge of a flying
machine for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of a
flying machine pilot's licence of any class unless he is the holder of a student
pilot's licence or-Exemptions

(a) within the immediately preceding six months he was either the holder of a
flying machine pilot's licence, granted under these Regulations, or was serving
as a qualified pilot of flying machines in any military or naval air force and
his physical condition has not, so far as he is aware, deteriorated in any
respect so that it is below the standard required for the grant of a pilot's
licence of the class for which he intends to qualify; or

(b) he is flying in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations for

the purpose of undergoing tests or receiving instruction in flying required to
be undertaken for admission into any military or naval air force:

Provided that a qualified pilot of flying machines in any military or naval air
force shall not fly as pilot-in-charge in terms of paragraph (a) unless he has
undergone an examination in aviation law to the satisfaction of the Director.

(2) The provisions of this sub-regulation shall apply to a student pilot's

licence-

(a) the Director may grant a licence on application being made and on his
being satisfied that the applicant is qualified in accordance with such
requirements as may be prescribed by him to hold a licence;

(b) a licence shall be granted subject to such conditions as may be

prescribed and to any further conditions which in any particular case the
Director may think fit to add thereto;

(c) a licence shall, subject to the provisions of regulation 83, remain in

force for such period as the Director may prescribe therein but may from time to
time be renewed by the Director for such further period, not exceeding the
prescribed period, as may be shown therein on application being made and on the
Director being satisfied that the applicant is qualified in accordance with the
prescribed requirements to have the licence renewed;
(d) on the issue of a licence to an applicant, he shall forthwith sign his
name thereon in ink with his ordinary signature;

(e) a licence shall not be granted or renewed if the Director is satisfied

that the applicant is not a fit and proper person to hold a licence and the
Director may refuse to grant or to renew a licence if in the circumstances of
that case it appears to him to be inexpedient in the public interest that the
licence should be granted or renewed, as the case may be;

(f) application for the grant or renewal of a licence shall be made in the
manner prescribed by the Director and the applicant shall furnish the Director
with such particulars as he may require in connection therewith.

(3) An applicant who has at any time qualified as a pilot of flying machines in
any military or naval air force may, at the discretion of the Director and
according to the applicant's qualifications and flying experience, be exempted
from all or any of the requirements specified in this Part for the grant of a
flying machine pilot's licence, the extension of the aircraft rating in such a
licence or the inclusion therein of an instrument rating:

Provided that-

(i) such exemption may, if it relates to practical flying tests, be made

conditional upon the satisfactory completion by the applicant of a special
flying test; and

(ii) any exemption from the requirements specified for

the extension of an aircraft rating shall be determined having regard to the
applicant's flying experience on the class or type of flying machine to which
the application relates.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954, F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957, G.N. No. 387 of
1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

92. (1) No person shall give flying instruction in an aircraft, other than a
glider (except a towed glider of which the maximum total weight authorised
exceeds 1,250 lb.) unless such person holds a pilot's licence (in which is
included a valid instructor's rating)-Flying instruction

(a) to fly aircraft of the class and type in which instruction is to be

given; or

(b) which, if payment is to be made for the instruction, is a licence

entitling such person to act as pilot-in-charge of a public transport aircraft:

Provided that-

(i) the provision of this sub-regulation shall not apply in a case where
special approval is given by the Director for one licensed pilot to give
instruction to another licensed pilot for an extension to the aircraft rating.
The pilot about to receive instruction must hold a licence the type rating of
which includes aircraft of the same class as that in which he is about to
receive instruction; and

(ii) paragraph (b) shall not apply in a case where the aircraft belongs to,
or is being flown under arrangements made by, a flying club of which both the
person giving and the person receiving instruction are members.

(2) The following provisions of this sub-regulation shall apply to the

instructor's rating required under the provisions of sub-regulation (1):

(a) the rating may be included by the Director in a licence on application

being made and on the Director being satisfied that the applicant is qualified
in accordance with the prescribed requirements for the rating;

(b) a rating enabling the holder of the licence to give instruciton in flying
aircraft of any class and type may subsequently be extended by the Director to
cover the giving of instruction in flying aircraft of any other class or type on
application being made and on the Director being satisfied that the applicant is
qualified in accordance with the prescribed requirements to have the rating so
extended;

(c) the rating shall, subject to the provisions of regulation 83, continue in
operation for such period as the Director may prescribe in the certificate of
validity for the time being in force relating to the licence in which the rating
is included, but may from time to time be renewed by the Director for such
further period, not exceeding the prescribed period, as may be shown in that
certificate on application being made and on the Director being satisfied that
the applicant is qualified in accordance with the prescribed requirements to
have the rating renewed;

(d) for the purpose of satisfying himself that an applicant is qualified in

accordance with the prescribed requirements to have a rating included in his
licence or to have a rating extended or renewed, as the case may be, the
Director may accept a certificate that the applicant is so qualified furnished
by any person or persons approved by the Director as qualified to give such a
certificate;

(e) a rating shall be subject to such conditions and may from time to time be
varied as may be prescribed by the Director;

(f) a rating shall not be included in a licence or renewed if the Director is

satisfied that the holder of the licence is not a fit and proper person to have
the rating;

(g) application for the inclusion in a licence, extension or renewal, of a

rating shall be made in the prescribed manner and the applicant shall furnish
the Director with such particulars as he may require in connection therewith.

(3) (a) Persons qualified to give instruction in flying may be graded as

instructors and assistant instructors according to their qualifications as
ascertained in accordance with the prescribed requirements:

Provided that a person graded as an assistant instructor shall be authorised to

give instruction in flying only under the direction of an instructor.

(b) If a person is graded as an assistant instructor, any rating included in

his licence with respect to the giving of instruction in flying shall be an
assistant instructor's rating and the provisions of sub-regulation (2) shall be
deemed to apply thereto.

(c) The expression "instructor's rating" in sub-regulation (1) shall be

deemed to include an assistant instructor's rating:
Provided that, with respect to flights in which a person receiving instruction
is flying as pilot-in-charge of an aircraft, an assistant instructor shall not
in such cases as may be prescribed by the Director give any direction to such
person.

(4) Payment shall be deemed for the purposes of these Regulations to be made
for the instruction to which this regulation relates if any sum is paid or
payable by any person in respect of the particular flight in which the
instruction is given either to the person giving the instruction or to any
person by whom the person giving the instruction is employed, or to whom he
gives his services as an instructor in flying, or if the person giving the
instruction is employed for reward primarily for the purpose of instructing
persons in flying.

(5) Application for the inclusion in a licence, extension or renewal of a

rating to give instruction in flying (i) flying machines and (ii) gliders (of
which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 1,250 lb.) towed by flying
machines, should be made in writing to the Director. Such ratings may be
included in a licence, extended or renewed in accordance with the requirements
and conditions specified in this regulation. The requirements for the inclusion
in a licence, extension or renewal of a rating to give instruction in the flying
of flying machines, other than aeroplanes (e.g. helicopters or gyroplanes),
shall be as specified in this regulation for flying machines, subject to such
modification as the Director may consider appropriate in the particular case.

(6) The examination and tests for the inclusion in a licence, extension or
renewal of a rating to give instruction in flying shall be conducted by a panel
of examiners approved by the Director for the purpose, hereinafter referred to
as "the examining body". On each occasion before the inclusion in a licence,
extension or renewal of any such rating a report shall be furnished to the
Director stating whether, in the opinion of the examining body, the applicant is
qualified for the rating or for such extension or renewal, as the case may be.

(7) The Director may, upon production by the applicant of his pilot's licence
and after consideration of the report furnished by the examining body, include
in such licence a rating entitling the holder thereof to give instruction in
flying in the capacity of instructor or of assistant instructor, subject to such
conditions as may be specified in the rating.

(8) The period for which a rating to give instruction in flying may continue in
operation, following either the inclusion in a licence or any renewal thereof,
shall not exceed the period of validity of the licence.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

93. An instrument rating shall entitle the holder of the licence in which it
is included, subject to the privileges attaching to the licence, to act as
pilot-in-charge, or as second pilot when a second pilot is required to be
carried, of a flying machine carrying out a flight in accordance with the
instrument flight rules.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)Privileges of instrument rating

94. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 68, a

person who is the holder of a pilot's licence to fly flying machines may fly
within Zambia as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine towing a glider of which
the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 1,250 lb.Qualifying conditions for
towing rating

(2) For the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant of a towing rating in
respect of gliders, the following conditions shall be observed:

(a) no person, other than the pilot or person required under these
Regulations to be carried as a member of the operating crew, shall be carried in
the flying machine or the glider;

(b) in cases where the glider is released in flight, each flight shall be
carried out in accordance with instructions given by a person entitled, by
virtue of a rating included in his pilot's licence, to give instruction in
flying gliders towed by flying machines, and in such manner that both the flying
machine, and the glider after release therefrom, land either at the aerodrome of
departure, or, with the consent of such person, at a place within three nautical
miles therefrom; and

(c) in cases where the glider is not released in flight, each flight shall be
carried out in accordance with instructions given by a person entitled, by
virtue of a rating included in his pilot's licence, to give instruction in
flying gliders towed by flying machines, and shall terminate either at the
aerodrome of departure, or, with the consent of such person, at a place within
three nautical miles therefrom:

Provided that the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not apply if the
person flying in charge of the glider is the holder of a glider pilot's licence
valid for the type of glider in which the flight is being made.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

95. Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (5) of regulation 72, any

person who is not the holder of a pilot's licence to fly flying machines or
public transport or aerial work gliders may fly within Zambia as pilot-in-charge
of a flying machine or a public transport or aerial work glider, as the case may
be, for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of such a
licence, subject to the conditions specified in paragraphs (1) and (2).

(1) Flying machines-Practice flights

(a) he shall, if required to do so by regulation 91, be the holder of a

student pilot's licence granted under these Regulations;

(b) he shall be not less than 17 years of age;

(c) no person, other than a person required under these Regulations to be

carried as a member of the operating crew, shall be carried in the flying
machine; and

(d) each flight shall be carried out in accordance with instructions given by
a person entitled, by virtue of a rating included in his pilot's licence, to
give instruction in flying machines and shall terminate at the aerodrome of
departure. Intermediate practice landings may, however, in accordance with such
instructions, be made elsewhere than at the aerodrome of departure.

(2) Public transport or aerial work gliders-

(a) he shall be not less than 16 years of age: Provided that a person who is
not less than 14 years of age may carry out flights on a glider not towed by a
flying machine or on a towed glider of which the maximum total weight authorised
does not exceed 1,250 lb. if each such flight is carried out wholly within three
nautical miles from a certified point;

(b) no person, other than a person required under these Regulations to be

carried as a member of the operating crew, shall be carried in the glider;

(c) in the case of a glider of which the maximum total weight authorised
exceeds 1,250 lb. which in the course of flight is towed by a flying machine and
released therefrom, each flight shall be carried out in accordance with
instructions given by a person entitled, by virtue of a rating included in his
pilot's licence, to give instruction in flying gliders towed by flying machines,
and shall terminate either at the aerodrome of departure, or, with the consent
of such person, at a place within three nautical miles therefrom.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

96. Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (6) of regulation 72, a

person who is the holder of a pilot's licence to fly flying machines or gliders
may fly within Zambia as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine or glider, as the
case may be, of a class or type other than a class or type to which the licence
relates, for the purpose of qualifying for an extension of the licence to
include such class or type of flying machine or glider:Qualifying flights for
licence extensions

Provided that, when he is flying, no other person shall be carried in the flying
machine or glider except-

(i) a person required under these Regulations to be carried as a member of

the operating crew of the flying machine or glider; or

(ii) if the pilot-in-charge of the flying machine is the holder of a pilot's

licence to fly public transport flying machines, a person carried with the
consent of the operator of the flying machine for the purpose of being trained
to perform duties as a member of the operating crew of a flying machine.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

97. (1) Application for the grant, renewal, extension or validation of a

licence to act as a member of the operating crew of a locally registered
aircraft shall be made to the Director on a form which will be supplied by him
on request.Requirements

(2) The requirements to be complied with in respect of technical competency,

flying experience, etc., and the other conditions relating to the various
classes of licences are specified in this Part as indicated in regulations 98 to
113. Regulations 95 prescribes the conditions under which practice flights to
acquire the necessary competence and flying experience may be carried out.

(3) Subject to the provisions of regulations 99 to 102 (which relate to flying

machine pilot's licences), the requirements and conditions therein specified
may, in respect of licences to fly flying machines other than aeroplanes (e.g.
helicopters or gyroplanes), be subject to such modifications as the Director may
consider appropriate in the particular case.
Student Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

98. (1) An applicant for the grant of a licence shall be not less than 17
years of age.Student pilot

(2) The period for which a licence may, subject to the provisions of paragraph
(e) of sub-regulation (5), remain in force, following either the grant or any
renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months.

Medical Requirements-

(3) An applicant for the grant or renewal of a licence shall be required to-

(a) satisfy the requirements as to mental and physical fitness specified in

regulation 114 for the grant of a private pilot's licence (flying machines); and

(b) furnish to the medical examiner a declaration, signed by him, stating

whether he has previously undergone such medical examination, and if so, where,
when and with what result. A false declaration may entail the cancellation of
any licence granted or renewed as a result of the examination.

(4) The holder of a licence shall comply with the requirements specified in
sub-regulations (3) and (4) of regulation 114.

Conditions of Licence-

(5) A licence-

(a) shall entitle the holder thereof, subject to the provisions of

sub-paragraphs (c) and (d) of paragraph (1) of regulation 95, to carry out
flights as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine only for the purpose of becoming
qualified for the grant or renewal of a flying machine pilot's licence;

(b) shall be valid only for flights within Zambia;

(c) shall be subject to such further conditions as may be attached to or

endorsed on the licence;

(d) shall not entitle the holder to fly as pilot-in-charge unless he has
undergone an examination in aviation law to the satisfaction of the Director;
and

(e) shall lapse upon the grant to the holder of a flying machine pilot's
licence.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

Private Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

99. (1) An applicant for the grant of a private pilot's licence (flying
machines) shall be not less than 17 years of age.Private pilot

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months:

Provided that if the applicant for the renewal of a licence is less than 40
years of age and has passed a medical examination for the purpose of the grant
or renewal of such licence in respect of the twelve months immediately preceding
the period for which he seeks a renewal of such licence, he shall not be
required to undergo a medical examination.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(3) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly-

(a) as pilot-in-charge of any private flying machine of a type described or

specified in the aircraft rating of the licence; and

(b) as second pilot of any private flying machine of the same class as a
flying machine described or specified in the aircraft rating of the licence.

Particulars of Aircraft Rating-

(4) Applicants will be required initially to qualify separately for individual

types of aircraft in Groups "A" and "B" below, until such time as they satisfy
the Director as to their competency and experience. Thereafter they may be
licensed in Group "A" or "B" as a whole. Applicants will be required to qualify
separately for individual types of aircraft in Group "C".

Group A-All single-engined types of aeroplanes of which the maximum total weight
authorised does not exceed 12,500 lb.

Group B-All types of aeroplanes having two or more engines of which the maximum
total weight authorised does not exceed 12,500 lb.

Group C-Particular types of aeroplanes of which the maximum total weight

authorised exceeds 12,500 lb.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Flying Experience-

(5) An applicant for the grant of a licence shall be required to produce

satisfactory evidence that he has had not less than 40 hours' experience as a
pilot of flying machines, comprising-

(a) flying training under a qualified instructor in a dual-controlled flying

machine; and

(b) at least 15 hours' flying as pilot-in-charge including-

(i) not less than 5 hours' flying of which 3 hours was cross-country flying,
carried out within the period of six months immediately preceding the date of
application; and

(ii) one flight on a triangular course during which the flying machine landed
and came to rest at two intermediate places, one being not less than 50 nautical
miles from the place of departure:

Provided that-
A. in the case of an applicant who has experience in the flying of gliders,
the foregoing requirements, excepting those in respect of cross-country flying,
may be reduced to such extent as the Director may consider appropriate in the
particular case; and

B. in the case of an applicant who has passed an approved course of flying

training, the said requirements of 40 hours' flying may be reduced to 30 hours.

Practical Flying Tests-

(6) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required to demonstrate in the course of general flying tests his competence to
carry out normal and emergency manoeuvres on the class, group or type of flying
machine to which the application relates.

Technical Examination-

(7) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required to undergo an examination as to his knowledge of the following
subjects:

(a) aviation law;

(b) elementary meterology;

(c) map reading and use of compass;

(d) method of operation and functioning of flying machines, with particular

relation to the class or type of flying machine for which the licence is
desired.

Exemptions-

(8) An applicant may, at the discretion of the Director and according to the
applicant's qualifications and experience, be exempted from all or any part of
the flying tests and technical examination if he-

(a) has at any time held a flying machine pilot's licence; or

(b) holds a United Kingdom Royal Aero Club Aviator's Certificate in respect
of the class or type of flying machine to which the application relates issued
within the period of one year immediately preceding the date of the application
for the licence.

Night Rating-

(9) (a) A night rating may be included in a licence and shall entitle the
holder, subject to the privileges attaching to the licence, to act as
pilot-in-charge of flying machines on flights made by night:

Provided that the holder of a licence which includes a night rating shall not
(except in a case where the licence also includes a rating entitling him to act
as instructor or as assistant instructor in the flying of flying machines and he
is flying for the purpose of so acting) exercise the privileges of such night
rating unless he has, within the immediately preceding six months, carried out
as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landings
by night.

(b) An applicant for a night rating shall be required to produce satisfactory

evidence that he has carried out in an aeroplane not less than 50 hours' flying
as pilot, comprising-

(i) night flying training under a qualified instructor in a dual-controlled

aeroplane;

(ii) at least 25 hours' flying as pilot-in-charge of the aeroplane;

(iii) at least 5 hours' instruction in instrument flying; and

(iv) at least 5 hours' night flying including not less than five flights as
pilot-in-charge, carried out to the satisfaction of a qualified instructor
within the six months immediately preceding the date of the application:

Provided that a maximum of two and a half hours' instrument flying training
carried out on the ground in approved devices may be accepted in part
satisfaction of the requirement specified in sub-paragraph (iii).

(c) The evidence normally required with respect to the flying experience
specified in sub-paragraph (iii) of paragraph (b) shall consist of a certificate
issued by a person who holds a flying machine pilot's licence including an
instructor's rating.

Flying Experience for Renewal of Licence-

(10) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to produce

satisfactory evidence that he has had during the twelve months immediately
preceding the date of the application not less than 5 hours' flying experience
as pilot-in-charge on each class of flying machine for which the renewal is
desired and, if the application is in respect of aeroplanes in Group "C",
reasonable flying experience as pilot-in-charge of each type of aeroplane for
which the renewal is desired. In default of such evidence, the applicant may be
required to undergo all or any part of the practical flying tests and the
technical examination specified for the grant of a licence, as the Director may
consider appropriate in the circumstances of the case.

Extension of Licence-

(11) An applicant for the extension of the aircraft rating in a licence to

include an additional class or type of flying machine will normally be required
to carry out practical flying tests in accordance with sub-regulation (6) and to
undergo a technical examination in the method of operating and functioning of
flying machines of the class or type to which the application relates.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954 and F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

100. (1) An applicant for the grant of a commercial pilot's licence (flying
machines) shall be not less than 18 years of age.Commercial pilot

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed six months.

Aircraft Rating-

(3) The aircraft rating included in the licence shall specify, in Group 1 and
Group 2 thereof, the type or types of flying machines which, subject to the
provisions of sub-regulation (4), the holder of the licence is entitled to fly
as pilot-in-charge and as second pilot respectively. Group 2 shall include all
the types of flying machines which are entered in Group 1 and such other types
as may be specified.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(4) (a) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly-

(i) as pilot-in-charge of-

A. any public transport flying machine of which the maximum total weight
authorised does not exceed 12,500 lb.;

B. any aerial work flying machine which is of the same type as a flying
machine specified in Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence;

C. any private flying machine which is of the same type as a flying machine
specified in Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence;

D. any private flying machine of which the maximum total weight authorised
does not exceed 12,500 lb. if a flying machine of the same class is specified in
Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence:

Provided that the holder of the licence shall not, unless he is a person
entitled by virtue of a rating included in the licence to act as instructor or
as assistant instructor in the flying of a flying machine and is flying for the
purpose of so acting, be entitled to act as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine
carrying passengers on a flight made by night, unless he has, within the
immediately preceding 90 days, carried out as pilot-in-charge of a flying
machine not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night;

(ii) as second pilot of-

A. any public transport flying machine carrying passengers which is of the

same type as the flying machine specified in Group 2 of the aircraft rating of
the licence;

B. any public transport flying machine not carrying passengers, any aerial
work flying machine, or any private flying machine, which is of the same class
as the flying machine specified in Group 2 of the aircraft rating of the
licence.

Instrument Rating-

(b) The licence shall include an instrument rating if the holder is employed
on a scheduled journey.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Flying Experience-
(5) An applicant for the grant of a licence shall, subject to the provisions of
sub-regulation (8), be required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had
not less than 200 hours' experience in flying flying machines, comprising-

(a) flying training under a qualified instructor in a dual-controlled flying

machine, not less than 10 hours of which must have been instruction in
instrument flying;

(b) flying as pilot-in-charge for not less than 100 hours, including-

(i) at least 20 hours' cross-country or oversea flying, including one flight

of at least 300 nautical miles during which the flying machine must have landed
and come to rest at two intermediate places;

(ii) at least 10 hours' night flying (5 hours of which, however, may have
been carried out under instruction) during which the applicant must have carried
out 10 take-offs and 10 landings by night without assistance from any other
person on board the flying machine; and

(iii) at least 10 hours' flying carried out during the six months immediately
preceding the date of the application; and

(c) a reasonable amount of flying experience as pilot on the type of flying

machine to which the application relates:

Provided that-

A. in the case of an applicant who has passed an approved course of flying

training, the said requirement of 200 hours' flying experience may, at the
discretion of the Director, be reduced to 150 hours;

B. flying experience as second pilot may be reckoned towards the total

requirement of 200 hours (or 150 hours) to the extent that one-half of such
flying, up to a maximum allowance of 50 hours, may be included if it was carried
out on flying machines required under these Regulations to have on board more
than one pilot, or military flying machines which normally carried more than one
pilot.

Practical Flying Tests-

(6) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required in the course of flying tests, including flights by day and by night
with an examiner on board, to demonstrate his general competence as a pilot
during normal and emergency manoeuvres and his ability to fly the type of flying
machine to which the application relates.

Technical Examination-

(7) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required to undergo an examination (including practical tests) as to his
knowledge of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law;

(b) flight operation;

(c) air navigation;

(d) meteorology;

(e) the interpretation of navigational aid identification signals;

(f) theory of flight and aircraft operating limitations;

(g) aircraft equipment and installations;

(h) airframe and power plant maintenance.

Exemptions-

(8) An applicant who has been the holder of a commercial pilot's licence
(flying machines) or a licence of a higher class may, at the discretion of the
Director and having regard to the type of flying machine for which a licence is
desired, be exempted from all or any part of the requirements as to flying
experience, practical flying tests and technical examination specified in
sub-regulations (5), (6) and (7). Any exemption in respect of the said practical
flying tests may be made conditional upon the satisfactory completion by the
applicant of a special flying test.

Renewal of Licence-

(9) (a) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to produce
satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying experience as a pilot of
flying machines during the six months immediately preceding the date of the
application. The applicant may also, at the discretion of the Director, be
required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying
experience as a pilot on each type of flying machine for which the renewal is
desired since the type was entered on the licence. In default of such evidence
as aforesaid the applicant may be required to undergo all or any part of the
practical flying tests and technical examination specified for the grant or
extension of a licence as the Director may consider appropriate in the
circumstances of the case.

(b) For a type of aircraft to be retained in Group 1 of a licence, evidence of

one flight as pilot-in-charge on that type during the preceding twelve months
will be called for. Any type on which there has been no flying, or flying as
second pilot only, during the preceding twelve months will be down-graded to
Group 2 of the aircraft rating.

Extension of Licence-

(10) An applicant for the extension of the aircraft rating of a licence to

include the flying of an additional type of flying machine, either as
pilot-in-charge or as second pilot, shall be required to satisfy the Director as
to his competence to fly the type of flying machine concerned.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954)

Senior Commercial Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

101. (1) An applicant for the grant of a senior commercial pilot's licence
(flying machines) shall be not less than 21 years of age.Senior commercial pilot

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed six months.

Aircraft Rating-

(3) The aircraft rating included in the licence shall specify, in Group 1 and
Group 2 thereof, the type or types of flying machines which, subject to the
provisions of sub-regulation (4), the holder of the licence is entitled to fly
as pilot-in-charge and as second pilot respectively. Group 2 shall include all
types of flying machines which are entered in Group 1 and such other types as
may be specified.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(4) (a) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly-

(i) as pilot-in-charge of-

A. any public transport flying machine of which the maximum total weight
authorised does not exceed 30,000 lb.;

B. any public transport flying machine, not carrying passengers, of which the
maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 45,000 lb.;

C. any aerial work flying machine;

D. any private flying machine, which is of the same type as the flying
machine specified in Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence; and

E. any private flying machine of which the maximum total weight authorised
does not exceed 12,500 lb. if a flying machine of the same class is specified in
Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence;
and

(ii) as second pilot of-

A. any public transport flying machine carrying passengers which is of the

same type as a flying machine specified in Group 2 of the aircraft rating of the
licence;

B. any public transport flying machine not carrying passengers, any aerial
work flying machine, or any private flying machine, which is of the same class
as a flying machine specified in Group 2 of the aircraft rating of the licence.

Instrument Rating-

(b) The licence shall include an instrument rating.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Instrument Rating-

(5) An applicant for the grant of a licence shall be required to satisfy the
requirements for an instrument rating specified in regulation 105:

Provided that an applicant who is the holder of a flying machine pilot's licence
in which an instrument rating is included shall be exempted from this
requirement.

Flying Experience-

(6) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (9), be

required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had not less than 700
hours' experience as pilot in flying machines, comprising-

(a) not less than 200 hours' experience as pilot-in-charge of flying

machines, including-

(i) at least 50 hours' cross-country or oversea flying;

(ii) at least 15 hours' night flying and at least 10 hours' cross-country or

oversea flying, either by night or solely by reference to the instruments; and

(iii) at least 10 hours' flying carried out during the six months immediately
preceding the date of the application; and

(b) a reasonable amount of flying experience as pilot on the type of flying

machine to which the application relates:

Provided that flying experience as second pilot may be reckoned towards the
total requirement of 700 hours to the extent that one-half of such flying may be
included if it was carried out on-

A. flying machines required under these Regulations to have on board more

than one pilot; or

B. military flying machines which normally carried more than one pilot.

Practical Flying Tests-

(7) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (9), be

required, in the course of flying tests with an examiner on board and including
an instrument flying test, to demonstrate his general competence as a pilot
during normal and emergency manoeuvres under visual and instrument flight
conditions and his ability to fly the type of flying machine to which the
application relates.

Technical Examination-

(8) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (9), be

required to undergo an examination (including practical tests) as to his
knowledge of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law;

(b) flight operation;

(c) air navigation;

(d) meteorology;
(e) the interpretation of navigational aid identification signals;

(f) theory of flight and aircraft operating limitations;

(g) aircraft equipment and installations;

(h) airframe and power plant maintenance.

Exemptions-

(9) (a) An applicant who is the holder of a commercial pilot's licence (flying
machines) in respect of the type of flying machine to which the application
relates shall not be required to undergo again the flying tests and technical
examination normally required in respect of that type.

(b) An applicant who has been the holder of a senior commercial pilot's licence
(flying machines) or a licence of a higher class may, at the discretion of the
Director and having regard to the type of flying machine for which a licence is
desired, be exempted from all or any part of the requirements as to flying
experience, practical flying tests and technical examination specified in
sub-regulations (6), (7) and (8). Any exemption in respect of the said practical
flying tests may be made conditional upon the satisfactory completion by the
applicant of a special flying test.

Renewal of Licence-

(10) (a) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to

produce satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying experience as a
pilot of flying machines during the six months immediately preceding the date of
the application. The applicant may also, at the discretion of the Director, be
required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying
experience as a pilot on each type of flying machine for which the renewal is
desired since the type was entered on the licence. In default of such evidence
as aforesaid, the applicant may be required to undergo all or any part of the
practical flying tests and technical examination specified for the grant or
extension of a licence as the Director may consider appropriate in the
circumstances of the case.

(b) For a type of aircraft to be retained in Group 1 of a licence, evidence of

one flight as pilot-in-charge on that type during the preceding twelve months
will be called for. Any type on which there has been no flying, or flying as
second pilot only, during the preceding twelve months will be down-graded to
Group 2 of the aircraft rating.

Extension of Licence-

(11) An applicant for the extension of the aircraft rating of a licence to

include the flying of an additional type of flying machine, either as
pilot-in-charge or as second pilot, shall be required to satisfy the Director as
to his competence to fly the type of flying machine concerned.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954 and F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

Private pilots licence (Free Balloons) Age of applicant and period of validity
of licence
101A. (1) An applicant for the grant of a private pilot's licence (free
balloons) shall be not less than 17 years of age.

(2) The period for which the licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or renewal, shall not exceed twenty-four months in the case of an
applicant who is less than 40 years of age and shall not exceed twelve months in
the case of an applicant who is 40 years of age or over.

Technical requirements for grant of licence

Knowledge

(3) The applicant shall be required to pass a technical examination in the

following subjects, the detailed syllabus of which shall be notified:

(a) Aviation Law, rules and procedures-Rules and regulations relevant to the
holder of a pilot's licence (free balloons); rules of the air; appropriate air
traffic service and procedures.

(b) Meteorology-Application of elementary aeronautical meteorological

information, altimetry;

(c) Navigation (General)-Practical aspects of free balloon air navigation and

dead-reckoning techniques, principles of operation of appropriate flight
instruments;

(d) Flight performance, planning and principles-

(i) effects of loading on flight characteristics; mass calculations;

(ii) use and practical application of launching, landing and other

performance data, including the effect of temperature;

(iii) Preflight and enroute flight planning appropriate to operations under

visual flight rules; appropriate air traffic services procedures; operations in
areas of high-density traffic;

(iv) principles of flight relating to free balloons;

(e) Aircraft general knowledge-

(i) principles of operation of free balloon systems and instruments;

(ii) operating limitations of free balloons, relevant operational information

from the flight manual or other appropriate document;

(iii) structures, materials and airborne heaters; and

(f) Human performance and limitations relevant to the free balloon pilot.

Experience

(4) If a gas balloon or a hot air balloon with an airborne heater is used, the
applicant shall have flown not less than 10 hours as a pilot of free balloons of
which-

(a) at least six launches and ascents were carried out under the supervision
of a person holding a valid pilots licence (free balloons) of which-

(i) two flights were carried out each of a duration of not less than 1 hour
if a gas balloon is used or each of a duration of not less than 30 minutes if a
hot air balloon with an airborne heater is used;

(ii) one ascent was carried out under control to 5,000 feet above the point
of take off if a gas balloon is used or 3,000 feet above the point of take off
if a hot air balloon with an airborne heater is used; and

(b) two solo flights were carried out in free balloons.

(5) If a hot air balloon without an airborne heater is used, the applicant
shall have carried out-

(a) at least six launches in a free balloon under the supervision of the
holder of a pilots licence (free balloons); and

(b) at least two solo flights.

(6) At the time of applying for the licence, the applicant shall produce
evidence of having carried out not less than two flights as pilot in charge of
free balloons in the six months immediately preceding the date of application.

Practical flight test

(7) The applicant shall be required to demonstrate to an approved flight

examiner operational experience in free balloons, in flight and on the ground as
appropriate, of the class to which the application relates in at least the
following areas:

(a) pre-flight operations, including balloons assembly, rigging, inflation,

mooring and inspection;

(b) techniques and procedures for the launching and ascent, including
appropriate limitations, emergency procedures and signals used;

(c) collision avoidance precautions;

(d) control of a free balloon by external visual reference;

(e) recognition of and recovery from rapid descents;

(f) cross-country flying using visual reference and dead reckoning;

(g) approaches and landings, including ground handling; and

(h) emergency procedures.

Extension of licence

(8) An applicant for the extension of the free balloon rating licence to
include an additional class of free balloon normally required to carry out the
practical flying test in accordance with subregulation (7) and to undergo a
technical examination in the method of operating and functioning of free
balloons of the class to which the application relates.
Privileges and limitations attaching to the licence

(9) (a) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly as a pilot in
charge or as second pilot of any free balloon the class of which is specified in
the free balloon rating of the licence for leisure and private purposes other
than for hire and reward.

(b) The holder of the licence shall not give flight instructions.

Exemptions

(10) The Director may in accordance with the applicants qualifications,

experience and recency of flying practice, exempt, from all or any part of the
flying tests and technical examination if an applicant who has at any time held
a free balloon pilot's licence.

Renewal of licence

(11) (1) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall have flown during the
twelve months immediately preceding the date of the application not less than
two flights as pilot in charge totalling not less than 1 hour if a gas balloon
or a hot air balloon with an airborne heater was used or 30 minutes if a hot air
balloon without an airborne heater was used.

(2) If the classes of free balloon are flown in combination, the said two
flights shall total not less than 1 hour as pilot in charge.

(3) Where an applicant does not qualify under sub-regulation (1) or (2) such
applicant may be required to undergo all or any part of the practical flight
tests and technical examination specified for the grant or extension of a
licence as the Director may consider appropriate in the circumstances of the
case.

(As amended by S.I. No. 169 of 1992)

Commercial pilot's licence (free balloons)-Age of applicant and period of

validity of licence

101.B (1) An applicant for the grant of a commercial pilot's licence (free
balloons) shall not be less than 18 years of age.

(2) The period for which the licence may remain in force following either the
grant or renewal, shall not exceed six months.

Knowledge

(3) The applicant shall be required to pass a technical examination in the

following subjects, the detailed syllabus of which shall be notified:

(a) Aviation Law, rules and procedures-Rules and regulations relevant to the
holder of a pilot's licence (free balloons), rules of the air, appropriate air
traffic services and procedures;

(b) Meteorology-Application of elementary aeronautical meteorology, use of

and procedures for obtaining meteorological information; altimetry;

(c) Navigation (General)-Practical aspects of free balloon air navigation and

dead-reckoning techniques; principles of appropriate flight instruments;

(d) Flight performance, planning and principles-

(i) effects of loading on flight characteristics, mass calculations;

(ii) use and practical application of launching, landing and other

performance data, including the effect of temperature;

(iii) pre-flight and enroute flight planning appropriate to operations under

visual flight rules; appropriate air traffice services procedures; operations in
area of high-density traffic;

(iv) principles of flight relating to free balloons;

(e) Aircraft general knowledge-

(i) principles of operation of free balloons systems and instruments;

(ii) operating limitations of free balloons, relevant operational information

from the flight manual or other appropriate document;

(iii) structures, materials and airborne heaters; and

(f) Human performance and limitations relevant to the free balloon pilot.

Experience

(4) If a gas balloon or a hot air balloon with an airborne heater is used, the
applicant shall have flown not less than 35 hours as a pilot of free balloons of
which-

(a) twenty hours were carried out in free balloons; and

(b) ten flights were carried out in free balloons including-

(i) six flights under the supervision of the holder of a commercial pilot's
licence (free balloons);

(ii) two flights as pilot in charge;

(iii) two flights of at least two hours duration if a gas balloon was used or
at least one hour duration if a hot air balloon with an airborne heater is used;
and

(iv) one ascent under control to more than 10,000 feet above the take off
point if a gas balloon is used or 5,000 feet above the take off point if a hot
air balloon with an airborne heater is used.

(5) If a gas balloon without an airborne heater is used, the applicant shall
have carried out at least ten flights in free balloons including-

(a) six flights under the supervision of the holder of a commercial pilots
licence (free balloons); and

(b) two flights as pilot in charge of free balloons.

(6) At the time of applying for the licence, the applicant shall produce
evidence having carried out not less than two flights as pilot in charge of free
balloons in the six months immediately preceding the date of application.

(7) The applicant shall be required to demonstrate to an approved flight

examiner operational experience in free balloons of the class to which the
application relates, in flight and on the ground as appropriate, in at least the
following areas-

(a) Aviation Law, rules and procedures-Rules and regulations relevant to the
holder of a pilot's licence (free balloons); rules of the air; appropriate air
traffic services and procedures;

(b) Meteorology-Application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; uses of

and procedures for obtaining meteorological information, altimetry;

(c) Navigation (General)-Practical aspects of free balloon air navigation and

dead-reckoning techniques; principles of operation of appropriate flight
instruments;

(d) Flight performance, planning and principles-

(i) effects of loading on flight characteristics, mass calculations;

(ii) use and practical application of launching, landing and other

performance data, including the effect of temperature;

(iii) pre-flight and enroute flight planning appropriate to operations under

visual flight rules, appropriate air traffic services procedures, operations in
areas of high-density traffic;

(iv) principles of flight relating to free balloons;

(e) Aircraft general knowledge-

(i) principles of operation of free balloon systems and instruments;

(ii) operating limitations of free balloons, relevant operational information

from the flight manual or other appropriate document;

(iii) structures, materials and airborne heaters; and

(f) Human performance and limitations relevant to the free balloon pilot.

Free balloon rating

(8) (a) (i) The free balloon rating included in the licence shall specify, in
Group 1 and Group 2, the class or classes of free balloons which, subject to the
privileges attaching to the licence, the holder of the licence is entitled to
fly as pilot in charge and as second pilot respectively.

(ii) Group 2 shall include all classes of free balloons which are entered in
Group 1 and such other classes as may be specified.

Extension of licence

(b) An applicant for the extension of the free balloon licence to include an
additional class of free balloons which is normally required to carry out the
practical flying test in accordance with subregulation (7) and to undergo a
technical examination in the method of operating and functioning of free
balloons of the class to which the application relates.

Privileges attaching to the licence

(9) (a) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly as pilot in charge
of any free balloon specified in Group 1 of the free balloon rating of the
licence or as second pilot of any free balloon specified in Group 1 or in Group
2 of the free balloon rating:

(i) in any public transport free balloon;

(ii) in any aerial work free balloon; and

(iii) in any private free balloon.

(b) (i) The holder of the licence may give flight instructions in any free
balloon of a class specified in Group 1 of the free balloon rating of the
licence;

(ii) This privilege may be exercised as long as the licence is valid unless
the Director cancels or limits the privilege by making an appropriate entry in
the licence.

Exemptions

(10) The Director may, having due regard to the class of free balloon for which
the licence is desired and the recency of flying practice in free balloons,
exempt an applicant who has been the holder of a commercial pilot's licence
(free balloons) or a licence of a higher class, from all or any part of the
requirements relating to flying experience, practical flight tests and technical
examination.

Renewal of Licence

(11) (1) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to

produce satisfactory evidence of having had reasonable flying experience as a
pilot of a free balloon during the six months immediately preceding the date of
the application.

(2) Where the applicant is in default of subregulation (1) the Director may
require that the applicant undergo all or any part of the practical flying tests
and technical examinations specified for the grant of the licence.

(As amended by S.I. No. 169 of 1992)

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

102. (1) An applicant for the grant of an airline transport pilot's licence
(flying machines) shall be not less than 21 years of age.Airline transport pilot

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed six months.
Aircraft Rating-

(3) The aircraft rating included in the licence shall specify, in Group 1 and
Group 2 thereof, the type or types of flying machines which, subject to
sub-regulation (4), the holder of the licence is entitled to fly as
pilot-in-charge and as second pilot respectively. Group 2 shall include all the
types of flying machines which are entered in Group 1 and such other types as
may be specified.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(4) (a) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly-

(i) as pilot-in-charge of-

A. any public transport flying machine;

B. any aerial work flying machine;

C. any private flying machine which is of the same type as a flying machine
specified in Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence; and

D. any private flying machine of which the maximum total weight authorised
does not exceed 12,500 lb. if a flying machine of the class is specified in
Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the licence; and

(ii) as second pilot of-

A. any public transport flying machine carrying passengers which is of the

same type as a flying machine specified in Group 2 of the aircraft rating of the
licence;

B. any public transport flying machine not carrying passengers, any aerial
work flying machine, and any private flying machine, which is of the same class
as a flying machine specified in Group 2 of the aircraft rating of the licence.

Instrument Rating-

(b) The licence shall include an instrument rating.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Instrument Rating-

(5) An applicant for the grant of a licence shall be required to satisfy the
requirements for an instrument rating specified in regulation 105:

Provided that an applicant who is the holder of a flying machine pilot's licence
in which an instrument rating is included shall be exempted from this
requirement.

Flying Experience-

(6) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of subregulation (9), be

required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had not less than 1,200
hours' experience as a pilot in flying machines, comprising-
(a) at least 100 hours' night flying as pilot-in-charge or as second pilot;

(b) at least 250 hours' flying as pilot-in-charge, of which not less than 10
hours must have been carried out during the six months immediately preceding the
date of the application, and including not less than 100 hours' cross-country or
oversea flying of which not less than 25 hours must have been flown by night;

(c) at least 75 hours' flying solely by reference to instruments which must

have been carried out by the applicant without assistance from any other person
on board the flying machine;

(d) a reasonable amount of flying on the type of flying machine to which the
application relates;

(e) at least 200 hours' cross-country or oversea flying as second pilot in

flying machines required under these Regulations to have on board more than one
pilot, or in military flying machines which normally carried more than one
pilot:

Provided that-

(i) flying experience as second pilot may be reckoned towards the total
requirement of 1,200 hours to the extent that one-half of such flying may be
included if it was carried out in flying machines required under these
Regulations to have on board more than one pilot, or in military flying machines
which normally carried more than one pilot;

(ii) an applicant who has had not less than 200 hours' experience as
pilot-in-charge on cross-country or oversea flights may be exempted from the
requirements specified in paragraph (e);

(iii) training in instrument flying carried out on the ground in approved

devices may, at the discretion of the Director, up to a maximum of 25 hours, be
accepted in part satisfaction of the requirement specified in paragraph (c).

Practical Flying Tests-

(7) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of subregulation (9), be

required, in the course of flying tests with an examiner on board and including
an instrument flying test, to demonstrate his general competence as a pilot
during normal and emergency manoeuvres under visual and instrument flight
conditions, and his ability to fly the type of flying machine to which the
application relates.

Technical Examination-

(8) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of subregulation (9), be

required to undergo an examination (including practical tests) as to his
knowledge of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law;

(b) flight operation;

(c) air navigation;

(d) meterology;

(e) the interpretation of navigational aid identification signals;

(f) theory of flight and aircraft operating limitations;

(g) aircraft equipment and installations;

(h) airframe and power plant maintenance.

Exemptions-

(9) (a) An applicant who is the holder of a commercial or a senior commercial

pilot's licence (flying machines) in respect of the type of flying machine to
which the application relates shall not be required to undergo again the flying
tests and technical examination normally required in respect of that type.

(b) An applicant who has been the holder of an airline transport pilot's
licence (flying machines) may, at the discretion of the Director and having
regard to the type of flying machine for which a licence is desired, be exempted
from all or any part of the requirements as to flying experience, practical
flying tests and technical examination specified in sub-regulations (6), (7) and
(8). Any exemption in respect of the said practical flying tests may be made
conditional upon the satisfactory completion by the applicant of a special
flying test.

Renewal of Licence-

(10) (a) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to

produce satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying experience as a
pilot of flying machines during the six months immediately preceding the date of
the application. The applicant may also, at the discretion of the Director, be
required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying
experience as a pilot on each type of flying machine for which the renewal is
desired since the type was entered on the licence. In default of such evidence
as aforesaid, the applicant may be required to undergo all or any part of the
practical flying tests and technical examination specified for the grant or
extension of a licence as the Director may consider appropriate in the
circumstances of the case.

(b) For a type of aircraft to be retained in Group 1 of a licence, evidence of

one flight as pilot-in-charge on that type during the preceding twelve months
will be called for. Any type on which there has been no flying, or flying as
second pilot only, during the preceding twelve months will be down-graded to
Group 2 of the aircraft rating.

Extension of Licence-

(11) An applicant for the extension of the aircraft rating of a licence to

include the flying of an additional type of flying machine, either as a
pilot-in-charge or as second pilot, shall be required to satisfy the Director as
to his competence to fly the type of flying machine concerned.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Soaring Gliders)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

103. (1) An applicant for the grant of a commercial pilot's licence (soaring
gliders) shall be not less than 19 years of age.Commercial pilot (soaring
gliders)

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed six months.

Aircraft Rating-

(3) A licence shall include an aircraft rating specifying the types of gliders
which, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (4), the holder is entitled
to fly.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(4) The licence shall entitle the holder to fly as pilot-in-charge or as second
pilot of-

(a) any type of glider of which the maximum total weight authorised does not
exceed 1,250 lb.; and

(b) any type of glider exceeding the above weight if such type is specified
in the licence.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Flying Experience-

(5) The applicant shall be required to produce satisfactory evidence that he

has had at least 50 hours' flying experience (i.e. in free flight, not towed
flight) as pilot-in-charge of a glider, including 25 winch launchings and 10
completed aero-tow launchings, of which not less than 3 hours, including 10
winch launchings and 3 completed aero-tow launchings, were carried out during
the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the application.

Practical Flying Tests-

(6) (a) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8),
be required to undergo the following practical tests in a glider of which the
maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 1,250 lb.:

(i) a free flight of not less than one minute's duration in the course of
which the candidate shall manoeuvre the glider so that its flight path is in the
form of the letter "S", followed by a normal landing;

(ii) a free flight, during which height is not lost over a continuous period
of at least five minutes, followed by a landing made within 100 yards of a point
fixed beforehand by the candidate. A barograph chart endorsed by a designated
observer will be accepted as evidence as an alternative to visual observation on
the flight but not of the landing;

(iii) two winch launchings; and

(iv) two completed aero-tow launchings.

(b) Where the application relates to a glider of which the maximum total weight
authorised exceeds 1,250 lb., the applicant may be required to undergo such
flying tests as the Director may consider appropriate in the particular case.

(c) The tests shall be subject to the following conditions:

(i) the candidate shall be alone in the glider;

(ii) the tests may be carried out in any order;

(iii) the tests shall be carried out within a maximum period of six months or
within such longer period as may be authorised by the Director;

(iv) the tests shall be witnessed by properly accredited examiners who shall
deposit their reports with the Director. The reports shall give full details of
the flights and particularly of the landings; and

(v) the candidate shall, before each test, furnish the examiners with proof
of his identity.

Technical Examination-

(7) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required to undergo an examination on his knowledge of aviation law, with
particular reference to these Regulations, and on his knowledge of any
information notified with respect to the responsibilities of a pilot.

Exemptions-

(8) At the discretion of the Director-

(a) an applicant who is the holder of a commercial pilot's licence (trailing

gliders) may be exempted from the technical examination mentioned in
sub-regulation (7);

(b) an applicant who is the holder of a flying machine pilot's licence may be
exempted from the technical examination mentioned in sub-regulation (7);

(c) an applicant who produces satisfactory evidence that he has at any time
been employed as a pilot in any military or naval air force may, according to
his qualifications and his experience in respect of soaring flight, be exempted
from the practical flying test mentioned in sub-regulation (6); and

(d) an applicant who holds a British Gliding Association Gliding Certificate

issued within the period of two years immediately preceding the date of the
application may be exempted from the technical examination referred to in
sub-regulation (7) and from the flying tests specified in paragraphs (a) and (b)
of sub-regulation (6).

Flying Experience for Renewal of Licence-

(9) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to produce

satisfactory evidence that he has carried out as pilot-in-charge of a glider not
less than two hours' flying during the twelve months immediately preceding the
date of the application, or, in default thereof, to carry out the practical
flying tests specified in sub-regulation (6).

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Trailing Gliders)

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

104. (1) An applicant for the grant of a commercial pilot's licence (trailing
gliders) shall be not less than 19 years of age.Commercial pilot (trailing
gliders)

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed six months.

Aircraft Rating-

(3) A licence shall include an aircraft rating specifying the types of gliders
which, subject to sub-regulation (4), the holder is entitled to fly.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(4) The licence shall entitle the holder to fly as pilot-in-charge or as second
pilot of any public transport or aerial work glider, of such type as may be
specified in the licence, of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds
1,250 lb.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Flying Experience-

(5) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has had not less than 200
hours' flying experience, of which not less than 100 hours were as
pilot-in-charge of gliders or flying machines, including not less than 30 hours'
flying as pilot-in-charge of a glider during which the applicant carried out 80
take-offs and 80 landings, 5 of which take-offs and landings being made by
night. Of this 30 hours' flying not less than 10 hours shall be carried out
during the six months immediately preceding the date of the application:

Provided that, in the case of an applicant who has passed an approved course of
flying training, the said requirement of 200 hours' flying experience may, at
the discretion of the Director, be reduced to 150 hours.

Practical Flying Tests-

(6) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8),

undergo such practical flying tests as the Director may require.

Technical Examination-

(7) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), be

required to undergo an examination (including practical tests) as to his
knowledge of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law;

(b) air navigation;

(c) meteorology;
(d) interpretation of navigational aid identification signals;

(e) theory of flight and aircraft operating limitations;

(f) aircraft equipment and installations;

(g) airframe maintenance.

Exemptions-

(8) (a) At the discretion of the Director-

(i) an applicant who is the holder of a commercial, senior commercial or

airline transport pilot's licence (flying machines), may, according to his
qualifications, be exempted from all or any part of the practical flying tests
and technical examination required by sub-regulations (6) and (7);

(ii) an applicant who produces satisfactory evidence that he has at any time
been employed as a pilot of gliders in any military or naval air force may,
according to his qualifications and experience, be exempted from all or any of
the requirements as to flying experience and practical tests, and, from the
technical examination, except as regards the examination subject specified in
paragraph (a) of sub-regulation (7);

(iii) an applicant who does not satisfy the night flying requirements
specified in sub-regulation (5) or which may be required under the provisions of
sub-regulation (6), may be accepted as eligible for the grant, renewal or
extension of a commercial pilot's licence (trailing gliders) restricted to
flights between sunrise and sunset within Zambia.

(b) Any exemption granted in accordance with the provisions of sub-paragraphs

(i) and (ii) of paragraph (a) may be made conditional upon the satisfactory
completion of a special flying test.

Flying Experience for Renewal of Licence-

(9) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to produce

satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable flying experience as pilot of a
glider during the six months immediately preceding the date of the application.
In default thereof he may, at the discretion of the Director, be required to
undergo all or any part of the practical flying tests and technical examination
specified for the grant of a licence.

Extension of Licence-

(10) An applicant for the extension of a licence to include the flying of an

additional type of glider shall normally be required to pass practical flying
tests and a technical examination on the type to which the application relates.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

105. (1) An applicant for an instrument rating shall be required to satisfy

the requirements as respects flying experience, instrument flying tests and
technical examinations hereunder specified.Instrument rating requirements

Flying Experience-
(2) The applicant shall be required to produce satisfactory evidence that he-

(a) has carried out as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine not less than 150
hours' flying, including 50 hours' cross-country flying by day; and

(b) has carried out as pilot of a flying machine not less than 40 hours'
flying solely by reference to instruments:

Provided that-

(i) a maximum of 20 hours' instrument flying training carried out on the

ground in approved devices may be accepted in part satisfaction of this
requirement; and

(ii) in the case of an applicant who has passed an approved course of

training in instrument flying, the said requirements of 40 hours' flying may be
reduced to 30 hours, but in such case the maximum of 20 hours' instrument flying
training referred to in proviso (i) shall be reduced to 10 hours.

Instrument Flying Tests-

(3) The applicant shall be required, in the course of an instrument flying test
with an examiner on board, to demonstrate his competence to fly solely by
reference to instruments and in accordance with instrument flight rules.

Technical Examination-

(4) The applicant shall be required to undergo an examination (including

practical tests) as to his knowledge of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law;

(b) flight operation;

(c) air navigation;

(d) meteorology; and

(e) the interpretation of signals given in morse code.

Renewal of Instrument Rating-

(5) (a) The holder of an instrument rating may not exercise the privilege of
such rating, either as pilot-in-charge or as second pilot, unless he has, during
the immediately preceding twelve months, passed an instrument rating or
instrument rating renewal flying test and a certificate by an approved examiner
to that effect is included in the certificate of validity relating to the
licence.

(b) In the case of an instrument rating renewal flying test, when the said
holder has passed such test, the rating shall be renewed for twelve months from
the date-

(i) of expiry of the rating if such test is undergone within 28 days before
the date of expiry of the rating; or

(ii) of such test if such test is undergone more than 28 days before the date
of expiry of the rating.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

106. (1) A rating to act in the capacity of assistant instructor may be

included in a flying machine pilot's licence of any class and shall be limited
to particular classes and types of flying machines, having regard to the report
of the examining body.Assistant instructor's rating

(2) A rating of one or more classes or types of flying machines may be extended
to cover the giving of instruction in flying additional classes or types on the
Director being furnished by the examining body with a satisfactory report that
the applicant has produced such evidence and completed such examination and
tests as may be appropriate in the circumstances of the case.

(3) Such a rating will be made valid only for the giving of instruction under
the direction of a qualified instructor and will not authorise the holder to
give directions to a pupil in regard to either the pupil's first solo flight or
his first solo cross-country flight.

(4) An applicant for an assistant instructor's rating shall, subject to the

provisions of sub-regulation (3) of regulation 107, be required-

(a) to produce satisfactory evidence that he has carried out not less than
100 hours' flying as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine, of which not less than
30 hours shall have been carried out on the class of flying machine to which the
application relates;

(b) to produce satisfactory evidence that he has passed a flying instructor's

course the syllabus of which has been approved;

(c) to undergo an oral examination in the subjects of such a course;

(d) to undergo a flying test, with an approved examiner on board, for the
purpose of determining the applicant's practical ability to act as an assistant
instructor; and

(e) if the application relates to seaplanes-

(i) to undergo an oral examination for the purpose of determining his

knowledge of the practical matters relating to the manoeuvring of seaplanes on
the water; and

(ii) to undergo a test on a seaplane of the type or group to which the

application relates, with an approved examiner on board, for the purpose of
determining the applicant's practical ability to give instruction in the
handling of such seaplane on the water.

107. (1) A rating to act in the capacity of instructor may be included in a

private, commercial, senior commercial or airline transport pilot's licence
(flying machines) and will be limited to the giving of instruction on such types
of flying machines, specified in the aircraft rating of the licence, as the
holder is, by the terms of the licence, entitled to fly as
pilot-in-charge.Instructor's rating

(2) An applicant for an instructor's rating shall, subject to the provisions of

sub-regulation (3), be required-
(a) to produce satisfactory evidence that-

(i) he has carried out not less than 400 hours' flying as pilot-in-charge of
a flying machine, of which not less than 30 hours were carried out on the class
and type of flying machine to which the application relates;

(ii) his flying experience includes not less than 100 hours' flying in the
capacity of assistant instructor;

(b) to undergo a flying test, with an approved examiner on board, for the
purpose of determining the applicant's practical ability to act as an
instructor; and

(c) to satisfy the requirements for a rating to act as an assistant

instructor specified in paragraphs (b), (c) and, when applicable, (e) of
sub-regulation (4) of regulation 106.

(3) An applicant who has qualified as an instructor in flying machines in any

military or naval air force may, according to his qualifications and experience,
be exempted from all or any of the requirements specified in sub-regulation (4)
of regulation 106 or sub-regulation (2). Such exemption may be made conditional
upon the satisfactory completion of any part of the examination and tests.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

108. (1) An applicant for a rating to give instruction in flying gliders (of
which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 1,250 lb.) towed by flying
machines shall be required-Instructor's rating (towed gliders)

(a) to produce satisfactory evidence that he has carried out not less than
400 hours' flying as pilot-in-charge of a glider or flying machine, of which-

(i) not less than 30 hours' flying and 80 landings shall have been carried
out by him as pilot-in-charge of a glider; and

(ii) not less than 25 hours' flying including 5 flights during which a glider
was towed by the flying machine and released therefrom, were carried out by him
as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine;

(b) to undergo an oral examination in the subjects of a gliding instructor's

course conducted in accordance with an approved syllabus.

(2) In addition, the applicant may be required to undergo a flying test, on a

flying machine or a glider towed by a flying machine, or on both, with an
approved examiner on board, for the purpose of determining his practical ability
to give instruction in flying gliders towed by flying machines:

Provided that an applicant-

(i) in whose licence there is included a rating to give instruction in flying

flying machines; or

(ii) who has qualified as an instructor in flying machines or gliders in any

military or naval air force; may, according to his qualifications and
experience, be exempted from all or any of the requirements of this regulation.
Such exemption may be made conditional upon the satisfactory completion of a
special examination or test.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

109. (1) Application by the holder of a flying machine pilot's licence for a
towing rating entitling the holder to fly flying machines towing gliders of
which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 1,250 lb. shall be made in
writing to the Director.Towing rating requirements

(2) Subject as hereinafter provided, an applicant for a towing rating shall be

required to produce evidence of flying experience and undergo tests and
examinations as specified in sub-regulation (4).

(3) A towing rating shall not authorise the towing of a glider or gliders by
more than one flying machine.

Requirements for Grant of Towing Rating-

(4) (a) An applicant for a towing rating must be the holder of a commercial,
senior commercial or airline transport pilot's licence (flying machines) granted
under the provisions of these Regulations.

(b) The applicant shall be required to satisfy the requirements as to flying

experience and undergo tests and examinations as specified in sub-regulations
(5), (6) and (7).

Flying Experience-

(5) The applicant shall be required to produce satisfactory evidence that he

has, during the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the application,
carried out-

(a) as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine towing a glider, not less than 5

hours' flying including at least ten flights, not less than three of which were
carried out at night; and

(b) as pilot-in-charge of a glider towed by a flying machine and released

therefrom, not less than 3 hours' flying, including at least ten flights, one of
which was carried out at night.

Practical Flying Tests-

(6) (a) Two flights as pilot-in-charge of a flying machine of a type included

in Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the applicant's licence, towing one or more
gliders, during each of which flights the applicant shall, in accordance with a
plan arranged beforehand, fly to the position where the glider or gliders are to
be released and after such release, drop the tow rope within the assigned area
and land the flying machine at the assigned place. In respect of one of these
flights, the total weight of the glider or gliders shall approximate to the
maximum weight which the flying machine may be permitted to tow in the
circumstances of the flight. The other flight shall be carried out at night and
the position of release shall be when the flying machine is down wind of the
place at which the glider or gliders are to land and is flying across wind at a
suitable height above the level of that place.

(b) The tests shall be subject to the following conditions:

(i) the tests may be carried out in any order;

(ii) the tests shall be witnessed or conducted, as the case requires, by

properly accredited examiners who shall deposit their reports with the Director.
The reports shall give full details of the flights and, in particular, of the
landings; and

(iii) the applicant shall, before each test, furnish the examiners with proof
of his identity.

Technical Examination-

(7) (a) General knowledge of the procedure for towed flights, including the
systems of intercommunication which may be used; the methods of towing; the
effect of variation of load, and of wind and other meteorological conditions on
gliding and towed flights; and the principles governing the selection of landing
grounds for gliders;

(b) Knowledge of the types of gliders approved for towing by such types of
flying machines included in Group 1 of the aircraft rating of the applicant's
licence as have been approved for towing; the flight characteristics of and the
instruments prescribed for such types of gliders; the permissible limits of
loading for such combinations of flying machines and gliders; the types of tow
ropes which may be used; the methods of inspection of tow ropes and quick
release devices;

(c) Practical knowledge of aviation law, with particular reference to these

Regulations, and knowledge of any information notified with respect to the
responsibilities of a pilot in towing operations:

Provided that-

(i) an applicant who is the holder of a commercial pilot's licence (trailing

gliders) may be exempted from technical examination in the subjects specified in
paragraphs (a) and (c); and

(ii) an applicant who has at any time flown as a pilot of flying machines
towing gliders in any military or naval air force may, according to his
qualifications and experience, be exempted from all or any of the above
requirements as to flying experience and practical flying tests, and from
technical examination on the subjects specified in paragraphs (a) and (b). Such
exemption may be made conditional upon the satisfactory completion of a special
flying test.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

Flight Navigator's Licence

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

110. (1) An applicant for the grant of flight navigator's licence shall be not
less than 21 years of age.Age of applicant and period of licence for flight
navigator

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months.
Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(3) The licence shall entitle the holder to act as flight navigator in any
aircraft.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Flying Experience-

(4) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of subregulation (6), be

required to produce satisfactory evidence that he has-

(a) carried out in the capacity of flight navigator not less than 200 hours'
cross-country flying, 50 hours of which were carried out during the twelve
months immediately preceding the date of the application, and including not less
than 50 hours' night flying; and

(b) made during flight not less than 25 celestial observations by day and not
less than 25 celestial observations by night and has applied the results of such
observations to the navigation of the aircraft:

Provided that, at the discretion of the Director-

(i) in the case of an applicant who has passed an approved course of training
as a flight navigator, the requirements as to flying experience specified in
paragraph (a) may be reduced to such extent as the Director may think fit;

(ii) in the case of an applicant who holds a certificate of competency (or

its naval equivalent) as master or mate of a foreign-going vessel, the
requirements of 200 hours' flying may be reduced to 100 hours; and

(iii) in the case of an applicant who has had flying experience as a pilot of
public transport aircraft, one-half of such experience, up to a maximum of 100
hours, may be reckoned towards the said requirement of 200 hours' flying.

Technical Examination-

(5) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (6), be

required to undergo an examination (including practical tests) as to his
knowledge of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law, in so far as it affects the responsibilities of a flight

navigator;

(b) air navigation, including the interpretation of navigational aid

identification signals; and

(c) meteorology.

Exemptions-

(6) At the discretion of the Director, an applicant who has at any time
qualified as a flight navigator in any military or naval air force may,
according to his qualifications and experience as flight navigator, be exempted
from all or any of the requirements specified in sub-regulations (4) and (5).

Renewal of Licence-
(7) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to produce
satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable experience in the navigation of
aircraft during the twleve months immediately preceding the date of the
application. In default thereof the applicant shall, at the discretion of the
Director, be required either to-

(a) undergo further training in navigational duties in aircraft under the

supervision of a person who is the holder of a flight navigator's licence; or

(b) undergo all or any part of the technical examination specified for the
grant of a licence.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

Flight Engineer's Licence

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

111. (1) An applicant for the grant of a flight engineer's licence shall be
not less than 21 years of age.Age of applicant and period of licence for flight
engineer

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(3) The licence shall entitle the holder to act as flight engineer in any type
of aircraft specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence

Aeronautical and Flying Experience-

(4) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (6), be

required to produce satisfactory evidence that he-

(a) has had at least 50 hours' experience in flight engineering duties on

board the type of aircraft to which the application relates, or one of similar
characteristics, during the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the
application; and

(b) has demonstrated in flight to the satisfaction of the pilot-in-charge of

an aircraft of the type to which the application relates, or one of similar
characteristics, his practical knowledge of emergency procedures and his ability
to take appropriate action in the event of any engine failure occurring,
particularly during landings and take-offs.

Technical Examination-

(5) The applicant shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (6), be

required to undergo an examination on his knowledge of the following subjects;
such examination will have reference to the type of aircraft to which the
application relates:

(a) international air legislation;

(b) these Regulations in so far as they affect the responsibilities of a
flight engineer;

(c) the theory of flight and aerodynamics;

(d) various terms and definitions used in the operation of aircraft;

(e) general knowledge of the maintenance and functioning of airframes, power

plants and related appliances;

(f) general knowledge of aircraft operation and maintenance and a detailed

knowledge of the manual or manuals relating to the type of aircraft to which the
application relates or one of similar characteristics;

(g) methods of effecting in flight minor repairs, adjustments and

replacements;

(h) aircraft performance with respect to speed limitations, and the procedure
to be followed in case of emergency, particularly in the event of fire in the
air or power plant failure;

(i) flight planning based on loading and performance charts, fuel consumption
and engine power curves; control of power output and the mathematical
computations involved;

(j) general knowledge of varying meteorological conditions and their effect

on power plant operations;

(k) aircraft loading and centre of gravity computations;

(l) types of fuel and oil and fuelling procedure; and

(m) the preparation of reports, illustrated by sketches, if necessary,

describing the replacement or repair required in case of damage.

Exemptions-

(6) An applicant who has at any time served as a flight engineer in any
military or naval air force may, at the discretion of the Director and according
to the applicant's qualifications and experience, be exempted from all or any of
the requirements specified in sub-regulations (4) and (5).

Renewal of Licence-

(7) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to produce

satisfactory evidence that he has had reasonable experience in flight
engineering duties in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the
application, including experience on board each type of flying machine for which
the renewal is desired. In default of such evidence, the applicant may be
required to satisfy all or any of the requirements specified for the grant or
extension of a licence as the Director may consider appropriate in the
circumstances of the case.

Extension of Licence-

(8) An applicant for the extension of the aircraft rating of a licence to

include an additional type of aircraft shall be required to satisfy the
requirements specified in sub-regulation (4). He may also, at the discretion of
the Director, be required to undergo all or any part of the technical
examination specified in sub-regulation (5).

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

112. (1) Any person who applies for the grant of a cabin attendant's licence
shall not be less than 18 years nor more than 55 years of age.Age of applicant
and period of licence for cabin attendant's license

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months.

(3) Any person who applies for the grant or renewal of a license shall be
required to-

(a) pass a medical examination and the results shall remain valid for 24
months if the applicant is under 40 years of age and 12 months if the applicant
is 40 years of age or over;

(b) satisfy the requirements as to mental and physical fitness specified in

regulation 114 to the following medical standards:

(i) physical standard No. 2;

(ii) visual standard No. 2;

(iii) colour perception standard No. 2; and

(iv) hearing standard No. 1.

(4) Pregnancy shall be regarded as incapacitating the holder of a license from

carrying out flying duties when the pregnancy is three months old or if a
medical examiner assesses the holder unfit for flying duties even if she is less
than three months pregnant.

(5) A cabin attendant's license of any class shall specify the appropriate type
of aircraft which the holder of the license is qualified to operate.

(6) An applicant for a license shall be required to qualify separately for each
type of aircraft.

(7) A cabin attendant shall not be allowed to work in more than three types of
aircraft at any one given time.

(8) A cabin attendant's license shall entitle the holder to act in accordance
with the following ratings as specified for each Class:

(a) Class I:

(i) instructor of other cabin attendants;

(ii) cabin attendant in charge of any type of aircraft which is endorsed in

the Class I section of the license;

(iii) to provide passenger cabin services, and

(iv) to be in charge of emergencies.

(b) Class II:

(i) to provide passenger cabin services; and

(ii) to be in charge of emergencies;

(c) Class III:

(i) to provide passenger cabin services; and

(ii) cabin attendant on training prior to qualifying for initial or

additional aircraft type.

(9) Upon passing of the examination to which sub-regulation (12) refers, a

cabin attendant's license may be applied for and be granted.

(10) For a type of aircraft to be entered in any Class of the cabin attendant's
license, the applicant shall be required to produce satisfactory evidence that
such applicant-

(a) has carried out at least 10 flights of instructional and supervisory

experience within the preceding 12 months on a type of aircraft to which the
application relates or one with similar characteristics; and

(b) has undergone an approved course of technical training.

(11) The applicant shall be required to demonstrate, during a general practical

test in flight, competency to carry out normal and emergency procedures relating
to the Class and type of aircraft to which the applicant relates.

(12) The applicant shall be required to undergo an examination, as to knowledge

of the following subjects:

(a) aviation law, flight rules and procedures;

(b) aircraft general knowledge;

(c) aircraft type rating;

(d) human performance and limitations;

(e) first aid and medical knowledge; and

(f) dangerous goods carried by air;

(13) The pass mark in all subjects of examination shall be seventy percentum.

(14) At the discretion of the Director, an applicant who has at any time served
as a cabin attendant of any registered and licensed organisation or company,
may, according to the applicant's qualifications and flying experience, be
exempted from all or any of the requirements specified in sub-regulations (9),
(10) and (11).

(15) Any person who applies for the renewal of a license shall be required to
produce satisfactory experience in flight duties in the twelve months
immediately preceding the date of the application, including experience on board
each type of aircraft for which the renewal is desired;

(16) Where the applicant does not produce the evidence specified in
sub-paragraph (15), the applicant may be required to undergo all or any part of
the practical tests and technical examinations specified for the grant of a
license as the Director may consider appropriate.

(17) For a type of aircraft to be maintained in Class I or II of a cabin

attendant's license, evidence of at least one flight on that type of aircraft
during the preceding twelve months shall be required.

(18) An applicant for the extension of an aircraft rating of a license so as to

include an additional type of aircraft, shall produce evidence of having
undergone an approved course of training and shall demonstrate to the
satisfaction of the Director, general competency on board that type of aircraft
or one with similar characteristics.

(19) A rating to act in the capacity of Cabin crew flight instructor may be
included in a cabin attendant's license and shall be limited to the giving of
instructions only on types of aircraft in Class I.

(20) A Cabin crew flight instructor's rating shall remain in force for
twenty-four months from the date of the flying test.

(21) An applicant for a Cabin crew flight instructor's rating shall produce
satisfactory evidence that such applicant has:

(a) attended and passed an International Air Transport Association (IATA)

type of ground training course for cabin flight instructors which has been
approved by the Director;

(b) not less than one hundred hours as a Class I cabin attendant of which not
less than fifty hours are on the types of aircraft to which the application
relates;

(c) undergone not less than twenty hours of ground training at an approved
training centre and has demonstrated to an approved examiner practical ability
to act as a ground instructor; and

(d) undergone not less than fifty hours of flight training and has
demonstrated to a flight examiner in the course of a flight, ability to act as a
flight instructor.

(22) An applicant for the renewal of an instructor's rating shall-

(a) produce evidence of having carried out a reasonable number of flights as

an instructor in the twenty-four months immediately preceding the date of
application; and

(d) demonstrate to an approved examiner in the course of a flight, ability to

act as an instructor.

(As amended by S.I. No. 130 of 1994)

Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence

Age of Applicant and Period of Licence-

113. (1) An applicant for the grant of a flight radiotelephony operator's

licence shall be not less than 18 years of age.Age of applicant and period of
licence for flight radio-telephony operator

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the
grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months.

Privileges Attaching to Licence-

(3) The licence shall entitle the holder to act as flight radiotelephony
operator in any locally registered aircraft, provided that the aircraft radio
equipment embodies technical principles in respect of which his competency has
been determined.

Technical Requirements for Grant of Licence-

(4) The applicant shall hold a current Certificate of Proficiency in

Radiotelephony (Aeronautical), either General or Restricted, issued by the
Postmaster-General of Zambia.

Experience-

(5) An applicant for the grant of a flight radiotelephony operator's licence

shall not be required to furnish evidence of experience.

Renewal of Licence-

(6) An applicant for the renewal of a licence shall be required to-

(a) produce satisfactory evidence that he has maintained competency; and

(b) renew the certificate of medical fitness in accordance with the standards
prescribed in paragraph (j) of sub-regulation (10) of regulation 114.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

113A. (1) Any person who applies for an Air Traffic Controller's licence shall
not be less than 21 years of age.Age of applicant and period of licence for Air
Traffic Controller's Licence

(2) Any person who applies for an Air Traffic Controller's Licence shall hold a
current certificate of proficiency in Air Traffic Control from any recognised
Air Traffic Control School approved by the Director.

(3) Any person applying for an Air Traffic Controller's licence shall furnish
the Director evidence of his experience.

(4) The licence shall entitle the holder to perform the functions as an Air
Traffic Controller at any controlled aerodrome in Zambia.

(5) The period for which a licence shall remain in force following either its
grant or renewal shall not exceed twelve months.

(6) Any person who applies for a renewal of a licence shall be required to
renew the certificate of medical fitness in accordance with standards prescribed
in paragraph d of the sub-regulation 10 of regulation 114.

113B. (1) Any person who applies for an Aeronautical Station Operator's
licence shall not be less than 21 years of age.Age of applicant and period of
licence for Aeronautical Station Operator's Licence

(2) Any person who applies for an Aeronautical Station Operator's licence shall
hold a current certificate of proficiency in Aeronautical Mobile and
Aeronautical Fixed Services from any recognised aeronautical training school.

(3) Any person who applies for an Aeronautical Station Operator's licence shall
be required to furnish evidence of his experience.

(4) The licence shall entitle the holder to perform the functions of an
Aeronautical Station Operator at any Controlled aerodrome in Zambia.

(5) The period for which a licence shall remain in force following either its
grant or renewal shall not exceed twelve months.

(6) Any person who applies for a renewal of a licence shall be required to
renew the certificate of medical fitness in accordance with the standards
prescribed in paragraph (j) of sub-regulation (10) of regulation 114.

(As amended by S.I. 177 of 1989)

114. (1) A person applying for the grant or renewal of a licence to act as a
member of the operating crew of an aircraft shall be required to undergo a
medical examination to ascertain whether his physical condition conforms with
the standard of fitness, that is to say, the physical, visual, colour perception
and hearing, applicable to his case, specified in sub-regulation (10). The
examination shall be based upon the requirements specified in the Second
Schedule:Medical requirements

Provided that-

(a) an applicant who does not satisfy the appropriate medical requirements
may, at the discretion of the Director, be accepted as eligible for the grant or
renewal of a licence, so far as medical requirements are concerned, if the
licence is to be restricted to flying within Zambia. Any licence granted or
renewed in accordance with this proviso may be made subject to such conditions
and restrictions as the Director may consider appropriate in the particular
case;

(b) if an applicant for the renewal of a licence is for the time being on
duty as a member of the operating crew of an aircraft in a region distant from
official medical centres, the medical examination which he should normally pass
to obtain renewal of the licence may at the discretion of the Director-

(i) be deferred once for a period of six months in the case of a member of
the operating crew of a private aircraft; or

(ii) be deferred for two consecutive periods of three months each in the case
of a member of the operating crew of a public transport or aerial work aircraft,
on condition that the applicant obtains locally on each occasion a satisfactory
medical certificate after having been examined by a qualified medical officer.
(2) If an applicant for the renewal of a licence passes the medical
examination, such licence shall be renewed for the period prescribed in these
Regulations for that particular class of licence from the date-

(a) of expiry of the licence, if such examination is undergone within 21 days

before the date of expiry of the licence;

(b) of such examination, if such examination is undergone more than 21 days

before the date of expiry of the licence.

(3) Medical examinations, other than the examination referred to in proviso

(b) to sub-regulation (1), shall be carried out as follows:

(a) in the case of a student pilot's licence (flying machines) and a private
pilot's licence (flying machines), the examination shall be carried out by a
duly qualified medical practitioner, who may be the applicant's usual medical
attendant. It shall be conducted in accordance with C.A. Form 19, and a copy of
the appropriate form, completed as required, shall be forwarded by the medical
examiner to the address specified on the form;

(b) in the case of a commercial pilot's licence (flying machines), a senior

commercial pilot's licence (flying machines), an airline transport pilot's
licence (flying machines), a flight navigator's licence, a flight radio
operator's licence, a flight engineer's licence, a commercial pilot's licence
(soaring gliders), a commercial pilot's licence (trailing gliders), the medical
examination shall be conducted by specially qualified medical officers appointed
by or acting under the authority of the Director.

(4) Every applicant who presents himself for medical examination for the grant
or renewal of a licence shall be required to furnish to the medical examiner a
declaration signed by him stating whether he has previously undergone such
medical examination and, if so, where, when and with what result. A false
declaration may entail the cancellation of any licence granted or renewed as a
result of the examination.

(5) If the holder of a licence is aware, or has reasonable grounds to suspect,

that his physical, aural or eye condition has deteriorated in any respect, even
if only temporarily as the result of a common minor ailment, so that it may be
below the standard of medical fitness required for the grant of such licence, he
shall not act in any capacity for which he is so licensed until he is satisfied
that his condition has been restored to the required standard.

(6) If the holder of a licence-

(a) suffers any personal injury as the result of an accident occurring while
he is acting in any capacity for which he is licensed;

(b) suffers any personal injury involving incapacity for work as the result
of an accident occurring otherwise than while he is acting in any capacity for
which he is licensed;

(c) suffers from any illness involving incapacity for work during twenty days
or more;

he shall send notification of the occurrence, in writing, to the Director as

soon as possible in the case of accident and, in the case of illness, as soon as
the period of twenty days has elapsed.
(7) The holder of a licence may, after suffering any such personal injury or
illness, be required to undergo a full or partial medical examination. He shall
not resume acting in any capacity for which he is licensed until he has arranged
for a medical report, detailing the nature of the injury or illness, the
treatment received, the progress made whilst under treatment and his present
condition, to be forwarded to the Director and has, in the light of such report,
either been examined and pronounced fit or has been informed by the Director
that an examination is not required.

(8) Pregnancy shall be regarded as incapacitating the holder of a licence from

carrying out flying duties. As soon as the condition has been diagnosed, the
holder of a licence shall cease flying and shall not again fly until she has, in
due course, been examined and pronounced fit.

(9) Save as is provided in proviso (b) to sub-regulation (1), the medical

examination required for the purpose of sub-regulation (7) shall conform with
the same conditions and standards as for the grant or renewal of a licence.

Standards of Fitness-

(10) The standards of fitness appropriate to the various classes of licences

shall be-

(a) Private Pilot's Licence and Student Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 4

(b) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

(c) Senior Commercial Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

(d) Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Flying Machines)-

 Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

(e) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Soaring Gliders)-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

(f) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Trailing Gliders)-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

(g) Flight Navigator's Licence-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

(h) Flight Engineer's Licence-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 3

(i) Flight Radio Operator's Licence-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

 Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

(j) Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence-

Physical Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Visual Standard . . . . . . . . No. 2

Colour Perception Standard . . . . . . No. 2

Hearing Standard . . . . . . . . No. 1

(11) A person who is the holder of a flying machine pilot's licence (private or
commercial) and who has been granted, or makes application for, an instrument
rating shall be required to satisfy Hearing Standard No. 1.

(12) If an application for the grant or renewal of a licence or for the

inclusion in a licence or the renewal of a rating for which Hearing Standard No.
1 is required fails to satisfy that standard, the licence or rating may
nevertheless be granted, included or renewed, as the case may be, if the
applicant either-

(a) satisfies Hearing Standard No. 2; or

(b) demonstrates his ability, under practical or simulated practical

conditions, to receive spoken messages by radiotelephony accurately in a complex
noise background of an intensity level of not less than 100 decibels, the
intensity level of the spoken message being 8 decibels above the intensity level
of the background noise;

and the Director is satisfied that the applicant, by reason of his experience in
radio reception, can competently perform the duties for which a licence or
rating is desired.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957 and G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

115. (1) The Director may grant licences to persons to act in the capacity of
aircraft maintenance engineers for the purpose of entitling such persons to
issue in connection with the construction, repair and maintenance of aircraft
and matters connected therewith the certificates required to be issued under the
provisions of these Regulations, and the provisions of this regulation shall
apply to such licences.Age of applicant and period of licence of licensing and
duties for aircraft maintenance engineers

(2) Application for the grant or renewal of a licence to act in the capacity of
aircraft maintenance engineer, or for the extension of a rating included in such
a licence, shall be made to the Director, and the applicant shall furnish the
Director with such particulars as he may require in connection therewith.

(3) An applicant for the grant of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence

shall be not less than 21 years of age, and shall be able to read, write and
converse fluently in the English language.

(4) The Director may grant a licence on application being made and on his being
satisfied that the applicant is qualified in accordance with such requirements
(hereinafter in this regulation called "the requirements") as may, for the
purposes of this regulation, be notified from time to time.
(5) A licence may relate to aircraft, engines, instruments, accessories or
radio.

(6) (a) Following the grant or renewal thereof, a licence shall, subject to
the provisions of regulation 83, remain in force for a period not exceeding
twelve months, as shown on the certificate of validity issued by the Director
with the licence, but may, on application being made and on the Director being
satisfied that the applicant is qualified in accordance with the requirements to
have the licence renewed, from time to time be renewed by the Director so as to
remain in force for a further period, not exceeding twelve months, specified in
a certificate of validity issued by the Director on the occasion of renewal:

Provided that, on any such application being made, the applicant may be required
to satisfy the Director as to his qualifications in accordance with all or any
of the requirements applicable with respect to the grant of a licence.

(b) A certificate of validity issued in accordance with the provisions of

paragraph (a) shall, while it remains in force, be deemed to form part of the
licence to which it relates and the certificate of validity which is for the
time being in force shall be carried with that licence.

(7) On the issue of a licence to an applicant, he shall forthwith sign his name
thereon in ink with his ordinary signature.

(8) The categories of certification and duties of certification in respect of

which licences may be granted shall be as follows:

Category A (applicable to aircraft, excluding engines)-

(i) certification as to fitness for flight of an aircraft for which a

certificate of airworthiness is about to be issued;

(ii) certification in the manner prescribed in Part VII, in respect of public

transport aircraft;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification of repairs approved as minor repairs;

(v) certification of modifications approved as minor modifications;

(vi) certification of replacement of approved components and parts.

Category B (applicable to aircraft, excluding engines)-

(i) certification of aircraft after overhaul, including the engine

installation, except that the overhaul, repair or modification of the
instruments, automatic pilots, variable-pitch propellers, or electrical
equipment shall have been previously certified by a firm approved for the
purpose or by an aircraft maintenance engineer licensed for the purpose in
Category X;

(ii) certification of approved repairs;

(iii) certification of approved modifications;

(iv) certification of the replacement of approved components and parts;

(v) certification of the construction of components and parts and the

materials used therefor, unless it is stated in the licence that this duty is
excluded.

Category C (applicable to engines)-

(i) certification as to fitness for flight of the engines in an aircraft for

which a certificate of airworthiness is about to be issued;

(ii) certification in the manner prescribed in Part VII, in respect of

engines in public transport aircraft;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification of the embodiment of approved modifications and the

replacement of approved components and parts, provided that the work has not
involved dismantling the engine other than to obtain access to the pistons,
cylinders and valve-operating gear.

Category D (applicable to engines only)-

(i) certification of engines after overhaul, except that the overhaul, repair
or modification of magnetos and other ignition equipment shall have been
previously certified by a firm approved for the purpose or by an aircraft
maintenance engineer licensed for the purpose in Category X;

(ii) certification of approved repairs;

(iii) certification of approved modifications:

(iv) certification of the replacement of approved components and parts;

(v) certification of the construction of components and parts and the

materials used therefor, unless it is stated in the licence that this duty is
excluded.

Category X-

(i) certification of the installation and the compensation of compasses;

(ii) certification of overhauls, repairs, modifications or replacements to

magnetos and other ignition equipment;

(iii) certification of overhauls, repairs, modifications or replacements to

and installation of-

(a) variable-pitch propellers;

(b) aircraft instruments and engine instruments;

(c) electrical equipment;

(d) automatic pilots.

Category A(R) (applicable to radio)-

(i) certification of the inspection, overhaul, repair and modification of
aircraft radio stations, excluding equipment that is normally removable;

(ii) certification of the correct functioning of radio apparatus installed in

aircraft;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification in the manner prescribed in Part VII, in respect of radio

apparatus installed in public transport aircraft;

(v) if the licence is so endorsed, certification of radar apparatus as under

paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Category B(R) (applicable to radio)-

(i) certification of the inspection, overhaul, repair and modification of all

aircraft radio apparatus in workshops approved for the purpose by the Director;

(ii) if the licence is so endorsed, certification of radar apparatus as under

paragraph (i).

(9) A rating in any of the categories specified in sub-regulation (8) shall

specify the types of aircraft, engines, instruments, accessories or radio in
respect of which the holder of the licence is entitled to perform the duties of
certification appropriate to that category.

(10) A rating in respect of aircraft or engines may relate either to a single

type of aircraft or engine or to a group of types of aircraft or engines.

(11) The Director may, on application being made, at any time during the
currency of a licence extend the ratings included therein by the addition of
further ratings in any category on his being satisfied that the applicant is
qualified in accordance with the requirements to have such extension.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954, F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957 and S.I. No. 345
of 1969)

115A. (1) The Director may grant a licence to any person to be a

telecommunications and navigation aids engineer which shall entitle such a
person to issue certificates in connection with the installation, repair,
modification and maintenance of equipment and matters connected with
telecommunications and navigation aids.Age of applicant and period of licence
for Telecom-munications and Navigation aids engineer's licence

(2) Any person applying for a telecommunications and navigation aids engineer's
licence, shall furnish the Director with evidence of his qualifications,
experience and any other information which the Director may require.

(3) An applicant for the grant of the telecommunications and navigation aids
engineer's licence shall not be less than twenty-one years of age and shall be
able to read, write and converse fluently in the English Language.

(4) The Director may grant a licence or renewal of a licence under this
regulation if he is satisfied that the applicant has the necessary qualification
and experience.
(5) A licence granted under this regulation may relate to HF and VHF
communications equipment, navigation aids systems or accessories.

(6) A licence, shall subject to regulation 83, remain in force for a period not
exceeding twelve months as specified on the certificate of validity issued by
the Director.

(7) A licence issued under this regulation may, on application, be renewed by

the Director and shall be in force for a further period not exceeding twelve
months as specified on the certificate of validity issued with the renewal.

(8) The certificate of validity referred to in sub-regulations (6) and (7)

shall form part of the licence.

(9) The category of certificates and duties of certification for which a

licence may be granted under this regulation shall be as follows:

Category T (Applicable to HF and VHF\UHF communication, etc., excluding

navigation aids facilities)-

(i) certification of the inspection, repair and modification of ground based

communication apparatus in workshops approved by the Director;

(ii) certification of the correct functioning of ground based communication

apparatus;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification of AFTN message switching system apparatus as specified in

paragraphs (i) to (iii).

Category N (applicable to all navigation facilities)-

(i) certification of the inspection, repair and modification of ground based

navigation aids facilities in workshop approved by the Director;

(ii) certification of the correct functioning of ground based navigation aids

facilities;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification of radar apparatus as specified in paragraphs (i) to

(iii).

(10) A rating in any of the categories specified in sub-regulation (9) shall

specify the type of communication or navigation aids facility for which the
holder of the licence is entitled to perform his duties of certification.

(11) A rating in respect of telecommunications or navigation aids may relate

either to a single equipment or to a group of types of equipment.

(12) The Director may, on application at any time during the currency of a
licence add further ratings in any category if he is satisfied that the
applicant has the necessary qualification and experience.

(As amended by S.I. No. 87 of 1991)

PART XV AERODROMESPART XV

AERODROMES

116. (1) The Director may licence an aerodrome either for public use or for
use by particular persons or classes of persons, and for use either by aircraft
of all classes and descriptions or by particular aircraft or classes or
descriptions of aircraft.Licensing of aerodromes

(2) The Director may grant a licence in respect of an aerodrome on such

conditions as may be specified in the licence, and any conditions so specified
shall be complied with by the licensee of the aerodrome as if they were
contained in these Regulations.

(3) A licence granted by the Director in respect of an aerodrome shall, subject

to the provisions of regulation 83, remain in force for such period, not
exceeding twelve months, as may be shown therein but may from time to time be
renewed by the Director for such period, not exceeding twelve months, as may be
shown therein and such renewal may be with or without variation of any
conditions or of the description of the aerodrome previously contained in the
licence.

(4) Application for the grant or renewal of a licence in respect of an

aerodrome shall be made to the Director and the applicant shall furnish the
Director with such particulars as he may require in connection therewith and
shall comply with any requirements of the Director as to inspection of the
aerodrome.

(5) All military aircraft belonging to or employed in any branch of the Defence
Force performing air service shall, subject to the conditions of the licence,
have at all reasonable times the right of access to any licensed aerodrome.

(6) An aerodrome which is not a Government aerodrome or a licensed aerodrome

shall be registered with the Director by the owner of the land on which it is
situated as an unlicensed aerodrome and shall be open to inspection by the
Director.

(7) Nothing in these Regulations shall be construed as conferring any right to

land in any place against the owner of the land or other persons interested
therein, or as prejudicing the rights or remedies of any person in respect of
injury to persons or property caused by an aircraft.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

117. The Director may authorise any person to exercise the powers conferred
by paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (1) of section seven of the
Act.Authorisation by Director

118. (1) The Director may-Charges at and accessibility of aerodromes

(a) prescribe or approve-

(i) a scale of fees to be charged at any aerodrome licensed for public use or
at any Government aerodrome, in respect of any services to aircraft which may be
specified in such scale; and
(ii) different scales of fees at any such aerodromes for different types or
classes of aircraft so specified; and

(iii) conditions to be observed in relation to the charging of such fees or

the rendering of such services; and

(iv) any modification to any scale or conditions mentioned in sub-paragraphs

(i), (ii) and (iii);

(b) in respect of any aircraft or class or type of aircraft, exempt any

government, person or class of person, from the payment of any fee or the
observance of any condition so prescribed or approved;

(c) classify aerodromes licensed in terms of regulation 116, for the purpose
of prescribing or approving any such scale or conditions with reference to a
particular class of such aerodromes.

(2) The person in control of an aerodrome so licensed-

(a) shall exhibit and keep exhibited in a conspicuous place in the aerodrome
a tariff in a form approved by the Director of the charges to be made thereat in
respect of services to aircraft; and

(b) shall not make in respect of any service rendered to an aircraft any
charge which is greater or less than the charge specified in such tariff in
respect of that service, which charge shall be in accordance with a scale
prescribed or, as the case may be, approved by the Director pursuant to the
provisions of sub-regulation (1).

(3) The person in control of any aerodrome which is open to public use by
locally registered aircraft on payment of charges shall allow the aircraft of
all contracting States alike to use the aerodrome to the same extent and upon
the same conditions and shall ensure that any charges made at any such aerodrome
for landing and length of stay are uniformly applicable with respect to the
aircraft of all contracting States alike.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

119. (1) A Government or designated aerodrome may be notified as available for

use as a place of landing or departure by aircraft other than aircraft belonging
to or employed in any branch of the Defence force performing air services and if
so notified, may be so used subject to any conditions or limitations which may
be so notified with respect to such use but, no aircraft other than an aircraft
belonging to or employed in any branch of the Defence forces performing air
service shall use any Government or designated Aerodrome as a place of landing
or departure unless it does so by, and in accordance with the terms of, special
permission of the Director or person authorised by him or unless it is compelled
by accident, stress of weather or other unavoidable cause to make an emergency
landing thereon.Use of government and designated aerodromes

(2) Every aircraft making use of a Government or designated aerodrome in

accordance with sub-regulation (1) shall comply with the requirements of the
Director or person authorised by him at the aerodrome relating to such use.

(3) Regulation 120 of the principal regulations is amended by the deletion of

paragraph (b) and the substitution therefor of the following new
paragraph:Amendment of regulation 120
(b) a Government or designated aerodrome which has been notified as available
for use by such an aircraft or which in a particular case such an aircraft is
specially permitted to use under regulation 119:

Provided that this prohibition shall not apply-

(i) to a landing due to accident, stress of weather or other unavoidable

cause or to the next subsequent departure from the place in which the landing
due to any such cause has been made; or

(ii) to a landing or departure made by a flying club and carrying a member of

the club whether for the purpose of instruction or otherwise.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954, S.I. No. 153 of 1965 and S.I. No. 87 of
1991)

120. (1) No aircraft carrying passengers for hire or reward shall use as a
place of landing or departure any place in Zambia other than-Passenger
aerodromes

(a) an aerodrome licensed for use by such an aircraft; or

(b) a Government aerodrome which has been notified as available for use by
such an aircraft, or which in a particular case such an aircraft is specially
permitted to use under the provisions of regulation 119:

Provided that this prohibition shall not apply-

(i) to a landing due to accident, stress of weather or other unavoidable

cause or to the next subsequent departure from the place in which the landing
due to any such cause has been made; or

(ii) to a landing or departure made by a glider being flown under

arrangements made by a flying club and carrying a member of the club whether for
the purpose of instruction or otherwise.

(2) The person in control of any aerodrome other than an aerodrome mentioned in
sub-regulation (1) shall not permit that aerodrome to be used-

(a) by an aircraft in contravention of that sub-regulation; or

(b) by night by aircraft not carrying passengers for hire or reward unless
lights are provided which are adequate for the purpose of such use.

(3) (a) An aerodrome may be notified as not available for use as a place of
landing or departure by aircraft during any period notified and, if an aerodrome
has been so notified, no aircraft shall during such period use that aerodrome as
a place of landing or departure unless it is compelled by accident, stress of
weather or other unavoidable cause to make an emergency landing thereon.

(b) An aerodrome may be notified for use as a place of landing or departure

only by aircraft of such class, type or description during such period and
subject to such conditions or limitations with respect to the use thereof as may
be notified and, if an aerodrome has been so notified-

(i) every aircraft of such class, type or description shall in making use of
that aerodrome during such period do so in accordance with such conditions or
limitations; and

(ii) no aircraft as aforesaid shall during such period use that aerodrome as
a place of landing or departure unless it is compelled by accident, stress of
weather or any other unavoidable cause to make an emergency landing thereon.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957 and G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

121. With respect to any licensed aerodrome or Government aerodrome, the

conditions under which noise and vibrations may be caused by any aircraft
(including military aircraft) on any licensed aerodrome or Government aerodrome
shall, subject to any special conditions which may be prescribed with respect to
a particular aerodrome, be as follows:Noise on aerodromes

(a) when the aircraft is taking-off or landing; or

(b) when the aircraft is moving on the ground or on water; or

(c) when the engines of the aircraft are being operated-

(i) for the purpose of ensuring their satisfactory performance; or

(ii) for the purpose of bringing them to a proper temperature in preparation

for, or at the end of, a flight; or

(iii) for the purpose of ensuring that the instruments, accessories or other
components of the aircraft are in a satisfactory condition.

122. No person, other than a person engaged on duty connected with aircraft
and their operation or an aircraft passenger in charge of a person engaged on
duty connected with aircraft and their operation, shall enter a restricted area
except with the permission of the superintendent or manager of the aerodrome.
For the purpose of this regulation "restricted area" means any portion of an
aerodrome on which (in the case of building on) and round which (in the case of
an area of an aerodrome) there are notices, erected with the authority of the
superintendent or manager of the aerodrome, prohibiting entry.Prohibition of
entry on aerodromes

PART XVI INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTSPART XVI

INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS

123. This Part shall apply to accidents arising out of, or in the course of,
aircraft operation which occur in or over Zambia, or which occur elsewhere to
locally registered aircraft.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Application of Part XVI

124. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation of

terms in Part XVI

"accident" means-

(a) a landing in circumstances of emergency due to any cause; or

(b) an occurrence which takes place between the time any person boards the
aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have
disembarked in which any person suffers death or serious injury while in or upon
the aircraft or by direct contact with the aircraft or anything attached
thereto, or the aircraft receives substantial damage;

"board of inquiry" means a commissioner or commissioners appointed by the

Minister in terms of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 128;

"substantial damage" means any damage that necessitates the replacement or

extensive repair of any major component or the equivalent considering all damage
to the aircraft collectively.

125. (1) If an accident occurs, the pilot or, if the pilot is incapacitated by
injury, the owner or hirer of the aircraft shall-Notification of accidents

(a) if the accident occurs in or over Zambia, send notice thereof by telegram
to the Director and notify the officer-in-charge of the nearest police post; and

(b) if the accident has occurred elsewhere than in or over Zambia, send
notice thereof in writing to the Director;

Provided that in the case of an aircraft which is engaged on hire at the time of
the accident, the owner thereof shall, as between himself and the hirer and in
the absence of any agreement to the contrary, be responsible for compliance with
this regulation.

(2) The notice shall be sent as soon as possible and, if the accident occurs in
or over Zambia, within twelve hours after the occurrence of the accident, unless
the person whose duty it is to send it proves that it was not possible to send
it within that time.

(3) The notice shall state-

(a) the nationality and registration marks of the aircraft;

(b) the name of the owner and hirer (if any) of the aircraft;

(c) the name of the pilot of the aircraft;

(d) the name of the place where the accident occurred;

(e) the date and time when the accident occurred;

(f) the nature of the accident;

(g) whether death or injury was caused by the accident, and, if so, to whom.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

126. (1) If an accident occurs in or over Zambia the aircraft shall not,
except under the authority of the Director, be removed from its place or
otherwise interfered with:Interference with aircraft

Provided that-

(i) the aircraft or any part thereof may be removed or interfered with as far
as may be necessary for the purpose of extricating persons or animals involved,
removing mail carried by the aircraft, preventing destruction by fire or other
cause, or for some other urgent reason approved of by a superior or commissioned
police officer;

(ii) goods, mail or passengers' baggage may be removed from the aircraft
under the supervision of the pilot or a police officer but, in the case of an
aircraft which has come from some place outside Zambia, shall not be removed
from the vicinity of the aircraft except on clearance by or with the consent of
a customs officer.

(2) The Director may authorise any person, so far as may be necessary for the
purpose of any investigation under these Regulations, to take measures for the
preservation of the aircraft and to have access to examine, remove, or otherwise
deal with the aircraft:

Provided that, if an aircraft is wrecked on the water, the aircraft or any part
of contents thereof may be removed to such extent as may be necessary for
bringing it to a place of safety.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

127. (1) If an accident occurs, a person or persons generally or specially

appointed by the Director for the purpose (in this Part referred to as
inspectors) may, whether or not such accident is one whereof notice is required
to be given under these Regulations, make inquiries as to the cause of the
accident and report thereon to the Director. All persons are required, by all
reasonable means, to assist the inspectors who shall have access to and
authority to examine any aircraft concerned in the accident, the place where the
accident occurred, and any documents, material, equipment or components that may
be pertinent to their inquiries.Appointment of inspectors

(2) On completion of any inquiries made under sub-regulation (1), and after
submission to the Director of the inspector's report, the Minister may, at his
discretion, instruct that the contents of such report are made public in whole
or in part.

128. (1) Where it appears to the Minister that it is expedient to hold a

public inquiry into the causes and circumstances of an accident, he may appoint
a commissioner or commissioners for that purpose.Boards of inquiry

(2) To assist a board of inquiry the Minister may appoint an assessor or

assessors possessing aeronautical, engineering, or other special skill or
knowledge.

(3) A board shall hold an inquiry in public save to the extent to which the
board is of opinion that in the interests of justice or in the public interest
any part of the evidence, or any argument relating thereto, should be heard in
camera.

129. (1) A board may make such rules for its own guidance and the conduct and
management of proceedings before it and the hours and times and places for its
sittings as it may think fit.Powers of boards of inquiry

(2) A board shall have power to inspect or authorise any person to inspect any
aircraft concerned in the accident and to enter and inspect any place or
building, the entry and inspection whereof appears to the board to be necessary
for the purpose of the inquiry.
(3) Any person who is in any way implicated or concerned in the accident under
inquiry shall be entitled to be legally represented by any person entitled to
practise in the High Court or any subordinate court in Zambia.

(4) The Commissioner of Police shall detail police officers to attend upon a
board, to preserve order during the proceedings and to perform such duties as
the board may direct.

(5) A board shall not be liable to any action or suit for any matter or thing
done by it in the exercise of its functions under these Regulations.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

130. (1) The Minister may direct what remuneration (if any) shall be paid to a
board and to any assessor, and may direct the payment of any other expenses
attendant upon the carrying out of the board's functions.Remuneration and costs

(2) A board may order the costs and expenses of an inquiry, or any part
thereof, to be paid by any party, if it finds that the accident was due to the
act or default or negligence of that party or of any person in the employment of
that party; and any such order shall be of the same force and effect and
proceedings may be taken thereon as if such order were a judgment as to costs in
a subordinate court.

131. On conclusion of the proceedings of a board, the board shall make a

report to the Minister stating fully the circumstances of the case and the
opinion of the board concerning the causes of the accident and adding any
observations and recommendations which the board thinks fit to make with a view
to the preservation of life and the avoidance of similar accidents in future,
including a recommendation for the cancellation, suspension or endorsement of
any licence, certificate, or other document.Reports of boards of inquiry

PART XVII GENERAL AND SUPPLEMENTARYPART XVII

GENERAL AND SUPPLEMENTARY

132. The Civil Air Ensign established in the Republic under the Civil Air
Ensign Regulations shall not be flown within Zambia save-Civil Air Ensign

(a) on locally registered aircraft;

(b) at any licensed aerodrome or aerodrome under the control of the Director;

(c) by the person operating an air transport undertaking owning Zambian

aircraft on or in proximity to any building occupied by him at his principal
office or place of business;

(d) by any person to whom permission in writing is granted by the Director:

Provided that the Civil Air Ensign shall not be hoisted on board any ship or
boat without warrant from the President.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

133. No person shall secrete himself and be carried in an aircraft without

the consent of the pilot-in-charge of the aircraft, or in the case where a
person other than the pilot-in-charge is in command thereof, without the consent
of that person.Stowaways

134. (1) If it appears to the Director or an authorised person that any

aircraft is intended or likely to be flown-Power to prevent flights

(a) in such circumstances that the flight would be in contravention of the

provisions or any provision of regulation 10, 16, 20, 59, 72 or 73;

(b) in such circumstances that the flight would be in contravention of any

other provision of these Regulations and be a cause of danger to persons in the
aircraft or goods carried for hire or reward therein or to other persons or
property on land or water or in the air; or

(c) while in a condition unfit for flight, whether the flight would otherwise
be in contravention of any provision of these Regulations or not;

the Director or such authorised person may give such instructions and take such
steps by way of detention of the aircraft or otherwise as appear to him
necessary in order to prevent the flight.

(2) For the purposes of sub-regulation (1), the aircraft may be inspected by an
authorised person.

(3) If any person contravenes any instructions given under this regulation, he
shall be deemed to have contravened these Regulations, and no aircraft shall fly
in contravention of any such instructions.

(4) For the purposes of this regulation, "authorised person" includes-

(a) a person authorised in writing by the Director; and

(b) a superior or commissioned police officer.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 269 of 1957)

135. Any authorised person and any police officer shall-Powers of authorised
persons and police officers

(a) have the right to enter and inspect any aerodrome, hangar, or aircraft,
or any operational servicing or manufacturing organisation engaged in aviation
and to inspect any aircraft equipment, components or materials for the purpose
of ensuring that the provisions of the Act and of these Regulations have been or
are being complied with. Such persons shall have access to all documents
reasonably required by them for the proper execution of their duties;

(b) have access to any place where an aircraft has landed for the purpose of
inspecting the aircraft or any document which he has the power to demand under
these Regulations, and for the purpose of detaining the aircraft under the
provisions of these Regulations;

(c) provided the commercial operation of the aircraft is not thereby

prejudiced, have access to any aircraft for the purpose of checking whilst in
flight, the performance of the aircraft, its engines, propellers and other
appliances and the efficiency of flight crew members in the performance of their
duties.
136. No person shall obstruct or impede any person acting in the exercise of
his powers or the performance of his duties under these Regulations.Obstruction
of authorised persons

137. Liability shall not be accepted by the Department of Civil Aviation, its
servants or agents, or by any servant or agent of the Government for loss or
damage by accident, fire, flood, tempest, explosion or any other cause to
aircraft, or for loss or damage from whatever cause arising to goods, mails, or
other articles, or for loss or injury from whatever cause arising to passengers
or other persons (including pilots, engineers, or other personnel of aircraft)
landing at, departing from, or accommodated in or at any Government aerodrome or
landing ground even if such loss, damage or injury is caused by or arises from
negligence on the part of any servants or agents of the Department of Civil
Aviation or any servant or agent of the Government.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)Department not
liable

138. The holder of any licence, certificate or rating issued in terms of

these Regulations shall, within fourteen days from the date of any change of
permanent address, notify the Director of such change of address.Changes of
address

139. Monthly returns or such other returns or information as and when

required for statistical purposes shall be rendered to the Director by all
operators.Statistical returns

140. (1) The provisions of the Third Schedule shall have effect with respect
to the fees to be charged in connection with the certificates, licences and
other documents referred to in these Regulations and otherwise in connection
with the purposes of these Regulations.Prescribed fees

(2) Upon an application being made in connection with which any fee is
chargeable in accordance with the said provisions, the applicant may be required
before the application is entertained to pay the whole or to deposit a portion
of the fee or fees so chargeable. If, after such payment or deposit has been
made, the application is withdrawn by the applicant or otherwise ceases to have
effect or is refused by the Director, the Director may, subject as hereinafter
provided, refund the amount of such payment or deposit. Where the amount paid or
deposited is wholly or to any extent attributable to a fee chargeable in respect
of an investigation which would have been carried out in connection with the
application if it had not been so withdrawn or ceased to have effect or been
refused but which has not been carried out by reason only of such withdrawal,
cesser or refusal, the Director may refund the amount so attributable or, in a
case where an investigation has been partially completed, so much of that amount
as in the opinion of the Director is reasonable having regard to the stage to
which the investigation has progressed at the time of such withdrawal, cesser or
refusal:

Provided that, if in any case the amount deposited by the applicant is not
sufficient to cover the fee, as ultimately assessed, chargeable in respect of
any investigation in so far as the same has been carried out at the time when
the application is withdrawn by him or otherwise ceases to have effect or is
refused by the Director, the amount representing the balance of such fee shall
be payable by the applicant.

(3) In sub-regulation (2) and in the Third Schedule, "investigation" includes

an inspection, examination, calculation or test.

(4) Where application is made for the grant or renewal of any licence specified
in paragraphs 7 and 8 of the Third Schedule, or for the addition of a rating to,
or any other extension of, such licence, and it is necessary for an examination
or examinations to be conducted by any approved person or approved body other
than the Director, the fees chargeable shall be such as the Director may in each
case fix.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954)

FIRST SCHEDULE

(Regulation 17)

NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS

1. Save as provided in paragraph 3, the nationality and registration

marks shall be painted on the aircraft, or shall be affixed thereto by any other
means ensuring a similar degree of permanence, in the following manner:

(a) Flying Machines and Gliders-

(i) Wings-The marks shall appear once on the upper surface of the wing
structure and once on the lower surface of the wing structure. They shall be
located on the right half of the upper surface and on the left half of the lower
surface of the wing structure unless they extend across the whole of both the
upper and lower surfaces of the wing structure. So far as is possible, the marks
shall be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings.
The tops of the letters shall be towards the leading edge of the wing.

(ii) Fuselage (or equivalent structure) or Vertical Tail Surfaces- The marks
shall also appear either on each side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure)
between the wings and the tail surfaces, or on the upper halves of the vertical
tail surfaces. When located on a single vertical tail surface, they shall appear
on both sides. When there is more than one vertical tail surface, the marks
shall appear on the outboard sides of the outer surfaces.

(b) Airships and Balloons-

(i) Airships-The marks shall appear on each side of the airship and also on
the upper surface on the line of symmetry. They shall be located lengthwise near
the maximum cross-section of the airship.

(ii) Spherical Balloons-The marks shall appear in two places diametrically

opposite. They shall be located near the maximum horizontal circumference of the
balloon.

(iii) Non-spherical Balloons-The marks shall appear on each side They shall
be located near the maximum cross-section of the balloon immediately above
either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension
cables.

(iv) In the case of all airships and balloons, the side marks shall be so
placed as to be visible both from the sides and from the ground.

2. Subject to the provisions of paragraphs 3 and 4, the following

provisions concerning the letters constituting the marks shall be complied with:

Flying Machines and Gliders-

(i) Wings-The letters constituting each group of marks shall be of equal

height. The height of the marks shall be at least twenty inches.

(ii) Fuselage (or equivalent structure) or Vertical Tail Surfaces- The marks
on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) shall not interfere with the visible
outlines of the fuselage (or equivalent structure). The marks on the vertical
tail surfaces shall be such as to leave a margin of at least two inches along
each side of the vertical tail surface. The letters constituting each group of
marks shall be of equal height. The height of the marks shall be at least twelve
inches.

3. In cases where the constructional details of the aircraft do not admit

of compliance with any of the provisions of paragraphs 1 and 2, the nationality
and registration marks shall be affixed to the aircraft in such a manner, and
the letters constituting the marks shall be of such a height, as may be approved
by the Director.

(F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

4. (1) The width of each letter (except the letter I) and the length of
the hyphen between the nationality mark and registration mark shall be
two-thirds of the height of a letter.

(2) The letters and hyphen shall be formed by solid lines and shall be of a
colour clearly contrasting throughout with the background on which they appear.
The thickness of these lines shall be one-sixth of the height of a letter.

(3) As nearly as constructional features of the aircraft permit, each

letter shall be separated from the letter which it immediately precedes or
follows by a space equal to half the width of a letter. A hyphen shall be
regarded as a letter for this purpose.

(F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

5. The nationality and registration marks shall be displayed to the best

advantage, taking into consideration the constructional features of the
aircraft.

(F.G.N. No. 151 of 1957)

SECOND SCHEDULE

(Regulations 90 and 114)

STANDARDS OF FITNESS AND MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS

PHYSICAL REQUIMENTS

1. Physical Standard No. 1-

The medical examination and assessment shall be based on the following

requirements of mental and physical fitness:

(1) The applicant shall be required to have adequate functional use of his
four limbs and to be free from any active or latent, acute or chronic, physical
disability, that would entail any degree of functional incapacity which is
considered by the medical examiner likely to interfere with the safe handling of
an aircraft at any altitude throughout a prolonged or difficult flight.

(2) The medical examination will include a full inquiry into the family and
personal history of the applicant. The information obtained shall be given in a
statement made and signed by him and will be taken into consideration by the
medical examiner.

(3) Examination of the nervous system.-The applicant shall have no history

of significant mental or nervous trouble. He shall be required to be free from
any mental impairment, pathological tremor, or presumptive evidence of latent
epilepsy. He shall be required to be free from any progressive disease of the
nervous system and from any non-progressive disease of that system, the effects
of which are considered by the medical examiner to be of sufficient degree as
likely to interfere with the safe handling of an aircraft. Cases in which
syphilis, past or present, has affected the central nervous system will be
assessed as permanently unfit.

As to injuries of the head-

(a) Cases of simple concussion, or simple fracture of the skull without

associated intracranial injury, will be assessed as temporarily unfit for a
period of not less than two months from the date of the concussion or fracture.
When the licence is renewed, it will be made valid only for a period of two
months in the first instance. Thereafter its validity will be restricted to
consecutive periods of two months until the medical examiner reports he has good
reason to presume that the after-effects of the concussion or fracture are no
longer likely to cause a sudden incapacity in flight;

(b) Cases of head injury associated with intracranial injuries will be

assessed as permanently unfit if a local lesion of the brain persists;

(c) Cases of head injury in which there has been an operation on the skull
with loss of bony substance involving the two tables of the cranial vault will
be assessed as permanently unfit;

(d) Cases of head injury associated with a lesion of the dura mater will be
assessed as permanently unfit even if a bone graft has been done.

(4) General surgical examination.-The applicant shall neither suffer from

any wound or injury, nor have undergone an operation, nor possess any
abnormality, congenital or acquired, which is considered by the medical examiner
likely to interfere with the safe handling of an aeroplane at any altitude
throughout a prolonged or difficult flight. He shall be required to be
completely free from hernia. Cases in which there is any significant anatomical
or functional lesion in the walls of any part of the digestive tract, any
stricture, any calculus or foreign body, any significant peritoneal lesion,
established by clinical or laboratory examination, will be assessed as unfit. An
applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages
or the digestive tract, except for appendicitis, which has involved a total or
partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs will be assessed as unfit
unless a period of one year has elapsed since the surgical operation and the
effects of the operation are not considered liable to cause sudden incapacity in
the air, provided that this period of one year may be shortened on the
production of an attestation made by a surgeon having knowledge of the nature of
the disease which necessitated the operation, certifying that no immediate or
future after-effects are to be feared.

(5) General medical examination.-The applicant shall not suffer from any
disease or disability which renders him liable suddenly to become unable to
handle aircraft safely.

The heart shall be normal. Cases in which there is arrhythmia associated

with a liability to giddiness will be assessed as unfit. Respiratory arrhythmia,
occasional extra systoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate
from excitement or exercise, or a slow pulse not associated with
auriculoventricular dissociation may be regarded as coming within "normal"
limits.

The systolic and diastolic blood pressures shall be within normal limits.

There shall be no signs of aneurism of the large arterial trunks.

There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of the
structures of the lungs, mediastinum or pleura. In the case of an examination
for the first grant of a licence, radioscopy will form part of the chest
examination. Radiography will form part of the medical examination in all
doubtful clinical cases.

Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, however diagnosed, will be assessed

as unfit. Cases of quiescent or healed lesions which are known to be
tuberculous, or are presumably tuberculous, in origin may be assessed as fit.
Cases of doubt about the activity of a lesion, where symptoms of activity of the
disease are lacking clinically, will be assessed as temporarily unfit for a
period of not less than three months from the date of the medical examination.
At the end of the three months' period, a further radiographic record will be
made and compared carefully with the original. If there is no sign of extension
of the disease and there are no general symptoms nor symptoms referable to the
chest, the applicant may be assessed as fit but, where the licence is renewed in
these circumstances, it will be made valid only for a period of three months in
the first instance; thereafter, provided there continues to be no sign of
extension of the disease as shown by radiographic examinations carried out at
the end of each three months' period, the validity of the licence will be
restricted to consecutive periods of three months. When the applicant has been
under observation under this scheme for a total period of at least two years and
comparison of all the radiographic records shows no changes or only
retrogression of the lesion, the lesion will be regarded as "quiescent" or
"healed"

Cases of pulmonary emphysema will not be assessed as unfit unless the

condition is causing symptoms.

Cases of disease of, or of significant impairment of the functioning of, the

liver, biliary passages or pancreas will be assessed as unfit. Cases of diabetes
will also be assessed as unfit.

Cases of severe and moderate enlargement of the spleen persistently below

the costal margin will be assessed as unfit. Cases of generalised enlargement of
the lymphatic glands and of diseases of the blood will be assessed as unfit;
those due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily unfit.

Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidneys will be assessed
as unfit; those due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily
unfit. The urine shall contain no pathological element. Cases of affection of
the urinary passages, and of the genital organs will be assessed as unfit; those
due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily unfit. Cases of
tuberculous epididymitis, in its mild and localised form, may be assessed as
fit.

An applicant for the first grant of a licence who has a personal history of
syphilis shall be required to furnish evidence, satisfactory to the medical
examiner, that he has undergone adequate treatment; this evidence shall include
the result of an examination of the blood and of the cerebro-spinal fluid. An
applicant showing any clinical signs of active syphilis will be assessed as
temporarily unfit for a period of not less than three months from the date of
the medical examination. At the end of the three months' period, provided the
applicant furnishes proof, satisfactory to the medical examiner, that he has
undergone adequate treatment in the interim and that the serological reaction
for syphilis is negative, he may be assessed as fit, but where a licence is
granted or renewed in these circumstances it will be made valid only for a
period of three months in the first instance. Thereafter, provided serological
reactions for syphilis continue to be negative at the end of each three months'
period, the validity of the licence will be restricted to consecutive periods of
three months. When the applicant has been under observation under this scheme
for a total period of at least three years and the serological reactions have
continued to be negative, the restriction on the period of validity of the
licence may be removed. In cases where the serological reaction for syphilis
remains persistently positive, examinations of the cerebro-spinal fluid at the
end of each period of six months with negative results may be accepted in lieu
of negative serological reactions at the end of each period of three months. Any
evidence of syphilis of the central nervous system will be confirmed by the
result of an examination of the cerebro-spinal fluid.

The cases of applicants of the female sex who have undergone gynaecological
or other surgical operations will be considered individually. In the event of
presumed pregnancy, the applicant will be assessed as temporarily unfit until,
at least, after the pregnancy has been terminated; after confinement or
miscarriage, the applicant will not be permitted to exercise the privileges of
her licence until she has undergone a new medical examination and been assessed
as fit.

(6) Eye examination.-There shall be no active pathological condition, acute

or chronic, of either eye or adnexae which is considered likely by the medical
examiner to interfere with its proper function.

NOTE.-The details of the Visual Requirements are specified in sub-paragraphs

(1) to (4) of paragraph 4 of this Schedule and those for Colour Perception in
sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) of paragraph 5.

(7) Ear examination.-There shall be-

(i) No active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal ear or

middle ear cleft;

(ii) No unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membrane;

(iii) No obstruction of the Eustachian tubes;

(iv) No disturbances of the vestibular apparatus.

 NOTE.-The details of the Hearing Requirements are specified in
sub-paragraphs (1) to (5) of paragraph 6.

(8) Nose, throat and mouth examination.-There shall be free nasal air entry
on both sides. There shall be no serious malformation, nor serious, acute or
chronic affection of the buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract.

2. Physical Standard No. 2-

The medical examination and assessment shall be based on the following

requirements of mental and physical fitness:

(1) The applicant shall be required to be free from any congenital or

acquired disability causing such degree of functional incapacity as is
considered by the medical examiner likely to interfere, in the case of piloting,
with the safe handling of an aircraft at any altitude throughout a prolonged or
difficult flight or, in the case of flight crew members other than pilots, with
the efficient performance of the duties to be carried out when exercising the
privileges of the licence.

(2) The medical examination will include a full inquiry into the family and
personal history of the applicant. The information obtained shall be given in a
statement made and signed by him and will be taken into consideration by the
medical examiner.

(3) Examination of the nervous system.-The applicant shall have no history

of significant mental or nervous trouble. He shall be required to be free from
any disability of the nervous system considered by the medical examiner to be of
such degree as likely to interfere with efficient function during prolonged
flight. Cases in which syphilis, past or present, has affected the central
nervous system will be assessed as permanently unfit.

As to injuries of the head-

(a) Cases of simple concussion, or simple fracture of the skull without

associated intracranial injury, will be assessed as temporarily unfit for a
period of not less than two months from the date of the concussion or fracture.
When the licence is renewed, it will be made valid only for a period of two
months in the first instance. Thereafter its validity will be restricted to
consecutive periods of two months until the medical examiner reports he has good
reason to presume that the after-effects of the concussion or fracture are no
longer likely to cause a sudden incapacity in flight;

(b) Cases of head injury associated with intracranial injuries will be

assessed as permanently unfit if a local lesion of the brain persists;

(c) Cases of head injury in which there has been an operation on the skull
with loss of bony substance involving the two tables of the cranial vault will
be assessed as permanently unfit;

(d) Cases of head injury associated with a lesion of the dura mater will be
assessed as permanently unfit even if a bone graft has been done.

(4) General surgical examination.-The applicant shall neither suffer from

any wound or injury, nor have undergone any operation, nor possess any
abnormality, congenital or acquired, which is considered by the medical examiner
likely to interfere with the efficient performance of the duties to be carried
out when exercising the privileges of the licence.

Cases in which there is any significant anatomical or functional lesion in

the walls of any part of the digestive tract, any stricture, any calculus or
foreign body, any significant peritoneal lesion, established by clinical or
laboratory examinations, will be assessed as unfit. An applicant who has
undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages or the digestive
tract, except for appendicitis, which has involved a total or partial excision
or a diversion of any of these organs will be assessed as unfit unless a period
of one year has elapsed since the surgical operation and the effects of the
operation are not considered liable to cause sudden incapacity in the air,
provided that this period of one year may be shortened on the production of an
attestation made by a surgeon having knowledge of the nature of the disease
which necessitated the operation, certifying that no immediate or future
after-effects are to be feared.

(5) General medical examination.-The applicant shall not suffer from any
disease or disability which renders him liable suddenly to become incompetent in
the performance of the duties to be carried out when exercising the privileges
of the licence.

There shall be no significant cardiovascular abnormality. The systolic and

diastolic blood pressures shall be within normal limits.

There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of
the structures of the lungs, mediastinum or pleura. In the case of an
examination for the first grant of a licence, radioscopy will form part of the
chest examination. Radiography will form part of the medical examination in all
doubtful cases.

Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, however diagnosed, will be assessed

as unfit. Cases of quiescent or healed lesions which are known to be
tuberculous, or are presumably tuberculous, in origin may be assessed as fit.
Cases of doubt about the activity of a lesion, where symptoms of activity of the
disease are lacking clinically, will be assessed as temporarily unfit for a
period of not less than three months from the date of the medical examination.
At the end of the three months' period, a further radiographic record will be
made and compared carefully with the original. If there is no sign of extension
of the disease and there are no general symptoms nor symptoms referable to the
chest, the applicant may be assessed as fit but, where the licence is renewed in
these circumstances, it will be made valid only for a period of three months in
the first instance; thereafter, provided there continues to be no sign of
extension of the disease as shown by radiographic examinations carried out at
the end of each three months' period, the validity of the licence will be
restricted to consecutive periods of three months. When the applicant has been
under observation under this scheme for a total period of at least two years and
comparison of all the radiographic records shows no changes or only
retrogression of the lesion, the lesion will be regarded as "quiescent" or
"healed".

Cases of disease of, or of significant impairment of the functioning of, the

liver, the biliary passages or the pancreas will be assessed as unfit. Cases of
diabetes will also be assessed as unfit.

The applicant shall be required to be free from disease of the urogenital

tract.
 An applicant for the first grant of a licence who has a personal history of
syphilis shall be required to furnish evidence, satisfactory to the medical
examiner, that he has undergone adequate treatment; this evidence shall include
the result of an examination of the blood and of the cerebro-spinal fluid. An
applicant showing any clinical signs of active syphilis will be assessed as
temporarily unfit for a period of not less than three months from the date of
the medical examination. At the end of the three months' period, provided the
applicant furnishes proof, satisfactory to the medical examiner, that he has
undergone adequate treatment in the interim and that the serological reaction
for syphilis is negative, he may be assessed as fit, but where a licence is
granted or renewed in these circumstances it will be made valid only for a
period of three months in the first instance. Thereafter, provided serological
reactions for syphilis continue to be negative at the end of each three months'
period, the validity of the licence will be restricted to consecutive periods of
three months. When the applicant has been under observation under this scheme
for a total period of at least three years and the serological reactions have
continued to be negative, the restriction on the period of validity of the
licence may be removed. In cases where the serological reaction for syphilis
remains persistently positive, examinations of the cerebro-spinal fluid at the
end of each period of six months with negative results may be accepted in lieu
of negative serological reactions at the end of each period of three months. Any
evidence of syphilis of the central nervous system will be confirmed by the
result of an examination of the cerebro-spinal fluid.

The cases of applicants of the female sex who have undergone gynaecological
or other surgical operations will be considered individually. In the event of
presumed pregnancy, the applicant will be assessed as temporarily unfit until,
at least, after the pregnancy has been terminated; after confinement or
miscarriage, the applicant will not be permitted to exercise the privileges of
her licence until she has undergone a new medical examination and been assessed
as fit.

(6) Eye examination.-There shall be no active pathological condition, acute

or chronic, of either eye or adnexae which is considered likely by the medical
examiner to interfere with its proper function.

NOTE.-The details of the Visual Requirements are specified in sub-paragraphs

(1) to (4) of paragraph 4 of this Schedule and those for Colour Perception in
sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) of paragraph 5.

(7) Ear examination.-There shall be-

(i) No active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal ear or

middle ear cleft;

(ii) No unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membrane;

(iii) No obstruction of the Eustachian tubes;

(iv) No disturbances of the vestibular apparatus.

NOTE.-The details of the Hearing Requirements are specified in

sub-paragraphs (1) to (5) of paragraph 6.

(8) Nose, throat and mouth examination.-There shall be free nasal air entry
on both sides. There shall be no serious malformation, nor serious, acute or
chronic affection of the buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract.

3. Physical Standard No. 3-

The medical examination and assessment shall be based on the following

requirements of mental and physical fitness:

(1) The applicant shall be required to be free from any congenital or

acquired disability causing such degree of functional incapacity as is
considered by the medical examiner likely to interfere with the safe handling of
an aircraft under ordinary conditions, or in the cases of persons other than
pilots, with the efficient performance of the duties to be carried out when
exercising the privileges of the licence.

(2) The medical examination will include a full inquiry into the family and
personal history of the applicant. The information obtained shall be given in a
statement made and signed by him and will be taken into consideration by the
medical examiner.

(3) Examination of the nervous system.-The applicant shall have no history

of significant mental or nervous trouble. He shall be required to be free from
any disability of the nervous system considered by the medical examiner to be of
sufficient degree as likely to interfere with efficient function.

(4) General surgical examination.-The applicant shall neither suffer from

any wound or injury, nor have undergone any operation, nor possess any
abnormality, congenital or acquired, which is considered by the medical examiner
likely to interfere with the efficient performance of the duties to be carried
out when exercising the privileges of the licence.

An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary

passages or the digestive tract, except for appendicitis, which has involved a
total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs, will be
assessed as unfit unless a period of one year has elapsed since the surgical
operation and the effects of the operation are not considered liable to cause
sudden incapacity in the air, provided that this period of one year may be
shortened on the production of an attestation made by a surgeon having knowledge
of the nature of the disease which necessitated the operation, certifying that
no immediate or future after-effects are to be feared.

(5) General medical examination.-The applicant shall not suffer from any
disease or disability which renders him liable suddenly to become incompetent in
the performance of the duties to be carried out when exercising the privileges
of the licence.

There shall be no significant cardiovascular abnormality. The systolic and

diastolic blood pressures shall be within normal limits.

There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of
the structures of the lungs, mediastinum or pleura.

Cases showing significant impairment of function of the liver, the biliary

passages, or the pancreas will be assessed as unfit. Cases of diabetes will also
be assessed as unfit.

The applicant shall be required to be free from disease of the urogenital

tract.
 An applicant for the first grant of a licence who has a personal history of
syphilis shall be required to furnish evidence, satisfactory to the medical
examiner, that he has undergone adequate treatment; this evidence shall include
the result of an examination of the blood and of the cerebro-spinal fluid. An
applicant showing any clinical signs of active syphilis will be assessed as
temporarily unfit for a period of not less than three months from the date of
the medical examination. At the end of the three months' period, provided the
applicant furnishes proof, satisfactory to the medical examiner, that he has
undergone adequate treatment in the interim and that the serological reaction
for syphilis is negative, he may be assessed as fit, but where a licence is
granted or renewed in these circumstances it will be made valid only for a
period of three months in the first instance. Thereafter, provided serological
reactions for syphilis continue to be negative at the end of each three months'
period, the validity of the licence will be restricted to consecutive periods of
three months. When the applicant has been under observation under this scheme
for a total period of at least three years and the serological reactions have
continued to be negative, the restriction on the period of validity of the
licence may be removed. In cases where the serological reaction for syphilis
remains persistently positive, examinations of the cerebro-spinal fluid at the
end of each period of six months with negative results may be accepted in lieu
of negative serological reactions at the end of each period of three months. Any
evidence of syphilis of the central nervous system will be confirmed by the
result of an examination of the cerebro-spinal fluid.

The cases of applicants of the female sex who have undergone gynaecological
or other surgical operations will be considered individually. In the event of
presumed pregnancy, the applicant will be assessed as temporarily unfit until,
at least, after the pregnancy has been terminated; after confinement or
miscarriage, the applicant will not be permitted to exercise the privileges of
her licence until she has undergone a new medical examination and has been
assessed as fit.

(6) Eye examination.-There shall be no active pathological condition, acute

or chronic, of either eye or adnexae which is considered likely by the medical
examiner to interfere with its proper function.

NOTE.-The details of the Visual Requirements are specified in sub-paragraphs

(1) to (4) of paragraph 4 of this Schedule and those for Colour Perception in
sub-paragraphs (1) to (3) of paragraph 5.

(7) Ear examination.-There shall be-

(i) No active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal ear or

middle ear cleft;

(ii) No obstruction of the Eustachian tubes;

(iii) No disturbances of the vestibular apparatus.

NOTE.-The details of the Hearing Requirements are specified in

sub-paragraphs (1) to (5) of paragraph 6.

(8) Nose, throat and mouth examination.-There shall be free nasal air entry
on both sides. There shall be no serious malformation, nor serious acute or
chronic affection of the buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract.
VISUAL REQUIREMENTS

4. (1) The measurement of visual acuity will be made by means of a series

of optotypes of Landholt, or similar optotypes, illuminated at not less than
twelve lux and not more than twenty lux, and placed at a distance of twenty feet
from the applicant.

(2) Visual Standard No. 1-

The applicant shall be required to have-

(a) a visual acuity of at least 6/9 (20/30) in each eye separately, without
correction: provided that if the vision in either or both eyes is less than 6/9
(20/30) but not less than 6/18 (20/60) and can be brought up to 6/6 (20/20) or
better in each eye by glasses, the applicant may be assessed as fit upon
condition that correcting glasses are worn while exercising the privileges of
the licence;

(b) not more than +2.25 dioptres of hypermetropia, in the case of an

applicant for the first grant of a licence;

(c) not more than 1 dioptre of hyperphoria in either eye;

(d) not more than 10 dioptres of esophoria;

(e) not more than 5 dioptres of exophoria;

(f) an accommodation of at least V = 1.00 at 12 inches (30 centimetres) with

each eye separately without the use of correcting lenses: provided that, where
the applicant is over forty years of age and already holds a licence, correcting
glasses may be used to provide the same character of near vision;

(g) normal fields of vision.

(3) Visual Standard No. 2-

The applicant shall be required to have-

(a) a visual acuity of at least 6/12 (20/40) in each eye separately, without
correction: provided that-

(i) in the case of an applicant for the first grant of a licence, if the
vision in either or both eyes is less than 6/12 (20/40) but not less than 6/24
(20/80) and can be brought to up 6/6 (20/20) or better in each eye by glasses,
the applicant may be assessed as fit upon condition that correcting glasses are
worn while exercising the privileges of the licence; and

(ii) in the case of an applicant for the renewal of a licence, if the vision
in either or both eyes is less than 6/12 (20/40) but not less than 6/60 (20/200)
and can be brought up 6/9 (20/30) or better in each eye by glasses, the
applicant may be assessed as fit upon condition that correcting glasses are worn
while exercising the privileges of the licence and that a second set of
correcting glasses are carried on his person;

(b) normal fields of vision, due allowance being made, where errors of
refraction exist, for those areas not covered by the correcting lenses.
 (4) Visual Standard No. 3-

The applicant shall be required to have-

(a) a visual acuity of at least 6/12 (20/40) in each eye separately, without
correction: provided that if the vision in either or both eyes is less than 6/12
(20/40) but not less than 6/60 (20/200) and can be brought up to 6/9 (20/30) or
better in each eye by glasses, the applicant may be assessed as fit upon
condition that correcting glasses are worn while exercising the privileges of
the licence;

(b) satisfactory ocular muscle balance;

(c) normal fields of vision, due allowance being made where errors of
refraction exist, for those areas not covered by the correcting lenses.

COLOUR PERCEPTION REQUIREMENTS

5. (1) The measurement of colour perception for Colour Perception

Standard No. 1 should be made by means of pseudoisochromatic plates or a
suitable lantern. The measurement for Colour Perception Standard No. 2 should be
made by means of a suitable lantern. When a lantern is used it should present
the light, transmitted by coloured screens lighted at five lux, for one second
and seen at a distance of 20 feet in an angle of three minutes.

(2) Colour Perception Standard No. 1-

The applicant shall be required to have normal colour perception.

(3) Colour Perception Standard No. 2-

The applicant shall be required to be able to distinguish easily signal red,

signal green and white.

HEARING REQUIREMENTS

6. (1) The measurement of the auditory acuity in the first three

standards detailed below will be made by means of a standard pure tone
audiometer in a quiet room, that is, a room in which the intensity of the
background noise is less than 50 decibels as measured by a sound level meter.

(2) Hearing Standard No. 1-

The applicant shall be required not to have a loss in either ear of more
than 20 decibels at any one of the four frequencies, 500, 1,000, 2,000 and 3,000
cycles per second.

(3) Hearing Standard No. 2-

The applicant shall be required not to have a loss in either ear of more
than 20 decibels at any one of the three frequencies, 500, 1,000 and 2,000
cycles per second nor of more than 40 decibels at the frequency of 3,000 cycles
per second.

(4) Hearing Standard No. 3-

The applicant shall be required not to have a loss in either ear of more
than 40 decibels at any one of the three frequencies, 500, 1,000 and 2,000
cycles per second.

(5) Hearing Standard No. 4-

The applicant shall be required to be able to hear a conversational voice,

using both
ears and standing with his back towards the examiner, at a distance of ten feet
from the examiner.

THIRD SCHEDULE

(Regulation 140)

PRESCRIBED CHARGES

1. Certificate of Registration

(1) The fee units for the certificate of registration of an aircraft shall
be-

(a) where its maximum weight does not exceed 2730 kg 150

(b) where its maximum weight exceeds 2730 kg but does not
exceed 5700 kg 250

(c) where its maximum weight exceeds 5700 kg 350

(2) The fee units for a duplicate certificate of registration under

sub-paragraph (1) above shall be 350

(3) For the purpose of this Schedule "maximum weight" means a maximum total
weight as authorised in the certificate of airworthiness or the flight manual of
the aircraft.

(4) The fee units for an individual approval of works on the aircraft shall
be 750.

(5) The fee units for an individual approval for welders shall be 150.

2. Certificate of Airworthiness

(1) Where an application is made for a certificate of airworthiness in

respect of a prototype aircraft, the fees for the certificate shall represent
the costs incurred by any investigation necessary for the preparation of that
certificate.

(2) Where an application is made for the issue, renewal or validation of

certificate of airworthiness for series aircraft, the fees shall be in
accordance with the following tables:

1.
Aircraft weight not exceeding 2730kgIssue Fee unitsRenewal Fee unitsValidation
Fee unitsA. Private Aircraft15,015,025,0B. Other Classification of Aircraft e.g.
Public Transport Aircraft35,035,035,0C. Revalidation ExtensionsMeans fees
payable for private aircraft.*75,0

Means fees payable for by other classification.+15,0_

__

2.

Aircraft weight exceeding 2730kg but not exceeding 5700kgIssue Fee unitsRenewal
Fee unitsValidation Fee unitsA. Private Aircraft35,035,035,0B. Other
Classification of Aircraft e.g. Public Transport Aircraft65,065,065,0C.
Revalidation Extensions25,0

150,0_

__

3.

Aircraft weight exceeding 5700kgIssue Fee unitsRenewal Fee unitsValidation Fee

unitsA. Private Aircraft65,065,065,0B. Other Classification of Aircraft e.g.
Public Transport Aircraft130,0130,0130,0C. Revalidation ExtensionsMeans fees
payable for private aircraft.*35,0

Means fees payable for by other classification.+65,0_

__

*Means fees payable for private aircraft.

+Means fees payable for by other classification.

(3) The fees for the extension of airworthiness is 50 per centum of the
normal rates set out in the tables under sub-paragraph (2).

(4) The fee units for initial or duplicate issue of a certificate of

airworthiness shall be 65.0 for each certificate.

3. Temporary Permit to Fly

(1) Where a temporary Permit to fly is issued for an aircraft which does not
have a certificate of airworthiness, a fee unit of 75 shall be paid.

(2) A temporary permit issued under sub-paragraph (1) above shall be valid for a
period of twenty-eight days from the date of issue.

4. Approval of Modification of an Aircraft

 Where application is made for approval of a modification or a repair scheme
to an aircraft supported by local specifications and drawings and investigation
of the proposed scheme or modifications is required before approval can be
given, the fee unit to be paid shall represent the cost of the work incurred in
the requisite investigation prior to the consideration of granting the approval,
but shall not be less than 150.

5. Engineering Examinations and Fees for Licence

The following fee units shall be charged in respect of:

(a) the basic engineering examination 50

(b) the Air Navigation Regulations examination 50

(c) type rating examination 80

(d) issue of a Licence 5,0

(e) all Licence renewals 5,0

(f) issue of a duplicate licence 5,0

(g) validation of aircraft maintenance engineers licence 5,0

6. Aircraft Log-Book

The fee for an aircraft log-book shall be 2,5

7. Weighing Charges

The fees for weighing an aircraft are as follows:

(a) where its weight does not exceed 2730 kg 15,0

(b) where its weight exceeds 2730 kg but does not

exceed 5700 kg 25,0

(c) where its weight exceeds 5700 kg 35,0

8. Airworthiness Notices

(1) One copy of each airworthiness notice is free of charge to-

(a) each owner of a civil aircraft on the Zambian register; and

(b) each licenced aircraft maintenance engineer.

(2) Fee units for an additional set of airworthiness notices

including binders 2,5

9. Inspection, Registration and licence of Aerodromes

(1) Designated Aerodrome-Inspection and licensing of designated Aerodromes:

Fee units
(a) Each inspection of designated aerodrome 20,0

(b) The grant or renewal of licence for designated Aerodrome per year-

(i) Lusaka International Airport 1,000,0

(ii) Ndola Aerodrome 750,0

(iii) Livingstone Aerodrome 500,0

(iv) Mfuwe Aerodrome 500,0

(2) Non-Designated Aerodromes-The following are fees in respect of:

(a) each inspection of an aerodrome or intended aerodrome

site which the Director has been requested to make 15,0

(b) the grant of a licence for an aerodrome 15,0

(c) registration of an aerodrome and issue of registration

certificate 15,0

(3) In addition to the charge prescribed in sub-paragraph (1), an applicant

is required to arrange suitable transport for the designated officer to and from
the aerodrome which is to be inspected or the proposed aerodrome site.

(4) The following are the fees to be charged in respect of:

(a) aerodrome log-book 1,5

(b) personal flying log-book 4,0

(c) wind sock 5,0

(5) (a) Extension of a pilot's licence shall, if made by telex or

facsimile, be levied at 5,0 fee units for any class of licence.

(b) The renewal fee shall be charged on application for renewal.

(As amended by Act No. 13 of 1994)

 10. (1) Fees for Licences for Operating Crew

Technical ExaminationsProcessing of Licensing ApplicationsValidations of

Licences

Endorsements of additional Rating to the LicenceFirst sitting in any of Tech.

SubjectsRe-Examina-tion in any of the Tech. Subjects

Flying tests

Initial Issue

Renewal

Duplicate Issue

Initial Validation

RenewalFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee

unitsFee unitsStudent Pilot---30,02,53,0---Private
Pilot5,58,09,010,05,010,08,05,02,5Commercial
Pilot10,012,025,015,08,015,010,06,02,5Airline Transport
Pilot--25,015,08,015,010,06,02,5Flight
Engineer10,012,025,015,08,015,010,06,02,5Flight
Navigator10,012,025,015,08,015,010,06,02,5Cabin
Attendant8,010,09,010,05,010,08,05,02,5Free Balloon
Pilot5,58,09,010,05,010,08,05,02,5Glider
Pilot5,58,09,010,05,010,08,05,02,5Parachute Permit---10,05,010,0---Flight
RadioTelephone Operator10,012,0-15,0-15,010,0--Microlight
Pilot5,58,09,010,05,010,08,05,02,5
 10. (2) Ratings

Private Pilot

Commercial Pilot

Airline Transport

Flight Engineer

Flight Navigator

Cabin Attendant

Free Balloon

Glider

Parachute Permit

Student PilotFlight Radio Tele OperatorFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee

unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsFee unitsAdditional type or
class of Aircraft

Flight Test 7,510,010,0--8,0-8,0---Technical Examination

6,08,08,08,0-6,0-6,0--10,0Instructor and Assistant Instructor Rating

Flight Test15,020,020,0--------Technical
Examination10,015,015,0--------Instrument Rating

Flight Test25,025,025,0--------Technical Examination10,010,010,0--------Banner

or Aircraft Towing Rating

Flight Test6,010,010,0--------Technical Examination 4,05,05,0--------

 11. Air Traffic Controllers licence

Fee units

(a) air traffic controller's licence initial issue) 5,0

(b) approach controller's rating) 2,5

(c) area controller's rating) 2,5

radar approach rating) 3,0

(d) re-test in all above) 2,5

radar area rating) 2,5

(e) renewals (a)-(d)) 2,5

(f) duplicate issue of rating above) 3,0

(g) conversion from a foreign licence to a Zambian licence) 5,0

12. Aeronautical Station Operators licence

(a) Class 'A' initial issue) 4,0

(b) Class 'B' endorsement) 3,0

13. Telecommunications and Navigational Aids-Engineers Licence

(a) initial issue and endorsement) 3,0

(b) subsequent endorsement in either category) 1,0

(c) duplicate issue irrespective of endorsement) 4,0

14. Aeronautical Information Service

(1) (a) Aeronautical Information publication intitial issue with cover,

including amendment service, Air Sup Aeronautical Information Circulars and
postage in Zambia shall be 35.00 United States Dollars or equivalent in Kwacha.

(b) To subscribers abroad at 75.00 United States Dollars.

(2) (a) Aeronautical Information Publication Amendment Service, Air Sup

Aeronautical Information Circulars and postage in Zambia for a year shall be
25.00 United States Dollars or equivalent.

(b) Subscribers abroad at 50.00 United States Dollars or equivalent in

kwacha.

(3) Air Sup and Aeronautical Information Circulars including postage or

subscribers in Zambia for a year shall be 10.00 United States Dollars or
equivalent in kwacha.
 (4) Aeronautical Information Publication initial issue without cover
including amendment service and postage for a subscription per year shall be-

(a) 15.00 United States Dollars or equivalent in kwacha for those based in
Zambia.

(b) Subscribers abroad at 30.00 US Dollars or equivalent in kwacha.

NOTE: The Subscription year begins from 1st January and ends 31st December
of each year.

15. General

(1) An operator of an airport or designated airport in Zambia shall allow

staff of the Department of Civil Aviation who hold qualifications in the
following disciplines to carry out duties at the airports concerned:

(a) aeronautical information service;

(b) air traffic control;

(c) aeronautical telecommunications;

(d) telecommunications engineering; and

(e) rescue fire service.

(2) When an aircraft operator introduces onto the Zambian register an

aircraft of a new type of model or introduces a model of a Zambian registered
aircraft which is substantially different from such registered type of aircraft,
the operator shall meet all expenses connected with the training of Department
of Civil Aviation staff on that model or type of aircraft.

(3) When an Airport Operator introduces new equipment where training in

maintenance and operations is required, the operator shall meet all the expenses
connected with the training of Department of the Civil Aviation staff.

(4) An operator of an airport or owner of a designated airport or owner of

a privately owned airport providing air traffic control to public air transport,
shall provide transport to and from the station where validations and or
proficiency checks are to be conducted in addition to accommodation of the
Department of Civil Aviation staff.

(5) When an air service permit holder who provides domestic and/or
international services is about to introduce a serivice to a destination to
which that permit holder has not previously or recently operated, such permit
holder shall ensure that Department of Civil Aviation staff witness the very
first flight to such destination to enable them carry out-

(a) a route check, and

(b) an inspection of the relevant facilities and services at the destination,

for the purpose of issuing an approval of the route and destination and all
expenses incurred by the Department of Civil Aviation staff shall be met by the
permit holder.

(6) When an aircraft operator is about to use a flight crew including Cabin
Attendants, ground training device or (procedure trainers and simulators) and
related facilities and services not previously approved by the Director of Civil
Aviation or device and devices for which approval has expired by reason of
temporary cessation of use or where approval has been suspended or revoked for
any reason, such an operator shall ensure that the Department of Civil Aviation
staff inspect the device or devices and related facilities and services for the
purpose of issuing written approval and expenses incurred by the Department of
Civil Aviation staff as a result of this exercise, shall be met by the aircraft
operator.

(7) When an application for an air service permit is made by a Zambian

registered company, the applicant or the aircraft operator, as the case may be,
shall meet all expenses incurred by the Department of Civil Aviation, including
subsistence allowance, in carrying out the following-

(a) aircraft base inspection;

(b) operations base inspection;

(c) aircraft inspection; and

(d) travelling to and from the Department of Civil Aviation Headquarters.

(As Amended by S.I. No. 96 of 1994 and Act No. 13 of 1994)

FOURTH SCHEDULE

(Regulations 39, 47 and 48)

CERTIFICATION OF INSPECTIONS, OVERHAULS, REPAIRS, REPLACEMENTS AND MODIFICATIONS

1. The following provisions shall apply to or in relation to every

certificate required under sub-regulation (1) of regulation 39:

The certificate shall be appended to particulars of the inspection,

overhaul, repair, replacement or modification to which it relates and shall be
in the following form:

I hereby certify that, in carrying out the

inspection/overhaul/repair/replacement/modification specified above, all the
conditions and requirements of the Air Navigation Regulations for the time being
in force which are applicable thereto have been complied with.

Signed

Date

CERTIFICATES OF MAINTENANCE

2. The certificate of maintenance issued in accordance with the

provisions of regulation 48 shall, according to the class of aircraft concerned,
be in one of the following forms, or in such other form as may be approved as
suitable for the purpose:

(1) In the case of a flying machine or an airship-

NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to the
aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.*CERTIFICATE OF
MAINTENANCE

Flying Machine Type or Airship Type

Nationality and Registration Marks

I hereby certify that the above aircraft (including its prescribed instruments
and equipment, but excluding the engines and engine installations and all
instruments relating thereto) has been maintained and inspected in accordance
with the approved maintenance schedules and that adjustments and rectifications
found necessary have been made and inspected to my satisfaction.

Signed

Aircraft Maintenance Engineer: Licence No..

Time of issue

Dated at. this ................................ day of

.............................. 19........

Period of validity days from the time of issue or upon completion

by the aircraft of flying hours, whichever is the shorter period.

I hereby certify that the engines and engine installations (including the
prescribed instruments relating thereto) of the above aircraft have been
maintained and inspected in accordance with the approved maintenance schedules
and that adjustments and rectifications found necessary have been made and
inspected to my satisfaction.

Signed

Aircraft Maintenance Engineer: Licence No.

Time of issue

Dated at this ................................. day of

............................... 19........

Period of validity days from the time of issue or upon completion by

the aircraft of ......................................................... flying
hours, whichever is the shorter period.

*NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to

the aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.
 (2) In the case of a free balloon-

NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to the

aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.*CERTIFICATE OF
MAINTENANCE

Free Balloon Type

Nationality and Registration Marks

I hereby certify that the above aircraft (including its prescribed instruments
and equipment) has been maintained and inspected in accordance with the approved
maintenance schedules and that adjustments and rectifications found necessary
have been made and inspected to my satisfaction.

Signed

Aircraft Maintenance Engineer: Licence No.

Time of issue

Dated at this ................................. day of

............................... 19........

Period of validity days from the time of issue or upon completion by

the aircraft of ................................................ flying hours,

whichever is the shorter period.

*NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to

the aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.

(3) In the case of a captive balloon-

NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to the

aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.*CERTIFICATE OF
MAINTENANCE

Captive Balloon Type

Nationality and Registration Marks

I hereby certify that the above aircraft (including its prescribed instruments
and equipment and also the winch and cable by which it is operated) has been
maintained and inspected in accordance with the approved maintenance schedules
and that adjustments and rectifications found necessary have been made and
inspected to my satisfaction.
Signed

Aircraft Maintenance Engineer: Licence No.

Time of issue

Dated at this ................................. day of

............................... 19........

Period of validity days from the time of issue or upon completion by

the aircraft of .............................................. flying hours,
whichever is the shorter period.

*NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to

the aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.

(4) In the case of a glider-

NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to the

aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.*CERTIFICATE OF
MAINTENANCE

Glider Type

Nationality and Registration Marks

I hereby certify that the above aircraft (including its prescribed instruments
and equipment and also its towing gear) has been maintained and inspected in
accordance with the approved maintenance schedules and that adjustments and
rectifications found necessary have been made and inspected to my satisfaction.

Signed

Aircraft Maintenance Engineer: Licence No.

Time of issue

Dated at . this ................................. day of

............................... 19........

Period of validity . days from the time of issue or upon completion by

the aircraft of ................................................... flying
hours, whichever is the shorter period.

*NOTE.-This certificate includes the attachment of the radio apparatus to

the aircraft structure, and the condition of the earth system of the aircraft,
including the bonding and screening to ensure suppression of high frequency
electrical interference. It does not include the radio apparatus.

(F.G.N. No. 641 of 1954 as amended by S.I. No. 345 of 1969)

FIFTH SCHEDULE

(Regulation 80)

PRESCRIBED FORMS
FORM NO. 1

GENERAL DECLARATION
(Upper Front Half)

GENERAL DECLARATION

(Outward/Inward)

Owner or Operator

Aircraft
..........................................................................
Flight No. .................................... Date
...........................................

(Registration Marks and Nationality)

Point of Clearance
................................................................... For entry at
..........................................................................

(Place and Country) (Place and Country)

ITINERARY OF AIRCRAFT
(Commencing with Point of Origin of this Flight No.)

AirportDeparture DateAirportDeparture Date

DECLARATION OF HEALTHFOR OFFICIAL USE ONLYIllness suspected of being of an

infectious nature which has occurred on board during the flight

Any other condition on board which may lead to thespread of disease

Details of each disinfecting or sanitary treatment (place, date, time,

method) during the flight. If no disinfecting has been carried out during the
flight give details of most recent disinfecting

Animals (including birds and insects), plants, unprocessed animal and

plant
products, cultures of bacteria, fungi and viruses, samples of soil and
fertiliser on board (where required by State of arrival)

Time of Departure .................................

Time of Arrival .......................................

CREW MANIFESTSurname and InitialsDuties on BoardNationalitySerial No. and
Country of Issuance of Licence or Certificate or Passport *Size of entire
document not more than 81/2 by 14 inches (216 by 356 millimetres)
outside.*GENERAL DECLARATION-continued

(Lower Front Half)

Whenever separate Passenger or Cargo Manifests are not attached hereto, the
information required below must be furnished. If no passengers or no cargo are
being carried, insert the word "None" in the appropriate Manifest.

PASSENGER MANIFESTSurname and InitialsFromToFor use by Owner or Operator onlyFor

Official use only

CARGO MANIFESTMarks and Numbers

on
PackagesNumber and Type of Packages

Nature of Goods

From

To

Gross WeightFor use by Owner or Operator only

For Official use only

I declare that this General Declaration, all statements and particulars

contained therein, and in any attached manifests or stores lists, are complete
and contain to the best of my knowledge and belief an exact and true account of
all-

Crew}
Embarked on

Dismebarked from}
the above aircraftPassengersCargo}

Laden on

Unladen fromStoresMail

Signature
.......................................................................

(Pilot-in-Command or Authorised Agent)

*Size of entire document not more than 81/2 by 14 inches (216 by 356
millimetres) outside.
Size of entire document not more than 81/2 by 14 inches (216 by 356 millimetres)
outside.*PASSENGER MANIFEST (SEPARATE)

(Front)

FORM NO. 2

PASSENGER MANIFEST

Owner or Operator

Aircraft Flight No. ....................... Date .........................

(Registration Marks and Nationality)

Point of Embarkation

(Place and Country)

Point of Disembarkation

(Place and Country)

Surname
and InitialsFor use by Owner
or Operator onlyFor Official
use onlyPrepared by
................................................................................
.......... .page .................................. of ....................
pages

*Size of entire document not more than 81/2 by 14 inches (216 by 356
millimetres) outside.
*Size of entire document not more than 81/2 by 14 inches (216 by 356
millimetres) outside.

*CARGO MANIFEST (SEPARATE)

(Front)

FORM NO. 3

CARGO MANIFEST

Owner or Operator

Aircraft Flight No. ....................... Date .........................

(Registration Marks and Nationality)

Point of Loading
.................................................................. Point of
Unloading

(Place and Country)

(Place and Country)

Marks and Numbers on PackagesNumber and Type of PackagesNature of GoodsGross

WeightFor use by Owner or Operator onlyFor Offical use onlyPrepared by
.............................................................. .page
.................. of .................. pages

*Size of entire document not more than 81/2 by 14 inches (216 by 356
millimetres) outside.
SECTION 4-AVIATION (INSURANCE FOR PRIVATE AIRCRAFT) REGULATIONS

Regulations by the MinisterStatutory Instrument

44 of 1985

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Insurance for Private

Aircraft) Regulations.Title

2. Unless the context otherwise requires, words and phrases in these

Regulations shall have the meaning ascribed thereto in the Air Navigation
Regulations.Interpretation
Cap. 353, p.25

3. No private aircraft shall be allowed to fly within the Zambian flight

information region unless it is insured-

(a) for at least K100,000 in respect of loss to third parties; and

(b) for at least K50,000 in respect of loss arising from damage to the
aircraft or injury to passengers.

Insurance for private aircraft

SECTION 4-THE AVIATION (GOVERNMENT AERODROMES) REGULATIONS

Regulations by the MinisterFederal Government Notices

640 of 1954
277 of 1961
300 of 1962
270 of 1963
Government Notice
387 of 1963
Statutory Instruments
153 of 1965
134 of 1970
Act No.
13 of 1994

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Government Aerodromes)

Regulations.Title

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"aerodrome" means an aerodrome which is owned or controlled by the Government,

other than an aerodrome belonging to, or for the time being in use exclusively
by, the Defence Force;

"aerodrome official" means any person authorised by the controlling authority to

marshal or otherwise control the movement of aircraft at an aerodrome;

"controlling authority" means the Director or the officer in control of an

aerodrome;

"Director" means the Director of Civil Aviation appointed in terms of regulation

3 of the Air Navigation Regulations;
"restricted area" means an aerodrome or any portion of an aerodrome to which the
entry of persons is restricted in terms of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 3;

"vehicle" means any vehicle except an aircraft.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 277 of 1961, G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of
1965)

3. (1) The controlling authority may, whenever it appears to him to be

necessary or desirable for the efficient management and operation of the
aerodrome and ancillary services thereto or the safety of the buildings thereon,
restrict the entry of persons into an aerodrome or any portion thereof by notice
in such form as he thinks suitable and such notice shall be conspicuously
displayed-Restriction of entry

(a) at or near a gate or entrance to the aerodrome, in the case where entry
to the aerodrome is restricted; or

(b) on any portion of an aerodrome, in the case where entry to a portion of

the aerodrome is restricted.

(2) Whenever a notice referred to in sub-regulation (1) is displayed in

accordance with the provisions of that sub-regulation, no person, other than the
holder of a ticket authorising him to board an aircraft, shall enter a
restricted area, save with the permission of the controlling authority and
subject to such conditions as he may
specify.

(F.G.N. No. 277 of 1961)

4. Any person who, within the area of an aerodrome-

(a) obstructs or interferes with the proper use of the aerodrome;

(b) obstructs any person acting in the execution of his duty in relation to
the aerodrome;

(c) except with the permission of the controlling authority, enters a

restricted area;

(d) remains on the aerodrome after having been required by the controlling
authority to leave;

(e) allows his vehicle or animal to remain on the aerodrome after having been
required by the controlling authority to remove it, or after its presence on the
aerodrome has been forbidden by the controlling authority;

(f) without the authority of the person in charge of an aircraft-Offences

(i) boards such aircraft; or

(ii) tampers or interferes with such aircraft or anything used in connection

therewith;

(g) smokes in or brings a naked light into any place-

(i) where such act is prohibited by notice; or

(ii) within 50 feet of an aircraft or a store of liquid fuel or explosives;

or otherwise commits any act causing or tending to cause an outbreak of

fire;

(h) wilfully gives a false fire or ambulance alarm;

(i) throws, leaves or drops anything capable of causing injury to any person
or property;

(j) climbs any wall, fence, barrier, railing or post;

(k) fails, when so required by an aerodrome official, to place an aircraft of

which he is in charge in a place or position fixed by such official;

(l) fails to moor properly or otherwise secure a stationary aircraft which is

not in a hangar and of which he is in charge;

(m) when requested by the controlling authority to give his name and address-

(i) fails or refuses to give his name and address; or

(ii) gives a false name and address;

(n) drives a vehicle when he is not the holder of either-

(i) a driving licence which would, in terms of the Roads and Road Traffic
Act, entitle him to drive a vehicle of that class or description on a road (as
defined in the said Act); orCap. 766

(ii) a certificate of competency issued by the controlling authority,

authorising him to drive a vehicle of that class or description;

shall be guilty of an offence.

(As amended by F.G.N. No. 277 of 1961 and S.I. No. 134 of 1970)

5. (1) Any person who, at any aerodrome, operates an internal combustion

engine which does not form part of an aircraft installation within a distance of
50 feet from any part of an aircraft except in terms of a written permit issued
by the controlling authority, shall be guilty of an offence.Issue of written
permits by controlling authority

(2) An application for the issue of the permit referred to in sub-regulation

(1) shall be made to the airport manager or the officer-in-charge of the airport
concerned.

(3) The controlling authority shall only issue a permit if he is satisfied

that-

(a) all possible precautions have been taken to avoid a fire risk being
generated; and

(b) an efficient safety device has been fitted to the engine or its component
parts to prevent the emission of sparks or flames.
(4) A permit-

(a) shall not be valid for a period of more than three months; and

(b) may be cancelled, without notice, by the controlling authority if he

considers that the internal combustion engine for which the permit was issued
has become an unacceptable fire risk.

(5) The controlling authority may, at any time, inspect an internal combustion
engine for which a permit has been issued and its fittings.

(F.G.N. No. 270 of 1963 as amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

6. Any driver of a vehicle who, within the area of an aerodrome-

(a) fails to conform to the indications given by any traffic sign;

(b) parks his vehicle elsewhere than in a place provided for that purpose;

(c) fails to move his vehicle from a parking place when required by a police
officer or the controlling authority to do so;

shall be guilty of an offence.

(As amended by S.I. No. 153 of 1965)Offences by drivers of vehicles

7. Any person who, without first having obtained the written permission of
the Director to do so, commits any of the following acts within the area of an
aerodrome, that is to say:

(a) enters or leaves the aerodrome otherwise than through a gate or entrance
for the time being provided for that purpose;

(b) enters any part of the aerodrome to which members of the public are not
for the time being admitted;

(c) sells or distributes anything, offers anything for sale or hire, or makes
any offer of services;

(d) exhibits any notice or advertisement except on premises which the person
exhibiting it is authorised to occupy and in accordance with the terms of his
occupation;

(e) leaves a vehicle on the aerodrome longer than is reasonably necessary for
the transaction of the business for the purpose of which it was brought there;

(f) drives a vehicle in a restricted area or elsewhere than in a place

provided for the passage or accommodation of such a vehicle;

(g) drives a motor vehicle into a hanger used for the maintenance or storage
of aircraft;

(h) runs an aircraft engine in a hanger;

(i) runs an aircraft engine without a competent person sitting at the

controls;
(j) fills into or discharges from any container (including any part of an
aircraft or vehicle) liquid fuel elsewhere than in a place approved for that
purpose by the controlling authority;

(k) lights a fire elsewhere than in a place constructed for that purpose;

(l) grazes animals;

(m) cuts, digs or removes any soil or turf;

shall be guilty of an offence.

(As amended by S.I. No. 134 of 1970)When written permission of Director

necessary

8. Any person who contraveness or fails to comply with any provision of, or
is guilty of an offence under, these Regulations shall be liable to a fine not
exceeding six thousand penalty units or, in default of payment, to imprisonment
for a period not exceeding six months, or to such imprisonment without the
option of a fine, or to both.

(F.G.N. No. 300 of 1962 and Act No. 13 of 1994)Offences

SECTION 4-THE AVIATION (OBSTRUCTIONS, LIGHTS AND SMOKE) REGULATIONS

Regulations by the Minister

Federal Government Notice

71 of 1963
Government Notices387 of 1963
497 of 1964
Statutory Instrument
153 of 1965

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Obstructions, Lights and

Smoke) Regulations.Title

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"aerodrome" means an aerodrome-

(a) owned or leased by the Government; or

(b) licensed for public use by the Director; or

(c) administered by the Director;

"aerodrome reference point" means the point at an aerodrome which is beaconed

and designated by the Director as its geographical location;

"approach or take-off area", in relation to an aerodrome, means an area at each

end of any strip at that aerodrome each area being set symmetrically about the
extended centre line of that strip and bounded by four straight lines consisting
of-

(a) a line along the end of that strip and extending for the width of that
strip, but not extending more than 500 feet on either side of the centre line;

(b) a line parallel to and 48,000 feet from the line referred to in paragraph
(a) and extending-

(i) if the line referred to in paragraph (a) extends for 500 feet on either
side of the centre line, 8,000 feet on either side of the extended centre line;

(ii) if the line referred to in paragraph (a) extends for less than 500 feet
on either side of the centre line, for a distance on either side of the extended
centre line which bears the same proportion to 8,000 feet as the distance the
line referred to in paragraph (a) extends on either side of the centre line
bears to 500 feet;

(c) a line on one side of the extended centre line from the end of the line
referred to in paragraph (a) to the end of the line referred to in paragraph
(b);

(d) a line on the other side of the extended centre line from the end of the
line referred to in paragraph (a) to the end of the line referred to in
paragraph (b);

"area under the jurisdiction of a local authority" includes any area where
electricity is supplied by the local authority under licence granted to that
local authority;

"centre line", in relation to a strip, means an imaginary line down the centre
of that strip and "extended centre line" means an extension of that imaginary
line for a distance of 48,000 feet from each end of that strip;

"development plan" means a development plan under the Town and Country Planning
Act;Cap. 283

"development plan area" means the area comprised within the limits of a
development plan;

"Director" means the Director of Civil Aviation appointed in terms of regulation

3 of the Air Navigation Regulations;

"main approach or take-off area", in relation to an aerodrome, means the

approach or take-off area at each end of the main strip at that aerodrome;

"main strip", in relation to an aerodrome, means the strip at that aerodrome or

if that aerodrome has more than one strip, the strip designated by the Director
as the main strip at that aerodrome;

"obstruction" means-

(a) any overhead line, building, vegetation or other object projecting above
the surface of the ground which is within a safeguarded area and projects
through any of the imaginary surfaces set out in the Schedule;

(b) any overhead line which is within a safeguarded area and projects through
an imaginary surface inclined upwards from the end of any strip at the aerodrome
over the approach or take-off area for a distance measured horizontally of
10,000 feet from the end of that strip with the incline gaining proportionately
one foot of vertical rise for every 100 feet of horizontal distance from the end
of that strip;

"overhead line" means a wire or cable erected above the ground and in the open
air and includes any pole, tower or support and any component parts associated
therewith;

"owner", in relation to land, means-

(a) the person registered as the proprietor of the land except where that
person has leased or subleased the land to another person for a period of
fourteen years or more;

(b) the person in whom the fee simple of the land is vested under a
registered deed except where that person has leased or subleased the land to
another person for a period of fourteen years or more;

(c) the lessee of land held under a lease from the State expressed to be for
a period of fourteen years or more;

(d) the lessee of land held under any other lease expressed to be for a
period of fourteen years or more;

(e) the allottee of land held under a provisional title and in process of
alienation by the State;

and includes the legal representative of a person who has died, become bankrupt,
assigned his estate for the benefit of his creditors, is a minor, is of unsound
mind or is otherwise under disability and the liquidator of a company;

"planning authority", in relation to a development plan, means the person or

authority responsible for the preparation or enforcement of the provisions of
that development plan;

"prohibited obstruction" means an obstruction other than a regulated

obstruction;

"regulated obstruction" means an obstruction which is authorised by or in terms

of regulation 7;

"runway", in relation to an aerodrome, means a straight path within any strip at

that aerodrome which is specially prepared and used for the landing and
departure of
aircraft;

"safeguarded area", in relation to an aerodrome, means an area set symmetrically

about the centre line of the main strip at that aerodrome and bounded by four
straight lines consisting of-

(a) a line 25,000 feet from and parallel to the centre line on the one side
of the centre line;

(b) a line 25,000 feet from and parallel to the centre line on the other side
of the centre line;

(c) a line 48,000 feet from and parallel to the one end of that strip;

(d) a line 48,000 feet from and parallel to the other end of that strip;
"safeguarding map" means a safeguarding map issued in terms of regulation 5;

"smoke" includes soot, ash, grit, gritty particles, dust and any other substance
whatsoever which obscures visibility;

"smoke restriction area", in relation to an aerodrome, means an area which is-

(a) within the safeguarded area surrounding that aerodrome; and

(b) within 40,000 feet of the boundary of that aerodrome; and

(c) shown on the safeguarding map or smoke restriction area map issued in
respect of that aerodrome as an area in which the emission or causing of smoke
is restricted;

"smoke restriction area map" means a smoke restriction area map issued in terms
of regulation 5;

"strip", in relation to an aerodrome, means a clearly marked rectangular portion

of the landing area at that aerodrome which is prepared or part of which is
prepared for the landing and departure of aircraft in a particular direction and
includes the runway and any area at the end of that runway provided for aircraft
making an emergency stop or to meet aircraft operational requirements during
take-off.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

3. Any person who is engaged in construction, maintenance or repair work on

an aerodrome shall be exempt from the provisions of these Regulations.Exemptions

4. (1) If the Minister, by Gazette notice, declares an area as an area which

is intended to be used for the landing and departure of aircraft, that area
shall, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), be an aerodrome for the
purposes of these Regulations from the date of publication of that
notice.Proposed aerodrome

(2) An aerodrome referred to in sub-regulation (1) shall cease to be an

aerodrome for the purposes of these Regulations if-

(a) the Minister, by Gazette notice, cancels the notice referred to in

sub-regulation (1); or

(b) at the expiration of eighteen months from the date of publication of the
notice referred to in sub-regulation (1)-

(i) the area which is intended to be used for the landing and departure of
aircraft has not been acquired or leased for aerodrome purposes by the
Government; or

(ii) aerodrome construction work on the area has not commenced.

(3) At an aerodrome which is intended to be used for the landing and departure
of aircraft but is not yet in use and where no strip or runway has been
prepared-

(a) a strip shall be that portion of the proposed landing area which the
Minister, by Gazette notice, declares to be intended for preparation and use as
a strip at that aerodrome;

(b) where the Minister has in terms of paragraph (a) declared more than one
proposed strip, the main strip shall be that strip which the Minister, by
Gazette notice, declares to be intended for preparation and use as the main
strip at that aerodrome;

(c) a runway shall be that portion of a strip which the Minister, by Gazette
notice, declares to be intended for preparation and use as a runway at that
aerodrome.

(4) An owner of land which is within the safeguarded area surrounding an area
declared in a notice published in terms of sub-regulation (1) to be an area
which is intended to be used for the landing and departure of aircraft who
objects to the area specified in that notice being used for such purposes may
appeal to the President, in accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation
(5), against the use of the area for such purposes.

(5) An appeal by any person in terms of sub-regulation (4) shall-

(a) be in writing and fifteen copies thereof shall be submitted; and

(b) be lodged with the Minister within thirty days of the date of publication
in the Gazette of the notice referred to in sub-regulation (4); and

(c) set forth the reasons for his objection to the area specified in the
notice referred to in sub-regulation (4) being used for the landing and
departure of aircraft.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

5. (1) The Director may, after publication of a notice in terms of

sub-regulation (5), issue a safeguarding map in respect of any aerodrome and, if
a safeguarding map has not been issued in respect of a particular aerodrome, may
issue a smoke restriction area map in respect of that aerodrome.Issue of
safeguarding maps and smoke restriction area maps

(2) A safeguarding map shall be signed by the Director and shall show the date
of issue and, in relation to the aerodrome in respect of which it is issued-

(a) the safeguarded area surrounding that aerodrome; and

(b) different areas within that safeguarded area where obstructions not
exceeding a height specified for each different area may be erected or permitted
to come into existence; and

(c) the smoke restriction area within 40,000 feet of the boundary of that
aerodrome.

(3) A smoke restriction area map shall be signed by the Director and shall show
the date of issue and, in relation to the aerodrome in respect of which it is
issued-

(a) the safeguarded area surrounding that aerodrome; and

(b) the smoke restriction area within 40,000 feet of the boundary of that
aerodrome.

(4) Where any of the safeguarded area surrounding an aerodrome falls within the
area under the jurisdiction of a local authority or within a development plan
area, the Director shall, whilst any safeguarding map or smoke restriction area
map in respect of that aerodrome is being prepared, consult the local authority
and, additionally or alternatively, as the case may be, the planning authority
concerned as to so much of the areas to be shown and heights specified in that
map as fall within the area under the jurisdiction of that local authority or
within that development plan area, as the case may be.

(5) When any safeguarding map or smoke restriction area map

is to be issued, the Director shall, by Gazette notice, notify the
public-

(a) that such map is to be issued; and

(b) of the date on which such map is to be issued; and

(c) of the office or offices where such map may be inspected free of charge.

(6) The Director may, by Gazette notice, withdraw any safeguarding map or smoke
restriction area map and may substitute a safeguarding map or smoke restriction
area map therefor.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

6. (1) No person shall erect or permit the coming into existence of a

prohibited obstruction.Prohibited obstructions

(2) Where any person has contravened the provisions of sub-regulation (1), the
Director may order that person in writing to reduce the height of the prohibited
obstruction so that it ceases to be a prohibited obstruction.

(3) Where a person has received an order from the Director in terms of
sub-regulation (2), he shall, within seven days of the receipt of that order,
reduce the height of the prohibited obstruction so that it ceases to be a
prohibited obstruction.

(4) Where a person fails to reduce the height of a prohibited obstruction in

terms of sub-regulation (3), the Director may cause such prohibited obstruction
to be reduced in height so that it ceases to be a prohibited obstruction.

7. (1) A person may erect or permit the coming into existence of an

obstruction within the safeguarded area surrounding an aerodrome if-Regulated
obstructions

(a) that obstruction-

i(i) is within an area shown in the safeguarding map as an area where

obstructions may be erected or permitted to come into existence; and

(ii) does not exceed the maximum height specified in the safeguarding map for
that area; or

(b) the Director has in terms of sub-regulation (3) or (5) authorised that
person to erect or permit the coming into existence of that obstruction.
(2) A person who wishes to erect or permit the coming into existence of an
obstruction other than an obstruction referred to in paragraph (a) of
sub-regulation (1) shall-

(a) apply in writing to the Director for authority to erect or permit the
coming into existence of that obstruction; and

(b) submit with his application a plan showing the proposed location, shape
and height of the obstruction and its proposed elevation in relation to the
aerodrome reference point or, if the Director agrees, in relation to the best
available trigonometrical level datum.

(3) If, after receiving and considering an application and plan submitted in
terms of sub-regulation (2), the Director is of the opinion that the proposed
obstruction will not be a hazard to air navigation, he shall authorise in
writing the person who has made the application to erect or permit the coming
into existence of the proposed obstruction.

(4) If, after receiving and considering an application and plan submitted in
terms of sub-regulation (2), the Director is of the opinion that the proposed
obstruction will be a hazard to air navigation, he shall not authorise the
person who had made the application to erect or permit the coming into existence
of the proposed obstruction.

(5) If the proposed obstruction referred to in sub-regulation (4) is modified

in one or more of the following ways:

(a) by removal to another location;

(b) by alteration of its shape;

(c) by reduction of its height;

(d) by provision for lighting it in such manner as the Director may require
to give visual warning of its presence in darkness or in conditions of poor
visibility;

(e) by provision for marking it in such manner as the Director may require to
give visual warning of its presence in daylight;

so that it ceases to be a hazard to air navigation, the Director shall authorise

in writing the person who has made the application to erect or permit the coming
into existence of the proposed obstruction as modified.

(6) If a proposed obstruction has been authorised by the Director in terms of

sub-regulation (3) or (5), no alteration to the location, shape or height of the
proposed obstruction or to any lighting or marking referred to in paragraph (d)
or (e) of sub-regulation (5) shall be made before or during the erection or
coming into existence of the obstruction unless the Director approves in writing
such alteration.

(7) If an obstruction has been erected or permitted to come into existence on

the authority of the Director in terms of this regulation, no person shall alter
the shape or increase the height of that obstruction or permit the height of
that obstruction to increase beyond the height authorised by the Director unless
the Director approves in writing such alteration or increase in height.
(8) Where provision for lighting or marking a regulated obstruction is required
to be made, the owner of the land on which that obstruction is situated shall
ensure that-

(a) if provision for lighting is to be made, that obstruction is lighted in

accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d) of sub-regulation (5) during the
hours of darkness between fifteen minutes after sunset and fifteen minutes
before sunrise and any other time when that obstruction cannot be seen clearly
at a distance of at least 15,000 feet;

(b) if provision for marking is required to be made, that obstruction is

clearly marked in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (e) of
sub-regulation (5) during the hours of daylight.

8. (1) Any building, tower, mast or other structure which exceeds 500 feet in
height shall have provision for lighting it in such manner as the Director may
require to give visual warning of its presence in darkness or in conditions of
poor visibility.Lighting of structures exceeding 500 feet in height

(2) The owner of the land on which a building, tower, mast or other structure
referred to in sub-regulation (1) is situated shall ensure that that structure
is lighted in the manner required by the Director during the hours of darkness
between fifteen minutes after sunset and fifteen minutes before sunrise and any
other time when that structure cannot be seen clearly at a distance of at least
15,000 feet.

9. (1) No person shall-Lights and beacons

(a) erect or permit the erection of; or

(b) alter, destroy or interfere with;

an aerial lighthouse or lighted beacon for air navigational purposes except with
the written consent of the Director and in such manner as the Director may
authorise.

(2) No person shall display or permit the display of a light which endangers or
is likely to endanger the safety of aircraft-

(a) by reason of glare; or

(b) by causing confusion with or preventing clear reception of any light or

signal displayed for air navigational purposes on the authority of the Director
or in accordance with the provisions of any regulations made under the Act.

(3) If the Director is of the opinion that any light is being displayed which
endangers or is likely to endanger the safety of aircraft as specified in
sub-regulation (2), he may, by notice in writing, order the person displaying or
permitting the display of that light to remove that light or alter it in such
manner that it ceases to endanger or be likely to endanger the safety of
aircraft.

(4) Where a person has received an order from the Director in terms of
sub-regulation (3), he shall, within seven days of the receipt of the order,
remove the light specified in the order or alter it in such manner that it
ceases to endanger or be likely to endanger the safety of aircraft.
(5) Where a person fails to remove or alter a light in terms of sub-regulation
(4), the Director may cause such light to be removed or altered in such manner
that it ceases to endanger or be likely to endanger the safety of aircraft.

10. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no person shall

operate or cause to be operated within a smoke restriction area any machinery or
plant used for industrial or trade purposes which emits or causes smoke unless
the authority, in writing, of the Director has been obtained for such operation
and the machinery or plant is operated in compliance with any conditions the
Director may impose when granting such authority.Smoke

(2) The provisions of sub-regulation (1) shall not apply in relation to

machinery or plant used for industrial or trade purposes which was installed or
an agreement for the purchase or the installation of which has been entered into
before the date of issue of the safeguarding map or smoke restriction area map,
as the case may be, showing the premises where the machinery or plant is
operated or is to be operated as being within a smoke restriction area.

(3) A person who wishes to operate or cause to be operated within a smoke

restriction area any machinery or plant used for industrial or trade purposes
which emits or causes smoke, other than machinery or plant referred to in
sub-regulation (2), shall-

(a) apply in writing to the Director for authority to operate or cause to be

operated such machinery or plant; and

(b) submit with his application information as to-

(i) the type of machinery or plant to be operated;

(ii) the use to which such machinery or plant is to be put;

(iii) the hours during which and days on which such machinery or plant is to
be operated;

(iv) the maximum volume and density of smoke likely to be emitted or caused
by the operation of such machinery or plant.

(4) On receipt of an application in terms of sub-regulation (3), the Director

may call for the submission of further information by that person, including
information as to any practicable means there may be for minimising the smoke
likely to be emitted or caused by the operation of such machinery or plant.

(5) After receiving and considering an application in terms of sub-regulation

(3) and any information submitted in terms of sub-regulation (4), the Director
may, subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (6), grant authority in writing
to the person who has made the application to operate or cause to be operated
that machinery or plant and in granting such authority the Director may impose
such conditions as he may consider necessary as to-

(a) the use of any practicable means for minimising the smoke emitted or
caused by such operation;

(b) the volume of smoke that may be emitted or caused;

(c) the periods when no smoke may be emitted or caused.

(6) If, after receiving and considering an application in terms of
sub-regulation (3) and any information submitted in terms of sub-regulation (4),
the Director is of the opinion that the proposed operation of the machinery or
plant is likely to emit or cause smoke affecting visibility at or over the
aerodrome or any approach or take-off area at that aerodrome, he shall not grant
authority to the person who has made the application to operate or cause to be
operated such machinery or plant.

(7) Any person who operates or causes to be operated within a smoke restriction
area machinery or plant referred to in sub-regulation (2) shall use any
practicable means there may be for minimising the smoke emitted or caused by
such operation during any period when the Director notifies him that the
emission or causing of smoke within that area is likely to affect visibility at
or over the aerodrome or any approach or take-off area at that aerodrome.

(8) For the purposes of this regulation, "practicable" means reasonably

practicable having regard, amongst other things, to-

(a) local conditions and circumstances;

(b) the financial implications;

(c) the current state of technical knowledge;

(d) the proper use of the plant or machinery.

SCHEDULE

(Regulation 2)

SURFACES WITHIN A SAFEGUARDED AREA

1.The traffic area surface located 150 feet above ground-level over the
safeguarded area.

2.The horizontal surface located 150 feet above the mean elevation of the ends
of the runway, or if there is more than one runway, the main runway at the
aerodrome over a circular area of 13,000 feet horizontal radius from the
aerodrome reference point.

3.The conical surface sloping upwards and outwards from the perimeter of the
horizontal surface to an outer limit of 20,000 feet horizontal radius from the
aerodrome reference point with the incline gaining proportionately one foot of
vertical rise for every 20 feet of radial increase.

4. The safety surface located 10 feet above ground-level over any approach or
take-off area for a horizontal distance of 5,000 feet from the end of the strip.

5. The instrument approach surface at each end of the main strip inclined
upwards from the end of the main strip over the main approach or take-off area
for a distance measured horizontally of 48,000 feet from the end of the main
strip with the incline gaining proportionately one foot of vertical rise for
every 50 feet of horizontal distance from the end of the main strip.

6. The instrument take-off surface at each end of the main strip inclined
upwards from the end of the main strip over the main approach or take-off area
for a distance measured
horizontally of 10,000 feet from the end of the main strip with the incline
gaining proportionately one foot of vertical rise for every 84 feet of
horizontal distance from the end of the main strip.

7. The non-instrument approach surface at each end of any strip inclined upwards
from the end of the strip over the approach or take-off area for a distance
measured horizontally of 10,000 feet from the end of that strip with the incline
gaining proportionately one foot of vertical rise for every 40 feet of
horizontal distance from the end of that strip.

8. The transitional surface sloping upwards and outwards to the intersection

with the horizontal surface from-

(a) the boundary of any strip; and

(b) the edge of any-

(i) instrument approach surface;

(ii) instrument take-off surface;

(iii) non-instrument approach surface;

with the incline gaining proportionately one foot of vertical rise for every 7
feet of horizontal distance from the said boundary or edge.

SECTION 4-THE AVIATION (RULES OF THE AIR) REGULATIONS

ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS

PART I PRELIMINARYPART I

PRELIMINARY

Regulation

1. Title

2. Interpretation

PART II GENERALPART II

GENERAL

3. Departures from these Regulations

4. Special rules

5. Locally registered aircraft flying outside Zambia

6. Exemptions

PART III GENERAL FLIGHT RULESPART III

GENERAL FLIGHT RULES

 7. Flights by aircraft

8. Pre-flight action

9. Notification of flight

10. Election to fly under instrument flight rules

11. Course of flight

12. Restricted flying areas

13. Operation on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome

14. Air traffic control instructions and international flight and

communication procedures

15. Right of way

16. Minimum safe height

17. Towing and picking up of objects

18. Dropping of objects

19. Parachute descents

20. Aerobatic flight

21. Flying instruction

22. Flying in simulated instrument flight conditions

23. Avoidance of collision

Regulation

24. Aircraft on the water

25. Failure of lights

26. Night flights within controlled airspaces

27. Authority of person in command of an aircraft

28. Compliance with reporting procedures

29. Locally registered aircraft equipped with radio apparatus

30. Right-hand side traffic

31. Notification of arrival

32. Hazardous flight conditions

PART IV VISUAL FLIGHT RULESPART IV

VISUAL FLIGHT RULES

33. V.F.R. flight within a flight information region

34. V.F.R. flight within a controlled airspace

35. Non-compliance with Part IV

PART V INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULESPART V

INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES

36. Application of Part V

37. I.F.R. flight within a flight information region

38. I.F.R. flight within a controlled airspace

39. I.F.R. flight within a control area or control zone

40. Qualifications for I.F.R. flight within a control area or control zone

41. Radiocommunications

42. Failure of radiocommunications

PART VI AERODROME FLIGHT RULESPART VI

AERODROME FLIGHT RULES

43. Application of Part VI

44. Arrivals at and departures from an aerodrome

45. Aerodrome traffic rules

46. Landing rules

47. Landing signals

48. Take-off rules

49. Taxying rules

50. Movement signals

PART VII GROUND MARKS AND SIGNALS BY DAY AT AERODROMESPART VII

GROUND MARKS AND SIGNALS BY DAY AT AERODROMES

Regulation

51. Application of Part VII

52. Ground marks and signals at all aerodromes in use

53. Ground marks and signals at aerodromes having an air traffic control unit
54. Ground marks and signals at aerodromes where glider flights are in
progress

PART VIII NIGHT LIGHTING AT AERODROMESPART VIII

NIGHT LIGHTING AT AERODROMES

55. Application of Part VIII

56. Lighting of obstructions

57. Lighting for landings and take-offs

58. Lighting at non-runway aerodromes

59. Lighting at runway aerodromes

60. Supplementary lighting

61. Lighting at aerodromes where glider flights are in progress

62. Lighting of ground marks

63. Approach lighting

64. Taxi-way and manoeuvring area lighting

65. Identification beacon

PART IX GLIDER FLIGHT RULESPART IX

GLIDER FLIGHT RULES

66. Application of Part IX

67. Permission to use certain aerodromes necessary

68. Towing rules

69. Dropping of tow ropes

70. Glider landing and take-off rules

PART X LIGHTS AND OTHER OBJECTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFTPART X

LIGHTS AND OTHER OBJECTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFT

71. Application of Part X

72. Interpretation of terms in Part X

73. Flying machines on land or in flight

Regulation

74. Flying machines on the water

75. Towing vehicles and aircraft under tow

76. Gliders

77. Free balloons

78. Airships

PART XI INTERNATIONAL SIGNALS OF DISTRESSPART XI

INTERNATIONAL SIGNALS OF DISTRESS

79. Distress signals

80. Urgency signals

PART XII OFFENCESPART XII

OFFENCES

81. Dangerous flying

82. Wrongful making of signals

83. Dangerous lights

FIRST SCHEDULE-Landing T

SECOND SCHEDULE-Dumb-bell signal

THIRD SCHEDULE-H signal and ground signal

FOURTH SCHEDULE-Boundary marker

FIFTH SCHEDULE-Warning cross

SIXTH SCHEDULE-Double cross

SECTION 4-THE AVIATION (RULES OF THE AIR) REGULATIONS

Regulations by the Minister Federal Government Notice

268 of 1957
Government Notices
387 of 1963
497 of 1964
Statutory Instrument
153 of 1965

PART I PRELIMINARYPART I

PRELIMINARY

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Rules of the Air)

Regulations.Title

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"advisory area" means a notified area within a flight information region where
air traffic advisory service is available;

"advisory route" means a route within a flight information region along which
air traffic advisory services is available;

"aerobatic flight" means manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft

involving an abrupt change in its attitude, or an abnormal attitude or an
abnormal variation in speed;

"aerodrome traffic" means aircraft operating on and in the

vicinity of an aerodrome and any other traffic operating on the manoeuvring
area;

"aerodrome traffic circuit" means the specified path to be flown by an aircraft

operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome within the airspace enclosed in the
area 9,000 feet from the boundary of the aerodrome up to a height of 2,000 feet
above the aerodrome level or within such other distance from and height above an
aerodrome as may be notified;

"aeroplane" means a flying machine supported in flight by fixed wings;

"airship" means an aircraft having gas lighter than air as a means of support,
which has means of propulsion and means of directional control;

"air traffic" means all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area
of an aerodrome;

"air traffic advisory service" means a service provided to ensure separation, in

so far as is possible, between aircraft operating on I.F.R. flight plans outside
controlled airspaces but within the advisory route or advisory areas;

"air traffic control clearance" means authorisation by an air

traffic control unit for an aircraft to proceed, subject to compliance with air
traffic control instructions issued by the air traffic control unit for the
airspace through which the aircraft is flying;

"air traffic control instructions" means directions issued to a pilot by an air

traffic control unit specifying how a flight is to be conducted;

"air traffic control service" means a service established for the purpose of-

(a) preventing collisions-

(i) between aircraft in the air; and

(ii) on the manoeuvring area, excluding the marshalling area, between

aircraft and
aircraft and between aircraft and obstructions; and

(b) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic; and

(c) providing advice and information to assist in the safe and efficient
conduct of flights;

"air traffic control unit" means a unit established for the purpose of providing
an air traffic control service;

"air traffic service unit" means a unit established for the purpose of providing
any of the following services:

(a) flight information service;

(b) air traffic control service;

(c) air traffic advisory service;

"alerting service" means a service provided for the purpose of-

(a) notifying appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search

and rescue aid; and

(b) assisting such organisations as required;

"altitude" means the vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as

a point measured from mean sea level;

"angle of approach light" means a light placed at or near ground level at an

aerodrome to indicate to an aeroplane in the approach way, which is approaching
for the purpose of landing, its position in the vertical plane relative to a
predetermined safe path of descent for landing, and so arranged as to show-

(a) an amber light when the aeroplane is above;

(b) a green light when it is within; and

(c) a red light when it is below;

the said path;

"approach way" means the determined airspace over an approach area, through
which aircraft in flight approach or leave a strip or a channel;

"appropriate authority" means the national authority of a contracting State

responsible for the safety of air navigation over the territory of that State
and, in the case of Zambia, means the Director;

"approved" means approved by the Director;

"balloon" means an aircraft having gas lighter than air as a means of support
which has no means of propulsion;

"contracting State" means any State which is a party to the Convention;

"controlled airspace" means an airspace of notified dimensions within which an

air traffic control service is provided to I.F.R. flights;

"control area" means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a notified

height above the surface of the earth or from a notified altitude;

"control zone" means a controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of
the earth;
"Director" means the Director of Civil Aviation appointed in terms of regulation
3 of the Air Navigation Regulations;

"flight information region" means an airspace of notified dimensions within

which flight information service and alerting service are provided and air
traffic advisory service may be provided;

"flight information service" means a service provided for the purpose of giving
advice and information to assist in the safe and efficient conduct of a flight;

"flight levels" means surfaces of constant atmospheric pressure which are

related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.2 millibars (29.92 inches of mercury)
and are separated by specific pressure intervals and "flight level" shall be
construed accordingly;

"flight plan" means notified information relative to the intended navigation of

an aircraft;

"flight visibility" means the average range of visibility forward from the
cockpit of an aircraft in flight;

"flying machine" means an aircraft heavier than air and having means of
mechanical propulsion;

"glider" means an aircraft heavier than air, not fixed to the ground and having
no means of mechanical propulsion, but having means of directional control;

"Government aerodrome" means an aerodrome which is owned or controlled by the

Government, other than an aerodrome belonging to, or for the time being in use
exclusively by, the Defence Force;

"height" means the vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a

point measured from a specified datum;

"helicopter" means a flying machine supported in flight by aerofoils normally

mechanically rotated about a substantially vertical axis (or axes);

"I.F.R. flight" means a flight conducted in accordance with instrument flight

rules;

"instrument flight rules" means the provisions of Part V;

"instrument meterological conditions" means weather con-ditions below the minima

laid down for visual flight rules;

"kite" means a non-mechanically driven aircraft, heavier than air, moored to or

towed from the ground or water;

"land" and "landing", in relation to aircraft, include alighting on water;

"landing area" means that part of the manoeuvring area primarily intended for
the take-off and landing of aircraft;

"landing strip" means a rectangular portion of the landing area specially

prepared for the take-off and landing of aircraft in a particular direction;

"landing T" means a device as shown in the First Schedule to indicate visually
to aircraft the direction designated for the time being for landing or take-off;

"licence" includes any certificate of competency required to be held in

connection with such licence by the law of the country in which such licence was
granted;

"licensed aerodrome" means any aerodrome licensed in terms of regulation 116 of

the Air Navigation Regulations;

"magnetic track" means the angle measured clockwise from magnetic north to the
path followed by an aircraft over the earth;

"manoeuvring area" means that part of an aerodrome used for the take-off and
landing of aircraft and for the movements of aircraft associated with take-offs
and landings;

"marshalling area" means that portion of the manoeuvring area normally set aside
for the loading, off-loading or parking of aircraft;

"nautical mile" means a distance of 6,080 feet;

"night" means the hours of darkness between fifteen minutes after sunset and
fifteen minutes before sunrise or any other time when an unlighted aircraft or
other unlighted prominent object cannot clearly be seen at a distance of at
least 15,000 feet;

"notification of flight" means specified information relative to the intended

navigation of an aircraft;

"notified" means shown in any notice to airmen, notice to aircraft owners and
aircraft maintenance engineers, or any other circular or publication issued by
the Director for the purposes of these Regulations;

"person in command", in relation to an aircraft, means, if any person other than

the pilot-in-charge is in command, such person, and in any other case, the
pilot-in-charge;

"radio" is to be interpreted as a general term applied to the use of

electromagnetic waves of frequencies between 10 kilocycles a second and
3,000,000 megacycles a second;

"radio apparatus" includes all apparatus, including any ancillary equipment, for
sending or receiving by means of radio;

"rating" means an entry in a licence specifying or limiting the effect of any

right conferred by such licence entitling the holder thereof to perform any
function to which such licence relates;

"reporting point" means a geographical location in relation to which the

position of an aircraft is to be reported;

"runway" means a hard-surfaced straight path within a landing strip normally

used for the take-off and landing of aircraft;

"runway threshold lights" means a line of fixed lights placed across the end of
a runway or landing strip to indicate the usable limit thereof, the line being-
(a) at right angles to the axis of the runway or landing strip; and

(b) composed of at least four lights spaced equal distances apart and showing
green in the direction of approach;

"signal area" means a selected part of an aerodrome set aside for the display to
aircraft in flight of the ground signals referred to in Part VII;

"taxi-way" means a specially prepared or marked path on the manoeuvring area of

a land aerodrome which is intended for the use of aircraft in motion, other than
when taking off or landing;

"V.F.R. flight" means a flight conducted in accordance with visual flight rules;

"visibility" means the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and

expressed in units of distance, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects
by day and prominent lighted objects by night;

"visual flight rules" means the provisions of Part IV;

"visual meterological conditions" means weather conditions equal to or above the

minima laid down for visual flight rules.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)

PART II GENERALPART II

GENERAL

3. (1) In complying with these Regulations the person in command of an

aircraft shall have due regard to all dangers of navigation and collision and to
any other special circumstances which may render necessary, in order to avoid
immediate danger, a departure from compliance with any provision of these
Regulations.Departures from these Regulations

(2) The person in command of the aircraft shall, as soon as possible after such
departure has occurred-

(a) within Zambia, notify the appropriate air traffic service unit;

(b) with respect to a locally registered aircraft outside Zambia, notify the
appropriate authority.

(3) If so required by the appropriate air traffic service unit or the

appropriate authority, as the case may be, the person in command of the aircraft
shall, within 10 days from the time of receipt by him of such requirement,
submit to such service unit or such authority, as the case may be, a report in
writing of the special circumstances which rendered such departure necessary.
When submitting a report to the appropriate authority, the person in command of
the aircraft shall also submit a copy of such report to the Director.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

4. (1) The Director may, where it appears to him to be necessary, make any
special rule or rules with respect to the navigation of aircraft in the vicinity
of a Government aerodrome or in or over any other notified area and shall cause
any such rule or rules to be notified.Special rules
(2) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in these Regulations,
all operators, pilots and crews of aircraft operating within Zambia shall comply
with any rule or rules made in terms of sub-regulation (1).

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

5. In the application of Parts III, IV and V to a locally registered aircraft

outside Zambia-

(a) if the aircraft is over the territory of a contracting State, nothing in

the said Parts shall be deemed to interfere with the application to the aircraft
of any special rules made by that State relative to flights over its territory,
which are not in conflict with the provisions of the said Parts; and

(b) if the aircraft is over the territory of a State other than a contracting
State, the provisions of the said Parts shall be deemed to apply to the aircraft
only in so far as they do not conflict with any rules made by that State
relative to flights over its territory.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Locally registered aircraft flying outside
Zambia

6. The Minister may by written authority exempt from any of the provisions of
these Regulations aircraft flown for experimental purposes, or any other
aircraft or any persons, when it appears to him unnecessary that such provisions
should apply. Such exemption may be made subject to any conditions or
limitations which, in the circumstances of the case, appear to him to be
required.Exemptions

PART III GENERAL FLIGHT RULESPART III

GENERAL FLIGHT RULES

7. An aircraft shall be flown at all times in compliance with the provisions

of this Part and, in addition, shall comply either with visual flight rules or
with instrument flight rules.Flights by aircraft

8. The person in command of an aircraft shall, prior to commencing a flight-

(a) familiarise himself with information necessary for the proper operation
of the aircraft en route and on the aerodromes which may be used;

(b) other than a flight within the immediate vicinity of the aerodrome,
carefully study the current weather reports and forecasts and then decide
whether-Pre-flight action

(i) the flight can be made with safety, taking into full consideration fuel
requirements and an alternative course of action in case the flight cannot be
completed as planned; and

(ii) instrument meterological conditions prevail or are likely to prevail

along any part of the proposed flight so that if I.F.R. flight is necessary the
provisions of Part V may be complied with;

(c) within or through a controlled airspace-

(i) submit or cause to be submitted to the appropriate air traffic control
unit a flight plan which shall, unless otherwise authorised by such control
unit, contain particulars as notified; and

(ii) unless otherwise authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit,
obtain from such control unit an air traffic control clearance.

9. (1) Prior to commencing a flight-Notification of flight

(a) within or through an airspace notified for the purposes of this

regulation; or

(b) over an area notified as an area in which search and rescue operations
would be difficult;

the person in command of the aircraft shall submit or cause to be submitted to

the appropriate air traffic service unit a notification of flight containing
such particulars as may be required by such service unit:

Provided that, where such person is unable to comply with the provisions of this
sub-regulation, he shall follow the notified procedure.

(2) If the flight referred to in sub-regulation (1) is to be made within or

through a controlled airspace, the person in command of the aircraft shall apply
for an air traffic control clearance from the appropriate air traffic control
unit. If the air traffic control clearance-

(a) is obtained, the provisions of regulation 39 shall apply to such flight;

(b) is not obtained, the aircraft shall not fly within the controlled
airspace except in accordance with visual flight rules.

10. Prior to commencing or at any time during a flight, the person in command
of the aircraft may elect to fly in accordance with instrument flight rules when
visual meteorological conditions prevail along the path of the proposed flight.
In such case, he shall submit or cause to be submitted a flight plan to the
appropriate air traffic control or service unit and, if any part of the flight
is to be made within a controlled airspace, shall obtain from such control unit
an air traffic control clearance in respect of that part of the flight.Election
to fly under instrument flight rules

11. (1) When a flight plan or notification of flight has been submitted in
respect of a particular flight, the aircraft shall, unless otherwise directed by
the appropriate air traffic control or service unit, be flown in accordance with
such flight plan or notification of flight and the person in command of the
aircraft shall not cancel such flight plan or notification of flight
unless-Course of flight

(a) he is able, and intends, to continue his flight in uninterrupted visual

meterological conditions; and

(b) he has informed the appropriate air traffic control or service unit.

(2) When a flight plan or notification of flight has been submitted in respect
of a particular flight and during such flight it is found necessary to deviate
in respect of any particular from such flight plan or notification of flight,
the person in command of the aircraft shall, if he is able to communicate with
an appropriate radio station, report by radio the nature of the proposed
deviation to such radio station as soon as is practicable and, if the flight is
being made in accordance with an air traffic control clearance, shall obtain an
amended air traffic control clearance.

12. (1) An aircraft shall not be flown within any area where flight is
restricted or prohibited by a contracting State and particulars of which have
been notified by the appropriate authority unless-Restricted flying areas

(a) special permission to fly within such an area has been granted in respect
of the aircraft by the appropriate authority; and

(b) the aircraft is flown in accordance with the terms and conditions of such
special permission.

(2) If the person in command of an aircraft flying within Zambia becomes aware
that the aircraft is flying in contravention of a notice made in terms of
regulation 57 or 58 of the Air Navigation Regulations, the aircraft shall
immediately make a signal of distress by radiotelephony or by one of the visual
signals described in regulation 79 and shall land as soon as possible at the
nearest aerodrome in Zambia, not being an aerodrome within the area to which
such notice applies or an aerodrome from the vicinity of which the aircraft is
excluded in terms of paragraph (b) of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 43:

Provided that for the purpose of so landing an aircraft shall not, unless
compelled by accident, stress of weather or other unavoidable cause, fly further
into or commence to descend while still above such an area.

(3) In Zambia when a notice restricting or prohibiting flights within certain

areas has been made in terms of regulation 57 or 58 of the Air Navigation
Regulations, the following visual signals may be used:

(a) to warn an aircraft that it is in the vicinity of an area specified in

such a notice and should alter its course-

(i) by day, a series of projectiles discharged at intervals of 10 seconds,

each showing on bursting black or white smoke;

(ii) by night, a series of projectiles discharged at intervals of 10 seconds,

each showing on bursting a white light or star; or

(iii) by night, an intermittent white luminous beam directed at the aircraft

which is being warned;

(b) to notify an aircraft that it is flying in contravention of such a notice

and must comply with the provisions of sub-regulation (2), a series of
projectiles discharged at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing on bursting a
green light or star.

(4) If an aircraft fails to comply with the provisions of sub-regulation (2)

after being required to do so, either by radiotelephony or by visual signals, by
or at the direction of a commissioned officer of the Defence Force, such officer
may use any means at his disposal to compel the aircraft to comply with such
provisions.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and S.I. No. 153 of 1965)
13. The person in command of an aircraft being operated on or in the vicinity
of an aerodrome shall-

(a) Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision;

(b) conform to or avoid the aerodrome traffic circuit;

(c) unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate authority or instructed by

the air traffic control unit, make all turns to the left when approaching for a
landing and after taking off;

(d) if an air traffic control unit is in operation at such aerodrome-

(i) maintain a continuous watch on the notified radio frequencies for air
traffic control instructions, or, if this is not possible, keep a watch for such
instructions as may be issued by visual means;

(ii) obtain, either by radio or visual signal, such authorisation for his
movements as may be necessary for the protection of aerodrome traffic;

(e) if an air traffic control unit is not in operation at such aerodrome,

land and take off, so far as practicable, into the wind;

(f) with respect to an aerodrome in Zambia, comply with the provisions of

Part VI.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Operation on and in the vicinity of an

aerodrome

14. The person in command of an aircraft shall comply with any air traffic
control instructions received by him and, generally, shall act in conformity
with such flight and communication procedures as are internationally
recognised.Air traffic control instructions and international flight and
communication procedures

15. (1) An aircraft-Right of way

(a) shall not be operated in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a

collision danger;

(b) shall not fly in formation with another aircraft except by

pre-arrangement between the persons in command of the aircraft so flying;

(c) which is obliged by these Regulations to keep out of the way of another
aircraft shall not pass over or under or cross ahead of the other aircraft
unless passing well clear of it.

(2) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulations (4) and (5), when in flight an
aircraft shall give way to another aircraft of a class different from its own as
follows:

(a) flying machines shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons;

(b) airships shall give way to gliders and balloons;

(c) gliders shall give way to balloons.

(3) When two aircraft of the same class are flying at approximately the same
altitude and on converging courses, the aircraft which has the other on its
right shall give way:

Provided that flying machines shall give way to flying machines which are towing
other aircraft.

(4) When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is
danger of collision, each shall alter its course to the right.

(5) An aircraft which is being overtaken has the right of way and the
overtaking aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall
keep out of the way of the other aircraft by altering its course to the right,
and no subsequent change in the relative positions of the two aircraft shall
release the overtaking aircraft from this obligation until it has passed and is
entirely clear of the other aircraft:

Provided that within Zambia nothing in this sub-regulation shall apply to a

glider overtaking another glider if the person in command of the overtaking
glider is satisfied that, having regard to all the
circumstances, hazard would be caused by altering his course to the right.

(6) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (8), an aircraft which is

landing or approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing has the right of
way over other aircraft in flight or on the ground or water:

Provided that-

(i) in the case of two or more flying machines or two or more gliders
approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, the flying machine or the
glider, as the case may be, at the lower altitude shall have the right of way
but it may not overtake or cut in in front of the other if such other flying
machine or glider, as the case may be, is descending in a straight line for the
purpose of landing;

(ii) in the case of a flying machine and a glider approaching an aerodrome

for the purpose of landing, the glider shall have the right of way.

(7) An aircraft about to take off shall not attempt to do so until the person
in command thereof is satisfied that there is no apparent risk of collision with
any obstacle, vehicle or other aircraft.

(8) An aircraft which is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land shall
give way to that aircraft.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

16. (1) Within Zambia no aircraft shall fly over any city, municipality, town
or other populous area-Minimum safe height

(a) at a height of less than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a
radius of 2,000 feet from the aircraft; and

(b) except at such height as will enable the aircraft to alight outside the
limits of such city, municipality, town or other populous area, notwithstanding,
in the case of a flying machine, the failure of its engine, if it has only one
engine, or of one of its engines, if it has more than one engine:
Provided that the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not apply to-

(i) an aircraft which is departing from or about to land at a licensed

aerodrome or a Government aerodrome if the aircraft is flying at a height which,
having regard to all the circumstances of the case, is reasonable and is
otherwise in conformity with the provisions of any regulations made under the
Act and with normal aviation practice in such a case;

(ii) a helicopter which is being flown with special permission in writing

given by the Director and in accordance with any conditions or limitations
contained in such special permission.

(2) Save when temporary restrictions have been imposed by a notice made in
terms of regulation 58 of the Air Navigation Regulations, within Zambia no
aircraft shall fly over or in the vicinity of any area where a large number of
persons are assembled in the open air except with special permission in writing
given by the Director:

Provided that the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not apply to an

aircraft which is departing from or about to land at a licensed aerodrome or a
Government aerodrome if it is necessary for the purpose of effecting such
departure or arrival that the aircraft should fly over or in the vicinity of
such an area.

(3) No aircraft shall be flown in such a manner or in such circumstances as, by

reason of low height or proximity to persons or dwellings or to other aircraft
or for any other reason, to cause danger to any person or property, including
animals, on land or water or in the air.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

17. (1) The person in command of a locally registered aircraft outside Zambia
shall not permit anything to be towed by such aircraft except in accordance with
the requirements of the appropriate authority.Towing and picking up of objects

(2) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (4), within Zambia no aircraft

shall-

(a) be used in flight for the purpose of towing another aircraft or any
banner, drogue, flag or similar article; or

(b) be towed in flight by another aircraft;

unless the aircraft is being so used or towed in accordance with an express

authorisation for that purpose included in the terms of the certificate of
airworthiness or the validation of such certificate in force in Zambia in
respect of the aircraft and subject to any conditions or limitations contained
in such terms:

Provided that no aircraft shall be so used or towed at night or in instrument

meteorological conditions except with special permission in writing given by the
Director and in accordance with any conditions or limitations contained in such
special permission.

(3) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (4), within Zambia no aircraft

shall be used in flight for the purpose of picking up any object from the ground
except with special permission in writing given by the Director and in
accordance with any conditions or limitations contained in such special
permission.

(4) The provisions of sub-regulations (2) and (3) shall not apply to an
aircraft flown in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (b) of
sub-regulation (2) of regulation 20 of the Air Navigation Regulations.

(5) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the reasonable use or display by
or from an aircraft in flight of-

(a) radio aerials;

(b) any instrument which is being used for experimental purposes; or

(c) any signal, apparatus, equipment or article required or permitted to be

used or displayed from an aircraft in flight when used or displayed in
accordance with the provisions of any regulations made under the Act.

(6) For the purposes of this regulation, an aircraft in flight shall be deemed
to be towing another aircraft or a banner, drogue, flag or similar article if
such other aircraft or banner, drogue, flag or similar article is attached to
the aircraft in flight by any means external to such aircraft which cause such
other aircraft or banner, drogue, flag or similar article to follow or accompany
in flight the aircraft to which it is thus attached.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

18. (1) When an aircraft is in flight the person in command thereof shall
ensure that nothing which might endanger persons or property, including animals,
on land or water is dropped from such aircraft.Dropping of objects

(2) No object, whether attached to a parachute or not, shall be dropped or

projected from an aircraft flying within Zambia unless the object is dropped or
projected in accordance with the special permission in writing given by the
Director and subject to any conditions or limitations contained in such special
permission.

(3) Nothing in this regulation shall prevent the person in command of an

aircraft or any person authorised by him from-

(a) dropping ballast in the form of fine sand or water not enclosed in a bag
or other container;

(b) dropping, in accordance with the provisions of regulation 69, ropes used
for towing aircraft;

(c) jettisoning fuel in a case of emergency;

(d) using apparatus for the purpose of navigating the aircraft when the type
of apparatus and method of use have been approved;

(e) dropping or projecting material for the purpose of dusting or spraying

crops in accordance with an express authorisation for that purpose included in
the terms of the certificate of airworthiness or the validation of such
certificate in force in respect of the aircraft; or
(f) dropping or projecting medical supplies, food, equipment or any other
requisites in the event of illness or other emergency.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

19. Save in emergency, no person shall descend by means of a parachute from

an aircraft unless-

(a) if such aircraft is flying within Zambia, the descent is made in

accordance with the special permission in writing given by the Director and
subject to any conditions or limitations contained in such special permission;

(b) if such aircraft is flying over the territory of another contracting

State, the descent is authorised by the appropriate authority.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Parachute descents

20. (1) No aircraft shall carry out aerobatic flight so as to endanger air
traffic.Aerobatic flight

(2) If the appropriate authority has prohibited aerobatic flight over any area,
no aircraft shall perform such flight over that area without the permission of
such authority.

(3) Within Zambia no aircraft shall carry out aerobatic flight-

(a) over any city, municipality, town or other populous area;

(b) within a control zone, except with the consent of the appropriate air
traffic control unit.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

21. Within Zambia any person who gives to another person instruction in
flying, including directions to that person when flying or about to fly as
pilot-in-charge of an aircraft, shall take care that the instruction which he
gives is such as to ensure as far as possible that an aircraft flown by the
person receiving the instruction is flown in accordance with these Regulations.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Flying instruction

22. (1) Within Zambia no aircraft shall be flown in simulated instrument

flight conditions unless-Flying in simulated instrument flight conditions

(a) the aircraft is equipped with dual controls which are functioning
properly;

(b) a qualified pilot, being the holder of the appropriate pilot's licence
and rating, is carried in the second control seat of the aircraft for the
purpose of rendering such assistance as may be necessary to the person in
command thereof; and

(c) if the field of vision of such qualified pilot is not adequate both
forward and to each side of the aircraft, a competent observer is carried in a
position in the aircraft from which his field of vision adequately supplements
that of the said pilot and from which he can readily communicate with the said
pilot.
(2) When flying within Zambia in visual meterological conditions, no aircraft
shall carry out instrument aerodrome approach practice in simulated instrument
flight conditions unless-

(a) such approach practice is authorised by the appropriate air traffic

control unit; and

(b) the provisions of sub-regulation (1) are complied with.

(3) For the purposes of this regulation, "simulated instrument flight

conditions" means flight conditions where the field of vision of the person in
command of the aircraft has been reduced by means of mechanical, optical or
other devices.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

23. When flying in visual meterological conditions it is the direct

responsibility of the person in command of the aircraft to avoid collision with
other aircraft notwithstanding that the flight is being conducted on an air
traffic control clearance.Avoidance of collision

24. (1) In areas in which regulations for preventing collision at sea or on

water are in force-Aircraft on the water

(a) an aircraft manoeuvring under its own power on the water shall comply
with the said regulations and for this purpose shall be deemed to be a steam
vessel:

Provided that the aircraft shall display only the lights specified in Part X and
not those prescribed for steam vessels in the said regulations and shall not
use, except as provided by paragraph (b), the sound signals specified in the
said regulations nor shall those signals be observed;

(b) in fog, mist, snow or heavy rainstorm, an aircraft on the water shall
make the following signals:

(i) if not anchored or moored, a sound, at intervals of not more than two
minutes, consisting of two blasts each of approximately five seconds' duration
with an interval of approximately one second between them:

Provided that if the aircraft is not equipped for making such sound, it shall
make some other efficient sound at intervals of not more than one minute;

(ii) if at anchor or moored, the rapid ringing of an efficient bell or gong

for approximately five seconds, at intervals of not more than one minute.

(2) An aircraft in flight near or manoeuvring on the surface of the water

shall, as far as possible, keep clear of and avoid impeding the navigation of
all ships, boats, vessels and other craft which are used or capable of being
used as a means of transportation on water.

25. In the event of the failure in an aircraft flying within Zambia of any
light which is required to be displayed in flight, and if the light cannot be
immediately repaired or replaced, such aircraft shall land as soon as it can
safely do so, unless authorised by an air traffic service unit to continue its
flight.
(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Failure of lights

26. Aircraft operating by night within controlled airspaces shall be flown in

accordance with instrument flight rules or as otherwise authorised by the air
traffic control unit.Night flights within controlled airspaces

27. The person in command of an aircraft shall be directly responsible for

the operation of and the maintenance of discipline amongst all persons on board
such aircraft.Authority of person in command of an aircraft

28. Aircraft operating within a flight information region shall comply with
the notified reporting procedures.Compliance with reporting procedures

29. A locally registered aircraft which is undertaking a flight for which the
carriage of radio apparatus is compulsory shall-

(a) maintain two-way radiocommunication with such radio stations as may be

appropriate to the route along which it is flying; and

(b) make such reports as to its position, flight level, course, speed and
other matters pertaining to the safety of air navigation, such as weather and
icing conditions, as the circumstances may require.Locally registered aircraft
equipped with radio apparatus

30. The person in command of an aircraft flying within Zambia-

(a) in sight of the ground and following a line of landmarks, such as a road,
railway, canal, river or electricity transmission lines, shall keep such line of
landmarks-

(i) on his left-hand side at a distance of not less than 900 feet; or

(ii) on his right-hand side at a sufficient distance so as to avoid other

aircraft which may be following the line in accordance with the provisions of
sub-paragraph (1);

(b) and following a track indicated by a directional radio guide shall, as

far as practicable, navigate the aircraft so as to keep the centre line of such
guide on his left.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)Right-hand side traffic

31. (1) The person in command of an aircraft making a flight for which a
flight plan or a notification of flight has been submitted to the appropriate
air traffic control or service unit, as the case may be, shall ensure that
immediately upon landing a notification of his arrival is submitted for
transmission to such unit:Notification of arrival

Provided that if the aircraft has not entered or left Zambia on such flight the
notification shall only be submitted if-

(i) it is required by such unit; or

(ii) a requirement that the notification should be submitted has been

notified for the purposes of this sub-regulation.
(2) The person in command of an aircraft making a flight referred to in
sub-regulation (1) who, prior to or during the flight, has submitted or caused
to be submitted a notification of his intended arrival to the responsible
aviation authority of the aerodrome of his destination and subsequently changes
his destination or makes a detour or landing en route so that arrival at his
destination will be appreciably delayed beyond the time notified shall, by the
most rapid means at his disposal, make known or cause to be made known to that
authority any such alteration.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

32. The person in command of an aircraft shall, as soon as possible, report

to the appropriate air traffic service unit any hazardous flight conditions
encountered by him in the course of a flight, with such details thereof as may
be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft.Hazardous flight conditions

PART IV VISUAL FLIGHT RULESPART IV

VISUAL FLIGHT RULES

33. An aircraft flying within a flight information region shall-

(a) below a height of 1,200 feet above ground level, remain in sight of
ground or water in a flight visibility of at least five nautical miles and clear
of cloud;

(b) above a height of 1,200 feet above ground level, remain at least one
nautical mile horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically from cloud and in a flight
visibility of at least five nautical miles.V.F.R. flight within a flight
information region

34. (1) An aircraft flying within a controlled airspace shall remain at least
one nautical mile horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically from cloud and in a
flight visibility of at least five nautical miles:V.F.R. flight within a
controlled airspace

Provided that in control zones clearance may be granted by the appropriate air
traffic control unit for special V.F.R. flight.

(2) For the purposes of this regulation, "special V.F.R. flight" means a flight
within a control zone carried out in instrument meteorological conditions or at
night, which is subject to prior air traffic control clearance but not to full
instrument flight rules.

35. An aircraft unable to comply with the provisions of this Part shall be
flown in accordance with instrument flight rules.Non-compliance with Part IV

PART V INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULESPART V

INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES

36. The provisions of this Part shall be complied with by an aircraft in

flight-

(a) when the aircraft is flying in instrument meteorological conditions;

(b) when the person in command of the aircraft has elected, in terms of
regulation 10, to fly in accordance with instrument flight rules;

(c) when the aircraft is required, in terms of regulation 26, to fly in

accordance with instrument flight rules.Application of Part V

37. An aircraft flying above a notified height within a flight information

region shall be flown at a flight level appropriate to its magnetic track as
notified.I.F.R. flight within a flight information region

38. (1) Unless a flight plan has been submitted in terms of paragraph (c) of
regulation 8 and has not been cancelled, prior to entering a controlled airspace
the person in command of the aircraft shall submit or cause to be submitted to
the appropriate air traffic control unit a flight plan which shall, unless
otherwise authorised by such control unit, contain particulars as
notified.I.F.R. flight within a controlled airspace

(2) An aircraft flying within a controlled airspace shall be flown in

accordance with the flight plan until-

(a) such flight plan is cancelled in terms of regulation 11; or

(b) otherwise directed by the appropriate air traffic control unit.

39. (1) Unless an air traffic control clearance has been obtained in terms of
paragraph (c) of regulation 8, prior to entering a control area or control zone
the person in command of the aircraft shall obtain from the appropriate air
traffic control unit an air traffic control clearance.I.F.R. flight within a
control area or control zone

(2) An aircraft flying within a control area or control zone shall be flown in
accordance with the air traffic control clearance and, where applicable, shall
follow the notified instrument aerodrome approach procedure for the aerodromes
to be used.

(3) No deviation shall be made from the requirements of the air traffic control
clearance unless an emergency necessitating immediate action arises, in which
case as soon as possible after such action is taken the person in command of the
aircraft shall inform the appropriate air traffic control unit of the deviation
and, if necessary, obtain an amended air traffic control clearance.

40. In the case of an aircraft flying within a control area or control zone-

(a) the pilot in charge of such aircraft shall be qualified for flight under
instrument flight rules in accordance with international standards for personnel
licensing;

(b) if such aircraft is a flying machine, no person shall act as

pilot-in-charge thereof unless there is included in the pilot's licence which he
holds a valid instrument rating;

(c) if such aircraft is a locally registered aircraft, it shall be equipped

with the prescribed instruments and with the notified radio apparatus which
shall be operated by a person who is the holder of a licence authorising him to
operate such apparatus;

(d) if such aircraft is not a locally registered aircraft, it shall be

equipped with the instruments, radio apparatus and radio navigation apparatus
with which it is required, by the laws of the State in which such aircraft is
registered, to be equipped.Qualifications for I.F.R. flight within a control
area or control zone

41. The person in command of an aircraft flying within a control area or

control zone shall be responsible for ensuring that-

(a) a continuous listening watch is maintained on the appropriate radio

frequency; and

(b) the time and flight level of passing each reporting point, together with
any other required information, are reported by radio as soon as possible to the
appropriate air traffic control unit.Radiocommunications

42. In the event of inability to maintain two-way radiocommunication as

required by regulation 41, the person in command of the aircraft shall-

(a) continue the flight to its destination if it is possible to do so by

flying only in visual meteorological conditions; or

(b) follow the notified procedure.Failure of radiocommunications

PART VI AERODROME FLIGHT RULESPART VI

AERODROME FLIGHT RULES

43. (1) The provisions of this Part shall be complied with by aerodrome
traffic operating on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome situated within
Zambia.Application of Part VI

(2) The Director may, where it appears to him to be necessary-

(a) make special rules applicable within the airspace up to 2,000 feet above
the level of a particular aerodrome and within 9,000 feet of the aerodrome
boundaries, or within such other height above or distance from a particular
aerodrome as may be notified;

(b) exclude from such airspace certain classes of aircraft or any aircraft
which cannot conform to such special rules;

(c) temporarily suspend, in respect of a particular aerodrome, the

application of any or all of the provisions of this Part and shall cause such
suspension to be notified and the signal described in sub-regulation (8) of
regulation 53 to be displayed by day at such aerodrome.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

44. (1) The person in command of an aircraft shall, immediately on arrival at

or prior to departure from an aerodrome having an air traffic control unit,
ensure that such control unit is notified of the flight which he has just made
or which he is about to undertake.Arrivals at and departures from an aerodrome

(2) The person in command of an aircraft about to undertake a flight by night

shall ensure that such advance notice of the flight as may be required by the
circumstances of the case is given to the appropriate air traffic control unit
or units in order that the provisions of Part VIII may be complied with at the
aerodromes to be used by the aircraft.
(3) At an aerodrome where there is an air traffic control unit, unless
otherwise authorised by such control unit, two or more aeroplanes shall not land
or take off in formation.

(4) An air traffic control unit may prohibit the departure of an aircraft on a
flight which in its opinion could not be made without contravention of these
Regulations.

(5) An air traffic control unit may, as regards arrivals and departures, give
priority to aeroplanes operating in accordance with an air traffic control
clearance over aeroplanes not so operating.

45. (1) Unless otherwise authorised by the air traffic control unit, an
aeroplane flying less than 2,000 feet above an aerodrome level and within 9,000
feet of the aerodrome boundaries, or flying within such other height above or
distance from a particular aerodrome as may be notified, shall-Aerodrome traffic
rules

(a) fly at least 1,000 feet below and clear of cloud, or as far below cloud
as is consistent with sub-paragraph (ii) of paragraph (b); and

(b) except for the purpose of taking off from or landing at the aerodrome-

(i) Keep the manoeuvring area on its left or follow the procedure authorised
by the air traffic control unit;

(ii) not fly at a height of less than 500 feet above the level of the
manoeuvring area; and

(iii) not fly over the manoeuvring area.

(2) If an aeroplane having taken off from or being about to land at an

aerodrome makes a circuit or partial circuit, the turning shall be made clear of
the manoeuvring area and shall be left-handed, or shall be in conformity with
the procedure authorised by the air traffic control unit.

46. (1) An aeroplane shall land at an aerodrome-Landing rules

(a) by day, in the direction indicated by the landing T or, if no landing T

is displayed, as nearly into wind as practicable;

(b) by night, in the direction indicated by the landing lights described in

Part VIII.

(2) When a dumb-bell signal as shown in the Second Schedule is displayed at a

land aerodrome, an aeroplane shall land upon a runway. Unless otherwise
authorised by the air traffic control unit, an aeroplane shall not land upon a
runway until such runway is clear of other traffic.

(3) At an aerodrome where landings are not confined to a runway-

(a) an aeroplane when landing shall leave clear on its left any aeroplane
which has already landed, is already landing or is about to take off and if,
after landing, it requires to turn, it shall turn to the left after making sure
that such action will not conflict with other traffic movements;
(b) when the landing strip in use is lighted by the method described in
paragraph (b) of regulation 58, an aeroplane shall land parallel to the shaft of
the T and, except in emergency, with the shaft of the T on its left;

Provided that where, on the cross-arm of the T, a light is displayed on one side
of the shaft only landings shall be made on that side.

(4) Before landing at an aerodrome having an air traffic control unit, an

aeroplane which is unable to communicate by radio with such control unit shall,
unless otherwise authorised by such control unit, make a circuit or partial
circuit of the aerodrome for the purpose of observing the traffic and reading
such ground marks and signals as may be displayed in terms of Part VII.

(5) Where in exceptional circumstances by day it is necessary for the safety of

an aeroplane that it should land in a direction other than that indicated by the
landing T, such aeroplane shall not land in such other direction until
authorised by the air traffic control unit.

(6) When an H signal as shown in Part I of the Third Schedule is displayed at a

land aerodrome, a helicopter shall, unless otherwise authorised by the air
traffic control unit, land in the area marked by a ground signal as shown in
Part II of the Third Schedule.

47. (1) At any aerodrome-Landing signals

(a) the firing of a red pyrotechnical light or the display of a red flare
from the ground or a continuous red luminous beam directed at an aeroplane in
flight shall, notwithstanding any previous authorisation to land, constitute an
instruction to such aeroplane that its landing is temporarily prohibited:

Provided that by day the red pyrotechnical light or red flare shall normally be
used in preference to the red luminous beam when, in emergency, it is necessary
to prohibit the landing of an aeroplane which is about to land and which is at a
height of less than 300 feet above the level of the landing area;

(b) an intermittent red luminous beam directed at an aeroplane in flight

shall constitute an instruction to such aeroplane that it should make a landing
elsewhere;

(c) a continuous green luminous beam directed at an aeroplane in flight shall

constitute an authorisation to such aeroplane to land;

(d) an intermittent green luminous beam directed at an aeroplane in flight

shall constitute an instruction to such aeroplane that it shall return to the
aerodrome and await the signal for authorisation to land.

(2) Except in emergency, an aeroplane wishing to land-

(a) by night at an aerodrome notified as having an air traffic control unit

at night; or

(b) by day in a direction other than that indicated by the landing T, unless
otherwise agreed beforehand with the air traffic control unit;

shall, before landing, request authorisation to do so either by radiotelephony

or by means of a green visual signal made by using a lamp or projector, but not
by using its navigation lights. Exceptionally, in the event of an aeroplane
being unable to request authorisation by either of the above methods, it shall
fire a green pyrotechnical light.

(3) The reply to a signal made in terms of sub-regulation (2) shall be given
from the air traffic control unit to the aeroplane either by radiotelephony or
by visual signal:

Provided that, when authorisation to land has been requested by visual signal,
the reply shall always be given by visual signal.

(4) When the reply is given by visual signal, such signal shall be a continuous
luminous beam directed at the aeroplane, and the colour of such beam shall be-

(a) green, if authorisation to land is granted; and

(b) red, if authorisation to land is refused.

(5) By night an aeroplane which has received authorisation to land by visual

signal shall acknowledge such signal by displaying until it lands a steady white
light directed downwards.

(6) When from an aeroplane wishing to land without being compelled to do so

there is seen by night either of the visual signals described in sub-regulation
(1) of regulation 80 indicating that another aircraft is compelled to land, the
aeroplane shall not attempt to land, notwithstanding that it may already have
been authorised to do so, until it has received a fresh authorisation.

48. (1) An aeroplane when taking off from an aerodrome shall normally do so in
the direction indicated for landings. At an aerodrome where by day a black ball
signal is displayed on a mast, the direction in which take-off is to be made
shall be agreed with the air traffic control unit.Take-off rules

(2) When a dumb-bell signal as shown in the Second Schedule is displayed at a

land aerodrome an aeroplane shall, unless otherwise authorised by the air
traffic control unit, take off upon a runway.

(3) At an aerodrome where landings and take-offs are not confined to a runway,
an aeroplane about to take off shall leave clear on its left any aeroplane which
is already taking off or has just taken off.

(4) At an aerodrome notified as having an air traffic control unit, no

aeroplane shall take off unit it has been authorised by such control unit to do
so.

(5) When an H signal as shown in Part I of the Third Schedule is displayed at a

land aerodrome, a helicopter shall, unless otherwise authorised by the air
traffic control unit, take off from the area marked by a ground signal as shown
in Part II of the Third Schedule.

49. (1) The application of the provisions of this regulation to aeroplanes and
water craft manoeuvring under their own power on the water shall be subject to
the provisions of regulation 24.Taxying rules

(2) On the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome-

(a) aeroplanes which are landing or taking off shall be given free way by
other aeroplanes and by vehicles or water craft;
(b) an aeroplane after landing shall move clear of the landing strip in use
as soon as it is possible to do so;

(c) a vehicle or water craft which is towing an aeroplane shall be given free
way by other vehicles and water craft and by aeroplanes which are not landing or
taking off;

(d) an aeroplane shall be given free way by a vehicle or water craft which is
not towing an aeroplane;

(e) an aeroplane, vehicle or water craft which is obliged by the provisions

of this sub-regulation to give free way to another shall, if necessary in the
circumstances in order to do so, reduce its speed or stop.

(3) If on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome danger of collision exists

between an aeroplane, vehicle or water craft and another aeroplane, vehicle or
water craft, then-

(a) if the two are approaching head-on or approximately so, each shall alter
its course to the right;

(b) subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), if the two are on

converging courses, the one which has the other on its right shall give way to
the other and shall avoid crossing ahead of the other unless passing well clear
of it;

(c) if the aeroplane or vehicle is overtaking another aeroplane or vehicle,

the one which is overtaking shall keep out of the way of the other by altering
its course to the left, and no subsequent change in the relative positions of
the two shall release the one which is overtaking from this obligation until it
has passed and is entirely clear of the other.

(4) A vehicle moving along a runway or taxi-way shall as far as practicable

keep to the right-hand side of such runway or taxi-way.

(5) At a land aerodrome no vehicle shall have access to the manoeuvring area
except as may be permitted by the responsible aviation authority at the
aerodrome.

(6) When an aeroplane is being towed, the person in charge of the towing
vehicle or water craft shall be responsible for compliance with the provisions
of this regulation.

(7) At a land aerodrome notified as having an air traffic control unit, the
movements of aeroplanes and vehicles on the manoeuvring area shall be subject to
control by such control unit and no aeroplane or vehicle shall proceed on to the
manoeuvring area, and, in the case where a runway is in use, on to that runway,
until it has been authorised by such control unit to do so.

50. (1) Aerodrome traffic shall be controlled by an air traffic control unit
either by the use of radiotelephony or by the use of any of the following visual
signals directed at the aeroplane or vehicle to which the instruction or
authorisation is to be given:Movement signals

(a) an intermittent green luminous beam to-

(i) instruct an aeroplane in flight to return to the aerodrome and await the
signal for authorisation to land; or

(ii) authorise an aeroplane or vehicle on the manoeuvring area to carry out a

movement, other than taking off;

(b) a continuous green luminous beam to authorise an aeroplane to land or

take off;

(c) an intermittent red luminous beam to-

(i) instruct an aeroplane in flight to land elsewhere; or

(ii) instruct an aeroplane or vehicle which has moved on to the landing strip
in use to move clear of such landing strip immediately;

(d) subject to the proviso to paragraph (a) of sub-regulation (1) of

regulation 47, a continous red luminous beam to in-struct an aeroplane or
vehicle that landing, taking off or any movement on the manoeuvring area is
temporarily prohibited;

(e) an intermittent white luminous beam, preceded when necessary by a

continuous red luminous beam, to instruct an aeroplane or vehicle which has
moved on to the manoeuvring area to return to the place from which it started.

(2) By day to indicate to aircraft on the manoeuvring area that aerodrome

traffic is subject to control by means of the movement signals described in
sub-regulation (1), the signal described in sub-regulation (7) of regulation 53
shall be displayed at or near the position of the air traffic control unit so as
to be clearly visible to such aircraft.

PART VII GROUND MARKS AND SIGNALS BY DAY AT AERODROMESPART VII

GROUND MARKS AND SIGNALS BY DAY AT AERODROMES

51. (1) The provisions of this Part shall be complied with by day at a land
aerodrome which is a licensed aerodrome or a Government aerodrome notified as
available for use by civil aircraft.Application of Part VII

(2) The Director may, where it appears to him to be necessary, suspend in

respect of a particular aerodrome the application of any or all of the
provisions of this Part and shall cause such suspension to be notified.

52. (1) The provisions of this regulation shall be complied with whenever
aircraft are making or may be expected to make use of the aerodrome.Ground marks
and signals at all aerodromes in use

(2) The direction of the surface wind shall be clearly indicated by a wind
sleeve. Any other method of wind indication may be used in addition.

(3) The manoeuvring area shall as far as possible be kept free from
obstructions. Any obstruction on the manoeuvring area shall be indicated by
aerodrome markings clearly visible to aircraft, whether on the manoeuvring area
or in flight.

(4) Any area set apart as a parking area shall be situated so as to be clear of
the landing strip in use and so as not to interfere with the normal movements of
aircraft manoeuvring on the ground.

(5) At an aerodrome where the manoeuvring area is not confined to runways and
taxi-ways-

(a) the boundaries of the landing area shall be indicated by boundary markers
as shown in the Fourth Schedule so as to be clearly visible to aircraft, whether
on the manoeuvring area or in flight;

(b) if part of the manoeuvring area becomes unfit for use, such part shall be
delimited by-

(i) markings or flags; and

(ii) warning crosses as shown in the Fifth Schedule;

so that such delimitation is clearly visible to aircraft, whether on the

manoeuvring area or in flight.

(6) At an aerodrome which has one or more runways there shall be displayed at
each extremity of a runway which becomes unfit for use a warning cross as shown
in the Fifth Schedule so as to be clearly visible to aircraft, whether on the
manoeuvring area or in flight.

(7) When aeroplanes are required to land and take off on a runway-

(a) there shall be displayed horizontally in the signal area a dumb-bell

signal as shown in Part I of the Second Schedule;

(b) if the manoeuvring area is not confined to runways and taxi-ways, there
may be displayed in the signal area, in place of the signal referred to in
paragraph (a), a dumb-bell signal as shown in Part II of the Second Schedule.

(8) At an aerodrome which is open for use by aeroplanes and helicopters, when
an area is set aside for the take-off and landing of helicopters-

(a) an H signal as shown in Part I of the Third Schedule shall be displayed

in the signal area;

(b) the centre of such area shall be marked by a ground signal as shown in
Part II of the Third Schedule; and

(c) if such area forms part of the landing area for aeroplanes, its
boundaries, unless otherwise clearly defined, shall be indicated by boundary
markers as shown in the Fourth Schedule so as to be clearly visible to aircraft,
whether on the manoeuvring area or in flight.

(9) Whenever any of the provisions of this regulation cannot be complied with,
the signal to prohibit all landings referred to in sub-regulation (10) of
regulation 53 shall be displayed.

53. (1) The Director may establish an air traffic control unit at any
aerodrome where in his opinion such a course is necessary. He may apply to such
aerodrome any or all of the provisions of this regulation which shall be
complied with to such extent as they are so applied.Ground marks and signals at
aerodromes having an air traffic control unit
(2) A landing T shall be displayed in the signal area.

(3) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulations (4) and (5), every landing T
shall be placed so as to indicate the direction in which aircraft shall land and
take off in order to take advantage of the most favourable conditions available
at the time for these manoeuvres. The shaft of the T shall be set parallel to
the direction in which aircraft are to land or take off and the end of the shaft
at which the cross-arm is set shall indicate the direction in which such
land-ing or take-off is to be made. When a runway is to be used for landings and
take-offs, the shaft of the T shall be set parallel to such runway.

(4) Where the natural conditions do not permit landings and take-offs to be
made in the same direction, the landing T shall indicate the direction for
landing, and there shall be displayed-

(a) on a mast, so as to be clearly visible to aircraft on the manoeuvring

area, a black ball two feet in diameter; and

(b) alongside the cross-arm of the landing T and in line with the shaft
thereof, a disc two feet in diameter and of the same colour as the landing T;

to indicate to aircraft that the directions of landing and take-off do not

coincide.

(5) In circumstances liable to be prolonged when a single direction of landing

and take-off is not suitable for all types of aircraft using the aerodrome-

(a) the ground marks and signals referred to in sub-regulations (4) and (11)
shall be displayed; and

(b) a landing or take-off in a direction other than that indicated by the

landing T shall be authorised by the air traffic control unit.

(6) To indicate to aircraft on the manoeuvring area the direction in which

aircraft are to take off, one or more sets of two figures, denoting the magnetic
direction of the take-off in units of ten degrees to the nearest ten degrees,
may be displayed vertically at or near the position of the air traffic control
unit so as to be clearly visible to such aircraft.

(7) To indicate to aircraft on the manoeuvring area that aerodrome traffic is

subject to control by means of the movement signals described in sub-regulation
(1) of regulation 50, a rectangular flag or vertical board having 12 equal
squares arranged in sets of four squares horizontally and three vertically, and
coloured red and yellow alternately, shall be displayed at or near the position
of the air traffic control unit so as to be clearly visible to such aircraft.

(8) When the Director, in terms of paragraph (c) of sub-regulation (2) of

regulation 43, temporarily suspends, in respect of a particular aerodrome, the
application of any or all of the provisions of Part VI there shall be displayed
horizontally in the signal area of such aerodrome a red square panel not less
than ten feet square.

(9) If-

(a) during any suspension in terms of paragraph (c) of sub-regulation (2) of

regulation 43, it is also provided that; or
(b) without any such suspension, the air traffic control unit requires that;

an aircraft flying within the aerodrome traffic circuit is to keep the

manoeuvring area on its right and that the circuit or partial circuit is to be
right-handed, the signal area shall, along each of two adjacent sides, be
bordered by a rectangular panel, not less than three feet wide, and at the
extremity of one of the rectangular panels there shall be displayed, in such a
manner as to indicate a right-hand circuit, an equilateral triangle. Such panels
and triangle shall be coloured with red and yellow bands.

(10) When special circumstances necessitate a prolonged prohibition of landing

there shall be displayed horizontally in the signal area a red square panel, not
less than ten feet square, with two yellow strips, not less than 20 inches wide,
arranged diagonally across such panel in the form of an X.

(11) When the observance of special precautions in approaching to land or

landing is required there shall be displayed horizontally in the signal area a
red square panel, not less than ten feet square, with one yellow strip, not less
than 20 inches wide, arranged diagonally across such panel.

(12) When landings by means of a radio guide are taking or about to take place
there may be displayed on a mast, so as to be clearly visible to aircraft on the
manoeuvring area, a yellow triangular equilateral pyramid, with each side not
less than six feet.

(13) At an aerodrome situated within a control zone, when con-ditions of cloud

or visibility are such that flights to and from such aerodrome cannot be made
under visual flight rules except with the consent of the air traffic control
unit, a flashing amber light may be displayed at or near the position of the air
traffic control unit.

(14) There shall be displayed vertically, so as to be clearly visible to

aircraft on the manoeuvring area which have landed or are about to depart, in a
position at or near the air traffic control unit referred to in sub-regulation
(1) of regulation 44, the letter C in black against a yellow background.

54. (1) The provisions of this regulation shall be complied with when gliders
are making use of or may be expected to make use of the aerodrome.Ground marks
and signals at aerodromes where glider flights are in progress

(2) Unless otherwise authorised by the Director, an area within the aerodrome
shall be set apart for the dropping of tow ropes and shall be situated so as to
be clear of all obstructions and of the landing strip in use by a distance of
not less than 500 feet measured outwards from the boundaries of such area and so
as to lie, when viewed in the direction of landing, on the right-hand side of
the aerodrome. Such area shall be-

(a) rectangular in shape, having sides of not less than 600 feet and 300 feet
respectively; and

(b) so orientated that the longer side lies parallel to the direction in
which landings and take-offs are to be made.

(3) The centre of the area set apart in terms of sub-regulation (2) for the
dropping of tow ropes shall be marked by a yellow cross displayed horizontally
and clearly visible to aircraft in flight.
(4) At an aerodrome open to use by aeroplanes there shall be displayed-

(a) on a mast, so as to be clearly visible to aircraft on the manoeuvring

area, two red balls, one above the other and separated by a distance equal to
their diameter; and

(b) horizontally in the signal area a double cross as shown in the Sixth
Schedule.

PART VIII NIGHT LIGHTING AT AERODROMESPART VIII

NIGHT LIGHTING AT AERODROMES

55. (1) The provisions of this Part shall be complied with by night at any
aerodrome which is a licensed aerodrome or a Government aerodrome notified as
available for use by civil aircraft whenever aircraft are making use of or may
be expected to make use of such aerodrome by night:Application of Part VIII

Provided that at a water aerodrome the provisions of this Part shall be complied
with only in so far as compliance therewith is practicable in the circumstances.

(2) The Director may, where it appears to him to be necessary, suspend in

respect of a particular aerodrome, the application of any or all of the
provisions of this Part and shall cause such suspension to be notified.

56. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), steady red lights
shall be displayed on all obstructions-Lighting of obstructions

(a) within the manoeuvring area;

(b) within the approach way; and

(c) in the vicinity of the aerodrome which, in the opinion of the Director,
constitute a danger to aircraft in flight.

(2) Flashing red lights may be displayed to mark particularly dangerous or

extensive obstructions.

57. The landing strip or, where landings and take-offs are made on parallel
runways, the landing strips which afford the most favourable conditions for the
landing or take-off of an aeroplane at the time of using the aerodrome, having
regard to the strength and direction of the wind and all other relevant
circumstances, shall be lighted by steady lights in the manner described in
regulation 58 or 59 as may be appropriate and no other part of the manoeuvring
area shall be so lighted at the same time, except for such lights as may be
necessary for guiding aeroplanes manoeuvring on the ground.Lighting for landings
and take-offs

58. At an aerodrome where a runway is not being used for landing or take-off
the landing strip in use shall be lighted by one of the following methods:

(a) by floodlights, with white boundary lights spaced 300 feet apart along
the boundary of the aerodrome;

(b) by fixed lights in the form of a T, in which case-Lighting at non-runway

aerodromes
(i) the shaft of the T shall be not less than 1,500 feet in length and shall
be composed of at least six lights spaced not more than 300 feet apart along a
line parallel to the axis of the landing strip;

(ii) the cross-arm of the T shall be composed of three lights and shall be
formed by displaying a light on either side of the light at the head of the
shaft:

Provided that, if an area on one side of the shaft becomes obstructed, the light
required to be displayed on that side so as to form the cross-arm shall not be
displayed;

(iii) the light at the foot of the T shall indicate the

point where aircraft should touch down and the cross-arm shall indicate where
the run should be completed;

(iv) the colour of the lights shall be white with white boundary lights
spaced 300 feet apart along the boundary of the aerodrome;

(c) by two lines of fixed lights, in which case-

(i) each line shall extend the full available length of and parallel to the
axis of the landing strip and shall be composed of at least six lights spaced
not more than 300 feet apart;

(ii) the distance between the lines shall be not more than 400 feet and not
less than 150 feet;

(iii) the lights in one line shall be arranged in pairs with those in the
opposite line, each pair being at right angles to the axis of the landing strip;

(iv) the colour of the lights shall be-

A. white throughout the full length of the lines; or

B. in the direction of take-off and landing, white for the first two-thirds
and yellow for the remaining one-third of the length of the lines.

59. At an aerodrome where a runway is being used for landing or take-off-

(a) such runway shall be lighted along its edges by two lines of fixed
lights, in which case-Lighting at runway aerodromes

(i) each line shall extend the full length of the runway and shall be
composed of at least six lights spaced not more than 300 feet apart;

(ii) the lights in one line shall be arranged in pairs with those in the
opposite line, each pair being at right angles to the axis of the runway:

Provided that, in the case of a runway exceeding 150 feet in width, the lights
may be inset in lines parallel to the edges of such runway;

(b) the approach end of such runway may be indicated by angle of approach
lights or runway threshold lights.

60. On request from the person in command of an aeroplane a floodlight, if

available, may be used to supplement the lighting of the landing strip or runway
in use.Supplementary lighting

61. (1) At an aerodrome where glider operations are to take place and where a
runway is not being used for the landing of gliders-Lighting at aerodromes where
glider flights are in progress

(a) the landing strip in use shall be lighted by the method described in
paragraph (b) of regulation 58; and

(b) a double cross as shown in the Sixth Schedule shall be illuminated and
displayed at the approach end and, when viewed in the direction of landing, on
the left-hand side of the zone reserved for the landing of gliders.

(2) At an aerodrome where glider operations are to take place and a runway is
being used for the landing of gliders-

(a) the edges of each runway shall be lighted by the method described in
regulation 59; and

(b) a double cross as shown in the Sixth Schedule shall be illuminated and
displayed at the approach end and, when viewed in the direction of landing, on
the left-hand side of such runway.

62. (1) The landing T shall be illuminated with fixed white lights and shall
be orientated so as to indicate the direction of landing.Lighting of ground
marks

(2) At an aerodrome where the method of lighting described in paragraph (c) of

regulation 58 or in regulation 59 is in use, the landing T shall be placed at
the approach extremity and, when viewed in the direction of landing, on the
left-hand side of the line of lights.

(3) At an aerodrome open to use by aeroplanes and where glider flights are in
progress, a double cross as shown in the Sixth Schedule shall be illuminated
with fixed white lights and shall be displayed at the approach end and, when
viewed in the direction of landing, on the left-hand side of the runway or of
the zone reserved for the landing of gliders, as the case may be.

(4) The centre of the area set apart in terms of sub-regulation (2) of
regulation 54 for the dropping of tow ropes shall be marked by three red or
white lights arranged in the form of an equilateral triangle.

63. The approach way shall be marked by-

(a) an approved system of lighting; or

(b) an angle of approach light placed beside and not less than 100 yards from
the approach extremity of the landing strip in use which, when viewed in the
direction of landing, is on the left-hand side of such landing strip. A second
angle of approach light may be placed opposite the first on the right-hand side
of the landing strip.Approach lighting

64. (1) Taxi-ways in use shall be lighted by means of fixed lights

spaced-Taxi-way and manoeuvring area lighting

(a) along the edges of such taxi-ways, in which case the colour of such
lights shall be-
(i) blue along both edges of the taxi-way; or

(ii) blue along one edge of the taxi-way and yellow along the other; or

(b) down the centre of such taxi-ways, in which case the colour of such
lights shall be green.

(2) At an aerodrome where the manoeuvring area is not confined to runways and
taxi-ways-

(a) paths for guiding aircraft manoeuvring on the ground to or from the
landing strip in use shall be marked by either of the methods referred to in
sub-regulation (1); or

(b) white lights shall be used to mark the boundary of the manoeuvring area:

Provided that, where there is an obstruction or obstructions on such boundary,

the lights marking the obstruction or obstructions, as the case may be, may
serve to mark that particular part or parts of such boundary.

65. An identification beacon, if provided, shall be located on an approved

position on the aerodrome and shall flash in a green light in morse code the two
letters which have been notified as the letters for that particular
aerodrome.Identification beacon

PART IX GLIDER FLIGHT RULESPART IX

GLIDER FLIGHT RULES

66. (1) The provisions of this Part shall be complied with by gliders and by
aircraft or vehicles towing gliders on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome which
is a licensed aerodrome or a Government aerodrome notified as available for use
by civil aircraft.Application of Part IX

(2) The Director may, where it appears to him to be necessary, suspend in

respect of a particular aerodrome, the application of any or all of the
provisions of this Part and shall cause such suspension to be notified.

(3) For the purposes of this Part, when a glider is being towed by an aeroplane
or by a vehicle, the combination shall be regarded as a single aircraft or
vehicle and the person in command of the aeroplane or vehicle towing shall be
the person in charge of the tow and responsible for compliance with these
Regulations. When there is more than one aeroplane or vehicle engaged in towing,
the person in charge of one of such aeroplanes or vehicles shall, by arrangement
with the person or persons in charge of the other aeroplane or vehicle, or the
other aeroplanes or vehicles so engaged, be designated as the person in charge
of the tow and shall be responsible for compliance with these Regulations and
the person or persons in charge of the other towing aeroplane or vehicle, or
aeroplanes or vehicles, shall conform to the movements and instructions of the
persons in charge of the tow.

67. Except in emergency, a glider shall not be manoeuvred, towed into flight
or land at an aerodrome used by other classes of aircraft without the permission
of the air traffic control unit or, in the absence of such control unit, of the
person in charge of the aerodrome and, if any conditions considered necessary
for the safety of aerodrome traffic have been made in granting such permission,
without complying with such conditions.Permission to use certain aerodromes
necessary

68. (1) When one or more gliders is or are about to be towed into flight by an
aeroplane, there shall be appointed by arrangement between the persons in
command of the aircraft concerned a suitable person to take charge of the
operation as a whole, who shall decide suitable signals and station other
persons in suitable positions so that he and the persons in command of all the
aircraft concerned shall be in effective communication with each other during
the preparations for and the initial stages of the take-off.Towing rules

(2) Unless otherwise specially authorised in writing by the Director, the

length of tow measured from the rearmost part of the towing aircraft to the most
forward part of the glider, or of the rearmost glider if more than one, which it
is towing shall not exceed 1,000 feet.

(3) The rope by which a glider is being towed in or into flight shall normally
be released at the point of attachment to the glider by the person in command of
the glider, but provision shall also be made for the release of the rope in
emergency by the person in charge of the towing aircraft at the point of
attachment of the rope to the towing aircraft.

(4) Save in emergency, the person in command of a glider which is being towed
by an aeroplane shall not release the tow rope without the knowledge and consent
of the person in charge of the tow.

(5) Save in emergency, a glider which is being towed by an aeroplane in the

vicinity of an aerodrome having an air traffic control unit shall not, except
with the consent of such control unit, be released for the purpose of landing on
that aerodrome unless it is in such a position and at such a height as will
enable it to land on that aerodrome in the place appointed for the purpose by
manoeuvring in conformity with the provisions of Part VI.

69. Unless otherwise authorised by the air traffic control unit or, in the
absence of such control unit, by the person in charge of the aerodrome, an
aeroplane which has been towing a glider or gliders, as the case may be, shall
drop any tow rope which it has used-

(a) in the area set apart in terms of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 54 for
the dropping of tow ropes and marked in terms of sub-regulation (3) of
regulation 54 or sub-regulation (4) of regulation 62; and

(b when flying in the direction in which landings and take-offs are to be

made and at a height above ground level of not less than two-thirds of the
length of the tow rope.Dropping of tow ropes

70. (1) By day at an aerodrome where a runway is being used, subject to

instructions from the air traffic control unit or, in the absence of such
control unit, from the person in charge of the aerodrome-Glider landing and
take-off rules

(a) an aeroplane when taking off with a glider in tow or when landing shall
use the appropriate runway for such take-off and landing;

(b) a glider shall land upon the runway or the adjoining grass area;

(c) glider manoeuvring on the landing area may be made upon the runway or the
adjoining grass area.

(2) By night at an aerodrome where a runway is not being used and the landing
strip in use is lighted by the method described in paragraph (b) of regulation
58, subject to the instructions from the air traffic control unit or, in the
absence of such control unit, from the person in charge of the aerodrome-

(a) an aeroplane when taking off with a glider in tow or when landing shall
take off and land parallel to the shaft of the T and, except in emergency, with
the shaft of the T on its left;

(b) a glider shall land parallel to the shaft of the T and, except in
emergency, with the shaft of the T on its right.

(3) By night when a glider is being towed by an aeroplane in the vicinity of an

aerodrome, the visual signal to request authorisation for the glider to land may
be sent either by the aeroplane or by the glider. Such signal shall be composed
of-

(a) the last three letters or figures, as the case may be, of the
registration mark of the aeroplane, followed by the letter G; or

(b) the letter G.

(4) The visual signal authorising the glider to land shall consist of a
repetition of the signal sent in terms of sub-regulation (3).

PART X LIGHTS AND OTHER OBJECTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFTPART X

LIGHTS AND OTHER OBJECTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFT

71. (1) The provisions of this Part shall be complied with by aircraft within
Zambia:Application of Part X

Provided that an aircraft registered elsewhere than in Zambia may display, in

place of the lights or objects required by this Part, the lights or objects
specified in the relevant International Standards published by the International
Civil Aviation Organisation for the time being in force.

(2) A locally registered aircraft shall, when it is within a territory other

than Zambia, show the lights or objects which it would be required to show if it
was within Zambia, unless the law of such territory otherwise provides.

(3) Nothing in this regulation shall interfere with-

(a) the operation of any special rules made by any State with respect to
additional signal or station lights for military aircraft, aircraft exclusively
employed in the service of the State or aircraft in group formation; or

(b the exhibition of recognition signals adopted by owners of aircraft which

have been authorised by their respective governments and duly published.

72. (1) For the purposes of this Part, unless the context otherwise
requires-Interpretation of terms in Part X

(a) an aircraft shall be deemed to be "on the surface of the water" when any
part of the aircraft is in contact with the water;
(b) an aircraft in flight or on the surface of the water shall be deemed to
be "under way" when it is not moored to the ground or to any fixed object on the
land or in the water;

(c) an aircraft under way in flight or on the surface of the water shall be
deemed to be "making way" when it has a velocity relative to the air or water
respectively;

(d) an aircraft shall be deemed not to be "under command" when it is unable

to execute a manoeuvre required in respect of it by these Regulations or by any
regulations for preventing collisions at sea or on water;

(e) "visible", in relation to lights, means visible on a dark night with a

clear atmosphere;

(f) "plane of symmetry", in relation to an aircraft, means the plane of

symmetry passing through the longitudinal axis of the aircraft;

(g) the angular limits for lights laid down shall be determined when the
aircraft is in its normal attitude for flying on a rectilinear horizontal
course.

(2) Where, owing to difficulty in producing lamps to meet the requirements of

this Part, an overlap of sector lights is unavoidable, the overlap shall be kept
as small as possible. There shall be no sector in which no light is visible.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963)

73. (1) By night a flying machine in flight or on the manoeuvring area of a

land aerodrome shall, unless within a suitably marked or lighted parking or
marshalling area, display the following lights:Flying machines on land or in
flight

(a) an unobstructed green light having an intensity of at least 5 candles

showing to the starboard side through an angle of 110 degrees from dead ahead in
its horizontal plane;

(b) an unobstructed red light having an intensity of at least 5 candles

showing to the port side through an angle of 110 degrees from dead ahead in its
horizontal plane; and

(c) an unobstructed white light having an intensity of at least 5 candles

showing astern through angles of 70 degrees from dead astern to each side in its
horizontal plane.

(2) The lights required by sub-regulation (1) shall either all be steady lights
or all be flashing lights flashing together:

Provided that after the 1st January, 1958, they shall all be flashing lights if
the flying machine has a maximum total weight exceeding 12,500 lb. authorised in
its certificate of airworthiness.

(3) If the lights required by sub-regulation (1) are flashing lights, the
flying machine shall also display an unobstructed white light having an
intensity of at least 20 candles, showing in all directions so far as is
reasonably practicable and flashing alternately with the said lights required by
sub-regulation (1).

(4) If the lamp giving either the green or the red light is fitted more than 6
feet from the wing tip, a lamp may be fitted at the extremity of the wing tip to
indicate its position, giving a steady light of the same colour and showing
through the same angle, so far as is reasonably practicable.

(5) Where by this regulation a light is required to show through a specified

angle or specified angles in the horizontal plane, the lamp or lamps giving such
light shall be so constructed that the light is visible through angles of 90
degrees above and below the horizontal plane but, so far as is reasonably
practicable, through no greater angles.

74. (1) By night a flying machine under way on the surface of the water shall
display lights as follows:Flying machines on the water

(a) if it is under command and is not being towed, it shall display-

(i) steady lights as specified in sub-regulation (1) of regulation 73; and

(ii) forward, a steady white light fixed so as to show forward an unbroken

light, having an intensity of at least 7 candles, through a dihedral angle of
220 degrees formed by two vertical planes and bisected by the plane of symmetry
of the aircraft;

(b) if it is being towed, it shall display steady lights as specified in

sub-regulation (1) of regulation 73;

(c) if it is not under command, it shall display two steady red lights placed
where they can best be seen, one vertically above the other and not less than 3
feet apart, with both having an intensity of at least 5 candles, and it shall
also display-

(i) if it is making way, steady lights as specified in sub-regulation (1) of

regulation 73;

(ii) if it is not making way, a steady light as specified in paragraph (c) of

sub-regulation (1) of regulation 73;

(d) if it is towing another aircraft, it shall display-

(i) steady lights as specified in sub-regulation (1) of regulation 73; and

(ii) forward, two steady white lights placed where they can best be seen, one
vertically above the other and not less than 6 feet apart, with both having an
intensity of at least 7 candles and showing through a dihedral angle of 220
degrees formed by two vertical planes and bisected by the plane of symmetry of
the aircraft.

(2) By night a flying machine at anchor or moored on the surface of the water
shall display lights as follows:

(a) in every case, it shall display forward centrally where it can best be
seen a steady white light having an intensity of at least 5 candles:

Provided that, where the length of the flying machine is 150 feet or more, such
light shall have an intensity of at least 7 candles; and
(b) where the length of the flying machine is 150 feet or more, it shall
display at or near its stern, at a lower height than the forward light specified
in paragraph (a), a steady white light having an intensity of at least 7
candles; and

(c) where the maximum lateral dimension of the flying machine is 150 feet or
more, it shall display on each side and placed in such a manner as to demarcate
the maximum lateral dimension of the flying machine, a steady white light having
an intensity of at least one candle.

(3) By day a flying machine under way on the surface of the water and not under
command shall display where they can best be seen two black balls or discs, each
not less than 2 feet in diameter spaced vertically one above the other and not
less than 3 feet apart.

75. A vehicle engaged in towing aircraft and an aircraft under tow on the
manoeuvring area of a land aerodrome shall display such lights as may be
notified.Towing vehicles and aircraft under tow

76. By night a glider in flight or on the manoeuvring area of a land

aerodrome shall, unless within a suitably marked or lighted parking or
marshalling area, display-

(a) a red light visible so far as practicable in all directions; or

(b) lights as specified in regulation 73.Gliders

77. By night a free balloon shall display a red light placed not less than 15
nor more than 30 feet below the basket and visible so far as practicable in all
directions at a distance of not less than two and a half nautical miles.Free
balloons

78. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), by night an airship

when under way shall display the following lights:Airships

(a) forward, a white light fixed so as to show forward an unbroken light

visible at a distance of at least 5 nautical miles, through a dihedral angle of
220 degrees formed by two vertical planes and bisected by the plane of symmetry
of the aircraft;

(b) on the starboard side, a green light fixed so as to show an unbroken

light visible at a distance of at least 5 nautical miles, through a dihedral
angle of 110 degrees formed by two vertical planes, of which one is parallel to
the plane of symmetry of the aircraft and directed dead ahead, and the other is
directed to the right;

(c) on the port side, a red light fixed so as to show an un-broken light
visible at a distance of at least 5 nautical miles, through a dihedral angle of
110 degrees formed by two vertical planes, of which one is parallel to the plane
of symmetry of the aircraft and directed dead ahead, and the other is directed
to the left; and

(d) at the rear, a white light fixed so as to show astern an unbroken light
visible at a distance of at least 3 nautical miles, through a dihedral angle of
140 degrees formed by two vertical planes and bisected by the plane of symmetry
of the aircraft.
Where in order to comply with the provisions of this sub-regulation a single
light has to be replaced by several lights, the field of visibility of each of
these lights shall be so limited that only one can be seen at a time.

(2) By night an airship which-

(a) is under way and not under command; or

(b) has voluntarily stopped its engines; or

(c) is being towed;

shall display-

(i) lights as specified in paragraphs (a) and (d) of sub-regulation (1);

(ii) below the airship, two red lights placed vertically one below the other
12 feet apart, the upper light being 25 feet below the control car, and both
being visible, so far as practicable, in all directions at a distance of not
less than two and a half nautical miles; and

(iii) if the airship is making way but not otherwise, lights as specified in
paragraphs (b) and (c) of sub-regulation (1).

(3) By day an airship in the circumstances mentioned in sub-regulation (2)

shall display two black balls or discs each at least two feet in diameter,
placed vertically one below the other 12 feet apart, the upper one being 25 feet
below the control car and both being visible, so far as practicable, in all
directions. Where necessary, in order to comply with this provision, the said
two black balls or discs may be duplicated.

PART XI INTERNATIONAL SIGNALS OF DISTRESSPART XI

INTERNATIONAL SIGNALS OF DISTRESS

79. (1) Nothing in this regulation shall prevent the use by an aircraft in
distress of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its
position and obtain help.Distress signals

(2) When an aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests
immediate assistance, before the sending of a message, the following signals
shall be used or displayed, either together or separately:

(a) by visual signalling-

(i) the signal S.O.S. in morse code with signalling apparatus;

(ii) a succession of pyrotechnical lights fired at short intervals each

showing a single red light;

(iii) the two-flag signal corresponding to the letters NC of the

International Code of Signals;

(iv) the distant signal, consisting of a square flag having either above or
below it a ball or anything resembling a ball:
(b) by sound signalling-

(i) the signal S.O.S. in morse code with any sound apparatus;

(ii) a continuous sounding with any sound apparatus.

80. (1) When an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it
to land without requiring immediate assistance, before the sending of a message,
the following visual signals shall be used, either together or
separately:Urgency signals

(a) by day, a succession of white pyrotechnical lights;

(b) by night, a succession of white pyrotechnical lights or a repeated

switching on and off of the lights displayed by aircraft in such a manner as to
be clearly distinguishable from the flashing lights described in sub-regulations
(2) and (3) of regulation 73.

(2) When an aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the
safety of the aircraft or of any person on board or within range of assistance
of such aircraft or the safety of another aircraft or of any ship or vehicle,
before the sending of the message, the following visual signals shall be used,
either together or separately:

(a) a succession of green pyrotechnical lights;

(b) a succession of green flashes made with signalling apparatus.

PART XII OFFENCESPART XII

OFFENCES

81. An aircraft shall not be operated in a negligent manner or in a reckless

manner so as to endanger life or property.Dangerous flying

82. (1) Where any signal is authorised or required by these Regulations to be

used for a particular purpose, no person in an aircraft or on or in the vicinity
of an aerodrome shall make such signal except for that particular
purpose.Wrongful making of signals

(2) No person in an aircraft or on of in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall-

(a) make any signal which may be confused with a signal made in terms of
these Regulations;

(b) without lawful authority make any naval, military or air force signal.

83. No person on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall exhibit any light

which may endanger the safety of aircraft, whether by reason of glare or by
causing confusion with or preventing clear visual reception of the lights or
signals authorised or required by these Regulations to be displayed.

Dangerous lights

FIRST SCHEDULE

(Regulation 2)
LANDING T

The colour of the T shall normally be white but this may be varied if the
background is of such character that alteration of the colour would give
improved visibility from the air.
SECOND SCHEDULE

(Regulations 46 (2), 48 (2) and 52 (7))

DUMB-BELL SIGNAL

PART I

The colour of the dumb-bell shall be white.

PART II

The colour of the dumb-bell shall be white with a black strip placed across each
circular disc at right angles to the shaft of the dumb-bell.

THIRD SCHEDULE

(Regulations 46 (6), 48 (5) and 52 (8))

PART I

H SIGNAL

PART II

GROUND SIGNAL

FOURTH SCHEDULE

(Regulation 52 (5) and (8))

BOUNDARY MARKER

FIFTH SCHEDULE

(Regulation 52 (5) and (6))

WARNING CROSS

The colour of the cross shall be white.

SIXTH SCHEDULE

(Regulations 54 (4), 61 and 62 (3))

DOUBLE CROSS

The colour of the double cross shall be white.

SECTION 4-THE CIVIL AIR ENSIGN REGULATIONS

Regulations by the MinisterStatutory Instrument

193 of 1965

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil Air Ensign Regulations.Title

2. The ensign of which the design and description are set out in the Schedule
is hereby established and shall be called the "Civil Air Ensign".Establishment
of the Civil Air Ensign

3. The Civil Air Ensign shall be flown subject to the provisions of the Air
Navigation Regulations.

Air Navigation Regulations

SCHEDULE

(Regulation 2)

CIVIL AIR ENSIGN

SECTION 21 (2)-APPLICATION

The provisions of the Act shall not apply to-

(a) aircraft or aerodromes belonging to, or for the time being in use
exclusively by, the Defence Force;

(b) aircraft or aerodromes belonging to, or in the service of, the

Government, while used exclusively for military purposes.

Federal Government Notice

250 of 1954
Government Notice
497 of 1964

REGULATION 9 OF THE AIR NAVIGATION REGULATIONS-THE AVIATION (EXEMPTION OF

GLIDERS) NOTICE

Notice by the MinisterFederal Government Notice

259 of 1959
Government Notice
387 of 1963
Statutory Instrument
153 of 1965

1. This Notice may be cited as the Aviation (Exemption of Gliders)

Notice.Title

2. Gliders are hereby exempted from the provisions of Parts II, III, IV, V,
VI, VII and XII of the Air Navigation Regulations, subject to the following
conditions:
(a) this exemption shall not apply to any glider being flown outside Zambia;

(b) this exemption shall not apply to any glider being used for purposes of
public transport or aerial work;

(c) there shall be in force in respect of the glider a policy of insurance

issued by a person autorised to carry on insurance business in terms of the
Insurance Act, which, subject to any restrictions or conditions specified
therein, insures the owner of the glider against all liability which he may
incur in respect of loss or damage caused to persons or property on land or
water or in the air by, or by any person in, or any article or person falling
from, the glider while in flight, taking off or landing, and the amount of
liability to be covered by such policy shall be not less than K4,000 in respect
of loss or damage caused on any one occasion.

(As amended by G.N. No. 387 of 1963 and

S.I. No. 153 of 1965)Exemption from certain provisions of the Air Navigation
Regulations
Cap. 705

SECTION 4 (REGULATION 118)-THE AVIATION (AERODROME FEES) REGULATIONS.Statutory

Instrument No.
487 of 1985
S.I. No. 65 of 1987

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Aerodrome Fees)

Regulations.Title

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"domestic flight" means a flight which originates and terminates within Zambia
without landing at any place outside Zambia;

"international flight" means a flight which originates within Zambia for a

destination outside Zambia or which originates outside Zambia and terminates in
Zambia;

"scheduled aerodrome" means any aerodrome set out in the First Schedule;

"weight" means the maximum permissible take-off weight of an aircraft as stated

in the certificate of airworthiness or the flight manual of the aircraft.

3. (1) Subject to the provisions of regulations 8, 9 and 10, a landing charge

shall be levied and shall become payable in accordance with the weight of the
aircraft landing at any scheduled aerodrome at the rates fixed in the Second
Schedule.Day landing charges

(2) Landing charges shall be divided into two categories according to whether
the flight is a domestic flight or an international flight.

(3) Training flights, aircraft belonging to commercial firms, scheduled

airlines or charter operators licensed by the Minister being used on local
flights for the purpose of flying practice or training of aircrew employed by
such operators shall be charged one landing fee for every two hours of training
regardless of the number of touch and go landings made during that period at a
scheduled aerodrome:
Provided that the operator shall give, to the aerodrome authority at the
scheduled aerodrome concerned, adequate notice of his intended flight.

(As amended by S.I. No. 65 of 1987)

4. (1) In addition to the charge referred to in regulation 3, there shall be

levied a surcharge equal to fifty per cent of the applicable day landing charge
for each landing or for each take-off which occurs outside the published hours
of operation of the aerodrome:Surcharge

Provided that where the aircraft departs within one hour of landing, only one
surcharge shall be payable.

(2) Where a request has been received for a landing or take-off outside the
published hours of operations of an aerodrome, one surcharge shall be payable
unless notice of cancellation of the request is received by the aerodrome
authority at least twenty-four hours before the proposed time of landing or
take-off.

5. A single surcharge shall be levied and shall become payable where an

aerodrome is opened or remains open outside the published hours of operation of
that aerodrome for the purpose of acting as an alternate aerodrome for an
aircraft at the request of the operator:Surcharge for alternate aerodrome

Provided that no surcharge shall be levied where cancellation of the request is

received by the aerodrome authority in terms of regulation 4 (2).

6. (1) Subject to the other provisions of this regulation, an application for

an annual landing permit, to be charged at the rate set out in the Third
Schedule, may be made in respect of any aircraft whose weight does not exceed
three tonnes and which is used by a registered flying club in respect of the
aerodrome at which it is based or which is an aircraft registered in the private
category only in respect of any scheduled aerodrome or aerodromes:Annual landing
charge

Provided that such permit shall not cover any landing made at Lusaka
International Airport.

(2) An application for an annual landing permit shall be made to the Director
in writing to reach him at least twenty-one days before the date from which the
permit is to commence and shall include full details of the operator, the
registration marks, type and weight of the aircraft in respect of which the
application is made.

(3) If the Director is satisfied that the application has complied with the
provisions of this paragraph, he shall, upon payment of the appropriate fee set
out in the Third Schedule, issue an annual landing permit.

(4) An annual landing permit shall be valid for a period of twelve months
commencing 1st January in the year in which it is issued.

(5) If an aircraft in respect of which there is in force an annual landing

permit is grounded during the first half of the year and the Director is
satisfied that it is likely to remain unserviceable and grounded during the
remaining half of the year, he shall authorise the refund of fifty per cent of
the annual landing charges paid in respect of that aircraft for such year.
7. (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 9, where
hangar facilities exist, charges for the hangarage of aircraft shall be levied
and become payable for the use of such facilities at the rates prescribed in the
Fourth Schedule in accordance with the weight of the aircraft and the length of
the period of hangerage.Hangar charges

(2) Application for hangerage charges at the monthly rates prescribed in Part
II of the Fourth Schedule in respect of the hangerage of an aircraft during the
period of any named month may be made to the Director so as to reach him at
least twenty-one days before the first day of the named month during which the
charging of the monthly rate is requested.

(3) On receipt of an application made in terms of sub-regulation (2), the

Director shall, if he is satisfied with the application, grant the charging of
the monthly rate.

8. Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 9, a parking

charge shall be levied and shall become payable at the rate prescribed in the
Fifth Schedule in respect of any aircraft which lands at a scheduled aerodrome
and remains there for a continuous period of more than three hours:Parking
charge

Provided that no parking charges shall be levied or become payable by an

operator in respect of the parking of an aircraft on a parking site which has
been leased to the same operator.

9. (1) No landing, hangar or parking charges shall be charged or become

payable in respect of any aircraft-Exemptions

(a) owned by the Government or proceeding on Government business;

(b) exclusively transporting Heads of State, Heads of governments or official

delegations for an official visit;

(c) belonging to the United Nations Organisation or its

specialised agencies;

(d) which, without remuneration, is participating in any search or rescue

operation or is undertaking any mission for humanitarian purposes or is
rendering any other service to the public;

(e) if a notice in that behalf is received and acknowledged by the Director

at least twenty-four hours before such aircraft undertakes non-commercial
operations related to training or testing navigational instruments or other
equipment;

(f) landing pursuant to instructions given by the Department of Civil

Aviation for reasons other than violation of aviation rules;

(g) belonging to the Zambia Defence Force; and

(h) Any other flight which the Director of Civil Aviation, with the prior
consent of the Minister, may

(2) No landing charge shall be charged or become payable in respect of any

aircraft-
(a) if, after prior notice of intended flight has been given, the aircraft is
flown on a test flight from any scheduled aerodrome solely for the purpose of
testing the aircraft and the aircraft returns at the end of the flight to that
aerodrome without making any intermediate landing other than an emergency
landing;

(b) if the aircraft has departed from a scheduled aerodrome and it has become
necessary because of any hazard caused by the weather, or any other
circumstances, for the aircraft to return to that aerodrome without making any
intermediate landing other than an emergency landing;

(c) if the aircraft is being used by a registered flying club at the

scheduled aerodrome at which the club is based, unless the aircraft is being so
used for commercial purposes.

(3) During the period of first thirty days from the date of first entering into
Zambia, an aircraft which is-

(a) of a type which has not previously entered Zambia; and

(b) being operated solely for sales demonstration purposes; shall be liable
to pay only one landing charge in respect of a scheduled aerodrome.

(4) No parking charge shall be charged or become payable in respect of any

locally registered aircraft of a private category when parked at its home base:

Provided that-

(a) the operator informs the Director of the designated home base; and

(b) Lusaka International Airport may not be so designated.

(As amended by S.I. No. 65 of 1987)

10. (1) All payments due in respect of landing, parking and hangarage charges
shall be paid, by the captain of the aircraft, to the airport manager or to the
officer-in-charge or the designated representative at the scheduled aerodrome
for which the charges apply, unless an alternative arrangement has been or
credit facilities have been arranged in terms of sub-regulation (2).Payment

(2) Application for the granting of credit facilities for the payment of
charges shall be made through the Director, who shall forward the application
with his comments to the Perment Secretary in the Ministry responsible for civil
aviation.

(3) The application shall indicate particulars of the applicant, the reason why
credit facilities are sought, proposed payment arrangements and other relevant
details and shall be accompanied by a certificate of credit worthiness from the
applicant's bankers.

(4) When hangar charges are payable at the monthly rate in terms of
sub-regulations (2) and (3) of regulation 7, the amount of the charges shall be
paid in advance before the first day of the named month during which hangar
facilities are required.

(5) The charges set out in the Schedules are common to all scheduled aerodromes
unless it is stated to the contrary.

(6) Unless agreement to the contrary is entered into, between the Government of
the Republic of Zambia and the government of the aircraft operator's
nationality, the charges payable under the Second, Third, Fourth and Fifth
Schedules shall be paid in United States dollars or any other convertible
currency, at the rate of exchange last notified by the Bank of Zambia:

Provided that in case of locally registered aircraft the charge shall be paid in
kwacha.

(As amended by S.I. No. 65 of 1987)

FIRST SCHEDULE

(Regulation 2)

SCHEDULED AERODROMES

Category I

Livingstone

Lusaka International

Mfuwe

Ndola

Category II

Chipata

Kasama

Lusaka City

Mansa

Mongu

Solwezi

Zambezi

Category III

Kalabo

Kasaba Bay

Lilayi

Lukulu

Ngoma
Senanga

Sesheke

Southdowns

APPENDIX I

(Regulation 7)

SECOND SCHEDULE

(Regulation 3)

DAY LANDING CHARGES

FIXED WING AIRCRAFT

PART I

CATEGORY I AERODROME

For each tonne or part thereof

.. International Domestic

Aircraft Weight .. Flights Flights

(Metric tonne) .. US Dollars Fee units

First 25 tonnes .. .. 4.00 6.0

Next 75 tonnes .. .. 5.00 8.0

Over 100 tonnes .. .. 6.00 9.0

PART II

CATEGORY II AND III AERODROME

1. Landing charge at Category II aerodrome shall be at the rate of seventy

per centum of the charges prescribed for Category I aerodrome.

2. Landing charge at Category III aerodrome shall be at the rate of fifty per
centum of the charges prescribed for Category I aerodrome.

NOTES:

(a) Minimum landing charge for an aircraft whose weight is more than two tonnes
shall be-

(i) US $15.00 per international flight; and

(ii) 3 fee units per domestic flight.

(b) Lighting surcharge of twenty-five per centum of the day landing charges
shall be levied and payable for all night landing or take-off at scheduled
aerodromes equipped with night landing facilities.

(c) Charges for helicopters shall be at fifty per centum of the charges
applicable to fixed wing aircraft.

(As amended by S.I. No. 65 of 1987)

THIRD SCHEDULE

(Regulation 6)

Annual landing charge shall be 450 fee units.

FOURTH SCHEDULE

(Regulation 7)

PART I

DAILY RATE OF HANGER CHARGES

CATEGORY I AERODROME

For each tonne or part thereof per twenty-four hours or part thereof:

.. International Domestic

Aircraft Weight .. Flights Flights

(Metric tonne) .. US Dollars Fee units

First 25 tonnes .. .. 2.50 4

Next 75 tonnes .. .. 3.00 3

Over 100 tonnes .. .. 3.50 5

PART II

WEEKLY AND MONTHLY CHARGES

CATEGORY I AERODROME

1. Weekly rate is five times the twenty-four hour charge.

2. Monthly rate is eighteen times the twenty-four hour charge.

NOTE:

Minimum hanger charge shall be-

(i) US $25.00 for each international flight; and

(ii) 38 fee units for each domestic flight.

(As amended by S.I. No. 65 of 1987)

APPENDIX III

(Regulation 9)

FIFTH SCHEDULE

(Regulation 8)

PARKING CARGES

PART I

CATEGORY I AERODROME

Fees for each tonne or part thereof per hour or part thereof:

.. International Domestic

Aircraft Weight .. Flights Flights

(Metric tonne) .. US Dollars Fee units

First 25 tonnes .. .. 0.30 2

Next 75 tonnes .. .. 0.20 1

Over 100 tonnes .. .. 0.10 1

PART II

CATEGORY II AND III AERODROME

1. Parking fees at Category II aerodromes shall be at the rate of fifty per

centum of the charges prescribed for Category I aerodrome.

2. Parking fees at Category III aerodrome shall be at the rate of

twenty-five per centum of the charges prescribed for Category I aerodrome.

NOTES:

(a) First three hours after landing shall be free of charge.

(b) Minimum parking charge shall be-

(i) US $10.00 for each international flight; and

(ii) 13 fee units for each domestic flight.

(As amended by S.I. No. 65 of 1987)

SECTION 34-THE AVIATION (PARKING OF MOTOR VEHICLES AT DESIGNATED AIRPORTS)
REGULATIONS.

Regulations by the MinisterStatutory Instrument

7 of 1991
Act No.
13 of 1994

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Parking of Motor Vehicle

at Designated Airports) Regulations.Title

2. In these Regulations "Company" means the National Airports Corporation

Limited a Company Limited by shares and registered under the Companies
Act.Interpretation
Cap. 388

3. No person shall park any motor vehicle at a place other than that
specified for that purpose by the Company.Parking of motor vehicles at specified
areas of designated airports

4. (1) Any motor vehicle found at a designated airport parked in a place other
than that specified for the purpose by the Company-Penalties

(a) shall have its wheels clamped or its mobility inhibited in any other
manner; and

(b) may be removed to another area of the designated airport in the interest
of public safety.

(2) Any motor vehicle which has its wheels clamped or its mobility inhibited
under subsection (1) shall be unclamped or allowed to move only on payment of a
fine of three hundred and seventy-five penalty units to the Company.

(3) Any person who obstructs another person empowered to give effect to these
Regulations shall be charged with an offence and liable upon conviction to a
fine not exceeding eighty penalty units or to imprisonment not exceeding one
month or to both.

(As amended by Act No. 13 of 1994)

SECTION 4-THE AVIATION (AIR NAVIGATION FACILITY AND SERVICE CHARGES)

REGULATIONS.

Regulations by the Minister Statutory Instrument

66 of 1987
98 of 1988
150 of 1988

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Aviation (Air Navigation Facility

and Service Charges) Regulations.Title and commencement

2. In these Regulations unless the context otherwise requires-Interpretation

"charge" means the air navigation facility and service charge;

"domestic flight" means a flight which originates and terminates within Zambia
without landing at any place outside Zambia;

"international flight" means a flight which originates within Zambia for a

destination outside Zambia or which originates outside Zambia and terminates in
Zambia or overflies the Lusaka Flight Information Region for a destination
outside Zambia;

"weight" means the maximum permissible take-off weight of an aircraft as stated

in the certificate of airworthiness or the flight manual of the aircraft.

3. (1) Subject to the provisions of regulations 4 and 5, a charge shall be

levied and shall become payable by all aircraft operating within the Lusaka
Flight Information Region.Navigation and service charge

(2) The charge shall be divided into two categories according to whether the
flight is a domestic flight or an international flight.

4. (1) Unless agreement to the contrary is entered into between the Government
of the Republic of Zambia and the government of the aircraft operator's
nationality, the charges payable under Part I of the Schedule shall be paid in
United States dollars or any other convertible currency, at the rate of exchange
last notified by the Bank of Zambia:Calculation of charge

Provided that in the case of locally registered aircraft, the charge shall be
paid in kwacha in accordance with Part II of the Schedule.

(2) An application for commuted monthly payment, to be charged at the rate set
out in Part II of the Schedule, may be made in respect of any aircraft.

(3) The application for commuted monthly payment shall be made to the Director
in writing to reach him at least fourteen days before the date from which the
permit is to commence and shall include full details of the operator, the
registration marks, type and weight of the aircraft in respect of which the
application is made.

(4) If the Director is satisfied that the application has complied with the
provisions of this paragraph, he shall, upon payment of the appropriate fee set
out in the Schedule, approve the application.

5. No charge shall be charged or become payable in respect of any aircraft-

(a) owned by the Government or proceeding on Government business;

(b) exclusively transporting Heads of State, Heads of Governments or official

delegations for an official visit;

(c) belonging to the United Nations Organisation or its specialised agencies;

(d) which, without remuneration, is participating in any search or rescue

operation or is undertaking any mission for humanitarian purposes or is
rendering any other service to the public;

(e) belonging to the Zambia Defence Force;

(f) if a notice in that behalf is received and acknowledged by the Director

at least twenty-four hours before an aircraft undertakes non-commercial
operations related to training or testing navigational instruments or other
equipment;

(g) undertaking test flights and flights made exclusively for the purpose of
instruction or testing of flight crews;

(h) landing pursuant to instructions given by the Department of Civil

Aviation for reasons other than violation of aviation rules;

(i) whose weight is two tonnes or less and is on a domestic flight;

(j) irrespective of its weight is on a domestic flight making a journey of

less than forty nautical miles; and

(k) any other flight which the Director of Civil Aviation with the prior
consent of the Minister, may exempt.

Exemptions

APPENDIX

(Regulation 2)

SCHEDULE

(Regulation 4)

AIR NAVIGATION FACILITY AND SERVICE CHARGE

PART I

INTERNATIONAL FLIGHTS

The following formula shall be used in calculating the charge:

-----------

Distance travelled in km Maximum take-off weight

--------------- X ------------ X 12 USD

100 50

(As amended by S.I. No. 150 of 1988)

PART II

DOMESTIC FLIGHTS

Aircraft weight Daily Commuted

(Metric Tonne) rate Monthly rate

Fee units Fee units

0-2 tonne . . . . . . . . . . . . Free Free

Over 2 tonne but not exceeding 10 tonne . . . . . . 5 90

Over 10 tonne but not exceeding 20 tonne . . . . 12 200

Over 20 tonne . . . . . . . . . . . . 24 400

NOTE:

The daily rate will apply to all domestic flights, operated by one
chargeable aircraft within a period of twenty-four hours, commencing at 0001 UTC
to 2400 UTC the same day.

(As amended by S.I. No. 98 of 1988)

SECTION 5-AVIATION (EMERGENCY POWERS) (AIRCRAFT NAVIGATION CONTROL) NOTICE

Whereas it appears to the Minister necessary and desirable in the public

interest to exercise the powers conferred in section five of the Aviation Act:

Now Therefore in exercise of the powers contained in that section, the following
Notice is hereby issued:Statutory Instrument
83 of 1986

1. This Notice may be cited as the Aviation (Emergency Powers) (Aircraft

Navigation Control) Notice.Title

2. It is hereby declared that for the purpose of section five of the Act-

(a) the areas specified in the First Schedule shall be totally restricted
areas;

(b) the areas specified in the Second Schedule shall be prohibited areas;

(c) the areas specified in the Third Schedule shall be partially restricted
areas; and

(d) the areas specified in the Fourth Schedule shall be regulated

areas.Declaration of restricted, prohibited and regulated areas

3. All the powers set forth in paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of section
five of the Act are hereby assigned-

(a) in respect of the areas set out in Part I of the First Schedule, to the
Air Commander, Air Headquarters, P.O. Box 31291, Lusaka; and

(b) in respect of the areas set out in Part II of the First Schedule, to the
Army Commander, Army Headquarters, Old National Assembly Building, Independence
Avenue, Lusaka;

(hereinafter collectively referred to as "the appropriate authority").Assignment

of powers

4. (1) All operators of scheduled commercial flights shall apply to the

appropriate authority six months in advance for overflight rights over the area
described in the First Schedule.Persons affected to contact appropriate
authority
(2) All owners of aerodromes, charter and private aircraft operators or owners
of aircraft which are within or likely to enter any area described in the First
Schedule shall apply to the appropriate authority for flying clearance at least
twenty-four hours in advance of the flight.

5. The Aviation (Emergency Powers) (Aircraft Navigation Control) Notice,

1978, and the Aircraft (Emergency Powers) (Aircraft Navigation Control) Notice,
1980, are hereby revoked.Revocation of S.I. No.
159 of 1978 and S.I. No. 145 of 1980

FIRST SCHEDULE

(Paragraph 2)

Totally Restricted Areas

PART I

Central Province

Lusaka Province

Southern Province

PART II

Western Province

SECOND SCHEDULE

(Paragraph 2)

Prohibited Areas

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 1

LUKANGA

Starting from Lat. 1353S and Lo. 2838E where the powerlines cross the
Lukanga River the boundary follows the Lukanga River downstream in a westerly
direction to Lat. 1355S and Lo. 2832E, thence in a northerly direction to Lat.
1359S and Lo. 2831E, thence in an easterly direction on Lat. 1359S to Lo. 2837E
a point east of the powerlines, thence in a southerly direction to Lat. 1353S
and Lo. 2838E where the powerlines cross the Lukanga River the point of
starting. Total prohibition at all times from ground to flight level one seven
zero (FL 170).

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 2

STATE HOUSE, LUSAKA

Centred at State House on Lat. 152542S and Lo. 281942E at a radius of 1/2
nautical mile. Lower and upper level from ground to 6,000 feet above sea level.
Total prohibition at all times.

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 3

MBALA

Starting from Lat. 092320S and Lo. 301720E Shipalala Village, the area
boundary is a straight line in a north-easterly direction to a point on the
Zambia-Tanzania International boundary on Lat. 0832S and Lo. 3059E, thence the
boundary follows the Zambia-Tanzania International boundary in a south-easterly
direction to a point on Lat. 0902S and Lo. 3157E south-east of Mukusa Hills,
thence in a straight south-easterly direction line to a point on the
Kasama-Mbala Road on Lat. 0927S and Lo. 3113E, thence in a south-westerly
direction following Road D19 to Chipalala Village the point of starting. Total
prohibition at all times.

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 4

MUMBWA

Starting from Lat. 1500S and Lo. 2600E Chunga Valley, the boundary follows
the Kafue River upstream to Lufupa Rest Camp on Lat. 1436S and Lo. 261130E,
thence upstream the Kafue River to its confluence with the Lunga River at Lat.
14345 and Lo. 262550E, thence upstream the Lunga River in a northerly direction
to a point on Lat. 1400S and Lo. 262030E, thence the boundary goes in a straight
easterly direction on Lat. 1400S to Lo. 2710E, thence in a southerly straight
line to a point on Lat. 144330S and Lo. 2723E, thence in a straight
south-easterly direction line to a point on Lat. 1448S and Lo. 2730E, thence
southwards along Lo. 2730E to Lat. 1521S, thence following an areas of 25
nautical miles radius centred at Mumbwa Military Aerodrome to a point on Lat.
1458S and Lo. 264630E Mongu Road M9, thence westwards following Road M9 to its
junction with the Chunga Ferry branch off road, then following the Chunga Ferry
branch off road to Chunga Ferry Lat. 1500S and Lo. 2600E the point of starting.
Total prohibition at all times.

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 21

MULUNGUSHI DAM

All that piece of land centred at Lat. 1428S and Lo. 2849E, at a radius of 5
nautical miles. Total prohibition at all times from ground to flight level one
zero zero (FL. 100).

PROHIBITED AREAS NO. 22

MUKOBEKO MAXIMUM PRISON

All that piece of land centred at Lat. 1422S and Lo. 2824E, at a radius of 2
nautical miles. Total prohibition at all times from ground to 6,000 feet above
mean sea level.

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 25

LUSAKA SOUTH-EAST

Centred at Lat. 153400S and Lo. 283700E at a radius of 5 nautical miles

circle, the area lies 17 nautical miles south-east of Lusaka International
Airport. Total prohibition at all times from ground to flight level one seven
zero (FL. 170).

PROHIBITED AREA NO. 28

LUSAKA CITY

Starting from Lat. 152112S and Lo. 281235E the area boundary follows a
straight line to Lat. 152400S and Lo. 281220E, thence a straight line to Lat.
152400S and Lo. 281400E, thence a straight line to Lat. 152910S and Lo. 282910E,
thence a straight line to Lat. 152215S and Lo. 283000E, thence a straight line
to Lat. 152112S and Lo. 281235E the point of starting. Total prohibition at al
times from ground to all flight levels.

THIRD SCHEDULE

(Paragraph 2)

Partially Restricted Areas

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 5

KAFUE NATIONAL PARK

Starting at Lat. 1410S and Lo. 2540E, the boundary line goes eastwards on
Lat. 1410S to Lo. 2635E, thence in a south-easterly straight line to a point on
Lat. 1500S and Lo. 2645E, thence in a straight westerly direction line on Lat.
1500S to Lo. 2600E, thence in a straight southerly direction line to Lat. 1640S
and Lo. 2605E, thence in a westerly direction to a point along Lat. 1640S and
Lo. 2550E, thence in north-westerly direction to a point on Lat. 1550S and Lo.
2505E, thence the boundary goes in a north-westerly direction to Lat. 1410S and
Lo. 2540E, the point of starting. No person other than a park officer or
servant, shall, without special Ministerial permission, fly by aircraft over any
part in such a manner as to alarm game or land and take off in the park by
aircraft. This does not apply to aircraft landing or taking off from airfields
within the park. Restriction is from ground to 1,500 feet above ground level.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 6

KARIBA GORGE

All that area centred at Lat. 1631S and Lo. 2846E at a radius of 1 nautical
mile from ground to 1,500 feet above mean sea level.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 7

LAVUSHI MANDA

Starting at a point on Lat. 1200S and Lo. 3045E, the boundary line proceeds
in a south-easterly direction to a point on Lat. 1210S and Lo. 3105E, the
boundary projects in a south westerly direction to a point Lat. 1240S and Lo.
3040E, thence in a straight line north-west to Lat. 1220S and Lo. 3040E, thence
in a north-easterly direction to Lat. 1200S and Lo. 3045E the point of starting.
Game Reserve, from ground to 1,500 feet above ground level. No person other than
a park officer or servant shall, without special Ministerial permission, fly by
aircraft over any part in such a manner as to alarm game, or land or take off in
the park by aircraft. This does not apply to aircraft taking off and landing at
airfields in this restricted area.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 8

LUNGA

Starting at a point on Lat. 1230S and Lo. 2430E, the boundary line proceeds
east-wards on Lat. 1230S to a point on Lo. 2455E, thence in a south-easterly
direction straight line to a point on Lat. 1300S and Lo. 2505E, thence in a
south-westerly direction to a point on Lat. 1310S and Lo. 2435E, thence in a
north-westerly direction to Lat. 1230S and Lo. 2430E the point of starting. Game
Reserve, from ground to 1,500 feet above ground level. No person other than a
park officer or servant shall, without special Ministerial permission, fly by
aircraft over any part in such a manner as to alarm game, or land or take off in
the park by aircraft. This does not apply to aircraft taking off and landing at
airfields in this restricted area.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 9

MWERU MARSH

Starting at a point on Lat. 0825S and Lo. 2915E, the boundary proceeds in an
easterly direction to a point on Lat. 0820S and Lo. 3000E, thence in a straight
line southwards on Lo. 3000E to Lat. 0900S, thence westwards on Lat. 0900S to
Lo. 2915E, thence in a straight line northwards on Lo. 2915E to Lat. 0825S, the
point of starting. Game Reserve, from ground to 1,500 feet above ground level.
No person other than a park officer or servant shall, without special
Ministerial permission, fly by aircraft over any part in such a manner as to
alarm game, or land or take off in the park by aircraft. This does not apply to
aircraft taking off and landing at airfields in this restricted area.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 10

VICTORIA FALLS BRIDGE

All that piece of land centered on Lat. 1755S and Lo. 2551E at a radius of 1
nautical mile. Restriction is from ground to 1,500 feet above ground level.
Information on traffic circling Victoria Falls must be obtained from
Living-stone approach.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 11

BANGWEULU SWAMPS

Starting at a point on Lat. 1200S and Lo. 2935E, the boundary is a straight
north-west line to Lat. 1052S and Lo. 2930E, thence in a straight north-easterly
direction line to Lat. 1038S and Lo. 2950E, thence in south-easterly direction
line to Lat. 1110S and Lo. 3030E, thence in a southerly direction following Lo.
3030E to Lat. 1150S, thence on a south-west straight line to Lat. 1200S and Lo.
2935E, the point of starting. Restriction applies only to single engined
aircraft. Area difficult for search and rescue. From ground to flight level nine
five (FL 95).

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 12

LUANGWA VALLEY NORTH

Starting at a point on Lat. 1022S and Lo. 3237E, the boundary line proceeds
south-eastwards to Lat. 1052S and Lo. 3309E, thence in a southerly direction
line to Lat. 1223S and Lo. 3304E, thence in a south-westerly straight line to
Lat. 1305S and Lo. 3245E, thence in a straight line south-westerly to Lat. 1320S
and Lo. 3223E, thence in a north-westerly direction line to Lat. 1300S and Lo.
3149E, thence in a south-west straight line to Lat 130430S and Lo. 3058E, thence
in a north-easterly straight line to Lat. 1112E and Lo. 3200E, thence in a
north, north-easterly straight line to Lat. 1022S and Lo. 3237E the point of
starting. Restriction is from ground to 1,500 feet above ground. No aircraft
shal fly below 1,500 feet above ground or in such a manner as to alarm game,
unless landing or taking off at an airfield in the area.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 13

LUANGWA GAME PARK (SOUTH)

Starting at a point on Lat. 1434S and Lo. 3000E, the boundary line proceeds
in a straight line to Lat. 1314S and Lo. 3051E, thence in a straight line to a
point on Lat. 1304S and Lo. 3058E, thence in a straight line to a point on Lat.
1300S and Lo. 3149E, thence in a straight line to a point on Lat. 1320S and Lo.
3223E, thence in a straight line to Lat. 1434S and Lo. 3000E, the point of
starting. Restriction is from ground to 1,500 feet above ground. No aircraft
shall fly below 1,500 feet above ground or in such a manner as to alarm game,
unless landing or taking off at an airfield in the area.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 14

LUKANGA SWAMP

Starting as a point on Lat. 140730S and Lo. 272230E, the boundary proceeds
eastwards on Lat. 140730S to Lo. 275650E, thence in a straight line
south-eastwards to Lat. 1435S, and Lo. 2805E, thence in a straight westerly
direction line to Lat. 1433S and Lo. 2734E, thence the direction line proceeds
north-westwards to Lat. 140730S and Lo. 272230E the point of starting. Area
difficult for search and rescue. Restriction applies only to single engined
aircraft. However a ten (10NM) nautical mile wide corridor is available for
single engined aircraft.

RESTRICTED AREA NO. 24

LOWER ZAMBEZI GAME PARK

Starting at a point on Lat. 1510S and Lo. 2919E the boundary proceeds in a
straight line to a point on Lat. 1510S and Lo. 301230E, thence in a straight
line to a point on Lat. 153900S and Lo. 301230E, thence following the Zambezi
River upstream to a point on Lat. 151500S and Lo. 291600E, thence to a point on
Lat. 1510S and Lo. 2919E, the point of starting. Restriction is from ground to
1,500 feet above ground. No aircraft shall fly below 1,500 feet above ground or
in such a manner as to alarm game, unless landing or taking off at an airfield
in the area.

FOURTH SCHEDULE

(Paragraph 2)

Regulated Areas

DANGER AREA NO. 16

COPPERBELT TRAINING AREA

Starting at Lat. 1230S and Lo. 2730E, the boundary line proceeds eastwards
on Lat. 1230S to Lo. 2750E, thence in a straight line southwards on Lo. 2750E to
Lat. 1248S, thence in a south-westerly direction line to Lat. 1307S and Lo.
2746E, thence westwards on Lat. 1307S to Lo. 2730E, thence northwards on Lo.
2730E to Lat. 1230S the point of starting. Danger is from ground to flight level
seven zero (FL 70). Area for flying training and sliding and this takes place
from sunrise to sunset.

DANGER AREA NO. 18

LIVINGSTONE

Starting at Lat. 1751S and Lo. 2530E, the boundary line proceeds northwards
on Lo. 2530E to Lat. 1730S, thence the line proceeds westwards on Lat. 1730S to
Lo. 2500E, thence southwards on Lo. 2500E to the Zambezi River, thence
downstream the Zambezi River to Lat. 1751S and Lo. 2530E, the point of starting.
Danger is from ground to flight level six five (FL 65). Flying training will
take place from sunrise to sunset.

DANGER AREA NO. 19

NDOLA

Centered at Lat. 1304S and Lo. 2845E at a radius of 3 nautical miles circle,
the area lies 7 nautical miles south-east of Ndola Airport. Danger is from
ground to flight level one seven zero (FL 170). 24 hours notice will be given by
NOTAM class one. Air Traffic Control will give routing instructions to IFR
flights when area is active.

DANGER AREA NO. 20

LUSAKA SOUTH-WEST

Starting at Lat. 1518S and Lo. 274650E the confluence of Kabile and
Mwembeshi Rivers, the boundary line proceeds south-eastwards to Lat. 1525S and
Lo. 2800E, thence the boundary line proceeds southwards on Lo. 2800E to Lat.
1543S on the Kafue River, thence upstream the Kafue River to Lat. 153930S and
Lo. 274730E the confluence of the Kafue and Mwembeshi Rivers, thence upstream
the Mwembeshi River to its confluence with the the Kabile River Lat. 1518S and
Lo. 274650E, the point of starting. Danger is from ground to flight level seven
zero (FL 70). Flying training will take place from sunrise to sunset.

DANGER AREA NO. 23

MUMBWA EAST

Starting at a point on Lat. 144800S and Lo. 273000E, the boundary line
proceeds in a straight line to Lat. 145400S and Lo. 274600E, thence in a
straight line to a point on Lat. 152030S and Lo. 275550E, thence in a straight
line to a point on Lat. 152900S and Lo. 271700E, thence following eastern
boundary along P4 to a point on Lat. 144800S and Lo. 273000E, the point of
starting. Danger is from the ground to unlimited flight levels the area being a
military flying training area. Air Traffic Control will give routing
instructions to IFR flights.
DANGER AREA NO. 27

NCHANGA OPEN PIT

Centred at a point on Lat. 123030S and Lo. 275730E at a radius of one (1 NM)
nautical mile being an area where blasting of rock takes place between sunrise
and sunset. Danger is from ground to flight level 6,000 feet above mean sea
level.

REPUBLIC OF ZAMBIA

THE SAFETY OF CIVIL AVIATION ACT

CHAPTER 445 OF THE LAWS OF ZAMBIA

CHAPTER 445 SAFETY OF CIVIL AVIATION ACTCHAPTER 445

SAFETY OF CIVIL AVIATION ACT

ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS

Section

1. Short title

2. Interpretation

3. Aircraft in flight

4. Aircraft in service

5. Territorial limits

6. Country of registration

7. Offences in flight

8. Offences in service and endangering safety

9. Penalty

10. Provisions as to extradition

11. Duties of commander

12. Powers of commander of aircraft

13. Assistance with restraint

14. Emergency measures

15. Disembarking person

16. Report to authorities