[Do not use questions on ILS, MLS, Ground RADAR, Airborne WX RADAR, RNAV, LORAN-C, Decca,

Doppler in CPL. So the following chapters are deleted: CHAPTER 6,7,9,10,13,16]

RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 1 – INTRODUCTION

1. The maximum range at which an aircraft at FL250 can receive transmissions from a VHF R/T
station at 300 ft is:
a) 200 nm
b) 219 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 198 nm

2. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 5,045 MHz is:

a) 59.5 cm
b) 5.95 cm
c) 19.8 cm
d) 1.98 cm

3. The frequency band containing a wavelength of 75 cm is:

a) MF
b) HF
c) VHF
d) UHF

4. The phase of a variable wave is at 240° as the phase of a reference wave is 090°. The phase difference is:
a) 210°
b) 150°
c) 330°
d) 030°

5. The greatest range for a surface wave will be at a frequency of:

a) 198 KHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 2,182 KHz
d) 4,300 MHz

6. At a fixed frequency if the level of ionisation increases, then:

a) The dead space will increase because of the increase in critical angle.
b) The dead space will decrease because of a decrease in critical angle
c) The dead space will increase because of a decrease in the critical angle.
d) The dead space will decrease because of an increase in the critical angle.

7. The reduction in the power available in a radio wave as the distance from a transmitter increases is
known as:
a) Dissipation
b) Diffraction
c) Attenuation
d) Refraction

8. An advantage of FM when compared with AM is:

a) Less susceptible to static interference
b) Smaller bandwidth
c) Easier to demodulate (ie extract information)
d) More suitable for use at lower frequencies
9. An aircraft is using a night time HF frequency of 5.5 MHz with ATC) The frequency the pilot would
expect to use by day is:
a) 3 MHz
b) 12 MHz
c) 15 MHz
d) 18 MHz

10. Which of the following frequencies is likely to experience the most severe static interference?
a) 121.5 MHz
b) 500 KHz
c) 4,300 MHz
d) 5,500 KHz

11. The highest levels of ionisation will be found:

a) At high latitudes in summer
b) At low latitudes in summer
c) At high latitudes in winter
d) At low latitudes in winter

12. Concerning skywave propagation, which of the following is correct?

a) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by night.
b) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by day.
c) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by night.
d) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by day.

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans B B D A A B C A B B B B
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 3 – VDF

1. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 nm, if the ground station is
situated 2500' amsl which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be
made?
a) 190'
b) 1,378'
c) 36,100'
d) 84,100'

2. Class'B' VHF DF bearings are accurate to within:

a) ± 10
b) ± 50
c) ± 20
d) ± 100

3. A VDF QDM given without an accuracy classification may be assumed to be accurate to within:
a) 2 degrees
b) 5 degrees
c) 7.5 degrees
d) 10 degrees

4. An aircraft at altitude 9000 feet wishes to communicate with a VHF/DF station that is situated at
400 feet amsl. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely to be made ?
a) 115nm
b) 400nm
c) 143nm
d) 63.5nm

5. An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 3530. If variation is 80E and the bearing
is classified as 'B' then the:
a) QDM is 3450 ± 50
b) QDR is 3450 ± 20
c) QTE is 3530 ± 50
d) QUJ is 3530 ± 20

6. An aircraft at 19,000ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station at 1,400ft amsl. What is the
maximum range at which contact is likely ?
a) 175nm
b) 400.0nm
c) 62.5nm
d) 219nm

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6
An C B B C C D
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 4 – ADF

1. The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
a) is most marked at night.
b) can be minimised by using beacons situated well inland.
c) can be minimised by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right angles.
d) is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset.

2. An aircraft is intending to track from NDB 'A' to NDB 'B' on a track of 050 °(T), heading 0600(T).
If the RBI shows the relative bearing of'A' to be 180' and the relative bearing of'B' to be 3300 then
the aircraft is:
a) Port of track and nearer `A'.
b) Port of track and nearer `B'.
c) Starboard of track and nearer `A'.
d) Starboard of track and nearer `B'.

3. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:

a) static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire.
b) the aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB
transmissions.
c) station interference and/or night effect.
d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path.

4. An aircraft is tracking away from an NDB on a track of 023°(T). If the drift is 8° port and
variation 10° west, which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the correct indications?

5. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range (DOC) is:
a) ± 3°
b) ± 5°
c) ± 6°
d) ± 10°
6. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor NON A 1 A NDB emissions the BFO should be used as
follows:
Tune Identify Monitor
a) On On Off
b) On On On
c) On Off Off
d) Off Off Off

7. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are affected by
coastal refraction may b reduced by:
a) selecting beacons situated well inland.
b) only using beacons within the designated operational coverage.
c) choosing NON A2A beacons.
d) choosing beacons on or near the coast.

8. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having NON AIA
type emission is to be used:
a) BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring.
b) BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose.
c) BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission is not
modulated.
d) BFO should be switched on for tuning, ident and monitoring.

9. The Protection Ratio of 3:1 that is provided within the Promulgated range/Designated Operational
Coverage of an NDB by day cannot be guaranteed at night because of:
a) Long range skywave interference from other transmitters.
b) Skywave signals from the NDB to which you are tuned.
c) The increased skip distance that occurs at night.
d) The possibility of sporadic E returns occurring at night.

10. An aircraft has an RMI with two needles. Assume that:

i) The aircraft is outbound from NDB Y on a track of 126°(M) drift is 14° Port.
ii) A position report is required when crossing a QDR of 022 from NDB Z.
Which of the diagrams below represents the RMI at the time of crossing the reporting point?
11. Each NDB has a range promulgated in the COMM section of the Air Pilot. Within this range
interference from other NDBs should not cause bearing errors in excess of:
a) day ± 5 °
b) night ± 10°
c) day ± 6 °
d) night ± 5 °

12. The range promulgated in the Air Pilot and flight guides for all NDBs in the UK is the range:
a) Within which a protection ratio of 3:1 is guaranteed by day and night.
b) Up to which bearings can be obtained on 95% of occasions.
e) Within which bearings obtained by day should be accurate to within 5 °.
d) Within which protection from skywave protection is guaranteed.

13. In order to resolve the 180 ° directional ambiguity of a directional LOOP aerial its polar diagram
is combined with that of a SENSE aerial ................................ to produce a............... whose single
null ensures the ADF needle moves the shortest distance to indicate the correct................
a) at the aircraft, cardioid, radial.
b) at the transmitter, limacon, bearing.
c) at the aircraft, limacon, bearing.
d) at the aircraft, cardioid, bearing.

14. The protection ratio afforded to NDBs in the UK within the Promulgated range(DOC) applies:
a) by day only.
b) by night only.
c) both day and night.
d) at dawn and dusk.

15. The phenomena of coastal refraction affecting ADF bearings is caused by the signal
when it reaches the coastline and bending the normal to the coast:
a) accelerating towards
b) decelerating towards
c) accelerating away from
d) decelerating away from

16. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced:

a) during long winter nights.
b) when the aircraft is at low altitude.
e) when the aircraft is at high altitude.
d) at dusk and dawn.

17. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in an ADF receiver,
the resultant polar diagram is:
a) a limacon
b) a cardioid
c) figure of eight shaped
d) circular

18. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of position lines,
the plotted position in relation to the aircraft's actual position will be:
a) further from the coast.
b) closer to the coast.
c) co-incident.
d) inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating.
19. An aircraft on a heading of 235°(M) shows an RMI reading of 090° with respect to an NDB. Any
quadrantal error which is affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
a) a maximum value.
b) a very small value.
c) zero, since quadrantal error affects only the RBI.
d) zero, since quadrantal error affects only the VOR.

20. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:

a) skywave
b) surface wave
c) direct wave
d) ducted wave

21. The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 189°(T) will experience the greatest effect due to
Quadrantal Error if the NDB bears:
a) 234°(T)
b) 279°(T)
c) 225°(T)
d) 145°(T)

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C D B D B B D D A A A C D A C D B B A B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An A
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 5 – VOR

1. Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5.5°, what is the maximum distance apart that
beacons can be situated on the centre line of a UK airway in order that an aircraft can guarantee
remaining within the airway boundary ?
a) 54.5 nm
b) 109 nm
c) 66 nm
d) 132 nm

2. The Designated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM section of the Air
Pilot:
a) Is only applicable by day.
b) Guarantees a Protection Ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night.
c) Defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from interference from
other VORs on the same channel.
d) Is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to travel.

3. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 050 radial with 10° starboard drift. An NDB lies
to the east of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft when it is
obtaining a relative bearing of 100 ° from the NDB ?

4. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR
beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level ?
a) 274 nms
b) 255 nms
c) 112 nms
d) 224 nms

5. A Conventional VOR:
a) has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal.
b) has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal
c) has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal
d) has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal.
6. The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330° and gives a 3 dots fly right demand with FROM
indicated. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station ?
a) 144
b) 324
c) 336
d) 156

7. An aircraft is homing towards a VOR which marks the centre line of an airway. The beacon is 100
nms distant. If the pilot had the airway QDM set on the OBS what deflection of the deviation
indicator would be given if the aircraft was on the boundary of the airway ? Assume that one dot
equals 2 degrees.
a) 3 dots
b) 2 dots
c) 2.5 dots
d) 1.5 dots

8. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will obtain from a VOR
beacon situated at 400 feet above mean sea level ?
a) 225 nm
b) 256 nm
c) 281 nm
d) 257 nm

9. Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs (DVOR), which of the following is correct?
a) There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being used.
b) The DVOR will always have a "D" in the ident.
c) The DVOR has a higher pitch ident than the standard VOR.
d) The conventional VOR has less site error.

10. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is, the bearing signal is and the direction of
rotation of the bearing signal is
a) AM FM anti-clockwise.
b) AM FM clockwise.
c) FM AM anti-clockwise.
d) FM AM clockwise.

11. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with
a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45 nm. Where is the
aircraft in relation to the required track?
a) 6 nm right of track.
b) 3 nm right of track.
c) 6 nm left of track.
d) 3 nm left of track.

12. A VOR beacon ceases to transmit its normal identification which is substituted by'TST'. This
means that:
a) The beacon may be used providing that extreme caution is used.
b) The beacon is undergoing maintenance or calibration and should not be used.
c) This is a temporary short range transmission and will have approximately half its normal range.
d) The beacon is under test and pilots using it should report its accuracy to air traffic control.
13. What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000' would expect to obtain
from a VOR beacon situated 900' above mean sea level ?
a) 220nm
b) 100nm
c) 235nm
d) 198nm
14. An aircraft is on the airway boundary range 100 nm from a VOR marking the airway centre line.
Assuming that each dot equates to 2 °, how many dots deviation will be shown on the deviation
indicator?
a) 3.0 dots
b) 2.5 dots
c) 2.0 dots
d) 1.5 dots

15. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 Radial. The OBS should be
set to:
a) 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
b) 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
c) 064 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.
d) 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.

16. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 150 radial with 10° starboard drift. An NDB lies
to the South of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft when it is
obtaining a relative bearing of 100° from the NDB?

17. Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5°, what is the maximum distance apart that
beacons can be situated on the centre line of a UK airway in order that an aircraft can guarantee
remaining within the airway boundary ?
a) 60nm
b) 100nm
c) 120nm
d) 150nm
18. A VOR is providing satisfactory signals, in accordance with the ICAO specifications, to an
aircraft within the DOC at 42500ft, groundspeed 480kt. The approximate time that the aircraft is
in the "cone of confusion" is:
a) 1.75min. 30° 40 50° 60
b) 1.50 min. SINE .5 .643 .766 .866
c) 2mm. TAN .577 .839 1.192 1.732
d) 3min. COs .866 .766 .643 .5

19. The type of emission radiated by a VOR beacon is:

a) A double channel VHF carrier with one channel being amplitude modulated and the second
channel being frequency modulated.
b) A single channel VHF carrier wave amplitude modulated at 30 Hz with a sub carrier being
frequency modulated at 30 Hz.
c) A VHF carrier wave with a 90 Hz frequency modulation and a 150 Hz amplitude modulation.
d) A VHF pulse modulated emission with a pulse repetition frequency of 30 pps.

20. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W what should
be set on the OBS ?
a) 274
b) 264
c) 094
d) 084

21. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on a heading of 287°M with 14° starboard drift. If the
variation is 6°W what is the phase difference between the reference and variable phase
components of the VOR transmission?
a) 121°
b) 295°
c) 301
d) 315°

22. What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900 feet
above mean sea level in an aircraft flying at 18 000 feet ?
a) 168nm
b) 188nm
c) 205nm
d) 250nm

23. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR beacon. The pilot has set 329 on the OBS of the
deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the deviation indicator will
show:
a) one and a half dots fly right.
b) one and a half dots fly left.
c) three dots fly right.
d) three dots fly left.

24. A VOR receiver in an aircraft measures the phase difference from a DVOR as 220°. Which radial
is the aircraft on?
a) 140
b) 040
c) 320
d) 220
25. The RMI indicates the aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and
VORs to true bearings, the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is: NDB
VOR
a) beacon position aircraft position
b) beacon position beacon position
c) aircraft position beacon position
d) aircraft position aircraft position

26. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from
both are shown on the RMI illustrated. Use the information to answer the following:
The information given on the RMI indicates

a) that the aircraft is heading 033°(M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050°(M) from the
NDB.
b) that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 310°
radial from the VOR, and bears 050° from the NDB.
c) that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 130°
radial from the VOR, and bears 050°(M) from the
NDB.
d) that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 130°
radial from the VOR, and bears 230°(M) from the
NDB.

27. The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define

the centre line of an airway within UK airspace which you
intend to fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS
deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the
DME gave a range of 90nm from the facility. At the time of
the observation, the aircraft's radial and distance from the
airway centre-line were:
a) 062 radial 9 nm
b) 074 radial 6 nm
c) 242 radial 6 nm
d) 254 radial 9 nm

28. The normal maximum error which might be expected with a VOR bearing obtained within the
DOC is:
a) plus or minus V
b) plus or minus 2°
c) plus or minus 5°
d) plus or minus 10°

29. An aircraft is tracking away from VOR "A" on

the 310° radial with 8° starboard drift; NDB
"X" is north of "A". Which diagram below
illustrates the RMI when the aircraft is on its
present track with a QDR from "X" of 270° ?
30. An aircraft bears 175°(M) from a VOR. If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 its heading is 359°(M)
which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation indicator? (assume 1 dot = 2°)

31. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:

a) are magnetic.
b) are compass.
c) are relative.
d) must have deviation applied before being used.

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An B C D A A A D C A A C B C D B A C C B C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An C C A D C D A C A A A
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 8 – RADAR PRINCIPLES

1. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:

a) pulse repetition rate
b) pulse width
c) power
d) beamwidth

2. The main advantage of continuous wave radars is:

a) No maximum range limitation
b) Better range resolution
c) No minimum range limitation
d) Better range resolution

3. If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses per second, the maximum range will be:
a) 324 nm
b) 300 nm
c) 162 nm
d) 600 nm

4. To double the range of a primary radar would require the power to be increased by a factor of.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

5. The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a target is 1720
microseconds. What is the range of the target?
a) 139 km
b) 258 km
c) 278 km
d) 516 km

6. A radar is required to have a maximum range of 100 rim. What is the maximum PRF that will
achieve this?
a) 1620 pulses per second (pps)
b) 1234 pps
c) 617 pps
d) 810 pss

7. If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:
a) 170 nm
b) 315 nm
c) 340 nm
d) 630 nm

8. To improve the resolution of a radar display requires:

a) a narrow pulse width and a narrow beam width
b) a high frequency and a large reflector
c) a wide beamwidth and a wide pulse width
d) a low frequency and a narrow pulse width
9. An advantage of a phased array (slotted antenna) is:
a) better resolution
b) less power required
c) reduced sidelobes and clutter
d) all of the above

10. An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted. The range to
the target is:
a) 73 nm
b) 270 nm
c) 135 nm
d) 146 nm

11. The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is:
a) pulse repetition interval
b) transmitter power
c) pulse width
d) pulse repetition frequency

12. The use of Doppler techniques to discriminate between aircraft and fixed objects results in second
trace returns being generated. These are removed by:
a) using a different frequency for transmission and reception
b) jittering the PRF
c) making regular changes in pulse-width
d) limiting the power output of the radar

13. A radar is designed to have a maximum range of 12 km. The maximum PRF that would permit
this is:
a) 25000 pps
b) 6700 pps
c) 12500 pps
d) 13400 pps
14. The bearing of a primary radar is measured by:
a) phase comparison
b) searchlight principle
c) lobe comparison
d) DF techniques
Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
An A C C D B D A A D A C B C B
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 11 – SSR

l. The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency , radio failure , entering UK airspace , unlawful
interference with the conduct of the flight
a) 7700; 7600; 2000; 7500.
b) 7700; 7600; 7500; 2000.
c) 7600; 7500; 2000; 7700.
d) 7500; 7600; 2000; 7700.

2. Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of radar with type emissions operating in the band.
a) primary pulse SHF
b) primary pulse UHF
c) secondary FM SHF
d) secondary pulse UHF

3. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed

a) it causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller's screen.
b) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35p sec
before the last framing pulse.
c) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35p sec
after the last framing pulse.
d) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35p sec
after the last framing pulse.

4. When using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is a
discrepancy of more than feet between the altitude detected by the radar from the reply pulses
and the altitude reported by the pilot read from an altitude with the subscale set to
a) 100 ft Regional QNH
b) 300 ft 1013 HPa
c) 50 ft 1013 HPa
d) 300 ft Regional QNH

5. The SSR code which is appropriate for a UK FIR (inbound) crossing, where no other "squawk"
has been allocated is:
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 2000

6. Secondary radars require:

a) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft.
b) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based.
c) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or a
ground based transponder.
d) a quiescent target.

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6
An A D D B D C
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 12 – DME

1. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses
intended for other aircraft because:
a) aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.
b) aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses.
c) aircraft reject pulses not synchronised with its own random pulse recurrence rate.
d) each aircraft has its own frequency allocation.

2. A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of
a) 1030 Mhz
b) 902 Mhz
c) 1025 Mhz
d) 962 Mhz

3. A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last identifying
letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:
a) they are co-located.
b) they are more than 600m apart but serve the same location.
c) they are widely separated and do not serve the same location.
d) they are a maximum distance of 30m apart.

4. Distance Measuring Equipment is an example of radar operating on a frequency of in the band.

a) primary 8800 MHz SHF
b) secondary 1030 MHz UHF
c) secondary 962 MHz UHF
d) primary 9375 MHz SHF

5. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
a) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
b) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
c) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
d) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.

6. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within:

a) 3% of range
b) 1.25 % of range
c) 0.5 nm
d) +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range

7. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and replies to
other aircraft because:
a) DME is secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.
b) DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne equipment ejects
all other pulses.
c) Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronised replies.
d) When DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the correct range.

8. When a DME transponder becomes saturated:

a) it reverts to standby.
b) it increases the number of pulse pairs to meet the demand.
c) it increases the receiver threshold to remove weaker signals.
d) it goes into a selective response mode of operation.
9. An aircraft flying at flight level 250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400' above mean
sea level. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved ?
a) 210 nm
b) 198 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 222 nm

10. For a DME and a VOR to be said to be associated it is necessary for:

a) the DME to transmit on the same VHF frequency as the VOR.
b) the aerial separation not to exceed 100 feet in a TMA or 2000 feet outside a TMA.
c) the aerial separation not to exceed 100 metres in a TMA or 2000m outside a TMA.
d) both beacons to have the same first two letters for their ident' but the last letter of the DM E to
be a `Z'.

11. The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the aircraft interrogator
frequency to prevent:
a) interference from other radars.
b) the airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own transmissions.
c) static interference.
d) receiver accepting replies intended for other interrogators.

12. The accuracy associated with DME is:

a) + or - 3% of range, or 0.5nm, whichever is greater
b) + or - 1.25% of range
c) + or - 3% of range
d) +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range

13. For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed
in a terminal area and outside a terminal area.
a) 100 m 2000 m
b) 50 feet 200 feet
c) 30m 600m
d) 50m 200 m

14. DME is a ...... radar operating in the ...... band and uses ....... in order to obtain range information.
The correct words to complete the above statement are:
a) primary SHF CW signals
b) secondary UHF twin pulses
c) secondary SHF "jittered pulses"
d) primary UHF pulse pairs

15. The receiver of airborne DME equipment is able to "lock on" to its own "reply pulses" because:
a) each aircraft has its own unique transmitter frequency and the receiver only accepts reply pulses
having this frequency.
b) the reply pulses from the ground transmitter have the same frequency as the incoming
interrogation pulses from the aircraft.
c) the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which have the same time interval between
successive pulses as the pulses being transmitted by its own transmitter.
d) the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which arrive at a constant time interval.
The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define the centre line of an airway within UK airspace
which you intend to fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At
the same time the DME gave a range of 40 nm from the facility. Use the above information to answer the
next two questions Use the 1 in 60 rule and assume 1 dot equals 2°.

16. At the time of the observation, the aircraft was \

on the:
a) 042° radial
b) 048° radial
c) 222° radial
d) 228° radial
17. Assuming still air conditions, on regaining the
centreline, it will be necessary to make the following
alteration of heading:
a) left onto 045°
b) right onto 048°
c) left onto 225°
d) right onto 225°

18. DME operates in the ...... frequency band, it transmits ...... which give it the emission designator of
. ..... .
a) SHF double size pulses POI
b) UHF twin pulses PON
c) EHF twin pulses A9F
d) UHF double pulses BE

19. Referring to DME during the initial stage of the "search" pattern before "lock-on":
a) the airborne receiver checks 150 pulses each second.
b) the airborne transmitter transmits 150 pulses each second.
c) the ground receiver maintains the ground transmitter pulse transmission rate at no more than
150 per second.
d) the aircraft transmits 24 pulses per second and the receiver checks a maximum of 150 pulses
per second.

20. DME and VOR are "frequency paired" because:

a) the same receiver can be used for both aids.
b) the VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DIVE frequency.
c) "cockpit workload" is reduced.
d) both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required.

21. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses and those
intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because:
a) DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.
b) DME transponders reply to interrogations by means of twin pulses and the airborne equipment
rejects all single pulses.
c) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate("jittering") and will only accept replies that
match this randomisation.
d) when DME is in the range search mode it will accept only pulses separated by + or - 63MHz
from the interrogation frequency.
Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C C B C C D C C D B B D C B C A A B B C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An C
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 14 – EHSI (BOEING 737-800)

1. Refer to appendix A. Which display shows the expanded ILS mode?

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E

2. Refer to appendix A. Which mode is display C?

a) Centre map
b) Map
c) Plan
d) Expanded nav

3. Refer to appendix A. Which mode is display A?

a) full ILS
b) full VOR
c) full nav
d) full map

4. On display E, what is the approximate deviation from the required track?

a) 3 nm
b) 8°
c) 3°
d) 1.5°

5. On display A, what is the aircraft's track?

a) 130°
b) 165°
c) 146°
d) 135°

6. The colour code for ILS deviation pointer is:

a) magenta
b) cyan
c) green
d) amber

7. The colour code for selected heading is:

a) green
b) magenta
c) amber
d) white

8. The colour code for precipitation rate in excess of 50 mm/hr is:

a) red
b) amber
c) magenta
d) white or magenta
9. The colour code for the active route is:
a) yellow
b) magenta
c) green
d) cyan

10. The colour code for a downpath waypoint is:

a) white
b) magenta
c) green
d) cyan

11. The horizontal deviation on the expanded ILS display represented by one dot is approximately:
a) 1 °
b) 2°
c) 0.5°
d) 5°

12. On which displays will the range markers be displayed regardless of the weather selection?
a) MAP
b) EXP ILS/VOR, MAP & CTR MAP
c) MAP & CTR MAP
d) PLAN, EXP ILS/VOR, MAP & CTR MAP

13. The heading inputs to the EHSI are from:

a) The IRS
b) The FMC
c) the IRS through the symbol generator
d) the FMC through the symbol generator

14. Refer to Appendix A. The track direction from BANTU to ZAPPO on display F is:
a) 360°(M)
b) 130°(M)
c) 360°(T)
d) 130°(T)

15. The regulations recommended colour code for an in-use radio navigation facility is:
a) cyan
b) magenta
c) white
d) green

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
An C B C B D A B C B A C A C C D
APPENDIX A
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 15 – GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEMS

1. NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the ...... band and the receiver determines position by......
a) UHF, range position lines
b) UHF, secondary radar principles
c) SHF, secondary radar principles
d) SHF, range position lines

2. The NAVSTAR/ GPS control segment comprises:

a) the space segment, the user segment and the ground segment
b) a ground segment and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites
c) a master control station, a back-up control station and five monitoring stations
d) a master control station, a back-up control station, five monitoring stations and the INMARSAT
geostationary satellites

3. The orbital height and inclination of the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation are:

a) 20180 km, 65°
b) 20180 km, 550
c) 19099 km, 65°
d) 19099 km, 55°

4. The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) WGS90
b) PZ90
c) WGS84
d) PZ84

5. The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises ...... satellites
a) 12
b) 21
c) 24
d) 30

7. The most accurate fixing information will be obtained from:

a) four satellites spaced 90° apart at 30° above the visual horizon
b) one satellite close to the horizon and 3 equally at 60° above the horizon
c) one satellite directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at 60° above the horizon
d) one satellite directly overhead and 3 spaced 120° apart close to the horizon
8. The most significant error of GNSS is:
a) GDOP
b) Receiver clock
c) Ionospheric propagation
d) Ephemeris

9. The frequency available to non-authorised users of NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) 1227.6 MHz
b) 1575.42 MHz
c) 1602 MHz
d) 1246 MHz
10. The purpose of the pseudo-random noise codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) identify the satellites
b) pass the almanac data
c) pass the navigation and system data
d) pass the ephemeris and time information

11. The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

12. If a receiver has to download the almanac, the time to do this will be:
a) 2.5 minutes
b) 12.5 minutes
c) 25 minutes
d) 15 minutes

13. The use of LAAS and WAAS remove the errors caused by:
a) propagation, selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock
b) selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock
c) GDOP, selective availability and propagation
d) receiver clock, GDOP, satellite ephemeris and clock

14. The most accurate satellite fixing information will be obtained from:
a) NAVSTAR/GPS & GLONASS
b) TRANSIT & NAVSTAR/GPS
c) COSPAS/SARSAT & GLONASS
d) NAVSTAR/GPS & COSPAS/SARSAT

15. A LAAS requires:

a) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT geostationary
satellites to pass corrections to X, Y & Z co-ordinates to aircraft
b) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT geostationary
satellites to pass satellite range corrections to aircraft
c) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a system known as a pseudolite to pass
satellite range corrections to aircraft
d) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and system known as a pseudolite to pass
corrections to X, Y & Z co-ordinates to aircraft

16. The position derived from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites may be subject to the following errors:
a) selective availability, skywave interference, GDOP
b) propagation, selective availability, ephemeris
c) GDOP, static interference, instrument
d) ephemeris, GDOP, siting

17. EGNOS is:

a) the proposed European satellite navigation system
b) a LAAS
c) a WAAS
d) a system to remove errors caused by the difference between the model of the earth and the
actual shape of the earth
18. The PRN codes are used to:
a) determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and receipt of the signal at the
receiver
b) pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers
c) synchronise the receiver clocks with the satellites clocks
d) determine the range of the satellites from the receiver

19. The availability of two frequencies in GNSS:

a) removes SV ephemeris and clock errors
b) reduces propagation errors
c) reduces errors caused by GDOP
d) removes receiver clock errors

20. The NAVSTAR/GPS reference system is:

a) A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to the sun
b) A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to the prime meridian,
equator and pole
c) A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to space
d) A geo-centred 3D system based on latitude, longitude and altitude

21. The initial range calculation at the receiver is known as a pseudo-range, because it is not yet
corrected for:
a) receiver clock errors
b) receiver and satellite clock errors
c) receiver and satellite clock errors and propagation errors
d) receiver and satellite clock errors and ephemeris errors

22. The navigation and system data message is transmitted through the:
a) 50 Hz modulation
b) The C/A and P PRN codes
c) The C/A code
d) The P code

23. An all in view receiver:

a) informs the operator that all the satellites required for fixing and RAIM are in available
b) checks all the satellites in view and selects the 4 with the best geometry for fixing
c) requires 5 satellites to produce a 4D fix
d) uses all the satellites in view for fixing

24. When using GNSS to carry out a non-precision approach the MDA will be determined using:
a) barometric altitude
b) GPS altitude
c) Radio altimeter height
d) Either barometric or radio altimeter altitude

25. If an aircraft manoeuvre puts a satellite being used for fixing into the wing shadow then:
a) the accuracy will be unaffected
b) the accuracy will be temporarily downgraded
c) the receiver will automatically select another satellite with no degradation in positional
accuracy
d) the receiver will maintain lock using signals reflected from other parts of the aircraft with a
small degrading of positional accuracy
26. Which of the following statements concerning NAVSTAR/GPS time is correct?
a) satellite time is the same as UTC
b) the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is independent of UTC
c) the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is correlated with UTC
d) satellite time is based on sidereal time

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An A C B C B C D C B A C B B A D B C A B B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An A A B A B C
RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 17 – COMBINED AND MISCELLENEOUS QUESTIONS

(CHAPTERS 1-10 REVIEW)

1. VOR operates in the ...... band, it transmits a bearing signal by means of a ...... and uses ...... to
determine the radial.
a) VHF stationary limacon , phase comparison
b) UHF stationary cardioid, envelope matching
c) VHF rotating limacon, phase comparison
d) UHF rotating cardioid, envelope

2. The bearing signal transmitted from a Conventional VOR beacon is:

a) produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Limacon, which rotates at 30revs./sec.
b) produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Cardiod, which rotates at 30revs./sec.
c) produced by a 30Hz frequency modulated signal rotating at 30revs./sec.
d) produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Limacon, which rotates anti -
clockwise at 30revs./sec.

3. The modulation technique used in ILS and a typical localiser frequency are: MODULATION
FREQUENCY
a) A9W 329.30Mhz
b) A8W 110.30Mhz
c) A9W 110.70Mhz
d) A8W 118.30Mhz

4. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to signals reflected from the ground because: a) DME
uses the UHF band.
b) DME transmits twin pulses.
c) the pulse recurrence rates are varied.
d) the reflections are not at the receiver frequency.

5. The advantage of a narrow beam in a primary pulsed radar system is that:

a) target definition is improved.
b) system range (ignoring any PRF limitations) is improved
c) differentiation between adjacent targets is more likely to occur.
d) all of the above advantages apply.

6. The middle marker of an ILS system has an audible code which is:
a) alternating dots and dashes at 400Hz.
b) alternating dots and dashes at 1300Hz.
c) alternating dots and dashes at 3000Hz.
d) high pitch dots.

7. Assuming an accuracy of +/- 5.5°, the maximum spacing of two VORs, defining the centreline of
an airway, that would ensure no aircraft could be outside the airway is:
a) 54nm
b) 51 nm
c) 109nm
d) 132nm
8. When tuning, identifying and monitoring an NDB which has the emission characteristic NONA 1
A, it is necessary:
a) for the BFO to be on for all three.
b) for the BFO to be off for tuning only.
c) for the ADF function to be selected.
d) for the ANT function to be selected.
9. Accurate glidepath coverage in elevation is provided for ILS installations in the UK between:
a) an angle of 1.35° to an angle of 5.25° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.
b) an angle of 1.85° to an angle of 4.75° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.
c) an angle of 2.15° to an angle of 5.75° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.
d) an angle of 1.00° to an angle of 6.0° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.

10. SELCAL functional check must be made:

a) only on the ground before departure of a flight into an area where SELCAL is available
b) on initial contact and when entering an area where SELCAL is available.
c) with the local ATCC before take-off.
d) when crossing the coast inbound.

11. When a Mode C check is carried out in UK airspace, the controller's readout must agree with th
pilot's reported level at the same time, within:
a) +/- 5011
b) +/- 100011
c) +/- 50011
d) +/- 20011

12. An aircraft at FL 250 is using an Airborne Weather Radar (stabilisation on) with a beam widt of
5°. An isolated cloud at a range of 25nm just ceases to paint when the tilt control is at 1 ° tilt ul
The approximate altitude of the cloud top is: (use 1 in 60 rule)
a) 2100011
b) 2500011
c) 2900011
d) 33000ft

13. When using an Airborne Weather Radar in the weather mode the strongest returns on the scree
indicate:
a) areas where high concentrations of large water droplets exist.
b) areas of moderate or severe turbulence.
c) areas of probable windshear.
d) areas of thunderstorm activity.

The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to fly the centreline of an airway within UK airspace. The
indication on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the DME gave a range of
115 nm from the facility. Use this information to answer the next two
questions. (Assume 1 dot equals 2°)

14. At the time of the observation, the aircraft was on the ...... radial
and, assuming still air conditions, on regaining the centreline it will
be necessary to turn ...... .
a) 159° right onto 347°
b) 175° left onto 167°
c) 339° right onto 167°
d) 355° left onto 347°

15. At the time of the observation the aircraft was displaced from the centre line by:
a) 4nm
b) 8nm
c) 12nm
d) 15nm
16. Operational Performance Category 2 is a with a -lower than and a RVR
a) precision instrument approach and landing; MDH; 60m (200ft); not less than 300m.
b) precision instrument approach and landing; DH; 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30m (100ft);
not less than 300m.
c) precision instrument approach and landing; DH; 30m (100ft) or no DH; not less than 200m.
d) ILS approach and landing; DH; 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30m (100ft); not less than
300m.

17. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from
both are shown on the RMI illustrated:
The information given by the RMI is:
a) that the aircraft is heading 360°(M), is on the 220° radial
from the VOR, and bears I I 0°(M) from the NDB.
b) that the aircraft is heading 360°(M), is on the 040° radial
from the VOR, and bears I I 0°(M) from the NDB.
c) that the aircraft is heading 360°(M), is on the 220° radial
from the VOR, and bears 290°(M) from the NDB.
d) that the aircraft is heading 000°(T), is on the 220° radial
from the VOR, and bears 1 I 0°(M) from the NDB.

18. The rate of descent of an aircraft with an approach speed of 140kt on an ILS approach with a
glide path angle of 3.25° is (use 1 in 60 ):
a) 700 ft/min
b) 780 ft/mm
c) 860 ft/min
d) 1050 ft/min

19. Study this diagram of a VOR presentation. Assuming the proper selection has been made, choose
the line which contains the words to correctly complete the
following statement:
You are on the ...... radial and, on reaching the selected radial you
should turn ......, assuming still air conditions. RADIAL TURN
a) 279° left
b) 099° right
c) 273° left
d) 093° right

20. When using an NDB with the emission designation of NONA2A the BFO position is:
TUNING IDENTIFYING MONITORING
a) ON ON ON
b) OFF OFF OFF
c) OFF ON ON
d) ON OFF OFF

21. In a conventional VOR the reference signal is ...... and the variable signal is ...... .
a) FM AM
b) AM FM
c) FM FM
d) AM AM
22. A typical ILS localiser frequency, in Mhz, is:
a) 329.30
b) 110.30
c) 110.45
d) 75.00
23. With reference to airborne weather radar the principle of operation and the frequency band in
which it operates are:
PRINCIPLE BAND
a) secondary radar UHF
b) primary radar EHF
c) secondary radar VHF
d) primary radar SHF

24. The diagram above shows four aircraft in relation to the localiser beam of an ILS. The aircraft
position which corresponds to the illustration of the ILS presentation shown is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

25. The correct SSR code to indicate radio failure is:

a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 2000
d) 7500

26. A primary radar has a PRF of 500 pulses per second The maximum theoretical range, ignoring all
other factors, is:
a) 300 nm
b) 162 nm
c) 600 nm
d) 324 nm
27. The ILS outer marker transmits on ...... and is identified by an aural signal of ...... . The line with
the correct terms to complete the above statement is:
a) 75Mhz 2 dashes per second
b) 75khz alternate dots and dashes
c) 75Mhz alternate dots and dashes
d) 75khz 2 dashes per second
28. The diagram above shows four aircraft in relation to a VOR. Assuming that in each case the pilot
has selected 080° on the OBS, the aircraft position which corresponds to the VOR presentation
shown is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

29. VLF surface waves achieve greater range than LF surface waves because:
a) VLF diffraction is greater and attenuation is less.
b) VLF diffraction and attenuation are less.
c) VLF diffraction is less and attenuation is greater.
d) VLF diffraction and attenuation are greater.

30. With reference to a DME the time interval between the aircraft transmission and the reception of a
reply pulse is 2,000 p secs. The slant range is:
a) 300km b) 81 nm c) 60nm d) 162km

31. When using airborne weather radar to obtain a fix from a ground feature, the pencil beam is used
in preference to the mapping beam:
a) because the wider beam gives better definition of ground features.
b) the angle of tilt is restricted in the mapping mode.
c) at ranges over about 50 nm because greater power can be concentrated in the beam.
d) because it overcomes the problems of "hill" shadows.

32. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 225 can receive signals from a VOR
station situated 1,600 ft AMSL is:
a) 194nm
b) The DOC range limit.
c) 237.5nm
d) 68.75nm

33. On selecting a DME beacon the pointer or counters of a DME indicator revolve rapidly to a
maximum value and return to zero and continue the process. This indicates:
a) a range search and that the aircraft's DME receiver is searching for responses from the ground
transponder.
b) a range search and that the aircraft's DME interrogator is searching for responses from the
ground transponder.
c) a range search and that the DME beacon's receiver is searching for interrogations from the
aircraft.
d) that the system is "jittering".
34. A class B true bearing from a ground VDF station is a ...... with an accuracy of ...... .
a) QTE +/-5°
b) QDM +/-5°
c) QUJ +/-5°
d) QDR +/-5°

35. Category 2 ILS installation provides accurate guidance to:

a) 100 ft on the threshold QFE.
b) 50 ft above aerodrome elevation.
c) 200 ft above aerodrome elevation.
d) 50 ft above the plane containing the runway threshold.

36. When a VOR is selected, the identification is PSV and the paired DME channel identification is
PSZ. This means that:
a) the two aids are associated and the aerials are less than 2000 feet apart.
b) the two aids can together be used for an airfield approach.
c) the two transmitter aerials are in totally different positions.
d) the two transmitter aerials are within 6nm of each other and the two aids can be used together
for normal airways navigation.

37. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 244 radial. The OBS should be
set to:
a) 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
b) 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
c) 064 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.
d) 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C A B D D B C A A B D A A A D B A B D D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An A B D D B B A D A A C C A A D D A
RADIO NAVIGATION TEST PAPER
17-12 © Oxford Aviation Services Limited
TEST PAPER 1

1. To provide 3D positioning when flying under IFR a stand alone GPS equipment needs a minimum
of:
a) 3 satellites with adequate elevation and suitable geometry.
b) 6 satellites above the horizon.
c) 4 satellites with adequate elevation and suitable geometry.
d) 5 satellites with adequate elevation and suitable geometry.

2. An apparent increase in transmitted frequency, proportional to the velocity of the transmitter, is

caused by:
a) the receiver moving towards the transmitter.
b) the transmitter moving away from the receiver.
c) the transmitter moving towards the receiver.
d) the transmitter and the receiver moving away from each other.

3. With reference to the Navstar Global Positioning System (GPS) the horizontal accuracy figures
quoted are based upon the assumption that position is referenced to:
a) local datums.
b) European Datum 1950.
c) Nouvelle Triangulation de France (NTF) 1970.
d) World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS84) Datum.

4. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a) Primary radar uses echoes from a reflecting object, whereas secondary radar uses responses
from a transponder beacon.
b) Primary radar gives range not bearing, of a reflecting object.
c) Secondary always measures the bearing of a reflecting object more accurately than primary
radar.
d) Only secondary radar can be carried on an aircraft.

5. With reference to DME:

During the search period, to achieve a quick 'Lock-on', the aircraft's interrogator:
a) transmits at 150 pps; if 'Lock-on' is not acheived after 100 seconds the PRF is reduced to 60pps
and maintained at this rate until the range search is complete.
b) transmits pulse pairs at 60pps; when lock-on is achieved the rate is reduced to between 25 and
30pps.
c) transmits at 150 pps; if 'Lock-on' is not acheived after 15000 pairs of pulses the PRF is reduced
to 60pps and maintained at this rate until the range search is complete. d) interrogates at a
frequency +/- 63MHz in relation to the transponder's frequency.

6. A frequency of 15 Ghz produces a wavelength of ....... is in the ...... frequency band and is
allocated to .......
a) .002 m EHF ASMI
b) 2 cm EHF radar research
c) 2 m SHF high resolution SRA
d) .02 m SHF ASMI
7. A Doppler VOR (DVOR) is more accurate because it minimises ....... error. The reference signals
and variable phase directional signals rotate ......., are ....... and ....... respectively, and an aircraft
....... to be fitted with a special receiver.
a) site; anti-clockwise; FM; AM; needs.
b) equipment; anti-clockwise; AM; FM; does not need.
c) site; clockwise; AM; FM; needs.
d) site; anti-clockwise; AM; FM; does not need.
8. If an aircraft's groundspeed reduces by l Okt whilst it is flying an ILS approach with a 3° glidepath
then its rate of descent:
a) should increase by 50 ft/min.
b) should decrease by 25 ft/min.
c) should decrease by 50 ft/min.
d) does not need to be adjusted as the speed change is too small to have any significant effect.

9. The above AWR presentation represents a particular condition encountered in flight. Which of the
following statements describes the presentation correctly?
a) The CONTOUR facility has been selected; positions A indicate areas of heavier rainfall and
associated CAT. Sensitivity Time Control (Swept Gain) also operates up to 25nm range.
b) The CONTOUR facility has been selected and STC (Swept Gain) is not in operation; positions
B indicate areas of heavier rainfall usually associated with turbulence.
c) The CONTOUR facility has been selected and STC (Swept Gain) operates up to 25nm;
positions B indicate areas of heavier rainfall usually associated with turbulence. .
d) The MAPPING beam has been selected and the picture represents the contouring of islands and
reefs within 50-60nm of the aircraft.

10. An aircraft at 36 400' indicates a DME range of 10.5 nm. The ground distance to the beacon is:
a) 8nm
b) between 8nm and 9nm
c) 8.5nm
d) 9nm

11. An Airfield Surface Movement Indicator Radar uses frequencies within the ....... band, beam
widths in the order of ....... and its scanner rotates at around .......; it ...... be used as a high
resolution radar for Surveillance Radar Approaches.
a) EHF; %2°; 15-20rpm; can also
b) SHF; 1° ; 60rpm; can also
c) SHF; ''/2° ; 15-20rpm; cannot d) SHE .5° 60rpm; cannot
12. With reference to SSR operating procedures pilots shall when reporting levels under routine
procedures or when requested by ATC, state the current altimeter reading to ....... If on verification
there is a difference of more than ....... between the readout indicated on the controller's screen and
the reported level the pilot will be instructed to ....... or select ........ The ATC screen indicates
flight levels to the nearest .......
a) 100'; 200'; switch off Mode C; 0000; 100'
b) 200'; 100"; switch off Mode C; 7007; 100'
c) 100'; 200'; switch off Mode C; 0000; 50'
d) 100'; 200'; select the other 0000; 100' transponder
13. A hyperbolic navigation system where the baseline distances from the master transmitter to the
individual slaves are in the order 400 to 500nm miles uses the principle of:
a) differential range by phase comparison.
b) differential range by pulse technique.
c) differential range by pulse technique using frequencies between 70 and l30kHz.
d) reflecting pulses in groups of eight and nine from the master and slave transmissions.

14. Whilst in flight you are using a Doppler VOR. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The first letter of the DVOR identification is'D'.
b) The DVOR identification is followed by six dots.
c) You are unable to differentiate between a conventional and Doppler VOR when using the
aircraft's system.
d) The last letter of the DVOR identification is a 'Z'.

15. The errors in DECCA are:

a) station interference; static interference; lane slip.
b) station interference; static interference; lane slip; height error.
c) coastal refraction; quadrantal error; lane slip; height effect.
d) night effect; static interference; lane slip; height error.

16. With reference to VDF let-downs or QGH let-downs available at the same airfield:
a) a VDF let-down is controlled by the pilot; a QGH is controlled by the ground operator.
b) both are controlled by the pilot.
c) both are controlled by the ground operator.
d) a VDF let-down is controlled by the ground operator; a QGH is controlled by the pilot.

17. A pilot is using a VOR and DME simultaneously. The identification of each beacon is the same
except that the last letter of the DME's identification is a 'Z'. If the pilot plots the bearing and range
from these beacons then:
a) he will obtain an accurate fix from which it is safe to start a descent and airfield approach
procedure, if he assumes the DME beacon is located with the VOR beacon.
b) he will obtain an accurate fix, even though the distance between the two beacons can be
between 2000' and 6nm, if he plots the bearing from the VOR beacon position and the range from
the DME beacon's position.
c) the beacons are situated more than 6nm apart and may be frequency paired.
d) the VOR is a civilian facility, whilst the DME is a military TACAN beacon.

18. The Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) is a system which consists of ....... active
satellites plus ....... operational spare satellites in ....... orbital planes around the earth. A minimum
of ....... satellites are needed to provide a ....... dimensional fix.
a) 21; 3; 6; 3; 3; b) 21; 3; 4; 3; 2; c) 21; 3; 6; 4; 3; d) 24; 3; 5; 3; 3;

19. At 1000UTC in zero wind conditions three aircraft are using the same co-located VOR/DME
transponder. Aircraft A is at 120nm, FL 350, heading 270`(M) on the 270° radial. Aircraft B is at
15nm, FL70, heading 300°(M) on the 120° radial. Aircraft C is at 15 nm, FL410, heading
090°(M) and crossing the 180° radial. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Aircraft B's DME groundspeed computation is the most accurate.
b) Aircraft A's DME groundspeed computation is the most accurate.
c) All the DME groundspeed computations are correct.
d) Aircraft C's DME groundspeed computation is the most accurate because the aircraft is the
highest and furthest from the beacon.
20. An aircraft is maintaining an outbound track of 160°(M), with 20° port drift, from NDB A. ATC
have requested a position report when the aircraft intercepts the 070° radial from VOR B.

Which of the above RMIs represents the aircraft's position at the reporting point ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

21. Aircraft A is homing, with 11 ° port drift,

on a track of 060°(M) to NDB P, whilst aircraft B
is maintaining an outbound track of 320°(M) with
13° starboard drift from the same NDB; each
aircraft has a Relative Bearing Indicator. Which of
the following is correct?
Relative Bearing
Aircraft A Aircraft B
a) 349° 167°
b) 011° 167°
c) 349° 193°
d) 169° 193°

22. A pilot hears the morse TST from a navigational aid. This means that:
a) The station is on test and may be used with caution.
b) The facility is transmitting for test purposes only and must not be used.
c) The station accuracy has just been checked and it has passed the test
d) The aid may be used with caution and the accuracy reported to ATC

23. An aircraft is flying downwind within the coverage sectors of an ICAO ILS; it is abeam and to the
left of the touchdown point and above the glideslope:
a) Its localiser receiver is detecting more 150Hz than 90Hz modulations and the localiser needle
indicates fly "right"; the glideslope receiver is receiving more 90Hz than 150Hz modulations and
the indication is to fly down.
b) Its localiser receiver is detecting more 150Hz than 90Hz modulations and the localiser needle
indicates fly "left"; the glideslope receiver is receiving more 90Hz than 150Hz modulations and
the indication is to fly down.
c) Its localiser receiver is detecting more 90Hz than 150Hz modulations and the localiser needle
indicates fly "left"; the glideslope receiver is receiving more 150Hz than 90Hz modulations and
the indication is to fly down.
d) Or, like me you are totally confused!

24. The two factors which affect the amount of Doppler shift measured by an aircraft's system are:
a) TAS and height of the terrain.
b) Ground speed and transmitted wavelength.
c) Transmitted frequency and the depression angle of the transmission beams.
d) Aircraft altitude and the Doppler's pulse repetition frequency.
25. With reference to Loran C: All the master and slave transmitters transmit on a frequency
Of . Each chain consists of a master and up to slaves and differentiates itself from other chains on
the common frequency by having
a) 14kHz; three; comparison frequency.
b) l OOkHz; four; pulses transmitted in groups of eight.
c) 100kHz; four; differential range by phase comparison.
d) 100kHz; four; a unique Pulse Group Repetition Interval.
26. With reference to the Global Positioning System (GPS): The minimum number of satellites, with
adequate elevation and suitable geometry, to provide the RAIM function and to isolate the faulty
satellite is:
a) 6 b) 5 c) 3 d) 24

27. A transmitter is emitting a 5cm wavelength and moving towards a receiver at 500 metres per
second. The received Doppler shift is:
a) 5kHz b) l0000kHz c) lOkHz d) 2.5kHz

28. A CATEGORY 2 ILS ground installation provides accurate guidance down to:
a) 50ft above the aerodrome reference point.
b) 50ft above the horizontal plane containing the runway threshold. c) 200ft above mean sea
level.
d) 100ft above the ILS reference point.

29. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 230° radial with 10 starboard drift. An NDB lies
to the south of the VOR. Which of the illustrations below represents the RMI when the aircraft is
obtaining a relative bearing of 265°

30. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from
both are shown on the RMI illustrated. Use this information to answer the following question. The
information given on the RMI is:
a) that the aircraft is heading 012°(M), is on the 110° radial from the VOR, and bears 350°(M)
from the NDB.
b) that the aircraft is heading I I 0°(M), is on the 120° radial from the VOR, and bears 180°(M)
from the NDB.
c) that the aircraft is heading 120°(M), is on the 170° radial from the VOR, and bears 290°(M)
from the NDB.
d) that the aircraft is heading 120°(M), is on the 290° radial from the VOR, and bears 170°(M)
from the NDB.
31. AWR uses the frequency of 9.375GHz because it:
a) produces the best returns from precipitation, and enables narrow, efficient beams to be formed
for accurate target discrimination.
b) produces the best returns from precipitation, and enables narrow, efficient beams to be formed
for accurate target discrimination and mapping beyond 60nm.
c) produces the best returns from large water droplets and wet hail, indicates areas of clear air
turbulence, and enables narrow, efficient beams to be formed for accurate target discrimination.
d) produces the best returns from large water droplets and wet hail, and enables narrow, efficient
beams to be formed for accurate target discrimination.

32. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having NON A 1 A
type emission is to be used:
a) BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring.
b) BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose.
c) BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission is not
modulated.
d) BFO should be switched on at all times when an NON AIA NDB is being used.

33. A maritime reconnaissance aircraft using a primary pulsed air to surface radar system first detects
a large surface vessel at a range of 110nm. Considering only the line of sight limitations of the
system, the aircraft altitude must be:
a) 230 ft
b) 790 ft
c) 2300 ft
d) 7700 ft

Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C C D A C D D C C B/ D A B C D A B C B B
n C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C B B D B C B B D D D D
n
TEST PAPER 2

1. With reference to the Global Positioning System (GPS): The number of satellites, with adequate
elevation and suitable geometry, needed to perform the RAIM function without isolating a faulty
satellite is:
a) 6 b) 5 c) between 21 and 24 d) 4

2. An accuracy of f 5° in VOR bearings received at an aircraft is achieved:

a) within the cone of confusion by day only.
b) at all ranges within the DOC limits day and night.
c) within the DOC limits by day only.
d) beyond the cone of confusion as far as the DOC limits by day and night.

3. A VOR station which continues to transmit bearings but ceases to transmit its identification:
a) can be used only by day.
b) can be used only in VMC.
c) has developed an error exceeding 1 ° at the transmitter and must not be used.
d) can be used provided the frequency selected is checked as correct.

4. The emission designator for a particular aeronautical radio facility which utilises both FM and AM
could be:
a) A9W b) NONA2A c) A8W d) A3E

5. Two radio navigation aids use the principle of phase comparison to establish position lines; they
are:
a) Loran C, DECCA
b) GPSS, Decca
c) VOR, DME, Decca
d) VOR, Decca

6. An aircraft is inbound, with 20° starboard drift, on the 180° radial from VOR "K". The relative
bearing of NDB "L" is 300°. Which of the following correctly shows the RMI presentation in the
aircraft
HDG(M) "K" POINTER "L" POINTER
a) 340° 000° 300°
b) 340° 000° 280°
c) 020° 000° 320°
d) 160° 180° 100°

7. In reference to NDB/ADF, Night Effect is caused by sky-waves from interferring

with its omni-directional surface wave. The effect occurs at and is worst
a) the NDB in use; ranges of 70nm and above; at dawn and dusk.
b) other distant NDBs on the same or similar frequencies; outside the NDB's DOC and up to 70nm
and above; during hours of darkness.
c) the NDB in use; ranges of 100nm and above; diurnally in the winter.
d) the NDB in use; any range; at midnight when the D layer is the weakest.

8. A radio transmitter is emitting a frequency of l OGhz and moving away from a stationary receiver
where a Doppler shift of 5khz is measured. The received frequency is:
a) 10,000005Ghz
b) 5Ghz
c) 10.0005Ghz
d) 9.999995Ghz
9. A typical ILS localiser frequency is:
a) 329.30Mhz
b) 110.30Mhz
c) 110.45Mhz
d) 75.OOMhz

10. The United Kingdom Operating Requirements for Category 3A operations are:
a) a precision approach down to 5011 above the horizontal plane containing the runway threshold.
b) a precision approach and landing with a decision height lower than 20011 but not lower than
100ft and a RVR not less than 300m.
c) a precision instrument approach and landing with a minimum descent height lower than 10011,
or no minimum descent height, and a RVR not less than 200m.
d) a precision approach and landing with a decision height lower than 100ft, or no decision
height, and a RVR not less than 200m.

11. The ILS MIDDLE MARKER has the following flight deck aural and visual characteristics:
IDENT' RATE LIGHT
a) Alternate dot/dash 3/sec Amber
b) Alternate dot/dash 2/sec Blue
c) Dashes 3/sec Amber
d) Alternate dot/dash 3/sec Blue

12. The maximum safe fly-up indication on an ILS approach when using a meter with a 5 dot display
is:
a) 0.35° b) 2.5dots c) 1.3dots d) 0.7°

13. Which of the following would be the normal fix for a Basic RNAV (B-RNAV) equipment:
a) DME/DME
b) VOR/DME
c) VOR/NDB
d) VOR/VOR

14. Which following statement is true?

a) Primary radar uses echoes from a reflecting object whereas secondary radar uses responses from
a transponder.
b) Primary radar can only find the range of a reflecting object.
c) Secondary radar always measures the bearing of a reflecting object more accurately than a
primary.
d) Only secondary, not primary, radar can be carried in an aircraft.

15. Two examples of secondary radar are:

a) VOR and DME
b) AWR and SSR
c) SSR and DME
d) VOR and DECCA

6. The Micro-wave Landing System has.......... channels, is allocated the frequencies between
.............. and............ : it requires .......... antennas to provide Back Azimuth, Elevation, Flare and
Approach Azimuth/DME.
a) 252, 5031 Mhz, 5090Mhz, separate.
b) 250, 5031 Mhz, 5060Mhz, three.
c) 200, 962Mhz, 1213Mhz, separate.
d) 200, 5031 Mhz, 5090Mhz, separate.
17. The Airfield Surface Movement Indicator radar has a.............. rotation rate compared to that of
standard Surveillance radars and also has a.............. beam.
a) similar, wider.
b) higher, narrower.
c) slower, narrower.
d) similar, narrower.

18. Micro-wave Landing Systems in the UK provide azimuth and glideslope coverage out to .........nm.
The coverage, of the azimuth is......... either side of the runway on-course line whilst the
glideslope coverage is up to ........
a) 20, 40, 10
b) 40, 20, 40
c) 20, 40, 20
d) 20, 20, 20

19. The areas of greatest turbulence associated with storm clouds are indicated on the colour screen of
an Airborne Weather Radar by:
a) Cyclic Contouring which emphases the high intensity rainfall areas by alternately flashing them
red and black.
b) the thinnest lines of colour which indicate steep rainfall gradients.
c) the black holes produced by the Iso-echo Contour facility.
d) selecting the Sensitivity Time Control function.

20. A frequency of around l OGhz is chosen for an Airborne weather radar because:
a) it gives the best results for ground mapping.
b) a higher frequency gives greater attenuation from all types of precipitation.
c) this frequency will produce narrow beams, for good target resolution, from antennas whose
diameters are constrained by the dimensions of the aircraft's radome.
d) this frequency reflects from areas of clear air turbulence.

21. The Global Positioning System frequency available for use by civil operators is:
a) 1227.6MHz
b) 1575.42MHz
c) 2227.5MHz
d) 1783.74MHz

22. With reference to NAVSTAR GPS; when used as a stand-alone system, the minimum number of
satellites which must be in view at any one time, is:
a) 6 b) 7 c) 4 d) 5

23. The principle of operation of MLS is:

a) lobe comparison of scanning beams.
b) phase comparison of directional beams.
c) time referenced scanning beams.
d) frequency comparison of reference beams.

24. A hyperbolic navigation system where the baseline distances between the master transmitter and
the slave transmitters are in the order of 70 to 1 l Onm works on the principle of
a) differential range by phase comparison.
b) differential range by pulse technique.
c) phase comparison of the slave signal against an atomic time standard.
d) phase comparison of both master and slave signals against an atomic time standard.
Answers:

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An B C C A D B A D B D A B B A C D B C B C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An B C C A
[Do not use questions on ILS, MLS, Ground RADAR, Airborne WX RADAR, RNAV, LORAN-C, Decca,
Doppler in CPL. So some questions are deleted]

18 (01-33) RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS

1. When would VDF be used for a position fix?

a. When an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.
b. When first talking to a FIR on crossing an international boundary.
c. When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace.
d. When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz.

2. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown?
a. VHF radio
b. VOR
c. VOR/DME
d. None

3. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let down?

a. no equipment required in the aircraft
b. no special equipment required in the aircraft or on the ground
c. only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft
d. it is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required

4. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft at
FL080 ?
a. 134 nm
b. 107 nm
c. 91 nm
d. 114 nm

5. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate.
a. it is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground
b. it is simple and requires a VHF radio and DF equipment in the aircraft
c. it is simple requiring only VHF radios on the ground and in the aircraft
d. it uses line of sight propagation

6. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 KHz?

a. 8 m
b. 80 m
c. 800 m
d. 8000 m

7. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is:

a. a 30 Hz polar diagram
b. omni -directional
c. a bi-lobal pattern
d. a beam rotating at 30 Hz

8. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:

a. +/-1o
b. +/-2°
c. +/-5°
d. +/-10°
9. Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and the relative
bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:
a. 044
b. 048
c. 074
d. 224

10. Two NDB's, one 20 nm from the coast and the other 50 nm further inland. Assuming coastal error is the
same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?
a. the NDB at 20 nm
b. the NDB at 50 nm
c. same when the relative bearing is 090/270
d. same when the relative bearing is 180/360

11. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?
a. interference from other NDB's particularly by day
b. interference between aircraft aerials
c. interference from other NDB's, particularly at night
d. frequency drift at the ground station

12. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?
a. selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect
b. night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
c. mountain effect, station interference, static interference
d. selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

13. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF?

a. BFO on
b. Select the loop position
c. Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal
d. Select the LOOP position

14. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?
a. beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast
b. beacon inland at 90° to the coast
c. beacon close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast
d. beacon close to the coast at 90° to the coast

15. A radio beacon has a range of 10 nm. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a range
of 20 nm?
a. 16
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8

16. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?

a. quadrantal error
b. coastal refraction
c. precipitation static
d. static from Cb
17. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
a. static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning
b. station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
c. coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
d. lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference
18. The allocated frequency coverage of NDB's is:
a. 250 - 450 KHz
b. 190 - 1750 KHz
c. 108 - 117.95 MHz
d. 200 - 500 KHz

19. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is:

a. phase comparison
b. switched cardioids
c. difference in depth of modulation
d. pulse technique

20. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the ...... should be used for VOR and
at the ...... for ADF.
a. aircraft, aircraft
b. aircraft, station
c. station, aircraft
d. station, station

21. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the
variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on?
a. 013
b. 005
c. 193
d. 187

22. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz modulation. The
variable signal modulation is produced by:
a. adding 30 Hz to the transmitted signal
b. a 30 Hz rotation producing a 30 Hz modulation
c. varying the amplitude up and down at +/-30 Hz
d. using Doppler techniques to produce a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

23. If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1.0°, what is the maximum cross track error at 200 nm?
a. 3.0 nm
b. 2.5 nm
c. 2.0 nm
d. 3.5 nm

24. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same
identification?
a. 2000 m
b. 60 m
c. 600 m
d. 6 m
25. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centreline of an airway (10 nm
wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?
a. 120 nm
b. 109 nm
c. 60 nm
d. 54 nm

26. On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30°. The VOR radial is:
a. 210
b. 030
c. 330
d. 150

27. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means
that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:
a. 600 m
b. 100 m
c. 2000 m
d. 300 m

28. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from
the VOR beacon?
a. 5
b. 2.5
c. 1.5
d. 3

29. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
a. 275 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 243 nm
d. 220 nm

30. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:
a. a constant track
b. a great circle track
c. a rhumb line track
d. a constant heading

31. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?

a. 107.75
b. 109.90
c. 118.35
d. 112.20
32. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:
a. loss of signal due to line of sight limitations
b. interference from other VOR's operating on the same frequency
c. skywave contamination of the VOR signal
d. scalloping errors
33. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, horning to a VOR. If variation at the aircraft is
10°E and 15°E at the VOR, what is the inbound radial?
a. 075
b. 105
c. 255
d. 285
34. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30
seconds:
a. 4 identifications in the same tone
b. 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
c. 4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
d. no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated
then this shows that both are serviceable

35. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by an aircraft
at FL012
a. 60 nm
b. 80 nm
c. 120 nm
d. 220 nm

36. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on
the OBS and the CDI indications are:
a. 285, TO
b. 105, TO
c. 285, FROM
d. 105, FROM

37. When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:
a. a straight line
b. a rhumb line
c. a great circle
d. a constant true heading

38. The frequency band of VOR is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. LF & MF

39. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR 20°E)?
a. 160
b. 347
c. 193
d. 167
40. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft amsl at a range
of 175 nm?
a. 26000 ft
b. 16000 ft
c. 24000 ft
d. 20000 ft
41. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying ...... from the beacon:
a. west
b. north
c. east
d. south

42. At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1', how far off the centreline is the aircraft?
a. 3.5 nm
b. 1.75 nm
c. 7 nm
d. 1 nm
43. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:
a. at all times
b. by day only
c. at all times except night
d. at all times except dawn and dusk
44. Which of the following provides distance information?
a. DME
b. VOR
c. ADF
d. VDF

45. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
a. a VOR on the flight plan route
b. a VOR off the flight plan route
c. a DME on the flight plan route
d. a DME off the flight plan route

46. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?
a. it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second (ppps) after 100 seconds
b. it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 ppps after 15000 pulse pairs
c. it stays in the search mode at 150 ppps
d. it alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds

47. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30000 ft will be when the aircraft
is:
a. tracking towards the beacon at 10 nm
b. overhead the beacon
c. tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm
d. passing abeam the beacon at 5 nm

48. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ...... aircraft are interrogating the
transponder.
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200

49. A typical DME frequency is:

a. 1000 MHz
b. 1300 MHz
c. 1000 KHz
d. 1575 MHz

50. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a range of 210 nm.
The reason for this is:
a. the beacon is saturated
b. the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d. the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response

51. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft
transmissions because:
a. the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
b. the pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation
c. the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
d. the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz
52. When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:
a. 6 nm
b. 9 nm
c. 0
d. 12 nm
53. A DME frequency could be:
a. 10 MHz
b. 100 MHz
c. 1000 MHz
d. 10000 MHz

54. An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:
a. 8 nm
b. 11.7 nm
c. 10 nm
d. 13.6 nm

55. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:
a. the PRF of the pulse pairs is j jittered
b. it uses MTI
c. the interrogation and reply frequencies differ
d. the reflections will all fall within the flyback period

56. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?
a. magnetic bearing
b. DME
c. Nothing
d. DME and magnetic bearing

57. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation of 167 ft.
The plan range is:
a. 13.5 nm
b. 16.5 nm
c. 15 nm
d. 17.6 nm

58. What are the DME frequencies?

a. 1030 & 1090 MHz
b. 1030 - 1090 MHz
c. 960 & 1215 MHz
d. 960 - 1215 MHz

59. The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME
ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:
a. 330 nm
b. 185 nm
c. 165 nm
d. 370 nm

60. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:
a. the DME is unserviceable
b. the DME is trying to lock onto range
c. the DME is trying to lock onto frequency
d. the DME is receiving no response from the ground station
61. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:
a. the DME is in the search mode
b. the DME is unserviceable
c. the DME is receiving no response from the transponder
d. The transponder is unserviceable

62. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at msl. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to the
DME. This is because:
a. DME is limited to 200 nm
b. The aircraft is too high to receive the signal
c. The aircraft is too low to receive the signal
d. The beacon is saturated

83. Primary radar operates on the principle of

a. transponder interrogation
b. pulse technique
c. phase comparison
d. continuous wave emission

84. The definition of a radar display will be best with:

a. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth
b. narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth
c. wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth
d. wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

85. The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:
a. more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy
b. removes the minimum range restriction
c. smaller more compact equipment
d. permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing

86. Which of the following systems use pulse technique?

A. secondary surveillance radar
B. airborne weather radar
C. distance measuring equipment
D. primary radar
a. all the above
b. B and D only
c. B only
d. A and C only

87. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

88. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:
a. Pulse width
b. Beamwidth
c. Pulse recurrence rate
d. Rate of rotation
89. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:
a. pulse width
b. peak power
c. average power
d. pulse recurrence rate

90. What does pulse recurrence rate refer to?

a. the number of cycles per second
b. the number of pulses per second
c. the ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period
d. the delay known as flyback or dead time

91. The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is:

a. 300 pulses per second (pps)
b. 600 pps
c. 1620 pps
d. 3280 pps

92. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
a. a continuous wave primary radar
b. a pulsed secondary radar
c. a pulsed primary radar
d. a continuous wave secondary radar

93. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?
a. millimetric pulse
b. continuous wave primary
c. centimetric pulse
d. continuous wave secondary

94. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:

a. reduces sidelobes and directs more energy into the main beam
b. removes the need for azimuth slaving
c. sidelobe suppression
d. can produce simultaneous map and weather information

95. The maximum unambiguous (theoretical) range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:
a. 134 nm
b. 180 nm
c. 67 nm
d. 360 nm

96. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. If the speed of light is 300000 kps, what is the maximum range of the
radar?
a. 150 km
b. 333 km
c. 666 km
d. 1326 kin

97. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:

a. low frequency, narrow beam
b. short wavelength, narrow beam
c. high frequency, wide beam
d. long wavelength, wide beam
Ans. B
98. Which of the following is a primary radar system?
a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPS
d. AWR
Ans. D

99. On what principle does primary ATC radar work?

a. pulse technique
b. pulse comparison
c. continuous wave
d. transponder interrogation
Ans. A

100. ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range o£
a. 100 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 300 rim
d. 400 nm

101. An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of.

a. 330 MHz
b. 600 MHz
c. 10 GHz
d. 15 GHz

102. Short range aerodrome radars will have ...... wavelengths.

a. millimetric
b. centimetric
c. decimetric
d. metric

123. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12
pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:
a. 4096 codes in 4 blocks
b. 2048 codes in 3 blocks
c. 4096 codes in 3 blocks
d. 2048 codes in 4 blocks

124. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
a. the frequency is too high
b. SSR does not use the echo principle
c. The PRF is jittered
d. By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns

125. The advantages of SSR mode S are:

a. improved resolution, TCAS
b. data link, reduced voice communications
c. TCAS, no RT communications
d. better resolution, selective interrogation
126. Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area where no
code has been allocated?
a. 7000
b. 7500
c. 2000
d. 0000

127. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
a. +/- 25 ft
b. +/- 50 ft
c. +/- 75 ft
d. +/- 100 ft

128. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ...... and receives responses on ......
a. 1030 MHz, 1030 MHz
b. 1030 MHz, 1090 MHz
c. 1090 MHz, 1030 MHz
d. 1090 MHz, 1090 MHz

129. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:

a. QNH unless QFE is in use
b. 1013.25 HPa
c. QNH
d. WGS84 datum

130. Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?

a. the frequencies are too low to detect water droplets
b. the frequencies are too high to detect water droplets
c. moving target indication is used to suppress the static generated by water droplets
d. the principle of the return of echoes is not used

131. The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

a. A
b. C
c. S
d. All

132. With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure ?
a. 9999
b. 0000
c. 4096
d. 7600

136. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a. reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors
b. determine satellite range
c. eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors
d. remove receiver clock error

137. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
a. barometric altitude
b. radio altimeter
c. GPS altitude
d. GPS or barometric altitude
138. If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing, the effect on
position will be:
a. none
b. the position will degrade
c. another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position
d. the GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the fuselage

139. The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a. 12.5 minutes
b. 12 hours
c. 30 seconds
d. 15 minutes

140. The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:

a. only significant for satellites close to the horizon
b. minimized by averaging the signals
c. minimized by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals
d. negligible

141. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a. above mean sea level
b. above ground level
c. above the WGS84 ellipsoid
d. pressure altitude

142. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a. 24 satellites in 6 orbits
b. 24 satellites in 4 orbits
c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits
d. 24 satellites in 8 orbits

143. Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position. This is
achieved by:
a. introducing an offset in the satellites clocks
b. random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time
c. random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates
d. introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates

144. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:

a. in the fm
b. on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
c. on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d. under the fuselage

145. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

a. provides X, Y & Z co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data
b. provides X, Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data
c. monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time
d. provides geographic position and UTC

146. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

a. the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours
b. the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24 hours
c. the orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage
d. the orbits are inclined at 65° with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes
147. NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:
a. regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks
b. adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
c. synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation
d. having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver.

148. The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs include:
a. satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
b. satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
c. position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
d. ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z co-ordinates and corrections, satellite clock
time and error

149. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

a. space, control, user
b. space, control, ground
c. space, control, air
d. space, ground, air

150. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

a. multiplex
b. multi-channel
c. sequential
d. fast multiplex

151. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:

a. 19330 km
b. 35800 km
c. 10898 nm
d. 10313 nm

152. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:
a. NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit
b. GLONASS and COSPAS/SARSAT
c. GLONASS and TNSS transit
d. NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

153. The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:

a. determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver
b. determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
c. transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
d. determined by the receiver from the broadcast satellite X, Y, Z & T data

154. The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:

a. is done prior to each fix
b. is done when the receiver position is in error
c. involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which
satellites are in view
d. is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data
155. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one satellite then
the flight should be continued:
a. using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output
b. using alternative navigation systems
c. using alternative radio navigation systems only
d. using inertial reference systems only
156. The WGS84 model of the earth is:
a. a geoid
b. a sphere
c. an exact model of the earth
d. an ellipse

157. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L 1 and L2 frequencies is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. EHF
d. SHF

158. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

159. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix ?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5

160. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?
a. they are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM
b. they are eliminated using differential techniques
c. they are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available
d. transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less than
one metre

161. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
a. barometric
b. GNSS
c. radio
d. radio or GNSS

162. The number of satellites required to provide a 31) fix without RAIM is:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3

163. The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a. 21
b. 18
c. 24
d. 30

164. `Unauthorised' civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:

a. the P and Y codes
b. the P code
c. the C/A and P codes
d. the C/A code
165. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used ?
a. barometric
b. GPS height
c. radio altitude
d. average of barometric and GPS

166. The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the ...... band.
a. SHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. EHF

167. Which GNSS system can be used for IFR flights in Europe ?
a. NAVSTAR/GPS
b. GLONASS
c. COSPAS/SARSAT
d. TNSS transit

168. During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large error
between the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:
a. continue the flight in VMC
b. continue using the conventional systems
C. continue using the GPS
d. switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error

169. What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you?
a. latitude and longitude
b. latitude, longitude, altitude and time
C. latitude, longitude and altitude
d. latitude, longitude and time

170. What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites ?

i. offset of the satellite clock from GMT
ii. ephemeris data
iii. health data
iv. ionospheric delays
v. solar activity
a. i, ii, iii, IV, V
b. i, ii, iii
C. i, ii, 1V
d. 11, 111, 1V

171. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

a. to control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users
b. to monitor the satellites in orbit
C. to maintain the satellites in orbit
d. degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users

172. In GNSS a fix is obtained by:

a. measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the aircraft.
b. measuring the time taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of satellites in
known positions and return to the aircraft
C. measuring the pulse lengths of the sequential signals from a number of satellites in known
positions
d. measuring the phase angle of the signals from a number of satellites in known positions
173. The inclination of a satellite is:
a. the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
b. the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane
c. 90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
d. 90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

174. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined?
a. by referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84
b. by synchronising the receiver clock with the SV clock
C. by measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of light
d. by measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed of light

175. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because:
a. it is measured using pseudo-random codes
b. it includes receiver clock error
c. satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other
d. it is measured against idealised Keplerian orbits

176. The task of the control segment is to:

a. determine availability to users
b. monitor the SV ephemeris and clock
c. apply selective availability
d. all of the above

177. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires ...... SVs:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

178. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a. differentiate between satellites
b. pass satellite ephemeris information
c. pass satellite time and epheaneris information
d. pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information

179. An `all in view' satellite navigation receiver is one which:

a. monitors all 24 satellites
b. tracks selected satellites
c. selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four
d. tracks the closest satellites

180. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport ?
a. 1227.6 MHz only
b. 1575.42 MHz only
c. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz
d. 1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz

181. Which GNSS is authorised for use on European airways ?

a. GLONASS
b. NAVSTAR/GPS
c. Galileo
d. COSPAS/SARSAT
182. In GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted ?
a. both frequencies
b. the higher frequency
c. neither frequency
d. the lower frequency

183. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined at:
a. 55° to the earth's axis
b. 55° to the plane of the equator
c. 99° to the earth's axis
d. 99° to the plane of the equator

184. RAIM is achieved:

a. by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed to
receivers via geo-stationary satellites
b. by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers
using pseudolites
c. within the receiver
d. any of the above

185. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:
a. interrogate the satellites to determine range
b. track the satellites to calculate time
c. track the satellites to calculate range
d. determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

186. In which frequency band are the Ll and L2 frequencies of GNSS ?

a. SHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. EHF

187. Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS (DGPS) is true?
a. Local area DGPS gives the same improvement in accuracy regardless of distance from the
station
b. DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors
c. DGPS can improve the accuracy of SA affected position information.
d. Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to a ground station

188. The visibility of GPS satellites is:

a. dependent on the location of the user
b. greatest at the equator
c. greatest at the poles
d. the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth

189. In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from track
would represent:
a. 5 nm
b. 0.5 nm
c. 5°
d. 0.5°
193. For position fixing the B737-800 FMC uses:
a. DME/DME
b. VOR/DME
c. DME/DME or VOR/DME
d. Any combination of VOR, DME and ADF
194. When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents:
a. 2°
b. 5°
c. 5 nm
d. 2 nm

201. When midway between two waypoints, how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft?
a. by using the ATD at the previous waypoint
b. by using the computed ETA for the next waypoint
c. by using the ATA at the previous waypoint
d. by using the ETA at the destination

203. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:
a. auto-throttle, IRS and FMC
b. FCC, FMC and ADC
c. IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities
d. IRS, ADC and FCC

205. The recommended colour for an active waypoint is:

a. amber
b. magenta
c. green
d. cyan

206. The recommended colour for an off-route waypoint is:

a. white
b. magenta
c. green
d. cyan

207. The recommended colour for the aircraft symbol is:

a. white
b. magenta
c. green
d. cyan

208. The recommended colour for the active route is:

a. white
b. magenta
c. green
d. cyan

209. In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:
a. 2 nm
b. 2°
c. 5 nm
d. 5°

212. The colour recommended for engaged modes is:

a. green
b. magenta
c. cyan
d. white
213. The colour recommended for armed modes is:
a. green
b. yellow
c. white
d. magenta

214. The colour recommended for the display of turbulence is:

a. red
b. black
c. white or magenta
d. amber

216. The FMS database can be:

a. altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates
b. read and altered by the pilots
c. only read by the pilots
d. altered by the pilots every 28 days

217. The colour for selected heading is:

a. green
b. magenta
c. red
d. white

218. Refer to Appendix A diagram C. What is the current drift ?

a. 4° left
b. 12° left
c. 4° right
d. 12° right

219. According to regulations, for what type of message is the colour red used?
a. warnings, cautions, abnormal sources
b. flight envelope, system limits, engaged mode
c. cautions, abnormal sources, engaged mode
d. warnings, flight envelope, system limits

220. In the B737-400 EFIS which component generates the visual display ?
a. flight control computer (FCC)
b. FMC
c. symbol generator
d. navigation database

222. Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram is the MAP mode ?

a. D
b. F
c. E
d. C

223. Refer to diagram E of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to BURDY is:
a. 205°(T)
b. 205°(M)
c. 064°(T)
d. 064°(M)
224. Refer to diagram B of Appendix A. The aircraft is:
a. right of the centreline and above the glidepath
b. left of the centreline and below the glidepath
c. right of the centreline and below the glidepath
d. left of the centreline and above the glidepath

225. Refer to Appendix A. Diagram F represents:

a. NAV
b. EXP VOR
c. VOR
d. ILS

227. In accordance with regulations, which features on an EFIS display are coloured cyan ?
a. engaged modes
b. the sky
c. the flight director bar(s)
d. system limits and flight envelope

228. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:

a. INS, weather mapping, radio navigation
b. FMC, radio navigation
c. IRS, radio navigation, TAS and drift
d. FMC, weather mapping, radio navigation

229. On an EFIS display the pictured symbol represents:

a. DME
b. VOR/DME
c. VORTAC
d. aerodrome

230. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:
a. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board
systems or a combination of the two
b. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board
systems but not a combination of the two
c. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids only
d. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits
of self contained on-board systems.

231. Which of the following is independent of external inputs ?

a. INS
b. Direct reading magnetic compass
c. VOR/DME
d. ADF

232. The track line on an EFIS display indicates:

a. that a manual track has been selected
b. that a manual heading has been selected
c. the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when
there is zero drift
d. the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift
233. The colour recommended for the display of current data is:
a. yellow
b. red
c. magenta
d. white

234. The EHSI is showing 5° fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft heading is 280°(M) and the
required track is 270°. The radial is:
a. 275
b. 265
c. 085
d. 095

235. On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?
a. the display blanks and a fail warning appears
b. the deviation bar is removed
c. a fail flag is displayed alongside the display bar
d. the display flashes

237. If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI display?
a. by removal of the deviation bar and pointer
b. by showing a fail flag alongside the deviation bar
c. a flashing red FAIL message appears in the frequency location
d. an amber FAIL message appears in the frequency location

238. The colour used on the B737-400 EHSI weather display to show turbulence is:
a. magenta
b. flashing red
c. white or magenta
d. high colour gradient

239. Refer to diagram D of Appendix A. The current aircraft track is:

a. 130°
b. 133°
c. 156°
d. 165°

240. Refer to appendix A diagram C. The wind velocity is:

a. 129°(M)/20 ms-'
b. 129°(T)/20 kt
c. 129°(M)/20kt
d. 129°(T)/20 tns-1

241. In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:
a. the VOR must be identified by the pilot
b. the VOR must be within range when the waypoint is input
c. the VOR need not be in range when input or used
d. the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used

242. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information?

a. FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP
b. PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VORJILS/NAV
c. CTR MAP and PLAN
d. PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV
243. Refer to appendix A, diagram C. The symbol annotated KXYZ is:
a. destination aerodrome
b. a diversion aerodrome
c. an en-route aerodrome
d. a top of climb/descent point

244. Refer to Appendix B. The distance displayed on the EHSI will be:
a. 10 nm
b. 11 nm
c. 12 nm
d. 21 nm

245. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a. 6 SVs each in 4 orbits
b. 4 SVs each in 6 orbits
c. 8 SVs each in 3 orbits
d. 3 SVs each in 8 orbits

246. Comparing the L 1 and L2 signals helps with the reduction of which GNSS error ?
a. tropospheric propagation
b. SV ephemeris
c. SV clock
d. Ionospheric propagation

247. The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is:
a. 50 nm
b. 150 nm
c. 250 nm
d. 350 nm

248. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings would be:

a. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station
b. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the phantom station
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the reference station
d. the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station

249. Flying an ILS approach with a 3° glideslope referenced to 50 ft above the threshold, an aircraft at 4.6
nm should be at an approximate height of:
a. 1400 ft
b. 1380 ft
c. 1500 ft
d. 1450 ft

250. The height of the GPS constellation is:

a. 19300 km
b. 20200 km
c. 10900 km
d. 35800 km

254. What function does the course line computer perform?

a. Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft to the facility
b. Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft along a specified track
c. Converts VOR/DME information into HSI directions to maintain the planned track
d. Uses VOR/DME information to determine track and distance to a waypoint
255. The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:
a. a cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation rate
b. omni-directional
c. a phase-compared signal
d. a frequency modulated continuous wave (FMCW)

256. How does night effect affect ADF?

a. Causes false bearings as the goniometer locks onto the skywave
b. Skywave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk
c. Interference from other NDB's which is worst at dusk and when due east of the station
d. Phase shift in the received signal giving random bearing errors

258. A typical frequency for DME would be:

a. 300 MHz
b. 600 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d.1200 MHz

259. When flying under IFR using GPS and a multi-sensor system:
a. If there is a discrepancy between the GPS and multi-sensor positions, then the multisensor
position must be regarded as suspect
b. The GPS must be operating and its information displayed
c. The multi-sensor system must be operating and its information displayed
d. Both systems must be operating but only the primary system information needs to be displayed

260. The indications from a basic RNAV are behaving erratically. The reason is likely to be:
a. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station
b. The aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference VOR/DME
c. the aircraft is below line of sight range of the reference VOR/DME
d. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the reference VOR

261. What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km ? (ignore any flyback
time)
a. 330 pulses per second (pps)
b. 617 pps
c. 3000 pps
d. 1620 pps

262. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:

a. Provides the positional information to the receiver
b. the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information
c. sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time
d. relays positional data from the control segment

263. An accurate position fix on the EHSI will be provided by inputs of:
a.
b. FMC, IRS, radio navigation aids
c. AWR, drift and TAS
d.
264. The almanac in the receiver:
a. determines selective availability
b. assigns the PRN codes to the satellites
c. is used to determine receiver clock error
d. is used to determine which satellites are above the horizon
267. In NAVSTAR/GPS range measurement is achieved by measuring:
a. the time difference between the minimum number of satellites
b. the time taken for the signal to travel from the satellite to the receiver
c. the synchronisation of the satellite and receiver clocks
d. the time taken for a signal to travel from the receiver to the satellite and return to the receiver

268. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:

a. the metallic structure of the aircraft
b. generative voltages caused by the rotation of the engines
c. the electrical wiring running through the aircraft
d. multipath reception
Answers:
1D 57 A 113 C 169 B 225 B
2A 58 D 114 D 170 C 226 B
3C 59 C 115 D 171 B 227 B
4A 60 B 116 B 172 A 228 B
5D 61 A 117 B 173 A 229 C
6C 62 C 118 C 174 C 230 A
7B 63 D 119 D 175 B 231 A
8C 64 B 120 C 176 B 232 C
9A 65 A 121 C 177 C 233 D
10 B 66 C 122 C 178 A 234 D
11 C 67 C 123 A 179 C 235 B
12 C 68 A 124 B 180 B 236 C
13 C 69 B 125 B 181 B 237 A
14 A 70 C 126 C 182 B 238 A
15 C 71 C 127 B 183 B 239 B
16 D 72 C 128 B 184 C 240 C
17 D 73 C 129 B 185 C 241 D
18 B 74 C 130 D 186 C 242 D
19 A 75 B 131 D 187 C 243 C
20 C 76 A 132 B 188 A 244 C
21 C 77 A 133 D 189 D 245 B
22 B 78 C 134 B 190 C 246 D
23 D 79 B 135 B 191 B 247 C
24 C 80 D 136 B 192 A 248 D
25 B 81 A 137 A 193 A 249 D
26 C 82 C 138 B 194 D 250 B
27 A 83 B 139 A 195 A 251 D
28 C 84 A 140 C 196 C 252 A
29 A 85 B 141 C 197 A 253 C
30 B 86 A 142 A 198 A 254 D
31 D 87 D 143 B 199 A 255 B
32 B 88 B 144 C 200 D 256 B
33 C 89 D 145 B 201 B 257 C
34 B 90 B 146 A 202 D 258 D
35 A 91 C 147 B 203 C 259 C
36 A 92 A 148 A 204 B 260 B
37 C 93 B 149 A 205 B 261 C
38 A 94 A 150 B 206 D 262 A
39 D 95 C 151 B 207 A 263 B
40 B 96 B 152 D 208 B 264 D
41 C 97 B 153 B 209 A 265 C
42 A 98 D 154 C 210 A 266 D
43 A 99 A 155 B 211 A 267 B
44 A 100 C 156 A 212 A 268 C
45 C 101 B 157 B 213 C 269 B
46 B 102 B 158 B 214 C 270 B
47 C 103 D 159 C 215 B 271 B
48 C 104 B 160 C 216 C 272 C
49 A 105 A 161 A 217 B 273 B
50 C 106 A 162 A 218 C
51 A 107 C 163 C 219 D
52 A 108 C 164 D 220 C
53 C 109 C 165 A 221 D
54 B 110 C 166 B 222 D
55 C 111 B 167 A 223 C
56 B 112 B 168 B 224 C
[Do not use questions on ILS, MLS, Ground RADAR, Airborne WX RADAR, RNAV, LORAN-C, Decca,
Doppler in CPL. So some questions are deleted]

18 (37-46) RADIO NAVIGATION QUESTIONS

EXAMINATION PAPER

1. Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz ?

a. 5.96 mm
b. 5.96 cm
c. 59.6 cm
d. 5.96 m

2. The VDF term meaning `true bearing from the station' is:
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QUJ

3. A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of:

a. ± 2°
b. ± 10°
c. ± 1°
d. ± 5°

4. ATC inform a pilot that they will provide a QGH service. The pilot can expect:
a. headings and heights to fly to arrive overhead the aerodrome
b. radar vectors to position on final approach
c. QDM information to position overhead the aerodrome
d. Radar vectors to position overhead the aerodrome

5. The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft amsl can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is:
a. 280 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 224 nm
d. 238 nm

7. The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
a. a coastal beacon at an acute angle
b. an inland beacon at an acute angle
c. a coastal beacon perpendicular to the coast
d. an inland beacon perpendicular to the coast

8. The accuracy of ADF may be affected by:

a. night effect, tropospheric propagation, quadrantal error
b. static interference, siting errors, slant range
c. angle of bank, mountain effect, station interference
d. angle of bank, static from Cb, siting errors

9. The ADF error which will cause the needle to `hunt' (ie oscillate around the correct bearing) is:
a. night effect
b. Cb static
c. station interference
d. coastal refraction
10. The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is:
a. +/-1o
b. +/-2°
c. +/-5°
d. +/-10°

11. A NDB has emission designator N0NA1A this will require the use of the BFO for:
a. tuning
b. identification
c. identification and monitoring
d. tuning, identification and monitoring

12. The principle of operation of VOR is:

a. bearing by lobe comparison
b. bearing by frequency comparison
c. bearing by searchlight principle
d. bearing by phase comparison

13. The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL 240 is 250 nm from a VOR at 16 ft amsl which he selects. He
receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
a. the VOR is unserviceable
b. the range of VOR is limited to 200 nm
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d. there are abnormal atmospheric conditions

14. The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the VOR FM modulation and the AM
modulation is 235°. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is:
a. 055°
b. 235°
c. 145°
d. 325°

15. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is ......, the variphase signal is ...... and the rotation is
......
a. FM, AM, clockwise
b. AM, FM, clockwise
c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise
d. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

16. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and the CDI
indications will be:
a. 147, TO
b. 147, FROM
c. 327, FROM
d. 327, TO

17. An aircraft is 100 nm SW of a VOR heading 080°. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210
radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is ...... and the CDI indications will be:
a. 030, TO, Fly Right
b. 030, TO, Fly Left
c. 210, FROM Fly Right
d. 210, FROM, Fly Left
36. The SSR code to select when entering an area where a radar service is available from an area where
there is no radar service within the JAA area is:
a. 7000
b. 7007
c. 2000
d. 0000

37. In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft on ...... MHz and receives replies from the aircraft on
...... MHz
a. 1030, 1090
b. 1090, 1030
c. 1030, 1030
d. 1090, 1090

38. The altitude readout at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within:
a. 300 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 50 ft

39. If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look for
replies on:
a. 1262 MHz
b. 1030 MHz
c. 1090 MHz
d. 1136 MHz

40. A DME recognises replies to its own interrogating pulses because:

a. each pulse pair has its own unique modulation which is replicated by the transponder
b. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered
c. each aircraft has a different time interval within the pulses pairs which is replicated by the
transponder
d. the transponder uses a selective reply system to respond to the aircraft interrogation pulses

41. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 nm from a ground station at 1225 ft
amsl. The plan range is:
a. 12.5 nm
b. 19 nm
c. 16 nm
d. 10.5 nm

42. If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then:
a. the transmitters are co-located
b. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 nm apart
c. the transmitters are within 600 m
d. the transmitters are in excess of 6 nm apart

46. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises:

a. 21 satellites in 6 orbits
b. 24 satellites in 6 orbits
c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits
d. 30 satellites in 6 orbits
47. The model of the earth used for GPS is:
a. WGS90
b. PZ84
c. PZ90
d. WGS84

48. The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentation systems
(WAAS) is:
a. lack of failure warning
b. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth
c. global coverage of WARS is not available
d. degradation of range measurement because of ionospheric propagation errors

49. The number of SV's required to produce a 3D fix is:

a. `3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

50. EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in ...... and broadcasting these errors to receivers
using ......
a. X, Y & Z co-ordinates, geostationary satellites
b. X, Y & Z co-ordinates, pseudolites
c. SV range, geostationary satellites
d. SV range, pseudolites

51. The principle error in GNSS is:

a. ionospheric propagation
b. GDOP
c. receiver clock error
d. SV ephemeris error

52. If the signal from a SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:

a. the receiver will select another SV with no loss in accuracy
b. the receiver will go into a DR mode with no loss of accuracy
c. the receiver will compensate by using the last calculated altitude to maintain positional accuracy
d. the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken

53. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a. identify the satellites
b. synchronise the receiver clocks with the SV clocks
c. pass navigation and system data to the receiver
d. all of the above

54. If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation. This
download will take:
a. 15 minutes
b. 2.5 minutes
c. 12.5 minutes
d. 25 minutes

55. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of ...... SVs.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
56. The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:
a. in the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver
b. on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
c. on the aircraft as far as possible from other aerials to reduce reflections
d. close to each wing tip to compensate for manoeuvre errors

57. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at ...... to the equator with an orbital period of
a. 55°, 11 hr 15 min
b. 65°, 11 hr 15 min
c. 65°, 12 hr
d. 55° 12 hr

58. The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non-authorised users is:

a. 1227.6 MHz
b. 1575.42 MHz
c. 1215.0 MHz
d. 1090.0 MHz

59. The NAV and system data message is contained in the ...... signal.
a. 50 Hz
b. C/A PRN code
c. P PRN code
d. C/A & P PRN code
Answer:

1B 26 A 51 A
2C 27 D 52 D
3D 28 B 53 A
4A 29 C 54 C
5A 30 B 55 C
6D 31 A 56 B
7B 32 A 57 D
8C 33 C 58 B
9A 34 A 59 A
10 C 35 B 60 A
11 D 36 C 61 A
12 D 37 A 62 A
13 C 38 D 63 C
14 A 39 D 64 D
15 D 40 B 65 B
16 D 41 A 66 B
17 A 42 B 67 C
18 D 43 A 68 B
19 B 44 C 69 A
20 A 45 A 70 B
21 B 46 B 71 C
22 C 47 D 72 B
23 D 48 B 73 C
24 B 49 B 74 B
25 D 50 C