X – CBSE

Mathematics

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 Contents
1. Fundamentals ........................................................................................... 1
2. Real Numbers ......................................................................................... 13
3. Polynomials ............................................................................................ 21
4. Linear Equations In Two Variables........................................................ 26
5. Applications of Linear Equations In Two Variables ............................. 31
6. Quadratic equations ............................................................................... 37
7. Applications of Quadratic equations .................................................... 42
8. Arithmetic progressions ........................................................................ 48
9. Coordinate Geometry ............................................................................. 54
10. Basic Proportionality Theorem ............................................................ 59
11. Similarity of Triangles .......................................................................... 61
12. Pythagoras Theorem ............................................................................ 67
13. Circles ................................................................................................... 69
14. Trigonometry ........................................................................................ 73
15. Trigonometric Identities ....................................................................... 76
16. Application of trigonometry ................................................................. 80
17. Mensuration (2-d).................................................................................. 85
18. Mensuration (3-d).................................................................................. 94
19. Statistics ............................................................................................. 100
20. Probability ........................................................................................... 108
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1. Fundamentals
Algebraic Identities:

1. (𝑎 + 𝑏)2 = 𝑎2 + 2𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏 2

2. (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 = 𝑎2 − 2𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏 2

3. (𝑎 + 𝑏)3 = 𝑎3 + 3𝑎2 𝑏 + 3𝑎𝑏 2 + 𝑏 3

4. (𝑎 − 𝑏)3 = 𝑎3 − 3𝑎2 𝑏 + 3𝑎𝑏 2 − 𝑏 3

5. (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 = (𝑎 + 𝑏)2 − 4𝑎𝑏

6. 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 = (𝑎 + 𝑏)2 − 2𝑎𝑏

7. 𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 = (𝑎 − 𝑏)(𝑎 + 𝑏)

8. 𝑎3 + 𝑏 3 = (𝑎 + 𝑏)3 − 3𝑎𝑏(𝑎 + 𝑏) = (𝑎 + 𝑏)(𝑎2 − 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏 2 )

9. 𝑎3 − 𝑏 3 = (𝑎 − 𝑏)3 + 3𝑎𝑏(𝑎 − 𝑏) = (𝑎 − 𝑏)(𝑎2 + 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏 2 )

10. (𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐)2 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 + 2𝑎𝑏 + 2𝑏𝑐 + 2𝑐𝑎

11. (𝑥 + 𝑎)(𝑥 + 𝑏) = 𝑥 2 + (𝑎 + 𝑏)𝑥 + 𝑎𝑏

12. 𝑎3 + 𝑏 3 + 𝑐 3 − 3𝑎𝑏𝑐 = (𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐)(𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 − 𝑎𝑏 − 𝑏𝑐 − 𝑐𝑎)

Square Tables:

0X 0= 0

1X 1= 1 11 X 11 = 121 21 X 21 = 441 5X 5= 25 10 X 10 = 100

2X 2= 4 12 X 12 = 144 22 X 22 = 484 15 X 15 = 225 20 X 20 = 400

3X 3= 9 13 X 13 = 169 23 X 23 = 529 25 X 25 = 625 30 X 30 = 900

4 X 4 = 16 14 X 14 = 196 24 X 24 = 576 35 X 35 = 1225 40 X 40 = 1600

5 X 5 = 25 15 X 15 = 225 25 X 25 = 625 45 X 45 = 2025 50 X 50 = 2500

6 X 6 = 36 16 X 16 = 256 26 X 26 = 676 55 X 55 = 3025 60 X 60 = 3600

7 X 7 = 49 17 X 17 = 289 27 X 27 = 729 65 X 65 = 4225 70 X 70 = 4900

8 X 8 = 64 18 X 18 = 324 28 X 28 = 784 75 X 75 = 5625 80 X 80 = 6400

9 X 9 = 81 19 X 19 = 361 29 X 29 = 841 85 X 85 = 7225 90 X 90 = 8100

10 X 10 = 100 20 X 20 = 400 30 X 30 = 900 95 X 95 = 9025 100 X 100 = 10000

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Square Root Tables:

√1 = 1 √8 = √4√2 = 2√2 √20 = √4√5 = 2√5 √44 = √4√11

√4 = 2 √18 = √9√2 = 3√2 √45 = √9√5 = 3√5 = 2√11
√99 = √9√11
√9 = 3 √32 = √16√2 √80 = √16√5 = 4√5 = 3√11
√52 = √4√13
√16 = 4 √50 = √25√2= 4√2 √24 = √4√6 = 2√6 = 2√13
√56 = √4√14
√25 = 5 √72 = √36√2= 5√2 √54 = √9√6 = 3√6 = 2√14
√60 = √4√15
√36 = 6 √98 = √49√2= 6√2 √96 = √16√6 = 4√6 = 2√15
√68 = √4√17
√49 = 7 = 2√3
√12 = √4√3 = 7√2 √28 = √4√7 = 2√7 = 2√17
√76 = √4√19
√64 = 8 √27 = √9√3 = 3√3 √63 = √9√7 = 3√7 = 2√19
√84 = √4√21
√81 = 9 √48 = √16√3 √40 = √4√10 = 2√21
√88 = √4√22
√100 = 10 √75 = √25√3= 4√3 √90
= 2√10
= √9√10 = 2√22
√92 = √4√23
= 5√3 = 3√10 = 2√23
Laws of indices:

i) (am )(an ) = am+n iv) (ab)m = (am )(bm ) vii) a0 = 1

am a 𝑚 am 1
ii) = am−n v) ( ) = viii) a−m =
an b bm am
1
iii) (𝑎𝑚 )𝑛 = 𝑎𝑚𝑛 vi) (a ± b)m ≠ am ± bm 𝑚
ix) 𝑎 𝑚 = √𝑎 (mth root of)

x) am = an  m = n xi) am = bm  a = b

2 𝑎√𝑏 𝑎 𝑏
xii) (√𝑎) = √(𝑎2 ) = 𝑎 xiii) √𝑎 ± √𝑏 ≠ √𝑎 ± 𝑏 xiv) (𝑎√𝑏)(𝑐√𝑑) = 𝑎𝑐√𝑏𝑑 xv) 𝑐√𝑑 = ( 𝑐 ) (√𝑑)
𝑎 (𝑎)(𝑏−√𝑐) 𝑎 (𝑎)(𝑏+√𝑐)
xvi) Rationalization: = and =
𝑏+√𝑐 (𝑏+√𝑐)(𝑏−√𝑐) 𝑏−√𝑐 (𝑏−√𝑐)(𝑏+√𝑐)

Euclid’s Division Algorithm:

Dividend = Divisor X Quotient + Remainder

Remainder Theorem:
𝑏
If dividend p(x) is divided by divisor (ax + b) then the remainder is 𝑝 (− 𝑎).

Factor Theorem:
In a division process, if the remainder = 0, then divisor is a factor of dividend.

𝑏
i.e., if 𝑝 (− 𝑎)= 0, then (ax + b) is a factor of p(x).

Converse of Factor Theorem:

In a division process, if divisor is a factor of dividend, then the remainder = 0.

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Sub multiple Prefix Symbol Multiple Prefix Symbol

10-1 deci d 101 deca da
10-2 centi c 102 hecto h
10-3 milli m 103 kilo k
10-6 micro μ 106 mega M
10-9 nano n 109 giga G
10-12 pico p 1012 tera T
10-15 femto f 1015 peta P
10-18 atto a 1018 exa E
10-21 zepto z 1021 zetta Z
10-24 yocto y 1024 yotta Y

1 Km = 1000 m
1 m = 100 cm
1 cm = 10 mm
1 hectare = 10 000 m2
1 cm3 = 1 ml
1 m3 = 1000 liters
5
1 km/hr = 18 m/sec
18
1 m/sec = 5
km/hr

Avoid multiplication

Take common
Cancel immediately
Don’t cancel any multiple of 10 from denominator unless it is fully cancelable

Work with fractions - Don’t work in decimals

Cost = Quantity X Rate

Mass = Volume X Density

Distance = Time X Speed

(New value − Old value) X 100%

% change =
Old value

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Mathematical Operations

Addition and subtraction rules

Sign of operating numbers Operation Example

+3 + 5 = +8
Same sign addition
–3 – 5 = –8
+3 – 5 = –2
Opposite sign subtraction
–3 + 5 = +2
Sign of result: Always sign of the greater number

Multiplication rules

Sign of operating numbers Sign of result Example

(+3)(+5) = +15
Same sign +
(–3)(–5) = +15
(+3)(–5) = –15
Opposite sign –
(–3)(+5) = –15
Operation: Always multiplication

Order of operations (BIDMAS)

Order
First B Brackets
Second I Indices
Third DM Division and/or Multiplication, working from left to right
Fourth AS Addition and/or Subtraction, working from left to right
𝟏+𝟐 (𝟏+𝟐)
The line in a fraction acts like brackets. means
𝟑 𝟑

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Exercise

1. Evaluate: 0.283 X 100 Ans:

2. Evaluate: – 0.063 X 10 Ans:

3. Evaluate: 0.083 X (–10000) Ans:

4. Evaluate: (–139.04) X (–1000) Ans:

5. Evaluate: 90.09 X 100 Ans:

6. Evaluate: 764.56 ÷ (–1000) Ans:

7. Evaluate: – 5.13 ÷ 100 Ans:

8. Evaluate: (–0.046) ÷ (–100) Ans:

9. Evaluate: 0.015 ÷ 10 Ans:

10. Evaluate: 4.05 ÷ 10000 Ans:

11. Evaluate: 25.14 ÷ (–3000) Ans:

12. Evaluate: –94.24 ÷ 80 Ans:

13. Evaluate: 1.421 ÷ 700 Ans:

14. Evaluate: 10.4 X 6.75 Ans:

15. Evaluate: 0.2 X 0.2 X 0.2 Ans:

16. Evaluate: (–0.3)(–0.4)(0.3)(–0.4) Ans:

17. Evaluate: (–27.4) X 42 Ans:

18. Evaluate: 4.206 ÷ 3 Ans:

19. Evaluate: 12.678 ÷ 6 Ans:

20. Evaluate by taking common: 43.246 + 7.46 – 28.432 Ans:

21. Evaluate by taking common: 8.723 + 453 – 311.12 Ans:

22. Evaluate by taking common: 732.43 – 4.6 – 978.456 Ans:

23. Evaluate by taking common: – 473.1 + 28.42 – 1.004 Ans:

24. Evaluate by taking common: 453.8 – 538.74 – 2.0304 Ans:

25. Evaluate: 3 – 7 + 5 – 4 – 8 + 5 Ans:

26. Evaluate: – 4 + 17 – 11 – 23 + 6 + 9 Ans:

27. Evaluate: 42 – 37 – 54 + 85 – 66 Ans:

28. Evaluate: 59 – 86 + 71 – 31 – 24 Ans:

29. Evaluate: 12 + 4 × 2 Ans:

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30. Evaluate: (12 + 4) × 2 Ans:

31. Evaluate: 12 – 22 × 3 Ans:

32. Evaluate: (8 – 3 × 2)2 Ans:

33. Evaluate: 5 + (5 × 2)2 ÷ 5 Ans:

34. Evaluate: 2 – 5 ÷ (8 – 3) × 2 + 8 Ans:

35. Evaluate: 4 + 6 × (22 + 5) ÷ 3 – 10 Ans:

36. Evaluate: 125 ÷ (7 × 4 – 23)2 ÷ 5 Ans:

37. Evaluate: 3 + 2 ÷ (7 – 9) × (5 × 2 – 6) Ans:

38. Evaluate: 1 + 10 ÷ 5 × 11 – 32 ÷ 3 Ans:

39. Evaluate: 7 – 3 ÷ (5 – 2) × 22 + 5 Ans:

40. Evaluate: (3 × 4 ÷ 22 + 3) × (6 ÷ 3 × 5 – 5 × 2 + 1) – 5 Ans:

41. Evaluate by taking common: 65 – 6 X 4 + 7 X 4 – 4 + 5 X 3 – 3 – 8 X 9 Ans: 5

42. Evaluate by taking common: 6 – 6 X 3 + 2 X 7 – 7 – 7 X 17 + 12 + 9 – 9 X 2 Ans: – 121

43. Evaluate by taking common: 53 + 3 X 8 – 9 X 7 – 6 X 5 + 2 – 11 X 12 + 64 Ans:

44. Evaluate by taking common: 3.1 X 4.6 – 12.3 X 4.6 Ans:

45. Evaluate: 23.7 – 4.2 X 3 + 3.7 X 4.11 – 11 – 0.11 X 0.3 Ans:

46. Evaluate: 47.2 X 3.1 – 1.42 X 6.5 – 7 + 0.7 – 7 X 0.7 Ans:

47. Evaluate: 14.5 – 79 X 1.11 + 11.2 – 13.1 X 3 – 3 X 5.8 Ans: – 118.69

48. Evaluate: (–2.5696) ÷ (–0.08) – 125.086 ÷ 2.6 Ans:

49. Evaluate: –365 ÷ 9.125 + 94.22 ÷ 1.4 Ans:

50. Evaluate: (–25.263) ÷ (–0.9)2 + 73.326 ÷ 1.1 Ans:

3 9 4 2
51. Evaluate: 4 ÷ 10 × 5 ÷ 3 Ans:

16 – 4 × 3
52. Evaluate: Ans:
6÷3×2

4+42
53. Evaluate: 6÷3 ×2 Ans:

1+4×2 12÷22
54. Evaluate: 6−1 ×2
÷ 8÷2 ×2 Ans:

2 1 3 9
X + ÷
3 4 4 10
55. Evaluate: 3 6 3 Ans:
1+5X − ÷
5 7 7

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Ratios and proportions

Ratios:
𝑎
If a and b are two non-zero quantities of same kind and same unit, then the fraction 𝑏
is called the
ratio of a to b and is written as a:b.
The first term a is called antecedent and the second term b is called consequent.

Properties of ratios:
1. Ratio is always a pure number and does not have any unit of measurement.
2. Ratios follow the normal rules of addition / subtraction / multiplication / division of real numbers.
3. Ratio is normally expressed in its lowest terms (10:40 is expressed as 1:4).
4. When two quantities are compared, they must be converted to same unit of measurement before
comparison.
5. For n  0, 𝑏 = 𝑏𝑛
𝑎 𝑎𝑛

6. For n  0, 𝑏 = 𝑏÷𝑛
𝑎 𝑎÷𝑛

Proportions:
𝑎 𝑐
If = then the numbers a, b, c and d are said to be in proportion and we write them as a:b::c:d.
𝑏 𝑑
In such a relationship we call a and d as extremes and b and c as middle terms or means.

Properties of proportions:
No Property name If then
𝑎 𝑐
1 > and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ad > bc
𝑏 𝑑

𝑎 𝑐
2 < and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ad < bc
𝑏 𝑑

𝑎 𝑐
3 = 𝑑 and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 ad = bc
𝑏

𝑎 𝑐 𝑏 𝑑
4 Invertendo = 𝑑 and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 =
𝑏 𝑎 𝑐
𝑎 𝑐 𝑎 𝑏 𝑑 𝑐
5 Alternendo = 𝑑 and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 = 𝑑 or 𝑏 = 𝑎
𝑏 𝑐

𝑎 𝑐 𝑎+𝑚𝑏 𝑐+𝑚𝑑
6 Componendo = 𝑑 and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 = ∀m∈R
𝑏 𝑏 𝑑
𝑎 𝑐 𝑎−𝑚𝑏 𝑐−𝑚𝑑
7 Dividendo = and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 = ∀m∈R
𝑏 𝑑 𝑏 𝑑
𝑎 𝑐 𝑎+𝑚𝑏 𝑐+𝑚𝑑
8 Componendo - Dividendo = 𝑑 and 𝑎 ≠ 𝑏 = 𝑐−𝑚𝑑 ∀ m ∈ R
𝑏 𝑎−𝑚𝑏

Theorem on equal ratios:

𝑎 𝑐 𝑒 𝑔
If 𝑏 = 𝑑 = 𝑓 = ℎ …….. and k, l, m, n …….. are any real numbers
𝑎 𝑐 𝑒 𝑔 𝑎𝑘+𝑐𝑙+𝑒𝑚+𝑔𝑛+ …………….
then 𝑏 = 𝑑 = 𝑓 = ℎ = …….. = 𝑏𝑘+𝑑𝑙+𝑓𝑚+ℎ𝑛+ …………….

Continued proportion:
𝑎 𝑏
If 𝑏 = 𝑐 (i.e. a:b = b:c) then b2 = ac. In such case a, b and c are said to be in continued proportion and
b is called geometric mean or mean proportional between a and c.

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Basic terms and definitions

Line: A line extends indefinitely in both directions.

Line-segment: A part (or portion) of a line with two end points is called a line-segment.

Ray: A part of a line with one end point is called a ray.

Collinear points: If three or more points lie on the same line, they are called collinear points.

Angle: An angle is formed when two rays originate from the same point.
The rays making an  are called the arms of the  and the point is called the vertex of the .

Different types of s:

value of  x type of 
(i) 0° < x < 90° acute 
(ii) x = 90° right 
(iii) 90° < x < 180° obtuse 
(iv) x = 180° straight 
(v) 180° < x < 360° reflex 

Complementary s: Two s whose sum is 90° are called complementary s.

Supplementary s: Two s whose sum is 180° are called supplementary s.

Adjacent s: Two s are adjacent, if they have a common vertex, a common arm and their non-
common arms are on different sides of the common arm.

Linear pair of s: If the non-common arms form a line, then the s are called linear pair of s.

Vertically opposite s: Vertically opposite s form when two lines intersect each other.

Transversal: A line which intersects two or more lines at distinct points is called a transversal.

Diagram Text language Geometry language

B
Point P lies on AB A – P – B are collinear
P
A

P B
Point M is mid-point of AB. 1
M AM = MB = AB
2
A Q PQ bisects AB at point M.
A
D BD bisects  ABC. 1
 ABD =  CBD = 2  ABC
BD is bisector of  ABC.
B C

C
CD is perpendicular to AB. CD ⊥ AB
i.e.,
A B  CDA =  CDB = 90o
D

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Axioms and theorems

Angle addition Sum of adjacent s is an  ABD + DBC = ABC A

property formed by their non-common D
arms.
B C
Linear Pair Linear pair s are always DBA + DBC = 180 o D
Axiom 1 supplementary.

A C
B
Linear Pair If two adjacent s are A – B – C are collinear D
Axiom 2 supplementary then their
non-common arms are 180–x x
collinear. A C
B
Theorem 1 Vertically opposite s are AOC = BOD and C
always =. AOD = BOC O
A B
D
Theorem 2 Sum of s on the same side AOB + BOC C
of a straight line = 180 o. + COD + DOE = 180o B D

A E
O
Theorem 3 Sum of s around a point AOB + BOC + COD B
= 360o. + DOE + EOA = 360o O
C
A

E D
Theorem 4 Sum of interior s of a Δ BAC + ABC A
= 180º. + ACB = 180o
B C
Theorem 5 Exterior  of a Δ = sum of ACD = BAC + ABC A
interior opposite s.
B D
C
Property If two sides of a Δ are =, ABC = ACB A
then their opposite s are =.

B C
If two s of a Δ are =, then
their opposite sides are =.
If one side of a Δ is greater
than the other side, then the
 opposite to the greater
side is greater.
If one  of a Δ is greater
than the other , then the
side opposite to the greater
 is greater.
Fundamental Two lines are either
Axiom: intersecting lines or || lines.
Fundamental Lines which are || to the
Axiom: same line are || to each other.

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Corresponding If lines are ||, PQB = QRD P

s axiom then corresponding s are =. Q
A B
R
C D
S
Converse of If corresponding s are =, AB || CD P
corresponding then lines are ||. Q
A B
s axiom
R
C D
S
Theorem 6 If lines are ||, AQR = QRD P
then alternate s are =. Q
A B
R
C D
S
Theorem 7 If alternate s are =, AB || CD P
then lines are ||. Q
A B
R
C D
S
Theorem 8 If lines are ||, BQR + QRD = 180o P
then interior s are Q
A B
supplementary.
R
C D
S
Theorem 9 If interior s are AB || CD Q P
supplementary, A x B
then lines are ||.
R 180o–x
C D
S
Theorem 10 Lines which are || to the
same line are || to each other.
Theorem 11 ⊥s to || lines are also ||

Congruence Rule
side –  – side If two sides and the included  of one Δ are = to two sides and
(SAS) ≅ rule the included  of the other Δ, then the two Δs are ≅.
 – side –  If two s and the included side of one Δ are = to two s and the
(ASA) ≅ rule included side of the other Δ, then the two Δs are ≅.
 –  – side If two s and one side of one Δ are = to two s and the
(AAS) ≅ rule corresponding side of the other Δ, then the two Δs are ≅.
side – side – side If three sides of one Δ are = to the three sides of another Δ, then
(SSS) ≅ rule the two Δs are ≅.
right  – hypotenuse – side If in two right Δs, the hypotenuse and one side of one Δ are = to
(RHS) ≅ rule the hypotenuse and one side of the other Δ,
then the two Δs are ≅.
Corresponding parts of ≅ Δs are =.

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Triangle Centers
Concurrent lines and point of concurrency:
When three or more lines pass through a single point, then these lines are known as concurrent
lines and the point where these lines intersect is known as point of concurrency.

Medians and Centroid of a triangle: X

A line segment joining midpoint of one side of a triangle to its opposite
vertex is known as median of the triangle.
L N
A triangle has three sides therefore it has three medians. G
All the three medians are concurrent i.e., they all intersect at a single
point.
The common meeting point of all the three medians is called Y M Z
the centroid of the triangle. It is denoted by G.

Properties:
1. Each median divides the triangle into two smaller triangles of equal area.
2. The three medians divide the triangle into six smaller triangles of equal area.
3. The centroid is the center of gravity of the triangle.
4. The centroid is always inside the triangle.
5. The centroid divides each median into two segments whose lengths are in the ratio 2:1, with the
longer one nearer the vertex.
6. If the coordinates of the vertices of triangle are (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3), then the coordinates
𝑥 +𝑥 +𝑥 𝑦 +𝑦 +𝑦
of the centroid are ( 1 2 3 , 1 2 3 ).
3 3

Activity:
The centroid of a triangle is the point through which all the mass of a triangular plate seems to act.
That is why it is also known as its center of gravity or center of mass or barycenter.
1. Make any scalene triangle from cardboard.
2. Draw medians on the cardboard triangle.
3. At the point where a median meets the side of
the triangle make a small hole near the edge.
Tie a string through it.
4. When the triangle is held by the string, the
median line remains vertical - exactly in line
with the string.
5. Try to balance the cardboard triangle on a point
(a) hanging the triangle by keeping its plane normal to the string or
(b) pivoting on a pencil tip.
The point at which it balances is the centroid.

Altitudes and Orthocenter of a triangle: X

A line which passes through a vertex of a triangle and is perpendicular
to its opposite side is known as altitude of the triangle. Q

R
A triangle has three vertices therefore it has three altitudes.
H
All the three altitudes are concurrent i.e., they all intersect at a single
point.
The common meeting point of all the three altitudes is called the Y P Z
orthocenter of the triangle. It is denoted by H.

Properties:
1. The altitude is not always inside the triangle. If the triangle is obtuse, it will be outside.
2. The orthocenter is not always inside the triangle. If the triangle is obtuse, it will be outside.

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Angle bisectors and Incentre of a triangle:

A line which divides an angle into two equal halves is known as angle
X
bisector of the angle.

A triangle has three interior angles therefore it has three interior angle
bisectors. I
All the three interior angle bisectors are concurrent i.e., they all
intersect at a single point.
The common meeting point of all the three interior angle bisectors is Y Z
called the incentre of the triangle. It is denoted by I.

Properties:
1. The incentre is equidistance from all three sides of the triangle.
2. A circle can be drawn with incentre as center and touching all three sides. Such a circle is
known as incircle of the triangle.
3. All three sides of the triangle are tangents to its incircle.
4. The incircle is the largest circle that will fit inside the triangle and touch all its three sides.
5. The incentre of a triangle is always inside the triangle.
6. If the coordinates of the vertices A, B and C of triangle ABC are (x 1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3)
respectively and a, b and c are sides BC, AC and AB of the triangle respectively then the
𝑎𝑥 +𝑏𝑥2 +𝑐𝑥3 𝑎𝑦1 +𝑏𝑦2 +𝑐𝑦3
coordinates of the incentre of the triangle are ( 1𝑎+𝑏+𝑐 , 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐
).

Perpendicular bisectors of sides and Circumcenter of a triangle:

X

A line which divides another line segment into two equal parts and
crosses it at a right angle (90°) is known as the perpendicular bisector L N
of the line segment.
C

A triangle has three sides therefore it has three

perpendicular bisectors of its sides. Y M Z

All the three perpendicular bisectors of sides of a triangle are

concurrent i.e. they all intersect at a single point.
The common meeting point of all the three perpendicular bisectors of sides of the triangle is called
the circumcenter of the triangle. It is denoted by C.

Properties:
1. The circumcenter is equidistance from all three vertices of the triangle.
2. A circle can be drawn with circumcenter as center and passing through all three vertices. Such
a circle is known as circumcircle of the triangle.
3. All three sides of the triangle are chords of its circumcircle.
4. The circumcenter of an acute triangle is inside the triangle.
5. The circumcenter of an obtuse triangle is outside the triangle.
6. The circumcenter of a right triangle lies exactly at the midpoint of the hypotenuse.
X
Summary of triangle centers:
1. In any triangle, the orthocenter H, centroid G and circumcenter C
are collinear. i.e., they always lie on the same straight line called
the Euler line. G
H I C

2. In an equilateral triangle, all the four centers occur at the same Y Z

P M
point.
= =

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2. Real Numbers
1) Property of operations on integers:
Sum, difference and product of integers are also integers.

2) Definition of rational numbers:

Rational number is a number which can be expressed as p/q such that p & q are integers and q  0.

3) Definition of HCF or GCD:

The highest number that divides two or more numbers exactly (remainder = 0) is called
Highest Common Factor (HCF) or Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) of these numbers.

Following are properties of HCF:

i) There always exist HCF of two given numbers.
ii) HCF is a non-zero number.
iii) HCF X LCM = product of the two numbers.

4) Definition of numbers co prime to each other:

If two numbers do not have any common factor other than one, then these numbers are called co
prime to each other. i.e., HCF of two numbers co prime to each other is 1

5) Euclid's division lemma:

For any positive integers a & b, there exist unique integers q & r satisfying a=bq+r such that 0r<b.

6) Fundamental theorem of arithmetic:

Every composite number can be expressed (factorized) as a product of prime numbers, and this
factorization is unique apart from the order in which these prime factors occur.

7) Theorem of prime factor:

If a prime number ‘p’ is a factor of a2 then ‘p’ is also a factor of ‘a’ where ‘a’ is a positive integer.

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8) Theorem of terminating decimal numbers:

𝑝
If decimal expansion of a rational number is terminating then the number can be expressed as 𝑞
such that
(i) p & q are integers
(ii) q  0
(iii) p & q are coprime to each other (HCF=1) and
(iv) prime factorization of q is of the form 2nx5m where n and m are whole numbers.

9) Converse of theorem of terminating decimal numbers:

𝑝
If a number can be expressed as 𝑞 such that
(i) p & q are integers
(ii) q  0
(iii) p & q are coprime to each other (HCF=1) and
(iv) prime factorization of q is of the form 2nx5m where n and m are whole numbers
then decimal expansion of the number is terminating.

10) Theorem of non-terminating recurring decimal numbers:

If decimal expansion of a rational number is non-terminating recurring then the number can be
𝑝
expressed as 𝑞 such that
(i) p & q are integers
(ii) q  0
(iii) p & q are coprime to each other (HCF=1) and
(iv) prime factorization of q is not of the form 2nx5m where n and m are whole numbers.

11) Converse of theorem of non-terminating recurring decimal numbers:

𝑝
If a number can be expressed as such that
𝑞
(i) p & q are integers
(ii) q  0
(iii) p & q are coprime to each other (HCF=1) and
(iv) prime factorization of q is not of the form 2nx5m where n and m are whole numbers
then decimal expansion of the number is non-terminating recurring.

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1. Find the missing numbers in the factor tree:

3 B

5 1001

C 143

11 D

Ans: 15015, 5005, 7, 13

2. Find the missing numbers in the factor tree:

42432

A 5304

B C

6 D

13 17

Ans: 8, 4, 1326, 221

3. Find the value of m & n, if 793800 = 23 X 3m X 5n X 72 Ans: 4, 2

4. Express 140 as a product of its prime factors. Ans: 22×5×7

5. Express 156 as a product of its prime factors. Ans: 22×3×13

6. Express 3825 as a product of its prime factors. Ans: 32×52×17

7. Express 5005 as a product of its prime factors. Ans: 5×7×11×13

8. Express 7429 as a product of its prime factors. Ans: 17×19×23

9. Find HCF & LCM of 6 & 20, using prime factorization method. Ans: 2, 60

10. Find HCF & LCM of 144 & 198, using prime factorization method. Ans: 18, 1584

11. Find HCF & LCM of 6, 72 & 120, using prime factorization method. Ans: 6, 360

12. Find HCF & LCM of 24, 36 & 40, using prime factorization method. Ans: 4, 360

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13. Find HCF & LCM of 30, 72 & 432, using prime factorization method. Ans: 6, 2160

14. Find HCF & LCM of 12, 15 & 21, using prime factorization method. Ans: 3, 420

15. Find HCF & LCM of 420, 780 & 1020, using prime factorization method. Ans: 60, 92820

16. Find HCF & LCM of 54, 108 & 162, using prime factorization method. Ans: 54, 324

17. Find HCF & LCM of 936, 1014 & 1404, using prime factorization method. Ans: 78, 36504

18. Find HCF & LCM of 132, 180 & 216, using prime factorization method. Ans: 12, 11880

19. Find HCF & LCM of 17, 23 & 29, using prime factorization method. Ans: 1, 1139

20. Find HCF & LCM of 8, 9 & 25, using prime factorization method. Ans: 1, 1800

21. Find HCF & LCM of 26 & 91 and verify that LCM × HCF = product of the two numbers.
Ans: 13, 182

22. Find HCF & LCM of 510 & 92 and verify that LCM × HCF = product of the two numbers.
Ans: 2, 23460

23. Find HCF & LCM of 336 & 54 and verify that LCM × HCF = product of the two numbers.
Ans: 6, 3024

24. Find HCF of 96 & 404, using prime factorization method. Hence, find their LCM. Ans: 4, 9696

25. Given that HCF (306, 657) = 9, find LCM (306, 657). Ans: 22338

26. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 225 & 135 Ans: 45

27. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 196 & 38220 Ans: 196

28. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 867 & 255 Ans: 51

29. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 396 & 1080 Ans: 36

30. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 1260 & 7344 Ans: 36

31. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 4052 & 1648 Ans: 4

32. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 4052 & 12576 Ans: 4

33. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 84 & 270 Ans: 6

34. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 3520 & 2160. Ans: 80

35. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 308 & 180. Ans: 4

36. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 864 & 520. Ans: 8

37. Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of: 455 & 756. Ans: 7

38. A sweet seller has 420 kaju barfis and 130 badam barfis. She wants to stack them in such a way
that each stack has the same number, and they take up the least area of the tray. What is the
maximum number of barfis that can be placed in each stack for this purpose? Ans: 10 barfis

39. An army contingent of 616 members is to march behind an army band of 32 members in a
parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. What is the maximum
number of columns in which they can march? Ans: 8 columns
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40. Four ribbons measuring 14 cm, 18 cm, 22 cm and 26 cm respectively are to be cut into least
number of pieces of equal length. What is the length of each piece? Ans: 2 cm

41. Two tankers contain 850 liters and 680 liters of petrol. Find the maximum capacity of a container
which can measure the petrol of either tanker in exact number of times. Ans: 170 liters

42. The length, breadth and height of a room are 8m 25cm, 6m 75cm and 4m 50cm respectively.
Determine the length of the longest rod which can measure 3 dimensions of the room exactly.
Ans: 75 cm

43. There is a circular path around a field. Sonia takes 18 minutes to drive one round of the field,
while Ravi takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose they both start at the same point and at the
same time, and go in the same direction. After how many minutes will they meet again at the
starting point? Ans: 36 min

44. What is the smallest number that, when divided by 35, 56 and 91 leave the remainder of 7 in each
case? Ans: 3647

45. What is the greatest number that, when divides 280, 1245 and 1796 leave the remainders 4, 3 &
2 respectively? Ans: 138

46. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

every positive even integer is of the form 2q, where q is some integer.

47. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

every positive odd integer is of the form 2q + 1, where q is some integer.

48. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

any positive odd integer is of the form 4q + 1 or 4q + 3, where q is some integer.

49. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

any positive odd integer is of the form 6q + 1 or 6q + 3 or 6q + 5, where q is some integer.

50. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.

51. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

the square of any positive integer is either of the form 4q or 4q + 1 for some integer q.

52. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

the square of any positive odd integer is of the form 8q + 1 for some integer q.

53. Use Euclid’s Division Lemma to show that

the cube of any positive integer is of the form 9m, 9m + 1 or 9m + 8 for some integer m.

54. Show that any one of the numbers (n + 2), n and (n + 4) is divisible by 3.

55. Prove that no number of the type 4k + 2 be a perfect square.

56. Explain why 5 x 11 x 17 + 17 is a composite number while 7 x 6 x 3 + 4 + 1 is not a composite

number.

57. Explain why 5 x 7 x 11 + 4 + 3 is a composite number?

58. Explain why 7 × 11 × 13 + 5 + 6 + 88 is a composite number?

59. Explain why 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 + 5 × 6 × 7 + 8 x 9 x 10 is a composite number?

60. Check whether 4n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n. Justify your answer.
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61. Check whether 6n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n. Justify your answer.

62. Check whether 15n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n. Justify your answer.

63. Prove that √2 is an irrational number.

64. Prove that √3 is an irrational number.

65. Prove that √5 is an irrational number.

66. Prove that 3√2 is an irrational number.

67. Prove that 7√5 is an irrational number.

68. Prove that 5 − 7√3 is an irrational number.

69. Prove that 3 + 2√5 is an irrational number.

70. Prove that 6√2 − 5 is an irrational number.

71. Prove that √2 + √3 is an irrational number.

72. Prove that 2√3 − 3√5 is an irrational number.

1
73. Prove that is an irrational number.
√2

3
74. Prove that is an irrational number.
2√5

𝑝
75. Write the condition for q so that a rational number 𝑞 has a terminating expression.

40
76. Why 9
is a non–terminating decimal?

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Without actually performing the long division, state whether the following rational numbers will
have a terminating decimal expansion or a non-terminating repeating decimal expansion. Also
write down the decimal expansions of those rational numbers which have terminating decimal
expansions.
13
77. 3125
Ans: Terminating, 0.00416

1237
78. Ans: Terminating, 0.6185
16𝑋125

64
79. 455
Ans: Non-terminating repeating

15
80. Ans: Terminating, 0.009375
1600

29
81. 343
Ans: Non-terminating repeating

23
82. 23 52
Ans: Terminating, 0.115

129
83. Ans: Non-terminating repeating
22 57 75

1717
84. Ans:
23 54

77
85. 210
Ans: Non-terminating repeating

1111
86. Ans: Non-terminating repeating
74 𝑋 132

14588
87. 625
Ans: Terminating, 23.3408

237
88. 23 𝑋 52 𝑋 3
Ans: Terminating, 0.395

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In each of the following case, decide whether they are rational or not. If they are rational of the
𝑝
form 𝑞 , what can you say about the prime factors of q?

89. 43.123456789 Ans: Rational, q has factor either 2 or 5 or both only.

90. 0.120120012000120000. . . Ans: Not rational

91. 43. ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅

123456789 Ans: Rational, q has a factor other than 2 or 5.
53
92. The decimal expansion of the rational number 24 X 53
, will terminate after how many places of
decimals? Ans: 4

93. Choose correct option: Every rational number is

(a) a natural no. (b) an integer (c) a real no. (d) a whole no Ans:

94. Choose correct option: The collection of integers is denoted by

(a) W (b) Z (c) N (d) X Ans:

95. Choose correct option: The smallest rational no.

(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) does not exist Ans:

96. Choose correct option: A rational no between 5/4 and 2 is

(a)13/2 (b)13/4 (c)13/8 (d) 8/13 Ans:

97. Choose correct option: On the no line location of √7 is after

(a) 7 (b) √7 + 1 (c) √7 − 1 (d) √7 − 1 Ans:

98. Choose correct option: Between 2/5 and 4/5 we can insert
(a) no rational no. (b) infinitely many rational nos.
(c) only one rational no (d) infinitely many integers Ans:

99. Choose correct option: Square root of a +ve integer are

(a) rational nos. (b) irrational nos.
(c) either a rational no. or an irrational no. (d) neither rational no. nor irrational no. Ans:

100. Choose correct option: The decimal expansion of a rational no cannot be

(a) terminating (b) non-terminating
(c) non-terminating recurring (d) non-terminating non-recurring. Ans:

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3. Polynomials
1. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeros of a quadratic polynomial 𝑝(𝑥), then
p(x) = k[x 2 − (α + β)x + αβ] where k is any non-zero real number.
(take k = LCM of denominators)

2. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeros of a quadratic polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = ax 2 + bx + c, then

i) 𝑝(𝛼) = 𝑝(𝛽) = 0
ii) (𝑥 − 𝛼) and (𝑥 − 𝛽) are factors of 𝑝(𝑥)
−b
iii) α + β = a
c
iv) αβ = a

3. If ,  and  are zeros of a cubical polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = ax 3 + bx2 + cx + d , then

i) 𝑝(𝛼) = 𝑝(𝛽) = 𝑝() = 0
ii) (𝑥 − 𝛼), (𝑥 − 𝛽) and (𝑥 − 𝛾) are factors of 𝑝(𝑥)
−b
iii) α + β +  = a
c
iv) αβ +  +  = a
−d
v) αβ = a

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1. The graphs of polynomials y = p(x) are given below. Find the number of zeroes of p(x)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(v) (vi) (vii) (viii)

(ix) (x) (xi) (xii)

(xiii) (xiv) (xv) (xvi)

(xvii) (xviii) (xix) (xx)

Ans: (i) 3 (ii) 2 (iii) 1 (iv) 6 (v) 2 (vi) 1 (vii) 0 (viii) 0 (ix) 1 (x) 2
(xi) 3 (xii) 1 (xiii) 1 (xiv) 4 (xv) 0 (xvi) 1 (xvii) 3 (xviii) 2 (xix) 4 (xx) 3

2. Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship between the
zeroes and the coefficients.
(i) 4u2 + 8u Ans: – 2, 0
1 1
(ii) 4s2 – 4s + 1 Ans: 2 , 2
1 3
(iii) 6x2 – 3 – 7x Ans: − 3 , 2
1 1
(iv) 8x2 – 4 Ans: − ,
√2 √2
2√3 √3
(v) 4√3x2 + 5x - 2√3 Ans: − 3 , 4

1
3. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = 4, product of zeroes = −1 Ans: 4x2 – x – 4

1
4. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = √2, product of zeroes = 3 Ans: 3x2 – 3√2x + 1

5. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = 0, product of zeroes = √5 Ans: x2 + √5

1 1
6. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = − , product of zeroes = Ans: 4x2 + x + 1
4 4

7. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = 4, product of zeroes = 1 Ans: x2 – 4x + 1

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8. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = – 3, product of zeroes = 2 Ans: x2 + 3x + 2

9. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = 0, product of zeroes = − √7 Ans: x2 – √7

10. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = 3, product of zeroes = – 5 Ans: x2 – 3x – 5

11. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = √2, product of zeroes = 3√2
Ans: x2 – √2x + 3√2

12. Form a quadratic polynomial with sum of zeroes = 2, product of zeroes = – 15 Ans: x2 – 2x – 15

13. Form a quadratic polynomial whose zeros are ±√3 Ans: x2 – 3

14. Form a quadratic polynomial whose zeros are 6 and -3 Ans: x2 – 3x – 18

15. Form a quadratic polynomial, one of whose zeros is 2 + √5 and sum of the zeros is 4.
Ans: x2 – 4x – 1

16. Divide the polynomial p(x) = 6x2 – 31x + 47 by the polynomial q(x) = 2x – 5
and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans: 3x – 8, 7

17. Divide the polynomial p(x) = 2x2 + 3x + 1 by the polynomial q(x) = x + 2

and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans: 2x–1, x+2

18. Divide the polynomial p(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 5x – 3 by the polynomial q(x) = x2 – 2

and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans: x–3, 7x–9

19. Divide the polynomial p(x) = 3x3 + x2 + 2x + 5 by the polynomial q(x) = 1 + 2x + x2

and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans:3x–5,9x+10

20. Divide the polynomial p(x) = 3x2 – x3 – 3x + 5 by the polynomial q(x) = x – 1 – x2

and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans: x – 2, 3

21. Divide the polynomial p(x) = x4 – 3x2 + 4x + 5 by the polynomial q(x) = x2 + 1 – x

and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans: x2+x–3, 8

22. Divide the polynomial p(x) = x4 – 5x + 6 by the polynomial q(x) = 2 – x2

and find the quotient and remainder. Also verify the division algorithm. Ans: –x2–2, –5x+10

23. Check whether polynomial t2 – 3, is a factor of polynomial 2t4 + 3t3 – 2t2 – 9t – 12 Ans: Yes

24. Check whether polynomial x2 + 3x + 1, is a factor of polynomial 3x4 + 5x3 – 7x2 + 2x + 2 Ans: Yes

25. Check whether polynomial x3 – 3x + 1, is a factor of polynomial x5 – 4x3 + x2 + 3x + 1 Ans: No

−17
26. Find value of a, if 2x3 – ax2 +5x + 9 is exactly divisible by x + 2. Ans: 4

27. Find values of a & b, if 6x4 – 9x3 – 2x2 + ax – b is exactly divisible by 3x2 – 4 Ans: 12, 8

28. Find values of a & b, if on dividing x4 – 6x3 + 16x2 – 25x + 10 by x2 – 2x + a,

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leaves remainder x + b. Ans: 5, –5

29. On dividing x3 – 3x2 + x + 2 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder

were x – 2 and –2x + 4, respectively. Find g(x). Ans: x2 – x + 1

30. On dividing x3 + x2 + x – 2 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder

were x2 + 2x + 1 and 2x – 1, respectively. Find g(x). Ans: x – 1

31. Give examples of polynomials p(x), g(x), q(x) & r(x), satisfying division algorithm and
deg p(x)=deg q(x) Ans: 2x2 – 2x + 14, 2, x2 – x + 7, 0

32. Give examples of polynomials p(x), g(x), q(x) & r(x), satisfying division algorithm and
deg q(x) = deg r(x) Ans: x3 + x2 + x + 1, x2 – 1, x + 1, 2x + 2

33. Give examples of polynomials p(x), g(x), q(x) & r(x), satisfying division algorithm and deg r(x) = 0
Ans: x3 + 2x2 – x + 2, x2 – 1, x + 2, 4

5 3 −15
34. If is one zero of 2x2 – 8x – a, find the other zero and the value of a. Ans: ,
2 2 2

35. Obtain all zeroes of a3 – 3a2 – 10a + 24, if one zero is 2. Ans: 2, 4, –3

36. Obtain all zeroes of a4 + 2a3 – 13a2 – 14a + 24, if two of its zeros are 1 & –2 Ans:1, 2, –2, –3

37. Obtain all zeroes of x4 – x3 – 8x2 + 2x + 12, if two of its zeroes are ±√2. Ans: ±√2, -2, 3

1
38. Obtain all zeroes of 2x4 – 3x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 2, if two of its zeroes are ±√2. Ans: ±√2 , 2
,1

5 5
39. Obtain all zeroes of 3x4 + 6x3 – 2x2 – 10x – 5, if two of its zeroes are ±√3 Ans: ±√3 , –1, –1

3 3 −1
40. Obtain all zeroes of 6x4 – 10x3 – 13x2 + 15x + 6, if two of its zeroes are ±√2 Ans: ±√2 , 2, 3

2 2 −3
41. Obtain all zeroes of 6x4 – 3x3 – 22x2 + 2x + 12, if two of its zeroes are ±√ Ans: ±√ , 2,
3 3 2

5 5 −1 3
42. Obtain all zeroes of 24x4 – 10x3 – 66x2 + 25x + 15, if two of its zeroes are ±√2 Ans: ±√2 , 3
, 4

3 3 2 −5
43. Obtain all zeroes of 90x4 + 15x3 – 104x2 – 9x + 30, if two of its zeroes are ±√5 Ans: ±√5 , 3
, 6

19 2 2
44. Obtain all zeroes of x4 – 15 x2 + 5, if two of its zeroes are ±√3 Ans:

23 3 √3
45. Obtain all zeroes of x4 – 20 x2 + 10, if two of its zeroes are ± 2
Ans:

46. Obtain all zeroes of x4 – 6x3 – 26x2 + 138x – 35, if two of its zeroes are 2 ± √3 Ans:2 ± √3, −5, 7

1
47. Obtain all zeroes of 2x3 – 15x2 + 37x – 30, if its zeroes are in AP. Ans: 2, 22 , 3

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2 2 3
48. Obtain all zeroes of 6x4 – 3x3 – 22x2 + 2x + 12, if two of its zeroes are ±√ Ans: ±√ , − , 2
3 3 2

5 5 1 3
49. Obtain all zeroes of 24x4 – 10x3 – 66x2 + 25x + 15, if two of its zeroes are ±√2 Ans: ±√2, − 3, 4

3 3 5 2
50. Obtain all zeroes of 90x4 + 15x3 – 104x2 – 9x + 30, if two of its zeroes are ±√5 Ans: ±√5, − 6, 3

51. Find the value of k, if 2(𝛼 + 𝛽) = 𝛼𝛽, where 𝛼 & 𝛽 are zeros of x2 – (k+6)x + 2(2k–1) Ans: 7

1
52. Find the value of k, if 𝛼 and 𝛼 are zeros of the polynomial 4x2 – 2x + (k – 4) Ans: 8

53. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeros of the polynomial 3x2 – 4x – 5,

1 1 −4 46
then find the value of (i) 𝛼 + 𝛽 (ii) 𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 Ans:(i) 5
(ii) 9

54. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeros of the polynomial 2x2 – 3x – 5,

1 1
then find the value of 𝛼3 − 𝛽3 Ans:

55. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are zeros of the quadratic polynomial kx2 + 4x + 4 and 𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 = 24,
2
then find the value of k. Ans: –1,
3

1
56. Verify that 2, 1, – 2 are the zeroes of the polynomial 2x3 + x2 – 5x + 2. Also verify the relationship
between the zeroes and the coefficients.

57. Verify that 2, 1, 1 are the zeroes of the polynomial x3 – 4x2 + 5x – 2. Also verify the relationship
between the zeroes and the coefficients.

1
58. Verify that 3, –1, − are the zeroes of the polynomial 3x3 – 5x2 – 11x – 3. Also verify the
3
relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.

59. Find a cubic polynomial with the sum, sum of the product of its zeroes taken two at a time, and
the product of its zeroes as 2, –7, –14 respectively. Ans: x3 – 2x2 – 7x + 14

60. If the zeroes of the polynomial x3 – 3x2 + x + 1 are a – b, a, a + b, find a & b. Ans: 1, ±√2

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4. Linear Equations In Two Variables

Condition Graph Description No. of solution Consistency

𝑎1 𝑏1
≠ Intersecting lines Unique solution Consistent
𝑎2 𝑏2
𝑎1 𝑏1 𝑐1
= = Coincident lines Infinitely many solution Consistent
𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑐2
𝑎1 𝑏1 𝑐1
= ≠ Parallel lines No solution Inconsistent
𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑐2

Describe graph, no. of solutions and consistency of following pairs of linear equations:

1. x + y = 5; 2x + 2y = 10 Ans: Coincident lines; Infinitely many solutions; Consistent

2. x – y = 8; 3x – 3y = 16 Ans: Parallel lines; No solution; Inconsistent

3. 2x + y = 6; 4x – 2y – 4 = 0 Ans: Intersecting lines; Unique solution; Consistent

4. 2x – 2y = 2; 4x – 4y – 5 = 0 Ans: Parallel lines; No solution; Inconsistent

5. 3x + 2y = 5; 2x – 3y = 7 Ans: Intersecting lines; Unique solution; Consistent

6. 2x – 3y = 8; 4x – 6y = 9 Ans: Parallel lines; No solution; Inconsistent

3 5
7. 2
x + 3y = 7; 9x – 10y = 14 Ans: Intersecting lines; Unique solution; Consistent

8. 5x – 3y = 11; – 10x + 6y = –22 Ans: Coincident lines; Infinitely many solutions; Consistent
4
9. 3
x + 2y = 8; 2x + 3y = 12 Ans: Coincident lines; Infinitely many solutions; Consistent

10. 7x + 6y = 9; 5x – 4y + 8 = 0 Ans: Intersecting lines; Unique solution; Consistent

11. y = 2x + 9; 6x – 3y + 10 = 0 Ans: Parallel lines; No solution; Inconsistent

12. Find value of k, so that x + (2k–1)y = 4 & kx + 6y = k + 6 have infinitely many solutions Ans: 2

13. Find value of k, so that 2x - ky + 3 = 0 & 4x + 6y - 5 = 0 are consistent Ans: k  – 3

14. Find value of a, so that 3x + y = 1 & (2a – 1) x + (a – 1) y = 2a + 1 have no solution Ans: 2

15. Find values of a, so that 4x + ay + 8 = 0 & 2x + 2y + 2 = 0 have unique solution Ans: a  4

16. Find values of a, so that ax + 3y – (a – 3) = 0 & 12x + ay – a = 0

have infinitely many solutions Ans: 0, 6

17. Find values of a & b, so that 2x + 3y = 7 & (a – b) x + (a + b) y = 3a + b – 2

have infinitely many solutions Ans: 5, 1

18. Given the linear equation 2x + 3y – 8 = 0, write another linear equation (one possible answer) in
two variables such that the geometrical representation of the pair so formed is:
(i) intersecting lines Ans: 3x+2y–7= 0
(ii) parallel lines Ans: 2x+3y–12= 0
(iii) coincident lines Ans: 4x+ 6y–16=0

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a) Solve the following system of linear equations graphically.

b) Shade the region bounded by these lines and the x-axis / y-axis.
c) Find the coordinates of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and the x-axis.
d) Calculate the area of the region bounded by these lines and the x-axis.
e) Find the coordinates of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and the y-axis.
f) Calculate the area of the region bounded by these lines and the y-axis.

19. x – y = 1; 2x + 3y = 12; Ans: a) (3,2); c) (6,0), (1,0), (3,2); d) 5 sq.u.;

e) (0,4), (0,-1), (3,2); f) 7.5 sq.u.

20. x – y + 1 = 0; 3x + 2y = 12 Ans: a) (2,3); c) (–1,0), (4,0), (2,3); d) 7.5 sq.u.;

e) (0,1), (0,6), (2,3); f) 5 sq.u.

21. 4x – y = 8; 2x – y = 2 Ans: a) (3,4); c) (2,0), (1,0), (3,4); d) 2 sq.u.;

e) (0, –8), (0,-2), (3,4);f) 9 sq.u.

22. 4x – y = 8; 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 Ans: a) (3,4); c) (2,0), (-3,0), (3,4); d) 10 sq.u.;

e) (0, –8), (0,2), (3,4); f) 15 sq.u.

23. x + 3y = 6; 2x – 3y = 12 Ans: a) (6,0); c) None; d) 0 sq.u.;

e) (0,2), (0, –4), (6,0); f) 18 sq.u.

24. 5x – y = 5; 3x – y = 3 Ans: a) (1,0); c) None; d) 0 sq.u.;

e) (0, –5), (0, –3), (1,0); f) 1 sq.u.

25. 4x + 4 = 3y; 4x + 3y = 20 Ans: a) (2,4); c) (-1,0), (5,0), (2,4); d) 12 sq.u.;

4 20 16
e) (0, 3), (0, 3 ), (2,4); f) 3 sq.u.

−1 11
26. 2x + 8 = 3y; 3x + y + 1 = 0 Ans: a) (-1,2); c) ( 3 , 0), (-4,0), (-1,2); d) 3
sq.u.;
8 11
e) (0,-1), (0, ), (-1,2); f) sq.u.
3 6

3 7
27. 2x + y = 3; 2x – 3y = 7 Ans: a) (2,-1); c) ( , 0), ( , 0), (2,-1); d) 1 sq.u.;
2 2
−7 16
e) (0,3), (0, 3
), (2,-1); f) 3
sq.u.

−13 15
28. 3x + 12 = 2y; 2x + 13 = 3y Ans: a) (-2,3); c) ( 2
, 0), (-4,0), (-2,3); d) 4 sq.u.;
13 5
e) (0, 3 ), (0,6), (-2,3); f) 3 sq.u.

17 11
29. x – 2y = 2; 3x + 5y = 17 Ans: a) (4,1); c) (2,0), ( 3 , 0), (4,1); d) 6
sq.u.;
17
e) (0,-1), (0, 5
), (4,1); f) 8.8 sq.u.

−5 39
30. 3x – 2y = 12; 2x + 3y + 5 = 0 Ans: a) (2,-3); c) ( 2 , 0), (4,0), (2,-3); d) 4
sq.u.;
−5 13
e) (0, ), (0,-6), (2,-3); f) sq.u.
3 3

31. Determine graphically the coordinates of the vertices of a triangle, the equations of whose sides
are:
i) y = x; y = 2x; y+x=6 Ans:
ii) y = 0; y = x; 3x + 3y = 10 Ans:
iii) 2y – x = 8; 5y – x = 14; y - 2x = 1 Ans:

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32. Solve by elimination method: x + y = 3; 2x + 5y = 12 Ans: 1, 2

33. Solve by elimination method: x + y = 7; 12x + 5y = 7 Ans: –4, 11

34. Solve by elimination method: x + 4y = 10; y + 3x = 8 Ans: 2, 2

35. Solve by elimination method: x – 4y = 13; 3x + 2y = – 3 Ans: 1, –3

36. Solve by elimination method: 3x – 5y + 1 = 0; 2x – y + 3 = 0 Ans: –2, –1

37. Solve by elimination method: 8x + 5y = 9; 3x + 2y = 4 Ans: –2, 5

38. Solve by elimination method: 2x + 3y = 8; 4x + 6y = 7 Ans: no solution

17 5
39. Solve by elimination method: 2x + 3y = 7; 6x – 5y = 11 Ans: ,
7 7

40. Solve by substitution method: 2x + y – 17 = 0; 17x – 11y – 8 = 0 Ans: 5, 7

41. Solve by substitution method: – 6x + 5y = 2; – 5x + 6y = 9 Ans: 3, 4

42. Solve by substitution method: 23x – 17y + 11 = 0; 31x + 13y – 57 = 0 Ans: 1, 2

125 −89
43. Solve by substitution method: 3x – 5y = 20; 7x + 2y = 17 Ans: ,
41 41

44. Solve by substitution method: 7x + 11y – 3 = 0; 8x + y – 15 = 0 Ans: 2, –1

1 9
45. Solve by substitution method: 6x + 5y = 11; 9x + 10y = 21 Ans: 3 , 5

− 7 − 13
46. Solve by substitution method: 7x – 8y – 11 = 0; 8x – 7y – 7 = 0 Ans: ,
5 5

47. Solve by substitution method: 7x – 2y = 3; 22x – 3y = 16 Ans: 1, 2

29 3 −2
48. Solve by cross multiplication method: 4x – 3y – 8 = 0; 6x – y – =0 Ans: ,
3 2 3

35
49. Solve by cross multiplication method: 2x + 7y = 14; 5x + 2
y = 25 Ans: no solution

x 2y y
50. Solve by cross multiplication method: 2 + 3
= −1; x− 3
=3 Ans: 2, –3

s t
51. Solve by cross multiplication method: 3 + 2
= 6; s–t=3 Ans: 9, 6

52. Solve by cross multiplication method: 0.2x + 0.3y = 1.3; 0.4x + 0.5y = 2.3 Ans: 2, 3
3 5 x y 13
53. Solve by cross multiplication method: 2 x − 3
y = −2; 3
+ 2
= 6
Ans: 2, 3

35 5
54. Solve by cross multiplication method: 4x + 7y = 10; 10x – 2
y = 25 Ans: 2, 0

55. Solve by cross multiplication method: 2x + 3y = 11; 2x – 4y = – 24

and hence find the value of ‘m’ for which y = mx + 3. Ans: –2, 5; –1

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56. Solve: 217x + 131y = 913; 131x + 217y = 827 Ans: 3, 2

57. Solve: 37x + 41y = 70; 41x + 37y = 86 Ans: 3, –1

58. Solve: 99x + 101y = 499; 101x + 99y = 501 Ans: 3, 2

59. Solve: 23x – 29y = 98; 29x – 23y = 110 Ans: 3, –1

60. Solve: 152x – 378y = – 74; – 378x + 152y = – 604 Ans: 2, 1

2 3
61. Solve: 5ax + 6by = 28; 3ax + 4by = 18 Ans: a , b

62. Solve: px + qy = p – q; qx – py = p + q Ans: 1, –1

63. Solve: x + y = a + b; ax – by = a2 – b2 Ans: a, b

64. Solve: x + y = a - b; ax – by = a2 + b2 Ans: a, –b

x y
65. Solve: a + b
= 2; ax – by = a2 – b2 Ans: a, b

x y
66. Solve: a = b; ax + by = a2 + b2 Ans: a, b

x y x y
67. Solve: a + b
= a + b; a2
= b2 Ans: a2 , b2

68. Solve: mx – ny = m2 + n2; x + y = 2m Ans: m+n, m–n

(a+b)2 a b
69. Solve: ax + by = 1; bx + ay + 1 = a2 +b2
Ans: a2 +b2 , a2 +b2

−1
70. Solve: 2(ax – by) + (a + 4b) = 0; 2(bx + ay) + (b – 4a) = 0 Ans: , 2
2

ab ab a3 −b3 a3 +b3
71. Solve: x [a − b + a−b] = y [a + b − a+b]; x + y = 2a2 Ans: a
, a

−2ab
72. Solve: (a – b) x + (a + b) y = a2 – 2ab – b2; (x + y) (a + b) = a2 + b2 Ans: a + b,
a+b

b2 2a2 +b2
73. Solve: a(x + y) + b(x – y) = a2 – ab + b2; a(x + y) – b(x – y) = a2 + ab + b2 Ans: 2a , 2a

1 1 1 1 2a a b
74. Solve: ax (a−b − a+b) + cy (b−a − b+a) = a+b; bx + cy = a + b Ans: b , c

2 3 5 4 1 1
75. Solve: x
+ y = 13; x
− y = −2 Ans: 2, 3

1 1 1 1 13 1 1
76. Solve: + = 2; + = Ans: ,
2x 3y 3x 2y 6 2 3

ab2 a2 b a b
77. Solve: x
+ y
= a2 + b2 ; x
=y Ans: a, b

a2 b b2 a a2 b2
78. Solve: x
+ y
= a + b; x
= y
Ans: a2 , b2

7 11 3
79. Solve: 2x + y = 3
xy; x + 3y = 3
xy Ans: 1, 2

80. Solve: 7x – 2y = 5xy; 8x + 7y = 15xy Ans: 1, 1

81. Solve: 6x + 3y = 6xy; 2x + 4y = 5xy Ans: 1, 2

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2 3 4 9
82. Solve: + = 2; − = −1 Ans: 4, 9
√x √y √x √y

5 1 6 3
83. Solve: x−1 + y−2 = 2; x−1
− y−2 =1 Ans: 4, 5

10 2 15 5
84. Solve: + = 4; − = −2 Ans: 3, 2
x+y x−y x+y x−y

1 1 3 1 1 1
85. Solve: + = ; − =− Ans: 1, 1
3x+y 3x−y 4 6x+2y 6x−2y 8

4 3 1
86. Solve: + 3y = 14; − 4y = 23 Ans: , –2
x x 5

87. Solve: 2x + 3y = 17; 2x+2 − 3y+1 = 5 Ans: 3, 2

ax by
88. Solve: b
− a
= a + b; 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏𝑦 = 2𝑎𝑏 Ans: b, –a

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5. Applications of Linear Equations In Two Variables

Problems based on fractions
9 5
1. A fraction becomes 11
, if 2 is added to both numerator and denominator. It becomes 6, if 3 is
7
added to each of them. Find the fraction. Ans: 9

6 3
2. A fraction becomes , if 1 is added to both numerator and denominator. It becomes , if 5 is
5 2
11
subtracted from each of them. Find the fraction. Ans: 9

3. A fraction becomes 1, if 1 is added to numerator and subtracted from denominator. It becomes

3
half if 1 is added to its denominator. Find the fraction. Ans: 5

1 1
4. A fraction becomes 7, if 5 is added to denominator and subtracted from numerator. It becomes 3 if
7
3 is subtracted from numerator and added to denominator. Find the fraction. Ans:
9

1 1
5. A fraction becomes 3, if 1 is subtracted from numerator and it becomes 4
if 8 is added to its
5
denominator. Find the fraction. Ans: 12

18
6. If numerator of a fraction is multiplied by 3 and denominator is reduced by 3, we get 11
, but if
2 12
numerator is increased by 8 and denominator is doubled, we get 5
. Find the fraction. Ans: 25

6
7. If numerator of a fraction is multiplied by 2 and denominator is reduced by 5, we get , but if
5
2 12
numerator is increased by 8 and denominator is doubled, we get 5. Find the fraction. Ans: 25

8. The sum of numerator and denominator of a fraction is 18. If denominator is increased by 2, the
1 5
fraction reduces to 3. Find the fraction. Ans: 13

9. The sum of numerator and denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice its numerator. If the
2 5
numerator & denominator are increased by 3, the fraction reduces to 3. Find the fraction. Ans: 9

10. Numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its denominator. If numerator is decreased by 2 and
3
denominator is increased by 1, then denominator is 8 times numerator. Find the fraction. Ans:
7

11. The sum of numerator & denominator of a fraction is 3 less than twice denominator. If numerator
& denominator are decreased by 1, then numerator becomes half its denominator. Find the
4
fraction. Ans:
7

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Problems based on cost of articles

12. The cost of 2 kg of apples and 1 kg of grapes is ₹ 160 and the cost of 3 kg of apples and 4 kg of
grapes is ₹ 390. Find the cost of 1 kg of apples and 3 kg of grapes. Ans: ₹ 230

13. The coach of a cricket team buys 7 bats and 6 balls for ₹ 3800. Later, she buys 3 bats and 5 balls
for ₹ 1750. Find the cost of each bat and each ball. Ans: ₹ 500, ₹ 50

14. Five pencils and seven pens together cost ₹ 50, whereas seven pencils and five pens together
cost ₹ 46. Find the cost of four pens and three pencils. Ans: ₹ 29

15. 4 chairs and 3 tables cost ₹ 2100 and 5 chairs and 2 tables cost ₹ 1750. Find the cost of a chair
and a table separately. Ans: ₹ 150, ₹ 500

16. 3 chairs and 2 tables cost ₹ 1850 and 5 chairs and 3 tables cost ₹ 2850. Find the cost of 2 chairs
and 2 tables. Ans: ₹ 1700

17. 2 audio cassettes and 3 video cassettes cost ₹ 340. But 3 audio cassettes and 2 video cassettes
cost ₹ 260. Find the price of an audio cassette and that of a video cassette. Ans: ₹ 20, ₹ 100

18. From a bus stand in Bangalore, if we buy 2 tickets to Malleswaram and 3 tickets to Yeshwanthpur,
the total cost is ₹ 46; but if we buy 3 tickets to Malleswaram and 5 tickets to Yeshwanthpur the
total cost is ₹ 74. Find the fares from the bus stand to Malleswaram and to Yeshwanthpur.
Ans: ₹ 8, ₹ 10

19. If we buy 2 tickets from station A to station B, and 3 from station A to station C, we have to pay ₹
795. But 3 tickets from station A to station B, and 5 tickets from station A to station C cost a total
of ₹ 1300. What is the fare from station A to station B and that from station A to station C?
Ans: ₹ 75, ₹ 215

20. A railway half-ticket costs half the full fare but the reservation charges are the same on a half-
ticket as on a full ticket. One reserved a full ticket for ₹ 2125. Also, one reserved one full & one
half-ticket for ₹ 3200. Find the full fare and the reservation charges for a ticket. Ans: ₹ 2100, ₹ 25

21. A railway half-ticket costs half the full fare but the reservation charges are the same on a half-
ticket as on a full ticket. One reserved three half-ticket and four full ticket for ₹ 7490. Also, one
reserved five half-ticket and three full ticket for ₹ 7570. Find the full fare and the reservation
charges for a ticket. Ans: ₹ 1260, ₹ 80

22. A person starts his job with a certain monthly salary and earns a fixed increment every year. If his
salary was ₹ 4500 after 4 years of service and ₹ 5400 after 10 years of service, find his initial
salary and the annual increment. Ans: ₹ 3900, ₹ 150

23. A part of monthly hostel charges is fixed and the remaining depends on the number of days one
has taken food in the mess. When a student A takes food for 20 days, she pays ₹ 1000 whereas a
student B, who takes food for 26 days, pays ₹ 1180. Find the fixed charges and the cost of food
per day. Ans: ₹ 400, ₹ 30

24. The taxi charges in a city consist of a fixed charge together with the charge for the distance
covered. For a distance of 10 km, the charge paid is ₹ 105 and for 15 km, the charge paid is ₹
155. How much we have to pay for traveling a distance of 25 km? Ans: ₹ 255

25. A lending library has a fixed charge for the first three days and an additional charge for each day
thereafter. Saritha paid ₹ 27 for a book kept for 7 days, while Suzy paid ₹ 21 for the book, she
kept for 5 days. Find the fixed charge and the charge for each extra day. Ans: ₹ 15, ₹ 3

26. Meena went to a bank to withdraw ₹ 2000. She told the cashier to give ₹ 50 and ₹ 100 notes only.
She got 25 notes in all. Find how many types of each note she received. Ans: 10, 15

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Problems based on numbers

27. If one number is thrice the other and their difference is 26. Find them. Ans:13, 39

28. The sum of two numbers is 8 which is four times their difference. Find them. Ans: 3, 5

29. The sum of two numbers is 25 and the difference of their squares is 225. Find them. Ans: 8, 17

30. Of the two numbers, 4 times the smaller one is less than 3 times the larger one by 6. Also, the
sum of the number is greater than 6 times their difference by 5. Find the numbers. Ans: 45, 62

31. 4 is quotient & 3 is remainder, if 3 times larger number is divided by smaller one and 5 is quotient
& 1 is remainder, if 7 times smaller number is divided by larger one. Find them. Ans: 25, 18

32. Ten students of a class took part in a quiz. If the number of girls is four more than number of boys,
find the number of boys and girls who took part in the quiz. Ans: 3, 7

33. The kids in a group are made to stand in rows. If 3 kids are extra in a row, there would be 1 row
less. If 3 kids are less in a row, there would be 2 rows more. Find the number of kids in the group.
Ans: 36

34. Yash scored 40 marks, getting 3 marks for each right answer and losing 1 mark for each wrong
answer. Had 4 marks been awarded for each right answer and 2 marks been deducted for each
wrong answer, then he would have scored 50 marks. How many questions were there? Ans: 20

35. A says, “if you give 30 of your mangoes I will have twice as many as left with you”. B replies, “if
you give me 10, I will have thrice as many as left with you”. How many mangoes does each have?
Ans: 34, 62

36. One says, "Give me ₹ 100, friend! I shall then become twice as rich as you". The other replies, "If
you give me ₹ 10, I shall be 6 times as rich as you". Find the amount each have. Ans: ₹ 40, ₹ 170

37. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each of
them saves ₹ 2000 per month, find their monthly incomes. Ans: ₹ 18000, ₹ 14000

38. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 8. The number obtained by interchanging the two
digits exceeds the given number by 36. Find the number. Ans: 26

39. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. Also, nine times this number is twice the number
obtained by reversing the order of the digits of the number. Find the number. Ans: 18

40. 7 times a two-digit number is same as 4 times the number obtained by reversing the order of the
digits. If one digit of the number exceeds the other by 3, find the number. Ans: 36

41. The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits is 66. If the digits
of the number differ by 2, find the number. How many such numbers are there? Ans: 24, 42

42. A two-digit number is obtained by either multiplying the sum of the digits by 8 and adding 1, or by
multiplying the difference of the digits by 13 and adding 2. Find the number. Ans: 41

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Problems based on speed distance and time

1
43. Ali walks a certain distance with certain speed. If he walks km an hour faster, he takes 1 hour
2
less. But if he walks 1 km an hour slower, he takes 3 more hours. Find the distance covered by
𝑘𝑚
him and his original rate of walking. Ans: 36 km, 4
ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
44. If a train would have been 10 ℎ𝑟
faster, it would have taken 2 hours less than the scheduled time.
𝑘𝑚
And, if the train were slower by 10 ℎ𝑟 , it would have taken 3 hours more than the scheduled time.
Find the distance covered by the train. Ans: 600 km

45. Ajeet takes 2 hours more than Amit to walk 30 km. If Ajeet doubles his speed, he would take 1
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
hour less than Amit. Find their speeds of walking. Ans: 5 ℎ𝑟 , 7.5 ℎ𝑟

46. Anjali takes 3 hours more than Amrita to walk 30 km. If Anjali doubles her pace, she is ahead of
10 𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
Amrita by 90 minutes. Find their speeds of walking. Ans: 3 ℎ𝑟 , 5 ℎ𝑟

47. Roohi travels 300 km partly by train and partly by bus. She takes 4 hours if she travels 60 km by
train and the remaining by bus. If she travels 100 km by train and the remaining by bus, she takes
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
10 minutes longer. Find the speed of the train and that of the bus. Ans: 60 ℎ𝑟 , 80 ℎ𝑟

48. After covering a distance of 30 km with a uniform speed there is some defect in a train engine and
4
therefore, its speed reduces to of its original speed and it reaches its destination late by 45
5
minutes. Had it happened after covering 18 km more, the train has reached 9 minutes earlier.
𝑘𝑚
Find the speed of the train and the distance of journey. Ans: 30 , 120 km
ℎ𝑟

49. Points A and B are 100 Km apart on a highway. One car starts from A and another from B at the
same time. If the cars travel in the same direction, they meet in 5 hours. If the cars travel towards
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
each other, they meet in 1hour. What are the speeds of the two cars? Ans: 60 ℎ𝑟 , 40 ℎ𝑟

50. Points A and B are 70 Km apart on a highway. One car starts from A and another from B at the
same time. If the cars travel in the same direction, they meet in 7 hours. If the cars travel towards
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
each other, they meet in 1hour. What are the speeds of the two cars? Ans: 40 ℎ𝑟 , 30 ℎ𝑟

51. Anil rows downstream 8 Km in 40 minutes and returns in 1 hour. Find his speed of rowing in still
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
water and the speed of the current. Ans: 10 ℎ𝑟 , 2 ℎ𝑟

52. Ritu can row downstream 20 km in 2 hours, and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. Find her speed of
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
rowing in still water and the speed of the current. Ans: 6 ℎ𝑟 , 4 ℎ𝑟

53. A person can row downstream 24 Km and upstream 8 Km in 4 hours. He can row downstream 12
Km and upstream 12 Km in 4 hours. Find man's speed of rowing in still water and the speed of
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
the current. Ans: 8 ℎ𝑟 , 4 ℎ𝑟

54. A boat rows downstream 44 Km and upstream 30 Km in 10 hours. It rows downstream 55 Km and
upstream 40 Km in 13 hours. Find speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the current.
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
Ans: 8 ℎ𝑟 , 3 ℎ𝑟

55. A boat goes downstream 28 Km and upstream 24 Km in 6 hours. It goes downstream 21 Km and
1
upstream 30 Km in 6 hours. Find speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the stream.
2

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𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
Ans: 10 ℎ𝑟
, 4 ℎ𝑟
Problems based on ages

56. Ram is three times as old as Rahim. Five years later, Ram will be two-and-a-half times as old as
Rahim. How old are Ram and Rahim now? Ans: 45 yrs, 15 yrs

57. Five years ago, Nuri was thrice as old as Sonu. Ten years later, Nuri will be twice as old as Sonu.
How old are Nuri and Sonu? Ans: 50 yrs, 20 yrs

58. Five years hence, the age of Jacob will be three times that of his son. Five years ago, Jacob's age
was seven times that of his son. What are their present ages? Ans: 40 yrs, 10 yrs

59. Ali tells his son, "Seven years ago, I was seven times as old as you were then. Also, three years
from now, I shall be three times as old as you will be." What are their present ages?
Ans: 42 yrs, 12 yrs

60. A is elder to B by 2 years. A's father F is twice as old as A and B is twice as old as his sister S. If
the ages of the father and sister differ by 40 years, find the age of A and B.
Ans: 26 yrs, 24 yrs

61. The ages of two friends Ani and Biju differ by 3 years. Ani's father Dharam is twice as old as Ani
and Biju is twice as old as his sister Cathy. The ages of Cathy and Dharam differ by 30 years.
Find the ages of Ani and Biju. Ans: 19 yrs, 16 yrs or 21 yrs, 24 yrs

62. Father’s age is three times the sum of ages of his two children. After 5 years his age will be twice
the sum of ages of two children. Find the age of father. Ans: 45 yrs

Problems based on geometrical figures

63. The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18°. Find them. Ans: 81°, 99°

64. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A = (2x+4), ∠B = (y+3), ∠C = (2y+10) & ∠D = (4x–5). Find the
four angles. Ans: 70°, 53°, 110°, 127°

65. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A = (4y+20), ∠B = (3y-5), ∠C = (-4x) & ∠D = (5-7x). Find the four
angles. Ans: 120°, 70°, 60°, 110°

66. In a  ABC, ∠C = 3∠B = 2(∠A + ∠B). Find the three angles. Ans: 20°, 40°, 120°

67. If in a rectangle, the length is increased and the breadth is reduced by 2 units each, the area is
reduced by 28 square units. If the length is reduced by 1 unit, and the breadth is increased by 2
units, the area is increased by 33 square units. Find its dimensions. Ans: 23 units, 11 units

68. The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9 square units, if its length is reduced by 5 units & the
breadth is increased by 3 units. And area is increased by 67 square units, if its length is increased
by 3 units & the breadth by 2 units. Find the dimensions of the rectangle. Ans: 17 units, 9 units

69. Half the perimeter of a rectangular garden, whose length is 4 m more than its width, is 36 m. Find
the dimensions of the garden. Ans: 20 m, 16 m

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Miscellaneous problems

70. A person invested some amount at the rate of 12% simple interest and some other amount at the
rate of 10% simple interest. He received yearly interest of ₹ 130. But if he had interchanged the
amounts invested, he would have received ₹ 4 more as interest. How much amount did he invest
at different rates? Ans: ₹ 500, ₹ 700

71. A man sold a chair and a table together for ₹ 1520 thereby making a profit of 25% on the chair
and 10% on the table. By selling them together for ₹ 1535 he would have made a profit of 10 %
on the chair and 25% on the table. Find the cost price of each. Ans: ₹ 600, ₹ 700

72. A man sold a table and chair for ₹ 760 and he got 10% profit on chair and 25% on table. If he sold
for ₹ 767.5 then he would get 25% profit on chair and 10% profit on table. Find the cost price of
each. Ans: ₹ 350, ₹ 300

73. On selling a T.V at 5% gain and a fridge at 10% gain, a shopkeeper gains ₹ 2000. But if he sells
the T.V at 10% gain and the fridge at 5% loss. He gains ₹ 1500 on the transaction. Find the actual
prices of T.V and fridge. Ans: ₹ 20,000, ₹ 10,000

74. 2 women and 5 men can together finish a work in 4 days, while 3 women and 6 men can finish it
in 3 days. Find the time taken by 1 woman alone to finish the work, and also that taken by 1 man
alone. Ans: 18 days, 36 days

75. 8 men and 12 boys can together finish a work in 5 days, while 6 men and 8 boys can finish it in 7
days. Find the time taken by 1 man alone to finish the work, and also that taken by 1 boy alone.
Ans: 70 days, 140 days

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6. Quadratic equations
1. Check whether the following are quadratic equations:
(i) (x + 1)2 = 2(x – 3) Ans: Yes
(ii) x2 – 2x = (–2) (3 – x) Ans: Yes
(iii) (x – 2)(x + 1) = (x – 1)(x + 3) Ans: No
(iv) (x – 3)(2x +1) = x(x + 5) Ans: Yes
(v) (2x – 1)(x – 3) = (x + 5)(x – 1) Ans: Yes
(vi) x2 + 3x + 1 = (x – 2)2 Ans: No
(vii) (x + 2)3 = 2x (x2 – 1) Ans: No
(viii) x3 – 4x2 – x + 1 = (x – 2)3 Ans: Yes
(ix) (x – 2)2 + 1 = 2x – 3 Ans: Yes
(x) x(x + 1) + 8 = (x + 2) (x – 2) Ans: No
(xi) x(2x + 3) = x2 + 1 Ans: Yes
(xii) (x + 2)3 = x3 – 4 Ans: Yes

2. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 − 7x + 12 = 0 Ans: 3, 4

3. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 − 12x + 35 = 0 Ans: 5, 7

4. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 + 13x + 40 = 0 Ans: -5, -8

5. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 + 4x − 21 = 0 Ans: 3, -7

6. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 − 11x − 42 = 0 Ans: -3, 14

7. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 − 9x − 52 = 0 Ans: -4, 13

8. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 + 4x − 221 = 0 Ans: 13, -17

9. Solve the equation by factorization: x2 – 3x – 10 = 0 Ans: – 2, 5

3
10. Solve the equation by factorization: 2x2 + x – 6 = 0 Ans: – 2,
2

1 1 1
11. Solve the equation by factorization: 2x2 – x + 8 = 0 Ans: 4, 4

1 1
12. Solve the equation by factorization: 100 x2 – 20x + 1 = 0 Ans: 10, 10

3
13. Solve the equation by factorization: 2x2 – 5x + 3 = 0 Ans: 1, 2

2 −1
14. Solve the equation by factorization: 6x2 – x – 2 = 0 Ans: 3, 2

5 −2
15. Solve the equation by factorization: 6x2 – 11x – 10 = 0 Ans: 2 , 3

2 −3
16. Solve the equation by factorization: 10x2 + 11x – 6 = 0 Ans: 5 , 2

2 −5
17. Solve the equation by factorization: 21x2 + 29x – 10 = 0 Ans: 7 , 3

2 −7
18. Solve the equation by factorization: 18x2 + 59x – 14 = 0 Ans: ,
9 2

2 −7
19. Solve the equation by factorization: 33x2 + 71x – 14 = 0 Ans: 11 , 3

2 −8
20. Solve the equation by factorization: 65x2 + 94x – 16 = 0 Ans: 13 , 5

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3 −5
21. Solve the equation by factorization: 6x2 + x – 15 = 0 Ans: 2 , 3

2 5
22. Solve the equation by factorization: 12𝑥 2 − 23𝑥 + 10 = 0 Ans: 3 , 4

1 −7
23. Solve the equation by factorization: 10𝑥 2 + 33𝑥 − 7 = 0 Ans: 5 , 2

11 −3
24. Solve the equation by factorization: 8𝑥 2 − 38𝑥 − 33 = 0 Ans: 2
, 4

7 −3
25. Solve the equation by factorization: 12𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 21 = 0 Ans: ,
6 2

8
26. Solve the equation by factorization: 3𝑥 2 − 11𝑥 + 6 = 0 Ans: 3 , 1

−2
27. Solve the equation by factorization: 9𝑥 2 − 34𝑥 − 8 = 0 Ans: 9
,4

3 1
28. Solve the equation by factorization: √2x 2 − x + =0 Ans:
√2 √2

−5
29. Solve the equation by factorization: √2𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 5√2 = 0 Ans: , −√2
√2

−7
30. Solve the equation by factorization: √3𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 + 7√3 = 0 Ans: , −√3
√3

−2√3 √3
31. Solve the equation by factorization: 4√3𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 2√3 = 0 Ans: 3
, 4

−√2
32. Solve the equation by factorization: √2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 2√2 = 0 Ans: 2√2, 2

33. Solve the equation by factorization: 3√2x 2 − 5x − √2 = 0 Ans:

−√3 −√3
34. Solve the equation by factorization: 4𝑥 2 + 4√3𝑥 + 3 = 0 Ans: 2
, 2

1 1
35. Solve the equation by factorization: 2x2 – 2√2 x + 1 = 0 Ans: ,
√2 √2

36. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 − 3√5x + 10 = 0 Ans:

1
37. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 − √11x + 1 = 0 Ans: √11 ± 3
2

38. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 + 2√2x − 6 = 0 Ans: −3√2, √2

√5
39. Solve the equation by factorization: 3x 2 + 5√5x − 10 = 0 Ans: −2√5, 3

40. Solve the equation by factorization: x 2 + 5√5x − 70 = 0 Ans:

𝑎 2 b2
41. Solve the equation by factorization: 4𝑥 2 − 2(𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 )𝑥 + 𝑎2 𝑏 2 = 0 Ans: 2 2
,

1
42. Solve the equation by completing the square: 2x2 – 7x + 3 = 0 Ans: 3, 2

−7±√31
43. Solve the equation by completing the square: 2𝑥 2 + 14𝑥 + 9 = 0 Ans: 2

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44. Solve the equation by completing the square: 3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 1 = 0 Ans: No real roots

−1±√33
45. Solve the equation by completing the square: 2x2 + x – 4 = 0 Ans: 4

3±√19
46. Solve the equation by completing the square: 5𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 − 2 = 0 Ans: 5

5+√73 5−√73
47. Solve the equation by completing the square: 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 4 = 0 Ans: 6
, 6

48. Solve the equation by completing the square: 4𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 5 = 0 Ans: No real roots
1
49. Solve the equation by formula: 5x2 – 16x + 3 = 0 Ans: 3,
5

2
50. Solve the equation by formula: 3x2 – 5x + 2 = 0 Ans: 1, 3

51. Solve the equation by formula: 2x2 + x + 4 = 0 Ans: No real roots

1+√13 1−√13
52. Solve the equation by formula: 4x2 – 2x – 3 = 0 Ans: ,
4 4

53. Solve the equation by formula: x2 + 4x + 5 = 0 Ans: No real roots

54. Solve the equation: 𝑥 2 − 2𝑎𝑥 + (𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 ) = 0 Ans: 𝑎 + 𝑏, 𝑎 − 𝑏

55. Solve the equation: 𝑥 2 − 4𝑎𝑥 + 4𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 = 0 Ans: 2𝑎 + 𝑏, 2𝑎 − 𝑏

3𝑏
56. Solve the equation: 𝑎𝑥 2 + (4𝑎2 − 3𝑏)𝑥 − 12𝑎𝑏 = 0 Ans: , −4a
𝑎

𝑎−𝑏 −a−b
57. Solve the equation: 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑏𝑥 − (𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 ) = 0 Ans: ,
2 2

𝑞2
58. Solve the equation: 𝑝2 𝑥 2 + (𝑝2 − 𝑞 2 )𝑥 − 𝑞 2 = 0 Ans: , −1
𝑝2

𝑎 −2b
59. Solve the equation: 𝑎𝑐𝑥 2 + 2𝑏𝑐𝑥 − 𝑎2 𝑥 − 2𝑎𝑏 = 0 Ans: 𝑐 ,
a

2𝑎+𝑏 a+2b
60. Solve the equation: 9x2 – 9(a + b)x + (2a2 + 5ab + 2b2) = 0 Ans: 3
, 3

1 1 1 1
61. Solve the equation: 𝑎+𝑏+𝑥 = 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑥 Ans: −𝑎, −𝑏

62. Solve the equation: √3𝑥 2 − 2√2𝑥 − 2√3 = 0 Ans:

1 3±√5
63. Solve the equation: x + 𝑥 =3, (x ≠ 0) Ans: 2

1 1 3±√3
64. Solve the equation: 𝑥 − 𝑥−2 = 3, (x ≠ 0, 2) Ans: 3

1 3±√13
65. Solve the equation: 𝑥 − 𝑥 = 3, (x ≠ 0) Ans: 2

1 1 11
66. Solve the equation: − = , (x ≠ – 4, 7) Ans: 1, 2
𝑥+4 𝑥−7 30

𝑥+3 3𝑥−7
67. Solve the equation: 𝑥+2 = 2𝑥−3 Ans:

𝑥+3 1−𝑥 17 −2
68. Solve the equation: − = Ans: 4,
𝑥−2 𝑥 4 9

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1 2 6 4
69. Solve the equation: 𝑥−2 + 𝑥−1 = 𝑥 Ans: 3, 3

1 2 4
70. Solve the equation: 𝑥+1 + 𝑥+2 = 𝑥+4 Ans: 2 ± 2√3

4𝑥−3 2𝑥+1
71. Solve for x: 2𝑥+1 − 10 (4𝑥−3) = 3 Ans:

𝑥+2 𝑥−2 5
72. Solve for x: 𝑥−2 + 𝑥+2
= 2, (x ≠ – 2, 2) Ans: 6, -6

73. Solve for x: (𝑥 2 − 5𝑥)2 − 7(𝑥 2 − 5𝑥) + 6 = 0 Ans:

𝑥+1 𝑥−1 5
74. Solve for x: 𝑥−1 − 𝑥+1 = 6 Ans:

𝑥 𝑥+1 34 −5 3
75. Solve for x: 𝑥+1 + 𝑥
= 15 Ans: ,
2 2

𝑥−3 𝑥+3 6 9
76. Solve for x: − =6 Ans: − 4,
𝑥+3 𝑥−3 7 4

2𝑥−3 𝑥−1 1 4
77. Solve for x: 𝑥−1
− 4 (2𝑥−3) = 3 Ans: 2 , 3

1
78. Find the value of: 1 Ans: 1
2− 1
2− 1
2−
2 − ⋯⋯⋯⋯ ∞

1±√29
79. Find the value of: √7 + √7 + √7 + √7 + ⋯ ⋯ ⋯ ⋯ ∞ Ans: 2

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Condition Conclusion
b2 – 4ac > 0 two distinct real roots
b2 – 4ac = 0 two equal real roots
b2 – 4ac < 0 no real roots

80. Find the discriminant of the following quadratic equations and hence find the nature of its roots.
Find them, if they are real.
(i) 2x2 – 3x + 5 = 0 Ans: -31; No real roots
2 2
(ii) 3x – 4√3 x + 4 = 0
2
Ans: 0; Equal roots; 3, 3
√ √
3±√3
(iii) 2x – 6x + 3 = 0
2
Ans: 12; Distinct roots; 2
1 1 1
(iv) 3x2 – 2x + = 0
3
Ans: 0; Equal roots; 3 , 3
(v) 2x2 – 4x + 3 = 0 Ans: - 8; No real roots

81. Find the value(s) of k so that the equation 2x2 + kx + 3 = 0 has two equal roots. Ans: ±2√6

82. Find the value(s) of k so that the equation kx (x – 2) + 6 = 0 has two equal roots. Ans: 0, 6

83. Find the value(s) of p so that the equation 2x2 + px + 8 = 0 has real roots. Ans:

84. Find the value(s) of k so that the equation 16x2 – 9kx + 1 = 0 has real and equal roots. Ans:

85. Find the value(s) of k so that the equation (𝑘 + 1) 𝑥 2 − 2(3𝑘 + 1)𝑥 + 8𝑘 + 1 = 0 has real and
equal roots. Ans: 0, 3

86. Find the value(s) of k so that (𝑥 − 1) is a factor of k 2 x 2 − 2kx − 3. Ans:

87. Find the value(s) of k so that (4 − 𝑘)𝑥 2 + (2𝑘 + 4)𝑥 + 8𝑘 + 1 is a perfect square. Ans: 0, 3

88. If one root of the equation 2x 2 − 3x + p = 0 is 3, find the other root and find the value of p. Ans:

89. Find the value(s) of k for which the equation (𝑘 − 12)𝑥 2 + 2(𝑘 − 12)𝑥 + 2 = 0 has equal roots.
Ans: 14, 12

90. If roots of the equation (𝑏 − 𝑐)𝑥 2 + (𝑐 − 𝑎)𝑥 + (𝑎 − 𝑏) = 0 are equal, then prove that a, b, c are in
AP.

91. If the roots of the equation (c2 - ab)x2 – 2(a2 – bc) x + b2 – ac = 0 are equal,
then prove that either a = 0 or a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

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7. Applications of Quadratic equations

Problems based on articles and their cost

1. A cottage industry produces a certain number of toys in a day. The cost of production of each toy
(in ₹) was found to be 55 minus the number of toys produced in a day. On a particular day, the
total cost of production was ₹ 750. How many toys produced on that day? Ans: 25, 30

2. A cottage industry produces a certain number of pots in a day. The cost of production of each pot
(in ₹) was found to be 3 more than twice the number of pots produced in a day. If the total cost of
production on a particular day was ₹ 90, find the cost of each pot on that day. Ans: ₹ 15

3. A man buys number of caps for ₹ 600. If he had bought 10 dozen more caps for the same
amount, each dozen would have cost him ₹ 2 less. Find the no. of caps bought. Ans: 50 dozen

4. A shopkeeper buys a number of books for ₹ 800. If he had bought four more books for the same
amount, each book would have cost him ₹ 10 less. How many books did he buy? Ans:

5. If the price of a book is reduced by ₹ 5, a person can buy 5 more books for ₹ 300. Find the
original price of the book. Ans: ₹ 2 per book

6. If the list price of a toy is reduced by ₹ 2, a person can buy 2 toys more for ₹ 360. Find the original
price of this toy. Ans:

7. A piece of cloth costs ₹ 200. If the piece was 5 m longer and each meter of cloth costs ₹ 2 less,
the cost of the piece would have remained unchanged. How long is the piece? Ans:

8. Some students planned for a picnic in a budget of ₹ 3600. But, 15 of them failed to go and thus
the cost per head increased by ₹ 8. How many students attended the picnic? Ans:

9. Some students planned for a picnic in a budget of ₹ 500. But, 5 of them failed to go and thus the
cost per head increased by ₹ 5. How many students planed the picnic? Ans:

10. ₹ 9000 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 20 more
persons, each would have got ₹ 160 less. Find the original number of persons. Ans: 25

Problems based on ages

11. The product of Javed's age (in years) 5 years ago and his age (in years) nine years later is 15.
Find his present age. Ans: 6 years
1
12. The sum of the reciprocals of Rehman's ages, (in years) 3 years ago and 5 years from now is 3.
Find his present age. Ans: 7 years

13. The product of Mamta’s age (in years) two years ago and her age four years from now is one
more than twice her present age. What is her present age? Ans: 3 years

14. Rohan's mother is 26 years older than him. The product of their ages (in years) 3 years from now
will be 360. Find Rohan’s present age. Ans: 7 years

15. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages
(in years) was 124. Find son’s present age. Ans: 9 years

16. At present Asha's age (in years) is 2 more than the square of her daughter Nisha's age. When
Nisha grows to her mother's present age, Asha's age would be one year less than 10 times the
present age of Nisha. Find the present ages of both Asha and Nisha. Ans: 27 years, 5 years

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Problems based on time, distance and speed

𝑘𝑚
17. A passenger train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 300 km, if its speed is increased by 5
ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑚
from its usual speed. Find its usual speed. Ans: 25 ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
18. A passenger train takes 3 hours less for a journey of 360 km if its speed is increased by 10 ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑚
from its usual speed. What is the usual speed? Ans: 30
ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
19. An express train takes 4 hours less for a journey of 1200 km if its speed is increased by 15 ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑚
from its usual speed. Find its usual speed. Ans: ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
20. A train travels 480 km. If the speed had been 8 lesser, then it would have taken 3 hours more
ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑚
to cover the same distance. Find the speed of the train. Ans: ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
21. A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 5 ℎ𝑟
more, it would have taken 1
𝑘𝑚
hour less for the same journey. Find the speed of the train. Ans: 40 ℎ𝑟

22. An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between Mysore and
𝑘𝑚
Bangalore. If the average speed of the express train is 11 more than that of the passenger
ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑚
train, find the average speed of the express train. Ans: 44 ℎ𝑟

23. A journey of 192 km from Mumbai to Pune takes 2 hours less by a super fast train than that by an
𝑘𝑚
ordinary passenger train. If the average speed of the slower train is 16 r less than that of the
ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑚
faster train, determine their average speeds. Ans:
ℎ𝑟

24. A fast train takes 3 hours less than a slow train for a journey of 600 km, if the speed of the slow
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
train is 10 less than that of the fast train, find the speed of the fast train. Ans: 50
ℎ𝑟 ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
25. A plane takes one hour less for a journey of 1200 km, if its speed is increased by 100 ℎ𝑟
from its
𝑘𝑚
usual speed. Find its usual speed. Ans: ℎ𝑟

26. A plane left 30 minutes late and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time, it had to
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
increase its speed by 250 ℎ𝑟 from its usual speed. Find its usual speed. Ans: 750 ℎ𝑟

27. A plane left 20 minutes late and in order to reach its destination 1200 km away in time, it had to
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
increase its speed by 120 ℎ𝑟 from its usual speed. Find its usual speed. Ans: 600 ℎ𝑟

1
28. The time taken by a man to cover 150 km on a motorbike was 22 hours more than the time taken
𝑘𝑚
by him during the return journey. If the speed of the returning was 10 ℎ𝑟
more than the speed in
𝑘𝑚
going, what was the speed in return journey? Ans: 30 ℎ𝑟

29. Two trains leave a railway station at the same time. The first train travels due west and the
𝑘𝑚
second train due north. The first train travels 5 ℎ𝑟 faster than the second train. If after two hours,
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
they are 50 km apart, find the average speed of each train. Ans: 20 ℎ𝑟
, 15 ℎ𝑟

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𝑘𝑚
30. A motor-boat, whose speed is 15 ℎ𝑟
in still water, goes 30 km downstream and comes back in a
𝑘𝑚
total time of 4 hours 30 minutes. Find the speed of the stream. Ans: 5 ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
31. A motor-boat, whose speed is 9 ℎ𝑟
in still water, goes 12 km downstream and comes back in a
𝑘𝑚
total time of 3 hours. Find the speed of the stream. Ans: 3 ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
32. Speed of a river is 6 ℎ𝑟
. A motorboat travels 112 km downstream and some more distance
𝑘𝑚
upstream in a total time of 10 hours. If average speed of the entire trip is 20.8 ℎ𝑟
, find the speed
𝑘𝑚
of the boat in still water. Ans: 22 ℎ𝑟

𝑘𝑚
33. A motor boat whose speed is 18 ℎ𝑟
in still water takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream than to
𝑘𝑚
return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream. Ans: 6 ℎ𝑟

Problems based on numbers

10 1
34. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is 3
; find the number(s). Ans: 3, 3

35. Find two consecutive positive integers, whose product is 306. Ans:17,18

36. Find two consecutive positive integers, sum of whose squares is 365. Ans: 13, 14

37. Find two consecutive odd natural numbers, the sum of whose squares is 202. Ans: 9, 11

38. Find two consecutive odd positive integers, the sum of whose squares is 290. Ans: 11, 13

39. Find two consecutive even positive integers, the sum of whose squares is 100. Ans: 6, 8

40. Find three consecutive positive integers whose product is equal to 16 times their sum. Ans:

41. Find three consecutive positive integers such that the sum of the square of the first and the
product of the other two is 154. Ans: 8, 9, 10
3
42. Divide 15 into two parts such that the sum of their reciprocals is . Ans: 5, 10
10

8
43. Divide 8 into two parts such that the sum of their reciprocals is 15. Ans: 3, 5

44. Divide 12 into two parts such that their product is 32. Ans: 4, 8

45. Divide 27 into two parts such that their product is 182. Ans: 13, 14

46. Divide 12 into two parts such that the sum of their squares is 74. Ans: 5, 7

47. The sum of squares of two numbers is 130. The sum of the smaller number and twice the larger
number is 25. Find the numbers. Ans:

48. The difference of squares of two numbers is 45. The square of the smaller number is 4 times the
larger number. Find the two numbers. Ans:

49. The difference of squares of two numbers is 180. The square of the smaller number is 8 times the
larger number. Find the two numbers. Ans: 18, 12 or 18, –12

50. The product of digits of a two-digit number is 12. When 36 is added to this number, then the digits
interchange their places. Find the number. Ans:

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51. The product of digits of a two-digit number is 18. When 27 is subtracted from this number, then
the digits interchange their places. Find the number. Ans: 63

52. The product of digits of a two-digit number is 18. When 63 is subtracted from the number, then the
digits interchange their places. Find the number. Ans:

53. The product of digits of a two-digit number is 24. If 45 is subtracted from the number, then the
digits interchange places. Find the number. Ans: 83

54. The product of digits of a two-digit number is 14. When 45 is added to the number, then the digits
are reserved. Find the number. Ans:

55. John and Jaya together have 45 marbles. Both of them lost 5 marbles each, and the product of
the number of marbles they now have is 124. How many marbles John had? Ans: 36

56. 300 apples are distributed equally among a certain number of students. Had there been 10 more
students each would have received one apple less. Find the number of students. Ans:

57. The sum of Neha’s marks in Hindi and SS is 30. Had she got 2 marks more in Hindi and 3 marks
less in SS, the product of her marks would have been 210. Find her marks.
Ans: 12 & 18 or 13 & 17
1
58. Out of a number of sara's birds, one fourth the number are moving about in lotus plants; th
9
coupled (along) with one fourth as well as seven times the square root of the number move on a
hill; fifty six birds remain in vakula trees. What is the total number of birds? Ans:

59. One fourth of a herd of camels was in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to
the hills and the remaining 15 camels were on the bank of a river. Find the total number of
camels. Ans: 36
7
60. Out of a group of swans times the square root of the number are playing on the shore of a tank.
2
Two remaining ones are playing in the water. Find the total number of swans. Ans: 16

61. The sum S of n successive odd natural numbers starting from 3 is given by the relation S=n (n+2).
Determine n, if the sum is 168. Ans:

62. The sum S of first n even natural numbers is S = n (n+1). Find n, if the sum is 420. Ans: 20

63. The sum of three numbers which are in AP is 9 and sum of their squares is 35. Find the numbers.
Ans:

64. Divide 32 into 4 parts such that they are in AP and the ratio of the product of first term and fourth
7
terms to product of second and third terms is equal to 15. Ans:

65. The denominator of the fraction is one more than twice the numerator. If the sum of the fraction
16 3
and its reciprocal is 2 21 , find the fraction. Ans: 7

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Problems based on geometrical figures

66. Find dimensions of a rectangle of area 800 m2, whose length is twice its breadth. Ans:

67. Find dimensions of a rectangular park of perimeter 80 m and area 400 m2. Ans: 20 m, 20 m

68. Find dimensions of a rectangular park of perimeter 82 m and area 400 m2 . Ans: 25 m, 16 m

69. Find dimensions of a rectangle of area 195 m2, whose length exceeds its breadth by 2 m.
Ans: 13 m, 15 m

70. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 30 meters
more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field. Ans:

71. A farmer has 100 m2 rectangular garden. He fences three sides of the garden by 30 m barbed
wire letting compound wall of his house act as the fourth side fence. Find the dimensions of his
garden. Ans:

72. Sum of the areas of two squares is 468 m2. If the difference of their perimeters is 24 m, find the
sides of the two squares. Ans: 18 m, 12 m

73. If twice the area of a smaller square is subtracted from the area of a larger square, the result is
14cm2. However, if twice the area of the larger square is added to three times the area of the
smaller square, the result is 203 cm2. Find the sides of the two squares. Ans:

74. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 3√10 cm. if the smaller leg is tripled and the longer leg
doubled, new hypotenuse will be 9√5 cm. How long are the legs of the triangle? Ans:

75. The hypotenuse of a right triangular grassy land is 1 m more than twice the shortest side. If the
third side is 7m more than the shortest side, find the sides of the grassy land. Ans:

76. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 2 cm longer than the base and 4cm longer than the altitude.
Find the lengths of the base and the altitude. Ans:

77. The area of a rectangular plot is 528 m2. The length of the plot (in m) is one more than twice its
breadth. Find the length and breadth of the plot. Ans: 33 m, 16 m

78. The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, find the other
two sides. Ans: 5 cm, 12 cm

79. The length of the hypotenuse of right triangle exceeds the length of the base by 2 cm and
exceeds twice the length of the altitude by 1cm. Find the sides of the triangle. Ans:

80. The breadth of a rectangular park is 3 m less than its length. Its area is 4 m2 more than the area
of a park made in the shape of an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of the rectangular
park and of altitude 12 m. Find its length and breadth. Ans: 7 m, 4 m

81. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 m more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 30 m
more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field. Ans: 120 m, 90 m

82. A pole has to be erected at a point on the boundary of a circular park of diameter 13 meters in
such a way that the differences of its distances from two diametrically opposite fixed gates A and
B on the boundary is 7 meters. At what distances from the two gates should the pole be erected?
Ans: 5 m, 12 m

83. Is it possible to design a rectangular mango grove whose length is twice its breadth, and the area
is 800 m2? If so, find its length and breadth. Ans: Yes. 40 m, 20 m

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Miscellaneous Problems
3
84. Two water taps together can fill a tank in 9 hours. The tap of larger diameter takes 10 hours less
8
than the smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which each tap can separately fill
the tank. Ans: 15 hrs, 25 hrs
8
85. Two pipes running together can fill a cistern in 2 minutes. If one pipe takes 1 minute more than
11
the other to fill the cistern, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern. Ans:

86. A takes 6 days less than time taken by B to finish a piece of work. If both A and B together can
finish it in 4 days, find the time taken by B to finish the work alone. Ans: 12 days, 6 days

87. If two pipes function simultaneously, a reservoir will be filled in 12 hours. One pipe fills the
reservoir 10 hours faster than the other. How many hours will the second pipe take to fill the
reservoir? Ans: 30 hrs
1
88. Two pipes running together can fill up a cistern in 3 minutes. If one pipe takes 3 minutes more
13
than the other to fill the cistern, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.
Ans: 8 min, 5 min

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8. Arithmetic progressions
1. Which of the following list of numbers does form an AP? If they form an AP, find the common
difference d and write the next three terms:
(i) –1.2, –3.2, –5.2, –7.2, ……… Ans: Yes; –2; –9.2, –11.2, –13.2
1 5 9 13 4 17 21 25
(ii) 3 , 3 , 3 , 3 , … …. Ans: Yes; 3
; , ,
3 3 3
3 1 −1 −3 −5 −7 −9
(iii) 2 , 2 , 2 , 2 , …………. Ans: Yes; –1; 2
, 2 , 2
(iv) 0.6, 1.7, 2.8, 3.9, . . . Ans: Yes; 1.1; 5.0, 6.1, 7.2
(v) – 2, 2, – 2, 2, – 2, . . . Ans: No
(vi) 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, . . . Ans: No
(vii) 2, 4, 8, 16, …….. Ans: No
5 7 1 9
(viii) 2, , 3, , … … …. Ans: Yes; ; 4, , 5
2 2 2 2
(ix) 3, 3 + √2, 3 + 2√2, 3 + 3√2, ……… Ans: Yes; √2 ; 3 + 4√2, 3 + 5√2, 3 + 6√2
(x) 0.2, 0.22, 0.222, 0.2222, ………….. Ans: No
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(xi) − , − , − , − , … … … … …. Ans: Yes; 0; − ,− ,−
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(xii) 1, 3, 9, 27, …………... Ans: No
(xiii) a, 2a, 3a, 4a, ………….. Ans: Yes; a; 5a, 6a, 7a
(xiv) a, a2, a3, a4, ………….. Ans: No
(xv) √2, √8, √18, √32, … … … … Ans: Yes; √2 ; √50, √72, √98
(xvi) √3, √6, √9, √12, … … … … Ans: No
(xvii) 12, 32, 52, 72, ……………. Ans: No
1 1 1 1
(xviii) , , , , ………… Ans: No
2 4 6 8
(xix) p, p+90, p+180, p+270, ………. Ans: Yes; 90; p+360, p+450, p+540
(xx) 10, 10+25, 10+26, 10+27, ……… Ans: No
(xxi) a+b, (a+1)+b, (a+1)+(b+1), (a+2)+(b+1), (a+2)+(b+2), ……… Ans: Yes; 1;

2. In which of the following situations, does the list of numbers involved make an AP and why?
(i) The taxi fare after each km when the fare is ` 15 for the first km and ` 8 for each additional km.
Ans: Yes. 15, 23, 31……… forms an AP with common difference 8.

(ii) The amount of air present in a cylinder when a vacuum pump removes 1/4 of the air remaining
3 3 2
in the cylinder at a time. Ans: No. Volumes are 𝑉, 4 𝑉, (4) 𝑉, ………

(iii) The cost of digging a well after every metre of digging, when it costs ` 150 for the first metre
and rises by ` 50 for each subsequent metre.
Ans: Yes. 150, 200, 250, ……… forms an AP with common difference 50.

(iv) The amount of money in the account every year, when ` 10000 is deposited at compound
interest at 8 % per annum.
8 8 2 8 3
Ans: No. Amounts are 10000 (1 + 100) , 10000 (1 + 100) , 10000 (1 + 100) , ………

3. Derive the formula for nth term of an AP.

4. Show that the progression 12, 5, -2, -9, ……… is an AP. Find its nth term. Ans:

5. Show that a–b, a and a+b form consecutive terms of an AP.

6. Prove that no matter what the real numbers a and b are, the sequence with n th term a + nb is
always an AP.

7. Find a30 – a20 for the AP: – 9, – 14, – 19, – 24, ……… Ans: – 50

8. Find a30 – a20 for the AP: a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d, ……… Ans: 10d

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9. Write the expression an – ak for the AP: a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d, ………

Hence find the common difference of the AP for which
(i) a10 – a5 = 200 Ans: 40
(ii) 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term. Ans: 5
(iii) 17th term exceeds its 10th term by 7 Ans: 1

10. Find the 10th term of – 40, – 15, 10, 35, ……… Ans: 185

11. Find the 8th term of 117, 104, 91, 78, ……… Ans: 26
3 5 7 9 19
12. Find the 9th term of 4 , 4 , 4 , 4 , ……… Ans: 4

13. Determine the AP whose 3rd term is 5 and the 7th term is 9. Ans: 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, ………

14. Find the 50th term of an AP whose 1st term is 5 and the 100th term is – 292. Ans: - 142

15. Find the 31st term of an AP whose 11th term is 38 and the 16th term is 73. Ans: 178

16. Determine the AP whose 3rd term is 16 and the 7th term exceeds the 5th term by 12.
Ans: 4, 10, 16, 22, ………

17. Determine the AP with nth term as 9 – 5n. Ans: 4, –1, – 6, – 11, ………

18. Determine the AP if the sum of its 4th & 8th terms is 24 and the sum of its 6th & 10th terms is 44.
Ans: – 13, – 8, – 3, ………

19. Find the 29th term of an AP of 50 terms of which 3rd term is 12 and the last term is 106.
Ans: 64

20. In the following APs, find the missing terms in the boxes:
(i) 2,  , 26
(ii)  , 13,  , 3
1
(iii) 5,  ,  , 9
2
(iv) – 4,  ,  ,  ,  , 6
1
(v)  , 38,  ,  ,  , – 22 Ans: (i)14 (ii) 18, 8 (iii) 6 2 , 8 (iv) –2, 0, 2, 4 (v) 53, 23, 8, – 7

21. Which term of the AP: 7, 13, 19, ……… is 205? Ans: a34
1
22. Which term of the AP: 18, 15 2, 13, ……… is – 47? Ans: a27

23. Which term of the AP: 25, 50, 75, 100, ……… is 1000? Ans: a40
21 31 41 171
24. Which term of the AP: 1, 11 , 11 , 11, ……… is 11
? Ans: a17

25. Which term of the AP: 121, 117, 113, ……… is its first negative term? Ans: a32 = – 3
1 2 3 −3
26. Which term of the AP: 17, 15 5 , 12 5 , 14 5, ……… is its first negative term? Ans: a23 = 5

27. Check whether –150 is a term of the AP: 11, 8, 5, 2, ……… Ans: No

28. Check whether 301 is a term of the AP: 5, 11, 17, 23, ……… Ans: No

29. Check whether 0 is a term of the AP: 21, 18, 15, ……… Ans: a8 = 0

30. If the 3rd and the 9th terms of an AP are 4 and – 8 respectively,
which term of this AP is zero? Ans: a5

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31. Which term of the AP: 3, 15, 27, 39, ……… will be 132 more than its 54th term? Ans: a65

32. For what value of n, the nth terms of two APs:

63, 65, 67, ……… and 3, 10, 17, ……… are equal? Ans: 13

33. Find the value of x, if 3x + 7, 2x + 5, 2x + 7 are in AP. Ans: – 4

34. Find the value of x, if a, b, c, d, e, f are in AP and if e – c = x(f – b) Ans:

35. Find the value of x, if a, b, c, d, e are in AP and if x = a – 4b + 6c – 4d + e Ans:

36. Find the 20th term from the last term of the AP: 3, 8, 13, ………, 253. Ans: 158

37. Find the 11th term from the last term of the AP: 10, 7, 4, ………, – 62. Ans: – 32

38. Find the middle term(s) in the A.P. 20, 16, 12, ………, –176 Ans: – 76, –80

39. How many two-digit numbers are divisible by 3? Ans: 30

40. How many three-digit numbers are divisible by 7? Ans: 128

41. How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250? Ans: 60

42. Two APs have the same common difference. The difference between their
100th terms is 100. What is the difference between their 1000th terms? Ans: 100

43. Two APs have the same common difference. The difference between their
100th terms is 111222333. What is the difference between their millionth terms? Ans: 111222333

44. Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is 3,
and that of the other is 8. What is the difference between their 210th terms? Ans: 5

45. Two APs have the same common difference. The 7th term of one of these is 77,
and that of the other is 70. What is the difference between their 77th terms? Ans: 7

46. If the 9th term of an A.P. is zero, prove that its 29th term is twice its 19th term.

47. If the 8th term of an A.P. is zero, prove that its 38th term is thrice its 18th term.

48. If the pth term of an AP is q and the qth term is p. Find the rth term. Ans: p + q – r

49. If m times the mth term of an AP is equal to n times its nth term, find its (m + n)th term. Ans: 0

50. Prove that sum of (m + n)th term and (m – n)th term of an AP is twice its mth term.

51. If the pth term, qth term & rth term of an AP are a, b & c respectively, then prove:
a(q – r) + b(r – p) + c(p – q) = 0

52. If the pth term, qth term & rth term of an AP are a, b & c respectively, then prove:
p(b – c) + q(c – a) + r(a – b) = 0
1 1 1
53. If the pth term of an A.P.is 𝑞 & the qth term is 𝑝, show that the sum of pq terms is 2 (𝑝𝑞 + 1)

54. In an A.P., if (sm) : (sn) = m2 : n2, then show that (am) : (an) = 2m – 1 : 2n – 1

55. The ratio of the sum of n terms of two A. P’s is (12n+5) : (3n+11). Find the ratio of their 18th terms.

56. The ratio of the sum of n terms of two A. P’s is (7n+2) : (4n+9). Find the ratio of their 23rd terms.

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57. The ratio of the sum of n terms of two A. P’s is (7n+1) : (4n+27). Show that the ratio of their
mth terms is [14m – 6] : [8m + 23].

58. A sum of ` 1000 is invested at 8% simple interest per year. Calculate the interest at the end of
each year. Do these interests form an AP? If so, find the interest at the end of 30 years making
use of this fact.
Ans: The interest at the end of the 1st year = ` 80, 2nd year = ` 160, 3rd year = ` 240
It is an AP with d = ` 80. The interest at the end of 30 years will be ` 2400.

59. In a flower bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 in the third, and so
on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. How many rows are there in the flower bed?
Ans: 10 rows

60. Subba Rao started work in 1995 at an annual salary of ` 5000 and received an increment of ` 200
each year. In which year did his income reach ` 7000? Ans: 11th year

61. Ramkali saved ` 5 in the first week of a year and then increased her weekly savings by ` 1.75. If
in the nth week, her weekly savings become ` 20.75, find n. Ans: 10

62. A manufacturer of TV sets produced 600 sets in the third year and 700 sets in the seventh year.
Assuming that the production increases uniformly by a fixed number every year, find the
production in:
(i) the 1st year (ii) the 10th year (iii) first 7 years Ans: (i) 550, (ii) 775, (iii) 4375

63. Derive the formula for the sum of first n terms of an AP.

64. Fill in the blanks (for an A.P.) in the following table:

first term Common difference no. of terms nth term sum of first n terms
(a) (d) (n) (an) (sn)
i 7 3 8
ii – 18 10 0
iii -3 18 –5
iv – 18.9 2.5 3.6
v 3.5 0 105
vi – 20 4 12
1 1
vii 12
2 12
viii 5 3 50
ix 7 13 35
x 3 12 37
xi 5 9 75
xii 2 8 90
xiii 8 62 210
xiv 2 4 -14
xv 3 8 192
Ans: (i) 28 (ii) 2 (iii) 46 (iv) 10 (v) 3.5
17 7
(vi) 24 (vii) 12 (viii) 16, 440 (ix) 3, 273 (x) 4, 246
35 85
(xi) − ,
3 3
(xii) 5, 34 (xiii) 6, 54 5 (xiv) 7, – 8 (xv) 6

65. Find the sum of the AP: –37, –33, –29, ……… to 12 terms. Ans: –180

66. Find the sum of the AP: 0.6, 1.7, 2.8, ……… to 100 terms. Ans: 5505

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1 1 1 33
67. Find the sum of the AP: 15 , ,
12 10
, ……… to 11 terms. Ans: 20

1 1
68. Find: 7 + 10 2 + 14 + ……… + 84 Ans: 1046 2

69. Find: –5 – 8 – 11 ……… – 230 Ans: – 8930

70. Find: 3 + 11 + 19 + ……… + 803 Ans:

71. (i) Find the sum of first 100 positive integers. Ans: 500500
n(n+1)
(ii) Find the sum of first n positive integers. Ans: 2
(iii) Find the sum of first n odd natural numbers. Ans:
(iv) Find the sum of first 51 terms of an AP whose a2 is 14 & a3 is 18 Ans: 5610
(v) Find the sum of first 15 terms of an AP whose an is 9 – 5n Ans: 525
2
(vi) Find the sum of first 21 terms of an AP whose nth term is 3+ n Ans: – 465
3

72. If the sum of the first 14 terms of an AP is 1050 and its first term is 10, find the 20th term. Ans: 200

73. If the sum of the first 10 terms of an AP is -150 and the sum of its next 10 terms is -550, find A.P.

74. In an AP: given a3 = 15, S10 = 125, find d and a10. Ans: –1, 8

75. If the sum of first 7 terms of an AP is 49 and that of 17 terms is 289, find the sum of first n terms.

76. How many terms of 9, 17, 25, ……….. must be taken to give a sum of 636? Ans: 12

77. How many terms of 24, 21, 18, …… must be taken to give a sum of 78? Explain double answer.
11
78. How many terms of – 6, – 2
, – 5, …. must be taken to give a sum of -25? Explain double answer.

79. If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 4n – n2, find its nth term. Ans: 5 – 2n

80. If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 4n2 + 5n, find the AP. Ans:

81. Find the sum of the first 40 positive integers divisible by 6. Ans: 4920

82. Find the sum of the first 100 even natural numbers divisible by 5. Ans:

83. Find the sum of the first 15 multiples of 8. Ans: 960

84. Find the sum of all the numbers between 100 and 200 divisible by 7. Ans:

85. Find the sum of the odd numbers between 0 and 50. Ans: 625

86. The 3rd term of an AP is 7 and the 7th term exceeds thrice the 3rd term by 2.
Find the sum of first 20 terms. Ans:

87. An A.P. consists of 21 terms. The sum of the three terms in the middle is 129 and of the last three
terms is 237. Find the AP. Ans:

88. Find sum of an A.P. of 50 terms, the sum of whose first 10 terms is 210 and that of its last 15
terms is 2565. Ans:

89. Aman is employed to count ` 10710. He counts @ ` 180/minute for half an hour. After that he
counts @ ` 3 less than the preceding minute. What time he had taken to count the entire money?

90. Salim saves ` 160 during 1st month, ` 180 in the 2nd month, ` 200 in 3rd month. If he continues his
savings in this sequence, in how many months, he will save a total of ` 10000? Ans:

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91. A sum of ` 1000 is invested at 8% simple interest per annum. Calculate the interest at the end of
1, 2, 3, …… years. Is the sequence of interest an AP? Find the interest at the end of 30 years.

92. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay of completion beyond a certain date as
follows: ` 200 for the first day, ` 250 for the second day, ` 300 for the third day, etc., the penalty
for each succeeding day being ` 50 more than for the preceding day. How much money the
contractor has to pay as penalty, if he has delayed the work by 30 days? Ans: ` 27750

93. A sum of ` 700 is to be used to give seven cash prizes to students of a school for their overall
academic performance. If each prize is ` 20 less than its preceding prize, find the value of each of
the prizes. Ans:

94. In a school, students thought of planting trees in and around the school. It was decided that the
number of trees, that each section of each class will plant, will be the same as the class, in which
they are studying, e.g., a section of Class I will plant 1 tree, a section of Class II will plant 2 trees
and so on till Class XII. There are three sections of each class. How many trees will be planted by
the students? Ans: 234

95. A spiral is made up of successive semicircles, with centers alternately at A and B, starting with
center at A, of radii 0.5 cm, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm, 2.0 cm,…… 4 cm. What is the total length of such a
spiral made up of thirteen consecutive semicircles? Ans: 143 cm

96. 500 logs are stacked in a way such that 32 logs in the bottom row, 31 in the next row, 30 in the
row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 500 logs placed and how many logs are in the
top row? Ans:

97. 200 logs are stacked in a way such that 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18 in the
row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs are in the
top row? Ans: 16, 5

98. In a potato race, a bucket is placed at the starting point, which is 5 m from the first potato, and the
other potatoes are placed 3 m apart in a straight line. There are ten potatoes in the line. Hina
starts from the bucket, picks up the nearest potato, runs back with it, drops it in the bucket, runs
back to pick up the next potato, runs to the bucket to drop it in, and she continues in the same
way until all the potatoes are in the bucket. Find the total distance she has to run. Ans: 370 m

99. The sum of the third and the seventh terms of an AP is 6 and their product is 8. Find the sum of
first sixteen terms of the AP. Ans: 20, 76

100. A ladder has rungs 25 cm apart. The rungs decrease uniformly in length from 45 cm at the bottom
1
to 25 cm at the top. If the top and the bottom rungs are 2 2 m apart, what is the length of the wood
required for the rungs? Ans: 350 cm

101. The houses of a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Show that there is a value of x
such that the sum of the numbers of the houses preceding the house numbered x is equal to the
sum of the numbers of the houses following it. Find this value of x. Ans: 35

102. A small terrace at a football ground comprises of 15 steps each of which is 50 m long and built of
1 1
solid concrete. Each step has a rise of m and a tread of m. Calculate the total volume of
4 2
concrete required to build the terrace. Ans: 750 m3

103. A thief runs with the uniform speed of 100m/minute. After 1 minute, a policeman runs after the
thief to catch him. He goes with a speed of 100 m/minute in the first minute and increases his
speed by 10 m/minute. After how many minutes the policeman will catch the thief? Ans: 5 minutes

104. A thief runs with the uniform speed of 50m/minute. After 2 minutes, a policeman runs after the
thief to catch him. He goes with a speed of 60 m/minute in the first minute and increases his
speed by 5 m/minute. After how many minutes the policeman will catch the thief? Ans: minutes

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9. Coordinate Geometry
1. PQRS is a square of side ‘b’ units. If P lies at the origin, sides PQ and PS lie along x – axis and y
– axis respectively, find the coordinates of the vertices of the square PQRS.
Ans: (0, 0), (b, 0), (b, b), (0, b)
Area of a Δ

2. Find the area of a Δ whose vertices are (2, 3), (–1, 0), (2, – 4) Ans:10.5 sq units

3. Find the area of a Δ whose vertices are (–5, –1), (3, –5), (5, 2) Ans: 32 sq. units

4. Find the area of a Δ whose vertices are (1, –1), (– 4, 6), (–3, –5) Ans:24 sq. units

5. Find the area of a Δ whose vertices are (5, 2), (4, 7), (7, – 4) Ans: 2 sq. units

6. Find the area of a Δ whose vertices are (–1.5, 3), (6, –2), (–3, 4) Ans: 0 sq. units

7. Find the area of a quadrilateral if its vertices are (–5, 7), (– 4, –5), (–1, –6) and (4, 5) taken in
order. Ans: 72 sq. units.

8. Find the area of a quadrilateral if its vertices are (– 4, – 2), (– 3, – 5), (3, – 2) and (2, 3) taken in
order. Ans: 28 sq. units

9. Find the area of a rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0), (4, 5), (– 1, 4) and (– 2, – 1) taken in order.
Ans: 24 sq. units

10. Find the value of k if points (2, 3), (4, k) and (6, –3) are collinear. Ans: 0

11. Find the value of k if points (7, –2), (5, 1) and (3, k) are collinear. Ans: 4

12. Find the value of k if points (8, 1), (k, – 4) and (2, –5) are collinear. Ans: 3

13. Check whether points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (– 2, – 11) are collinear. Ans: No

14. Arwa, Binu and Celina are seated at (3, 1), (6, 4) and (8, 6) respectively.
Are they seated in a line? Ans: yes

15. The vertices of a Δ ABC are A(4, 6), B(1, 5) and C(7, 2). A line is drawn to intersect sides AB and
𝐴𝐷 𝐴𝐸 1
AC at D and E respectively, such that 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐴𝐶 = 4. Calculate the area of the Δ ADE and compare
15
it with the area of Δ ABC. Ans: 32 sq. units; 1:16
B C
16. The Class X students have been allotted a
rectangular plot of land for their gardening activity. P
Saplings of Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at
R
a distance of 1m from each other. There is a
triangular grassy lawn in the plot as shown in the
figure. The students are to sow seeds of flowering
plants on the remaining area of the plot. Find the Q
coordinates of the vertices and the area of Δ PQR
A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D
(i) Taking A as origin and AD and AB as coordinate axes. Ans: (4, 6), (3, 2), (6, 5); 4.5 unit2
(ii) Taking C as origin and CB and CD as coordinate axes. Ans: (12, 2), (13, 6), (10, 3); 4.5 unit2

17. If (1, 2) is a point on line joining (x, y) and (7, 0), then show that x + 3y – 7 = 0 Ans:
x y
18. If (x, y) is a point on line joining (a, 0) and (0, b), then show that a + b = 1 Ans:

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Distance formula

19. Find the distance between points (2, 3) and (4, 1) Ans: 2√2

20. Find the distance between points (– 5, 7) and (– 1, 3) Ans: 4√2

21. Find the distance between points (0, 0) and (36, 15) Ans: 39

22. Find the distance between points (a, b) and (– a, – b) Ans: 2√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2

23. Find the value(s) of k, if the distance between points (2, – 3) and (10, k) is 10 units. Ans: – 9, 3

24. If Q (0, 1) is equidistant from P (5, –3) and R (h, 6), find the distances QR and PR.
Ans: √41, √82 or 9√2

25. Find a relation between x and y such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (7, 1) and
(3, 5). Ans: x – y = 2 (the graph of x – y = 2 is the perpendicular bisector of AB)

26. If the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (3, 6) and (– 3, 4), then show that 3x + y – 5 = 0.

27. If the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (5, 1) and (– 1, 5), then show that 3x = 2y.

28. If the point (4, 5) is equidistant from the points (5, 4) and (x, y),
then show that x2 + y2 – 8x – 10y + 39 = 0.

29. Find a point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9). Ans: (– 7, 0)

30. Find a point on the y-axis which is equidistant from (6, 5) and (– 4, 3). Ans: (0, 9)

31. Name the type of figure formed by (1, 5), (–2, –11), (2, 3) Ans: Scalene triangle

32. Name the type of figure formed by (3, 2), (–2, –3), (2, 3) Ans: Right triangle

33. Name the type of figure formed by (1, 1), (3, – 2), (– 1, 4) Ans: Collinear points

34. Name the type of figure formed by (7, 7), (1, – 2), (11, 13) Ans: Collinear points

35. Name the type of figure formed by (5, – 2), (6, 4), (7, – 2) Ans: Isosceles triangle

36. Find the center of a circle passing through the points (6, – 6), (3, – 7) and (3, 3). Ans: (3, – 2)

𝑎 −2𝑎
37. (𝑎, 0), (𝑎𝑚2 , 2𝑎𝑚) and (𝑚2 , 𝑚
) are coordinates of points P, Q and R respectively.
1 1
Prove that: 𝑃𝑄
+ 𝑃𝑅 is independent of m.

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Section formula

38. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the join of (–1, 7) and (4, –3) in the ratio 2:3.
Ans:(1, 3)

39. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the join of (4, – 3) and (8, 5) in the ratio 3:1.
Ans:(7, 3)

40. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the join of (1, 3) and (2, 7) in the ratio 3:4.
Ans:

41. Find the mid – point of the line segment joining the points (4, 3) and (2, 1).

42. Find the coordinates of points of trisection of line segment joining (2, – 2) and (– 7, 4)
Ans: (–1, 0), (– 4, 2)

43. Find the coordinates of points of trisection of line segment joining (4, –1) and (–2, –3) Ans:

44. Find the coordinates of points which divide line segment joining (– 2, 3) and (2, -5) into four equal
parts. Ans: (-1, 1), (0, -1), (1, -3)
3
45. If A and B are (2, 10) and (2, – 4), respectively, find the coordinates of P such that AP = AB and
7
P lies on the line segment AB. Ans:(2, 4)

46. Find the value of p and q, if the line segment joining the points (3, – 4) and (1, 2) is trisected at the
points (p, – 2) and (5/3, q).

47. Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is diameter of a circle whose center is (2, – 3) and B
is (1, 4). Ans: (3, – 10)

48. Let A (4, 2), B (6, 5) and C (1, 4) be the vertices of Δ ABC Find the coordinates of the points P, Q
𝐴𝑃 𝐵𝑄 𝐶𝑅 2
and R on medians AD, BE and CF respectively such that = = = . What do you observe?
𝑃𝐷 𝑄𝐸 𝑅𝐹 1

49. Prove that the coordinates of the centroid of a triangle with vertices (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3) are
𝑥 +𝑥 +𝑥 𝑦 +𝑦 +𝑦
( 1 32 3 , 1 32 3 ).

50. If the centroid of a Δ whose vertices are (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is at origin, then find: 𝑎3 + 𝑏 3 + 𝑐 3
Ans: 3abc

51. Find the centroid of the Δ whose vertices are (3, – 5), (– 7, 4) and (10, – 2). Ans:

52. Find the distance between circumcenter and centroid of a Δ whose vertices are (3, – 5), (– 7, 4)
and (10, – 2). Ans:

53. Find the ratio in which line segment joining (– 3, 10) and (6, –8) is divided by (– 1, 6). Ans: 2:7

54. Find the ratio in which line segment joining (– 6, 10) and (3, –8) is divided by (– 4, 6). Ans: 2:7

55. Find coordinates of the point at which line segment joining (1, –5) & (–4, 5) intersects x-axis.
Ans:

56. Find coordinates of the point at which line segment joining (5, –6) & (–1, –4) intersects y-axis.
Ans:

57. Find the ratio in which the line 2x + y – 4 = 0 divides line segment joining (2, – 2) and (3, 7).
Ans: 2:9

58. Find the ratio in which the line 4x + y = 11 divides line segment joining (1, 3) and (2, 7). Ans:

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59. If (6, 1), (8, 2), (9, 4) and (h, 3) are the vertices of a parallelogram, taken in order, find h Ans: 7

60. If (1, 2), (4, k), (h, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram, taken in order, find h and k
Ans: 6, 3

61. To conduct Sports Day activities, in a rectangular shaped school ground ABCD, lines parallel to
AD have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance of 1m each. 100 flower pots have been
1
placed at a distance of 1m from each other along AD. Neha runs th the distance on the 2nd line
4
1
and posts a green flag. Priya runs th the distance on the eighth line and posts a red flag. What is
5
the distance between both the flags? If Rekha has to post a blue flag exactly halfway between the
line segment joining the two flags, where should she post her flag?
Ans: 61m; 5th line at a distance of 22.5 m

62. Find coordinates of vertices of a Δ, coordinates of mid points of whose sides are (1, –3),
(–4, 12) and (7, –11). Ans: (12, –26), (–10, 20), (2, 4)

63. The area of a Δ formed by joining mid-points of sides of another Δ is = to one fourth of the area of
the outer Δ. Verify the statement.

64. A median of a Δ divides it into two Δs of = areas. Verify the statement.

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65. When co-ordinates of four vertices of a quadrilateral are given then how will you proceed to
investigate type of quadrilateral?
Ans:
Further
Step Objective Action Possible outcome inference
action
Find Go to step
mid-points are = ||gm
To check mid-points (iii)
(i)
for ||gm of AC & Go to step
mid-points are ≠ ≠ ||gm
BD (ii)
2 pairs of adjacent sides
Find Kite
To check are =
(ii) 3 or 4 Stop
for Kite 2 pairs of adjacent sides Simple
sides
are ≠ Quadrilateral
To check AB2 = BC2 Rhombus
Find Go to step
(iii) for
AB2 & BC2 AB2 ≠ BC2 Not a Rhombus (iv)
Rhombus
To check AB2 + BC2 = AC2 Rectangle
Go to step
(iv) for Find AC2 Not a
AB2 + BC2 ≠ AC2 (v)
Rectangle Rectangle
Not a Rhombus &
Simple ||gm
not a Rectangle
To decide Observe Rhombus but
Rhombus
about inference not a Rectangle
(v) Stop
type of of steps Not a Rhombus but
Rectangle
||gm (iii) & (iv) Rectangle
Rhombus &
Square
Rectangle
66. Name the type of figure formed by (– 1, – 2), (1, 0), (– 1, 2), (– 3, 0) Ans: Square

67. Name the type of figure formed by (–3, 5), (3, 1), (0, 3), (–1, – 4) Ans: Quadrilateral

68. Name the type of figure formed by (4, 5), (7, 6), (4, 3), (1, 2) Ans: Parallelogram

69. Name the type of figure formed by (1, 7), (4, 2), (–1, –1), (– 4, 4) Ans: Square

70. Name the type of figure formed by (1, 0), (5, 3), (2, 7), (-2, 4) Ans: Rectangle
10
71. In a classroom, 4 friends are seated at the points A, B, C and D as 9
shown in the fig. Champa and Chameli walk into the class and after 8
observing for a few minutes Champa asks Chameli, “Don’t you think 7
B
ABCD is a square?” Chameli disagrees. Using distance formula, 6
find which of them is correct. 5
C
Ans: Champa. 4 A
3
2
1
D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

72. The two opposite vertices of a square are (–1, 2) and (3, 2). Find the coordinates of the other two
vertices. Ans: (1, 0), (1, 4)

73. (i) Show that (–1, –1), (– 1, 4), (5, 4) and (5, – 1), taken in order, are coordinates of vertices of a
rectangle.
(ii) The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a rectangle, in order, is a
rhombus. Verify this using result of step (i).

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10. Basic Proportionality Theorem

1. State and prove Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thale’s Theorem).
Ans: If a line is || to one side of a Δ and if it intersects the other two sides at distinct points,
then it divides those two sides proportionally.

2. State Converse of Basic Proportionality Theorem.

Ans: If a line divides any two sides of a Δ proportionally, then it is || to the third side.

3. If a line intersects sides AB and AC of a Δ ABC at D and E respectively and is parallel to BC, then
AD AE
prove that AB = AC

4. If D and E are points on the sides AB and AC of Δ ABC respectively such that DE || BC.
If BD = 7.2 cm, AE = 1.8 cm and AC = 7.2 cm then find AD. Ans: 2.4 cm

5. If E and F are points on the sides PQ and PR of Δ PQR respectively such that PE = 3.9 cm,
EQ = 3 cm, PF = 3.6 cm and FR = 2.4 cm, then state whether EF || QR? Ans: No

6. If E and F are points on the sides PQ and PR of Δ PQR respectively such that PQ = 1.28 cm,
PR = 2.56 cm, PE = 0.18 cm and PF = 0.36 cm, then state whether EF || QR? Ans: Yes

7. If L, M and N are points on diagonal AC and sides AB and AD of a quadrilateral ABCD

AM AN
respectively such that LM || CB and LN || CD, then prove that =
AB AD

8. Point O lie in the interior of Δ PQR. Points E, D and F are on PQ, PO and PR respectively such
that DE || OQ and DF || OR. Show that EF || QR.

9. Point O lie in the interior of Δ PQR. A, B and C are points on OP, OQ and OR respectively such
that AB || PQ and AC || PR. Show that BC || QR.

10. ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC. E and F are points on sides AD and BC respectively such
AE BF
that EF is parallel to AB. Show that ED = FC

PS PT
11. If S and T are points on sides PQ and PR of Δ PQR respectively such that SQ
= TR and
PST =PRQ, then prove that Δ PQR is an isosceles triangle.

12. In Δ ABC, point D lies on side AB and points E & F lie on side BC, such that DF || AC & DE || AF.
BE BF
Prove that: (i) EF
= FC, (ii) BF2 = BC.BE

13. Prove that a line joining mid-points of any two sides of a Δ is || to the third side.

14. Prove that a line through mid-point of one side of a Δ & || to another side bisects the third side.

15. Prove that diagonals of a trapezium divide each other proportionally.

16. Prove that a quadrilateral is trapezium if its diagonals divide each other proportionally.

17. Prove that the internal bisector of an  of a Δ divides the opposite side internally in the ratio of the
sides containing the .

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BD AB
18. D is a point on side BC of ΔABC such that CD = AC. Prove that AD is the bisector of BAC.

19. In ΔABC, a line || to side AB intersects sides CB and CA at P and Q A

respectively and a line || side AC intersects sides BC and BA at P and Q
R respectively. CB and QR, when produced intersect at point E. R
Prove: EP2 = EB.EC E C
B P
20. In ΔABC, bisector of side BC intersects side AB, side BC and side AC B
produced at points D, E and F respectively such that BDE = BED. D
AF AD E
Prove: CF = CE
A C F
Hint: Construct a line CG || FD such that point G lies on AB.

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11. Similarity of Triangles

Facts about similarity:
Two figures having the same shape but not necessarily the same size are called ~ figures.

All the ≅ figures are ~ but all the ~ figures are not ≅.

Two polygons of the same number of sides are ~, if

(i) their corresponding s are = and
(ii) their corresponding sides are proportional (i.e., in the same ratio).

Similarity criterion for Δs:

AAA similarity criterion: If corresponding s of two Δs are =, then the two Δs are ~.

AA similarity criterion: If two s of a Δ are respectively = to two s of another Δ,

then the two Δs are ~.

SSS similarity criterion: If corresponding sides of two Δs are proportional, then the two Δs are ~.

SAS similarity criterion: If one  of a Δ is = to one  of another Δ and the sides containing these
s are proportional, then the two Δs are ~.

RHS Similarity Criterion: If hypotenuse and one side of one right Δ are proportional to the
hypotenuse and one side of the other right Δ, then the two Δs are ~.

Properties of similar Δs:

i) Corresponding s of ~ Δs are =.

ii) Corresponding sides of ~ Δs are proportional.

iii) The ratio of corresponding medians of ~ Δs = ratio of their corresponding sides.

iv) The ratio of bisectors of corresponding s of ~ Δs = ratio of their corresponding sides.

v) The ratio of corresponding altitudes of ~ Δs = ratio of their corresponding sides.

vi) The ratio of areas of ~ Δs = ratio of squares of their corresponding sides.

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1. Fill in the blanks using the correct word given in brackets:

(i) All circles are ____________. (congruent, similar) Ans: Similar
(ii) All squares are ____________. (similar, congruent) Ans: Similar
(iii) All ____________ triangles are similar. (isosceles, equilateral) Ans: Equilateral
(iv) Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar, if their corresponding angles are
____________ and their corresponding sides are ____________. (equal, proportional)
Ans: Equal, Proportional

2. Give two different examples of pair of (i) similar figures. (ii) non-similar figures.

3. State whether the following quadrilaterals D 3cm C

are ~ or not:

S 1.5cm R 3cm 3cm

1.5cm
1.5cm
P Q
1.5cm A 3cm B
Ans: No

4. Determine whether or not given pair of Δs, are ~. P

If yes, write the similarity criterion used and A 60
write the pairs of ~ Δs in the symbolic form. 60

Ans: Yes. AAA, ΔABC ~ ΔPQR B

80 40
C Q
80 40
R

5. Determine whether or not given pair of Δs, are ~. P

If yes, write the similarity criterion used and A
write the pairs of ~ Δs in the symbolic form. 2 3 6 5

Ans: Yes. SSS, ΔABC ~ ΔQRP B 2.5 C Q

4
R

6. Determine whether or not given pair of Δs, are ~. D

L
If yes, write the similarity criterion used and 6
3 4
write the pairs of ~ Δs in the symbolic form. 2.7
Ans: No M P E F
2 5

7. Determine whether or not given pair of Δs, are ~.

P
If yes, write the similarity criterion used and M
write the pairs of ~ Δs in the symbolic form. 70 6
2.5 5
Ans: Yes. SAS, ΔMNL ~ ΔQPR N L Q
70
R
10
8. Determine whether or not given pair of Δs, are ~. D
If yes, write the similarity criterion used and
write the pairs of ~ Δs in the symbolic form. A
5
80
2.5
Ans: No
80
B 3 C E F
6
9. Determine whether or not given pair of Δs, are ~. P
If yes, write the similarity criterion used and D
70
write the pairs of ~ Δs in the symbolic form.
80 80 30
Ans: Yes. AA, ΔDEF ~ ΔPQR E F Q R
R
10. In adjoining fig., find P. A
80 7.6
3√3 6√3
3.8

Ans: 40° 60
B 6 C P Q
12
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11. In adjoining fig., ΔODC ~ ΔOBA, BOC = 125°and CDO = 70°. D C

70
Find DOC, DCO and OAB.
O 125

Ans: 55°, 55°, 55° A B

12. PS and QR intersect each other at O and if PQ || RS, prove that ΔPOQ ~ ΔSOR.

13. The perimeter of two ~ Δs ABC and LMN are 60 cm and 48 cm respectively. If LM = 8 cm, find
the length of AB.

14. If AB and CD intersect each other at O such that OA.OB = OC.OD,

then show that OAD = OCB and OBC = ODA.

15. P and Q are the points on the sides AB and AC respectively of ΔABC.
If AP = 3 cm, PB = 6 cm, AQ = 5 cm and QC = 10 cm, show that BC = 3 PQ.

16. Without using BPT or its converse, prove that diagonals of a trapezium divide each other
proportionally.

17. Without using BPT or its converse, prove that a quadrilateral is trapezium if its diagonals divide
each other proportionally.

QR QT
18. If T and S are points on QP produced and side QR of ΔPQR respectively such that QS
= PR and
PQR = PRQ, then prove that ΔPQS ~ ΔTQR.

19. If T and S are points on sides QR and PR of ΔPQR respectively such that QPR = RTS,
then prove that ΔRPQ ~Δ RTS.

20. If D and E are points on sides AB and AC of ΔABC respectively such that ΔABE ≅ ΔACD,
then prove that ΔADE ~ ΔABC.

21. Base FG of ΔEFG lies on line segment AB. Points C and D lie on sides EF and EG respectively,
such that ΔCFB ≅ ΔDGA and ECD = EDC. Prove: ΔECD ~ ΔEFG

22. If altitudes AD and CE of ΔABC intersect each other at the point P, then show that:
(i) ΔAEP ~ ΔCDP (ii) ΔABD ~ ΔCBE (iii) ΔAEP ~ ΔADB (iv) ΔPDC ~ ΔBEC

23. A line through B intersects side CD and side AD produced of a ||gm ABCD at M and E
respectively. Prove: ΔABE ~ ΔCMB

24. Through the midpoint M of the side CD of a ||gm ABCD the line BM is produced intersecting AC at
L and AD produced at E. Prove: EL = 2BL

25. If P and M are points on AB produced and on side AC of ΔABC respectively such that CB ⊥ AP
CA BC
and PM ⊥ AC, then prove that PA = MP

26. D, E and F are points on side BC, side CB produced and side AC respectively of an isosceles
triangle ABC with AB = AC and if AD ⊥ BC and EF ⊥ AC, then prove that ΔABD ~ ΔECF.

27. D is a point on the side BC of ΔABC such that ADC = BAC. Show that CA2 = CB.CD.

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28. D is a point on the side AC of ΔABC such that AB = AC and BC2 = AC.CD. Prove that BD = BC.

29. If two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect each other internally or externally at the point R, then
prove that AR.BR = CR.DR

ar(ABC) AO
30. ΔABC and ΔDBC are 2Δs on the same base BC. If AD intersects BC at O, show that =
ar(DBC) DO

31. A vertical pole of length 6 m casts a shadow 4 m long on the ground and at the same time a tower
casts a shadow 28 m long. Find the height of the tower. Ans: 42 m

𝑚
32. A girl of height 90 cm is walking away from the base of a lamp-post at a speed of 1.2 𝑠𝑒𝑐
. If the
lamp is 3.6 m above the ground, find the length of her shadow after 4 seconds. Ans: 1.6 m

33. Three poles are standing vertical to ground in such a way that one line joining top of left pole to
foot of right pole and other line joining top of right pole to foot of left pole intersect at top of middle
pole. If x, y and z are heights of left pole, right pole and middle pole respectively,
1 1 1
then show that: 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑧
D
34. In the adjoining figure OB is perpendicular bisector of DE. Point F lies on OD. F
⊥ from F on OB intersects OB at A. FE and OB intersect at C.
O C
1 1
Prove that: 𝑂𝐴 + 𝑂𝐵 = 𝑂𝐶
2
A B

E
35. If sides AB and BC and median AD of ΔABC are respectively proportional to sides PQ and QR
and median PM of ΔPQR, then show that ΔABC ~ ΔPQR.

36. If sides AB and AC and median AD of ΔABC are respectively proportional to sides PQ and PR
and median PM of ΔPQR, then show that ΔABC ~ ΔPQR.

37. Prove the property: If two Δs are ~, then the ratio of their corresponding medians = ratio of their
corresponding sides.

38. Prove the property: If two Δs are ~, then the ratio of bisectors of their corresponding s = ratio of
their corresponding sides.

39. Prove the property: If two Δs are ~, then the ratio of their corresponding altitudes = ratio of their
corresponding sides.

40. Prove the property: If two Δs are ~, then their corresponding medians, altitudes and bisectors of
corresponding s are proportional.

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Area Theorem

41. State and prove area theorem.

Ans: If two Δs are ~, then the ratio of their areas is = to the ratio of squares of their corresponding
sides.

42. Find the ratio of areas of two similar Δs whose sides are in the ratio 4 : 9. Ans: 16 : 81

43. Let ΔABC ~ ΔDEF and their areas be, respectively, 64 cm2 and 121 cm2. If EF = 15.4 cm, find
BC. Ans: 11.2 cm

44. If the areas of two similar Δs are =, prove that they are ≅.

45. Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar Δs is = to the square of the ratio of their
corresponding medians.

46. Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar Δs is = to the square of the ratio of their
corresponding altitudes.

47. Line segment XY || to side AC of ΔABC divides the Δ into two parts of = areas.
Find the ratio AX : AB Ans: (2 – √2) : 2

48. Prove that the area of an equilateral Δ described on one side of a square is equal to half the area
of the equilateral Δ described on one of its diagonals.

49. ΔABC and ΔBDE are two equilateral Δs such that D is the mid-point of BC. Prove that the area of
ΔBDE is = to one fourth of the area of ΔABC.

50. Prove that the area of a Δ formed by joining mid-points of sides of another Δ is = to one fourth of
the area of the outer Δ.

51. Diagonals of a trapezium ABCD with AB || DC intersect each other at the point O and side AB is
twice side CD. Prove that the area of ΔCOD is = to one fourth of the area of ΔAOB.

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In all the constructions use only a ruler and a compass.

Division of a Line Segment in a given ratio:

52. Draw a line segment of length 7.6 cm and divide it in the ratio 5 : 8. Measure the two parts. Write
the steps of the construction and justify it.

Construction of a triangle similar to a given triangle as per given scale factor:

Scale factor means the ratio of the sides of the triangle to be constructed with the corresponding
sides of the given triangle.

2
53. Construct a Δ of sides 4 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm and then a Δ similar to it whose sides are 3
of the
corresponding sides of the first Δ. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

54. Construct a Δ with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm and then another Δ whose sides are 7 : 5 of the
corresponding sides of the first Δ. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

55. Construct an isosceles Δ whose base is 8 cm and altitude 4 cm and then another Δ whose sides
1
are 12 times the corresponding sides of the isosceles Δ. Write the steps of the construction and
justify it.

56. Draw a ΔABC with side BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and B = 60°. Then construct a Δ whose sides are
3
of the corresponding sides of the ΔABC. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.
4

4
57. Draw a Δ ABC with side BC = 7 cm, B = 45°, A = 105°. Then, construct a Δ whose sides are 3
times the corresponding sides of ΔABC. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

58. Draw a right Δ in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) are of lengths 4 cm and 3 cm. Then
5
construct another Δ whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the given Δ. Write the
3
steps of the construction and justify it.

59. Construct a ΔABC with BC = 4.2 cm, B = 45° and altitude through A is 2.5 cm. Draw another Δ
1
similar to this Δ with scale factor 2. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

60. Construct a ΔABC with AB = 4 cm, B = 60° and altitude through C is 3 cm. Draw another Δ,
3
who’s each side is 2 times that of corresponding side of ΔABC. Write the steps of the construction
and justify it.

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12. Pythagoras Theorem

1. ΔABD is right angled at A and C is a point on BD such that AC ⊥ BD. Show that
AB2 BC
(i) AB2 = BC.BD (ii) AC2 = BC.DC (iii) AD2 = BD.CD (iv) =
AD2 CD

2. Points D, M and N lie on hypotenuse AC and sides BC and BA of ΔABC respectively

such that BD ⊥ AC, DM ⊥ BC and DN ⊥ BA.
Prove that: (i) DM2 = DN.MC (ii) DN2 = DM.AN
Q
3. In the adjoining figure, Square ABCD is inscribed in ΔPQR,
D C
Prove that: AB2 = PA.BR

P R
A B

4. State and prove Pythagoras Theorem (modified Baudhayan Theorem).

Ans: If a Δ is a right Δ, then square of the hypotenuse is = to the sum of the squares of the other
two sides.

5. State and prove Converse of Pythagoras Theorem.

Ans: If square of one side of a Δ is = to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then the 
opposite to the first side is a right angle.

6. Sides of triangles are given below. Determine which of them are right triangles. In case of a right
triangle, write the length of its hypotenuse.
(i) 7 cm, 24 cm, 25 cm Ans: Yes, 25 cm
(ii) 3 cm, 8 cm, 6 cm Ans: No
(iii) 50 cm, 80 cm, 100 cm Ans: No
(iv) 13 cm, 12 cm, 5 cm Ans: Yes, 13 cm

7. A ladder is placed against a wall such that its foot is at a distance of 2.5 m from the wall and its
top reaches a window 6 m above the ground. Find the length of the ladder. Ans: 6.5 m.

8. A ladder 10 m long reaches a window 8 m above the ground. Find the distance of the foot of the
ladder from base of the wall. Ans: 6 m

9. A wire attached to a vertical pole of height 18 m is 24 m long and has a stake attached to the
other end. How far from the base of the pole should the stake be driven so that the wire will be
taut? Ans: 6√7 m

10. An aero plane leaves an airport and flies due north at a speed of 1000 km per hour. At the same
time, another aero plane leaves the same airport and flies due west at a speed of 1200 km per
1
hour. How far apart will be the two planes after 1 2 hours? Ans: 300√61 km

11. Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand on a plane ground. If the distance between the feet of
the poles is 12 m, find the distance between their tops. Ans: 13 m

12. O is a point in the interior of a ΔABC, OD ⊥ BC, OE ⊥ AC and OF ⊥ AB.

Show that OA2 + OB2 + OC2 – OD2 – OE2 – OF2 = AF2 + BD2 + CE2.

13. O is a point in the interior of a ΔABC, OD ⊥ BC, OE ⊥ AC and OF ⊥ AB.

Show that AF2 + BD2 + CE2 = AE2 + CD2 + BF2.

14. O is a point in the interior of a rectangle ABCD. Prove that OA2 + OC2 = OB2 + OD2.

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15. D and E are points on the sides CA and CB respectively of a ΔABC right angled at C.
Prove that AE2 + BD2 = AB2 + DE2.

16. BL and CM are medians of a ΔABC right angled at A. Prove that 4 (BL2 + CM2) = 5 BC2.

17. If AD is median of a ΔABC, then prove that AB2 + AC2 = 2 (AD2 + BD2)

18. If the perpendicular from A on side BC of a ΔABC intersects BC at D,

then prove that AB2 + CD2 = BD2 + AC2.

19. If the perpendicular from A on side BC of a ΔABC intersects BC at D such that DB = 3CD,
then prove that 2AB2 = 2AC2 + BC2.

20. ΔABC is an isosceles Δ right angled at C. Prove that AB2 = 2AC2.

21. ΔABC is an isosceles Δ with AC = BC. If AB2 = 2 AC2, prove that ABC is a right Δ.

22. ΔABC is an isosceles Δ with AB = AC. D is any point on side BC. Prove AB2 – AD2 = BD.CD

23. Prove that the three times the square of one side of an equilateral Δ is = to four times the square
of one of its altitudes.

24. Prove that the sum of squares of diagonals of a rhombus is = to the sum of squares of its sides.

25. Prove that the sum of squares of diagonals of a ||gm is = to the sum of squares of its sides.

26. In an equilateral ΔABC, D is a point on side BC such that 3BD = BC. Prove that 9AD2 = 7AB2.

27. If ‘a’ is the area of a right Δ and ‘b’ is one of the sides containing the right , prove that the length
2ab
of the altitude on the hypotenuse is
√b4 +4a2

28. Choose the correct option: In ΔABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The B is:
(A) 120° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 45° Ans: C

29. In ΔABC, ABC is an obtuse  and AD ⊥ CB produced. Prove that AC2 = AB2 + BC2 + 2BC.BD

30. In ΔABC, ABC is an acute  and AD ⊥ CB. Prove that AC2 = AB2 + BC2 – 2BC.BD

31. AD and AM are median and altitude of a ΔABC. Prove that:

BC 2 BC 2 1
(i) AC2 = AD2 + BC.DM + ( ) (ii) AB2 = AD2 – BC.DM + ( ) (iii) AC2 + AB2 = 2AD2 + BC2
2 2 2

32. Nadira is fly fishing in a stream. The tip of her fishing rod is 1.5 m above the surface of the water
and the fly at the end of the string rests on the water 4.8 m away from her and 3.6 m away from a
point directly under the tip of the rod. Assuming that her string (from the tip of her rod to the fly) is
tight, how much string does she have out? If she pulls in the string at the rate of 7 cm per second,
what will be the horizontal distance of the fly from her after 20 seconds? Ans: 3.9 m, 3.2 m

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13. Circles
Theorem 1: The ⊥ drawn from the center of a circle to one of its chords bisects the chord.

Theorem 2: In the same circle (or in ≅ circles), if two or more chords are equidistant from the
centre(s), then they are =.

Theorem 3: An  in a semicircle is a right .

Theorem 4: If opposite s of a quadrilateral are supplementary, then the quadrilateral is cyclic.

Theorem 5: The tangent to a circle is ⊥ to the radius at its contact point.

Given: (i) Circle with center O.

(ii) AB is tangent to the circle at contact point P.
O
T.P.T.: AB ⊥ OP

Construction: Consider a point M such that A P M B

(i) Point M lies on AB and
(ii) Points M & P are distinct
Proof:
i AB is tangent to the circle at contact point P Given
ii Point M lies on AB and By construction
Points M & P are distinct
iii Point M does not lie in the interior of the No point of tangent lies in the interior
circle of the circle
iv Point M does not lie on the circle One and only one point (here P)
is common between circle and
tangent
v Point M lies in the exterior of the circle By (iii) & (iv)
vi OM > radius of the circle Distance of a point lying in the exterior
of a circle from its centre is more than
its radius

D CD < radius
C E CE = radius
CF > radius
F

vii OM > OP By (vi)

viii OP is smallest distance between O and AB By (vii)
ix OP ⊥ AB ⊥ distance is the smallest distance
between a line and a point not lying
on the line

Theorem 6: The ⊥ to the tangent to a circle at its contact point passes through the center.

Theorem 7: The lengths of the 2 tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are =.

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Exercises:

1. How many tangents can a circle have? Ans: infinite

2. How many parallel tangents, at the most, can a circle have? Ans: 2

3. In how many point(s), a tangent to a circle intersects it? Ans: 1

4. What is the name of the common point of a tangent to a circle and the circle? Ans: contact point

5. What is the name of a line intersecting a circle in two points? Ans: secant

6. Draw a circle and two lines parallel to a given line such that one is a tangent and the other, a
secant to the circle.

7. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the center O at a point Q
so that OQ = 12 cm. Find the length PQ. Ans:√119 cm.

8. From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 24 cm and the distance of Q from the center
is 25 cm. Find the radius of the circle. Ans: 7 cm

9. The length of a tangent from a point A at distance 5 cm from the center of the circle is 4 cm. Find
the radius of the circle. Ans: 3 cm

10. Find the length of the tangent drawn from a point P whose distance from the center of the circle is
50 cm. It is given that the radius of the circle is 14 cm. Ans: 48 cm

11. The radii of two concentric circles are 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of the larger
circle which touches the smaller circle. Ans: 8 cm

12. In two concentric circles, prove that the chord of the outer circle, which touches the inner circle, is
bisected at the point of contact.

13. In two concentric circles, prove that all chords of the outer circle, which touch the inner circle are
equal.

14. If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with center O are inclined to each other at angle
of 80°, then find POA. Ans: 50°

15. Prove that the  between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle is
supplementary to the  subtended by the line-segment joining the points of contact at the center.

16. If TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with center O so that POQ = 110°, then find PTQ
Ans: 70°

17. From an external point T, two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle (with center O) at contact
points P and Q respectively. Prove that PTQ = 2OPQ.

18. Two circles touch externally at a point P. From a point T on the tangent at P, tangents TQ and TR
are drawn to the circles with points of contact Q and R respectively. Prove that TQ = TR.

19. Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a chord of a circle make equal angles with the chord.

20. Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are ||.

21. Prove that the line segment joining the points of contact of two || tangents to a circle is a diameter
of the circle.

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22. XY and X′Y′ are two || tangents to a circle with center O and another tangent AB with point of
contact C intersecting XY at A and X′Y′ at B. Prove that OA and OB are ⊥ to each other.

23. Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary s at
the center of the circle.

24. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.

25. Prove that the ||gm circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

26. In the adjoining fig, find x:

A

O
44 E
x
B C
27. A circle touches side AB produced, side AC produced and side BC of
P
ΔABC at points P, Q and R respectively. B
If BAC = 44, then find BOC = x
O x 44 A
R

Q C

28. A circle touches side AB produced, side AC produced and side BC of P

ΔABC at points P, Q and R respectively. B
Prove that: AP = semi perimeter of ΔABC.
A
R

Q C
29. A circle touches side AB produced, side AC produced and side BC of P
ΔABC at points P, Q and R respectively. B
If point R lies on OA, OP is 5 cm and OA is 13 cm, then find BC.
O A
R

Ans: 6.67 cm C
Q

30. PQ is a chord of length 6 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a
point A. Find the length AP. Ans: 3.75 cm

31. AB is a diameter and AC is a chord of a circle such that BAC = 30°. The tangent at C intersects
AB produced in a point D. Prove that BC = BD.

32. TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with center O in which OT is = to the diameter of the
circle. Prove that ΔTPQ is an equilateral Δ.

33. ΔABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm such that the segments BD and DC into
which BC is divided by the point of contact D, are of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the
sides AB and AC. Ans:

34. a, b, c are the sides of a right Δ where c is the hypotenuse. A circle with radius r is inscribed in it.
𝑎+𝑏−𝑐
Prove that: 𝑟 = 2

35. In a right ΔABC, right angled at C with AC = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm. A circle with radius r is
inscribed in it. Find r. Ans: 2 cm

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36. The radii of two concentric circles are 13 cm and 8 cm. AB is a diameter of the bigger circle. BD is
a tangent to the smaller circle touching it at D. Find the length AD. Ans:

37. Tangent to a circle (center O) at contact point T and chord AB produced intersect at P. ON ⊥ AB.
Prove that: (i) PA.PB = PN2 – BN2 (ii) PA.PB = PT2

38. Prove that: sum of heights of perpendiculars drawn from end points of diameter of a circle to one
tangent (not || to the diameter) is equal to the diameter of the circle.
OR
Tangent to a circle at contact point P and diameter AB produced intersect at point T. If AH and BK
are perpendiculars at TP, then prove that: AH + BK = AB

Construction of Tangents to a Circle:

39. Draw a circle of radius 6 cm. From a point 10 cm away from its center, construct the pair of
tangents to the circle and measure their lengths. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

40. Construct a tangent to a circle of radius 4 cm from a point on the concentric circle of radius 6 cm
and measure its length. Also verify the measurement by actual calculation. Write the steps of the
construction and justify it.

41. Draw a circle of radius 3 cm. Take two points P and Q on one of its extended diameters each at a
distance of 7 cm from its center. Draw tangents to the circle from these two points P and Q. Write
the steps of the construction and justify it.

42. Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 5 cm which are inclined to each other at an angle of
60°. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

43. Draw a line segment AB of length 8 cm. Taking A as center, draw a circle of radius 4 cm and
taking B as center, draw another circle of radius 3 cm. Construct tangents to each circle from the
center of the other circle. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

44. Let Δ ABC be a right Δ in which AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and  B = 90°. BD is the perpendicular
from B on AC. The circle through B, C, D is drawn. Construct the tangents from A to this circle.
Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

45. Draw a circle with the help of a bangle. Take a point outside the circle. Construct the pair of
tangents from this point to the circle. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

46. Draw a circle of diameter 4 cm. Take a point P, 5 cm away from the center of the circle. From P,
draw a pair of tangents to the circle. Write the steps of the construction and justify it.

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14. Trigonometry
1. In ΔABC, right-angled at B,
7 24 24 7
if AB = 24 cm and BC = 7 cm, then find values of sinA, cosA, sinC, cosC Ans: 25, 25 , 25 , 25

2. In ΔPQR, right-angled at Q,
if PQ = 12 cm and PR = 13 cm, then find value of tanP – cotR. Ans: 0

3. In ΔOPQ, right-angled at P,
7 24
if OP = 7 cm and OQ – PQ = 1 cm, then find values of sinQ and cosQ. Ans: 25 , 25

4. In ΔPQR, right-angled at Q,
12 5 12
if PR + QR = 25 cm and PQ = 5 cm, then find values of sinP, cosP and tanP. Ans: 13, 13, 5

5. In ΔACB, right-angled at C,
if AB = 29 units and BC = 21 units, then find value of cos 2 B + sin2 B Ans: 1

6. In ΔACB, right-angled at C,
41
if AB = 29 units and BC = 21 units, then find the value of cos 2 B − sin2 B Ans: 841

4
7. If tan A = 3 , then calculate all other trigonometric ratios of A.
4 3 5 5 3
Ans: sin A = 5 , cos A = 5 , cosec A = 4 , sec A = 3 , cot A = 4

13
8. If sec θ = , then calculate all other trigonometric ratios.
12
5 12 5 12 13
Ans: sin θ = , cos θ = , tan θ = , cot θ , cosec θ =
13 13 12 5 5

√7 3
9. If 4sin A = 3, then calculate cosA and tanA Ans: ,
4 √7

15 17
10. If 15 cot A = 8, then calculate sinA and secA Ans: 17, 8

11. If tan A = 1, then verify that 2 sinA cosA = 1

1
12. In ΔABC, right-angled at B, if tan A = , find value of: sinA cosC + cosA sinC Ans: 1
√3

1
13. In ΔABC, right-angled at B, if tan A = , find value of: cosA cosC – sinA sinC Ans: 0
√3

7 (1+sin θ)(1−sin θ) 49
14. If cot θ = 8, then evaluate: (1+cos θ)(1−cos θ) Ans: 64

1−tan2 A
15. If 3 cot A = 4, then check whether 1+tan2 A = cos 2 A − sin2 A or not. Ans: Yes

16. If B and Q are acute angles such that sinB = sinQ, then prove that B = Q.

17. If A and B are acute angles such that cosA = cosB, then prove that A = B.

18. State whether true or false: The value of tan A is always less than 1. Ans: False
12
19. State whether true or false: sec A = 5
for some value of angle A. Ans: True

20. State whether true or false: cosA is the abbreviation used for the cosecant of A. Ans: False

21. State whether true or false: cotA is the product of cot and A. Ans: False

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4
22. State whether true or false: sin θ = 3 for some angle θ. Ans: False

23. Evaluate: sin60°cos30° + sin30°cos60° Ans: 1

24. Evaluate: 2 tan245° + cos230° – sin260° Ans: 2

cos 45° 3√2−√6

25. Evaluate: sec 30° + cosec 30° Ans: 8

sin 30° + tan 45° – cosec 60° 43−24√3

26. Evaluate: Ans:
sec 30° + cos 60° + cot 45° 11

5 cos2 60° + 4 sec2 30° − tan2 45° 67

27. Evaluate: sin2 30° + cos2 30°
Ans: 12

28. In ΔABC, right-angled at B, AB = 5 cm and ACB = 30°. Find BC & AC Ans: 5√3 cm, 10 cm

29. In ΔPQR, right-angled at Q, PQ = 3 cm and PR = 6 cm. Find QPR & PRQ Ans: 60°, 30°
1
30. If sin(A – B) = cos(A + B) = 2 , 0° < A + B ≤ 90°, A > B, find A & B Ans: 45°, 15°

1
31. If tan(A + B) = √3 & tan(A – B) = ; 0° < A + B ≤ 90° ; A > B, find A & B Ans: 45°, 15°
√3

2 tan 30°
32. Choose the correct option: 1+tan2 30° =
(A) sin 60° (B) cos 60° (C) tan 60° (D) sin 30° Ans: A

1−tan2 45°
33. Choose the correct option: 1+tan2 45° =
(A) tan 90° (B) 1 (C) sin 45° (D) 0 Ans: D

34. Choose the correct option: sin2A = 2sinA is true when A =

(A) 0° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60° Ans: A

2 tan 30°
35. Choose the correct option: 1−tan2 30° =
(A) cos 60° (B) sin 60° (C) tan 60° (D) sin 30° Ans: C

36. State whether true or false: sin(A + B) = sinA + sinB Ans: False

37. State whether true or false: The value of sinθ increases as θ increases. Ans: True

38. State whether true or false: The value of cosθ increases as θ increases. Ans: False

39. State whether true or false: sinθ = cosθ for all values of θ. Ans: False

40. State whether true or false: cot A is not defined for A = 0°. Ans: True

tan 65°
41. Evaluate: 𝑐𝑜𝑡 25° Ans: 1

𝑠𝑖𝑛 18°
42. Evaluate: 𝑐𝑜𝑠 72° Ans: 1

𝑡𝑎𝑛 26°
43. Evaluate: 𝑐𝑜𝑡 64°
Ans: 1

44. Evaluate: cos 48° − sin 42° Ans: 0

45. Evaluate: cosec 31° − sec 59° Ans: 0

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𝑠𝑖𝑛2 63°+𝑠𝑖𝑛2 27°

46. Evaluate: 𝑐𝑜𝑠2 17°+𝑐𝑜𝑠2 73° Ans: 1

47. Evaluate: sin25° cos65° + cos25° sin65° Ans: 1

48. Show that: tan48° tan23° tan42° tan67° = 1

49. Show that: cos38° cos52° – sin38° sin52° = 0

50. Show that: (cot15°)(cot16°)(cot17°) ……………(cot73°)(cot74°)(cot75°) = 1

51. If sin3A = cos(A – 26°), where 3A is an acute angle, find the value of A. Ans: 29°

52. If tan2A = cot(A – 18°), where 2A is an acute angle, find the value of A. Ans: 36°

53. If sec4A = cosec(A – 20°), where 4A is an acute angle, find the value of A. Ans: 22°

54. If tan A = cot B, prove that A + B = 90°.

B+C A
55. If A, B and C are interior angles of a triangle ABC, then show that sin (2
) = cos 2

56. Express cot85° + cos75° in terms of trigonometric ratios of angles between 0° and 45°.
Ans: tan 5° + sin 15°

57. Express sin67° + cos75° in terms of trigonometric ratios of angles between 0° and 45°.
Ans: cos 23° + sin 15°

58. Evaluate: (tan 1°)(tan 2°)(tan 3°)……………….(tan 86°) (tan 87°)(tan 88°)(tan 89°) Ans: 1

𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 1
59. Express tanA and secA in terms of sin A. Ans: ,
√1−𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 √1−𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴

1 √1+𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 𝐴
60. Express sinA and secA in terms of cot A. Ans: ,
√1+𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴

√𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝐴−1 1
61. Express sinA and cotA in terms of sec A. Ans: ,
𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 √𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝐴−1

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15. Trigonometric Identities

1
1. Choose the correct option: tan2 θ − + 1=
cos2 θ
(A) 1 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 0 Ans: D

2. Choose the correct option: (1 + tan2 θ)(1 + sin θ)(1 − sin θ) =

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) –1 (D) 0 Ans: A

3. Choose the correct option: 9 sec2A – 9 tan2A =

(A) 1 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 0 Ans: B

4. Choose the correct option: sec A (1 − sin A)(tan A + sec A) =

(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2 Ans: C

5. Choose the correct option: cosec A (1 − cos A)(cosec A + cot A) =

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 1 Ans: D
1
6. Prove: (1 + sin θ)(1 − sin θ) = (cosec 2 θ − 1)sin2 θ = sec2 θ

1
7. Prove: (1 + cos θ)(1 − cos θ) = (sec 2 θ − 1)cos 2 θ = cosec2θ

sec2 θ
8. Prove: sec2 θ−1 = cosec 2 θ

sin4 θ−cos4 θ
9. Prove: sin2 θ− cos2 θ = 1

cos θ+ sin θ
10. Prove: − 1 = cot θ
sin θ

tan2 θ+1
11. Prove: = tan θ
tan θcosec2 θ

sin A+ cosec A
12. Prove:√ sin A
− 2 = cot A

2 cos2 θ−1
13. Prove: sin θ cos θ
= cot θ − tan θ

sin θ+ tan θ
14. Prove: 1+ sec θ
= sin θ

sin2 θ tan2 θ
15. Prove: + 1=
cos2 θ sin2 θ

sin θ−2sin3 θ
16. Prove: = tan θ
2cos3 θ−cos θ

17. Prove: cos 2 θcosecθ + sin θ = cosecθ

2+ cot2 θ
18. Prove: cosec2 θ
− 1 = sin2 θ

cos2 θ+1
19. Prove: sin2 θ
= 2cosec 2 θ − 1

sin2 θ cos2 θ
20. Prove: cos2 θ + sin2 θ = sec 2 θcosec 2 θ − 2

1 1 1 1 1
21. Prove: [1 + tan2 θ
] [1 + cot2 θ] = cos2θ
+ sin2 θ = sin2 θ− sin4 θ

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22. Prove: tan2 θ − sin2 θ = tan2 θsin2 θ

sec2 θ− sin2 θ
23. Prove: = cosec 2 θ − cos2 θ
tan2 θ

cot θ cot θ − 1
24. Prove: =
1+ tan θ 2− sec2 θ

cos A cos A cos A 1+ sin A cot A cot A cot A 1+ cosec A

25. Prove: + = + = + = +
1− sin A 1+ sin A 1+ sin A cos A cosec A− 1 cosec A+1 1+ cosec A cot A

1 1
= sec A+tan A + sec A−tan A = 2 sec A

sin A sin A sin A 1+ cos A tan A tan A tan A 1+sec A

26. Prove: 1− cos A + 1+ cos A = 1+ cos A + sin A
= sec A−1 + sec A+ 1 = 1+sec A + tan A

1 1
= cosec A+cot A + cosec A−cot A = 2 cosec A

cos θ sin θ
27. Prove: 1− tan θ + 1− cot θ
= cos θ + sin θ

tan θ cot θ
28. Prove: 1− cot θ + 1− tan θ
= 1 + cot θ + tan θ = 1 + sec θ cosec θ = 1 + √sec 2 θ + cosec 2 θ

tan A sin A
29. Prove: 1+ cos A + 1− cos A
= cot A + sec A cosec A

sec θ− 1 sin θ− 1
30. Prove: cot 2 θ [ 1+ sin θ ] + sec 2 θ [1+ sec θ] = 0

sin A− sin B cos A− cos B

31. Prove: cos A + cos B + sin A+ sin B
=0

cos A+ sin A sin A− cos A 2 2 2

32. Prove: sin A− cos A + cos A + sin A
= sin2 A − cos2 A = 1−2cos2 A = 2sin2 A − 1

33. Prove: (sec A − cos A)(cot A + tan A) = tan A sec A

34. Prove: (cosec A − sin A)(sec A − cos A)(tan A + cot A) = 1

35. Prove: sin A (1 + tan A) + cos A (1 + cot A) = sec A + cosec A

36. Prove: (1 + cos A)2 + sin2 A = 2(1 + cos A)

37. Prove: (1 + cot A + tan A)(sin A − cos A) = sin A tan A − cot A cos A

38. Prove: (tan A − tan B)2 + (1 + tan A tan B)2 = sec 2 Asec 2 B

39. Prove: (sin A + sec A)2 + (cos A + cosec A)2 = (1 + sec A cosec A)2

40. Prove: sin2 A tan A + cos2 A cot A + 2 sin A cos A = tan A + cot A

41. Prove: (sin A + cosec A)2 + (cos A + sec A)2 = 7 + tan2 A + cot 2 A

42. Prove: cos 4 θ − sin4 θ = 2cos2 θ − 1 = 1 − 2sin2 θ

43. Prove: cos 4 θ + sin4 θ − 2cos2 θsin2 θ = (2cos 2 θ − 1)2 = (1 − 2sin2 θ)2 = (cos2 θ − sin2 θ)2

44. Prove: 2sin2 θ − sin4 θ = 1 − cos4 θ

45. Prove: tan4 θ + tan2 θ = sec 4 θ − sec 2 θ

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46. Prove: 2sec 2 θ − sec 4 θ − 2cosec 2 θ + cosec 4 θ = cot 4 θ − tan4 θ

47. Prove: sin6 θ + cos6 θ = 1 − 3sin2 θcos 2 θ

48. Prove: sec 6 θ − tan6 θ = 1 + 3tan2 θsec 2 θ

49. Prove: cosec 6 θ − cot 6 θ = 1 + 3cot 2 θcosec 2 θ

1+ sec θ sin2 θ
50. Prove: sec θ
= 1−cos θ

tan θ sec θ− 1
51. Prove: =
sec θ+1 tan θ

cot θ 1+cosec θ
52. Prove: cosec θ−1 = cot θ

sec A− tan A
53. Prove: = 1 − 2 sec A tan A + 2tan2 A
sec A+ tan A

sec A− tan A cot A−cos A cosec A− 1 1− sin A

54. Prove:√sec A+ tan A = √cot A+cos A = √cosec A+ 1 = √1+ sin A

1− sin A cos A 1
= = = = sec A − tan A
cos A 1+ sin A sec A+ tan A

sec A+ tan A cot A+cos A cosec A+ 1 1+ sin A

55. Prove:√sec A− tan A = √cot A−cos A = √cosec A− 1 = √1− sin A

1+ sin A cos A 1
= = = = sec A + tan A
cos A 1− sin A sec A− tan A

cosec x− cot x tan x−sin x sec x− 1 1− cos x

56. Prove:√ =√ =√ =√
cosec x+ cot x tan x+sin x sec x+ 1 1+ cos x

1− cos x sin x 1
= = = = cosec x − cot x
sin x 1+ cos x cosec X+cot X

cosec x+ cot x tan x+sin x sec x+ 1 1+ cos x

57. Prove:√ =√ =√ =√
cosec x− cot x tan x−sin x sec x− 1 1− cos x

1+ cos x sin x 1
= sin x
= 1− cos x = cosec x−cot x
= cosec x + cot x

1+ sin θ 1− sin θ
58. Prove: √1− sin θ + √1+ sin θ = 2 sec θ

1+ cos θ 1− cos θ
59. Prove: √1− cos θ + √1+ cos θ = 2 cosec θ

1+ tan2 A 1− tan A 2
60. Prove: 1+ cot2 A
= [ 1− cot A ] = tan2 A

cos2 θ sin3 θ
61. Prove: + = 1 + sin θ cos θ
1− tan θ sin θ− cos θ

tan3 θ−1
62. Prove: tan θ− 1
= sec 2 θ + tan θ

1 1 1 1
63. Prove: cosec θ + cot θ − sin θ
= sin θ
− cosec θ − cot θ

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1 1 1 1
64. Prove: sec θ− tan θ − cos θ
= cos θ
− sec θ + tan θ

tan2 θ cosec2 θ 1
65. Prove: tan2 θ − 1 + sec2 θ− cosec2 θ
= 1−2cos2 θ

66. Choose the correct option: (1 + cot A − cosec A) (1 + tan A + sec A) =

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) –1 Ans: C

67. Prove: (1 − sin α + cos α)2 = 2(1 + cos α)(1 − sin α)

(1+cot A+tan A)(sin A− cos A)

68. Prove: sec3 A−cosec3 A
= sin2 Acos2 A

sin2 A− sin2 B
69. Prove: tan2 A − tan2 B = cos2 A cos2 B

1
70. Prove: (cosec A − sin A)(sec A − cos A) = tan A+cot A

cos A − sin A +1 cot A + cosec A − 1 1+ cos A

71. Prove: cos A + sin A − 1 = cot A − cosec A + 1
= sin A

sin A−cos A+1 sec A + tan A − 1 1+ sin A 1

72. Prove: = = =
sin A+cos A−1 tan A− sec A + 1 cos A sec A−tan A

73. If 3 sin A − 5 cos A = 5, then prove that 5 sin A + 3 cos A = 3

74. If cos A − sin A = √2 sin A, then prove that cos A + sin A = √2 cos A

75. If cos A + sin A = √2 cos(90 − A), then prove that sin A − cos A = √2 sin(90 − A)

76. If a sin θ + b cos θ = c then prove that a cos θ − b sin θ = ±√a2 + b 2 − c 2

𝑝2 −1 2𝑝
77. If sec A + tan A = P, then find sin A and cos A Ans: ,
𝑝2 +1 𝑝2 +1

78. If x = r sin θ cos ϕ, y = r sin θ sin ϕ and z = r cos θ, then prove that x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = r 2

79. If x cos θ − y sin θ = a and x sin θ + y cos θ = b then prove that: x 2 + y 2 = a2 + b2

80. If asin3 x + bcos 3 x = sin x cos x and a sin x = b cos x then prove that: a2 + b2 = 1

x sin 𝐵 y sin A x sin A

81. If tan A = 1−x cos 𝐵 and tan 𝐵 = 1−y cos A then prove that: y = sin 𝐵

3 2 3 2
82. If cot 𝜃 + tan 𝜃 = 𝑥 and sec 𝜃 − cos 𝜃 = 𝑦, then prove that: ( √𝑥 2 𝑦) − ( √𝑥𝑦 2 ) = 1

83. If a tan θ + b sec θ = c and x tan θ − y sec θ = z then prove that: (ay + bx)2 + (bz + cy)2 = (az − cx)2
1
84. If 1 + sin2 θ = 3 sin θ cos θ, then prove that: tan θ = 1 or 2

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16. Application of trigonometry

1. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from
the foot of the tower, is 30°. Find the height of the tower. Ans: 10√3 m

2. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 15 m away from
the foot of the tower, is 60°. Find the height of the tower. Ans: 15√3 m

3. At a point P on the horizontal ground, the angle of elevation of a tower is found to be such that its
3
cotangent is 5. If P is 150 m away from the tower, determine the height of the tower.
Ans:

4. Ancy has to repair a fault at a point 1.3 m below from the top of a 5 m high pole. i) What should be
the length of the ladder that is inclined at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, to reach the required
position? Also, ii) how far from the foot of the pole should be the foot of the ladder?
Ans: i) 4.28 m, ii) 2.14 m

5. A circus artist is climbing a 20 m long rope, which is tightly stretched and tied from the top of a
vertical pole. Find the height of the pole, if the angle made by the rope with the ground is 30°.
Ans: 10 m

6. A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the
ground making an angle 30° with it. The distance between the foot of the tree to the point where
the top touches the ground is 8 m. Find the height of the tree. Ans: 8√3 m

7. A contractor plans to install two slides of height 1.5 m and of 3 m inclined at angle of 30° and 60°
to the ground respectively. What should be the lengths of the slides? Ans: 3 m, 2√3 m

8. A kite is flying at a height of 60 m above the ground. The inclination of the string with the ground is
60°. Find the length of the string, assuming that there is no slack in the string. Ans: 69.2 m

9. A balloon is connected to a meteorological ground station by a cable (without slack) of length 215
m inclined at 60° to the horizontal. Determine the height of the balloon from the ground.
Ans:

10. A ladder is placed against a wall to just reach its top. The foot of the ladder is 1.5 m away from the
wall and the ladder is inclined at an angle of 60° with the ground. Find the height of the wall.
Ans: 2.595 m

11. One of the equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 18√2 m and the angle at its vertex is 90°. Find
the length of the base. Ans:

12. Find sun’s altitude (the angle of elevation of the sun) when the length of shadow of a vertical pole
is equal to its height. Ans:

13. Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower of height 100√3m from a point 100m far from the
foot of the tower on a horizontal plane. Ans:

14. A bridge across a river makes an angle of 45° with the river bank. If the length of the bridge
across the river is 150 m, what is the width of the river? Ans:

15. An observer 1.5 m tall is 28.5 m away from a chimney. The angle of elevation of the top of the
chimney from her eyes is 45°. What is the height of the chimney? Ans: 30 m

16. A 1.5 m tall observer is 28.5 m away from a tower 30 m high. Determine the angle of elevation of
the top of the tower from his eye. Ans: 45°

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17. From a point P on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of a 10 m high building is 30°.
Angle of elevation of top of a flag at the top of the building from P is 45°. Find i) the length of the
flag and ii) the distance of the building from the point P. Ans: i) 17.32 m, ii) 7.32 m

18. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a transmission
tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the
tower. Ans: 20(√3 − 1) m

19. A 1.6 m high statue, stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground, the angle of
elevation of the top of the statue is 60° and from the same point the angle of elevation of the top
of the pedestal is 45°. Find the height of the pedestal. Ans: 0.8(√3 + 1) m

20. From a point P on the ground, the angles of elevation of the top of a 10 m tall building and of a
helicopter, hovering at some height over the top of the building, are 30o and 60o, respectively.
Find the height of the helicopter above the ground. Ans:

21. A vertical tower is surmounted by a 7m high flag. From a point on the ground, the angle of
elevation of the bottom of the flag is 30o and that of the top of the flag is 45o. Find the height of the
tower. Ans:

22. An aero plane flying at a height of 3000 m from the ground passes vertically above another aero
plane at an instant when the angles of the elevation of the two planes from the same point on the
ground are 60o & 45o respectively. Find the vertical distance between the aero planes at that
instant. Ans: 1270 m

23. A 5 m high pole is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole
observed from a point on the ground is 60o and the angle of depression of the same point from
the top of the tower is 45o. Find the height of the tower. Ans: 6.83 m

24. The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 40 m longer when the Sun’s
altitude is 30° than when it was 60°. Find the height of the tower. Ans: 20√3 m

25. The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 60 m longer when the Sun’s
altitude is 30° than when it was 45°. Find the height of the tower. Ans: 30(1 + √3) m

26. If shadow of a 50m high tower is xm shorter when the sun’s altitude is 45o than when it was 30o.
Find x. Ans:

27. A TV tower stands vertically on a bank of a canal. From a point on the other bank directly opposite
the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 60°. From another point 20m away from
this point on the line joining this point to the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation is 30°. Find
the height of the tower and the width of the canal. Ans: 10√3 m, 10 m

28. A parachutist is descending vertically and makes angles of elevation of 45o and 60o at two
observation points 100m apart from each other of the left side of himself. Find the height from
which he falls and also the distance of the point where he falls from the first observation point.
Ans:

29. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 30o. After walking 30 m
towards the tower, the angle of elevation becomes 60o. What is the height of the tower?
Ans:

30. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 45o. After walking 40 m
towards the tower, the angle of elevation becomes 60o. What is the height of the tower?
Ans:

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31. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is such that its tangent is
5
12
. After walking 192 m towards the foot of the tower, the tangent of the angle of elevation
3
becomes 4. What is the height of the tower? Ans:

32. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree
standing on the opposite bank is 60o. When he moves 40 m away from the bank, the angle of
elevation becomes 30o. Find the height of the tree and the width of the river. Ans: 34.6 m, 20 m

33. The angle of elevation of top of a 30 m tall building from eyes of a 1.5 m tall boy increases from
30° to 60° as he walks towards the building. Find the distance he walked. Ans: 19√3 m

34. As observed from the top of a 75 m high lighthouse from the sea-level, the angles of depression
of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side of the
lighthouse, find the distance between the two ships. Ans: 75(√3 − 1) m

35. The angles of depressions of two ships from the top of a lighthouse are 45 o and 30o towards east.
If the ships are 200 m apart, find the height of the lighthouse. Ans:

36. A man on a cliff observes a boat at an angle of depression of 30o which is approaching the shore
to the point immediately beneath him with a uniform speed. Six minutes later, the angle of
depression is found to be 60o. Find the time taken by the boat to reach the shore.
Ans:

37. A straight highway leads to the foot of a tower. A man standing at the top of the tower observes a
car at an angle of depression of 30°, which is approaching the foot of the tower with a uniform
speed. Six seconds later, the angle of depression of the car is found to be 60°. Find the time
taken by the car to reach the foot of the tower from this point. Ans: 3 seconds

38. From a point on a bridge across a river, the angles of depression of the banks on opposite sides
of the river are 30° and 45°, respectively. If the bridge is at a height of 3 m from the banks, find
the width of the river. Ans: 3(1 + √3) m

39. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 4 m and 9 m from the
base of the tower and in the same line with it are complementary. Prove that height of the tower is
6 m.

40. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at distances a and b from the base of
the tower and in the same line with it are complementary. Prove that the height of the tower is
√𝑎𝑏.

41. There is a small island in the middle of a 100 m wide river and a tall tree stands on the island. P
and Q are points directly opposite each other on the two banks, and in line with the tree. If the
angles of elevation of the top of the tree from P and Q are respectively 30o and 45o, find the height
of the tree. Ans:

42. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of a 80 m wide road.
From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60°
and 30°, respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point from the poles.
Ans: 20√3 m, 20m, 60m

43. Two pillars of equal height are on opposite side of a 100m wide road. The angles of depression of
a coin placed between the pillars from their tops are 60o and 30o. Find the position of the coin.
Ans:

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44. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of an 8 m tall building from the top of a
multistoried building are 30° and 45°, respectively. Find
i) the height of the multistoried building and
ii) the distance between the two buildings. Ans: i) 4(3 + √3) m, ii) 4(3 + √3) m

45. The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower from the top of a 100m high cliff are
30o and 60o respectively. Find the height of the tower. Ans:

46. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a 7m tall building from the top of a tower
are 45o and 60o, respectively. Find the height of the tower. Ans:

47. The angles of elevation of the top of a rock from the top and foot of a 100m high tower are 30o
and 45o, respectively. Find the height of the rock. Ans: 236.5 m

48. From the top of a cliff 50m high, the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a tower are
30o and 45o, respectively. Find the height of the tower. Ans:

49. The distance between two towers is 70m. The angle of depression of the top of the 1st tower from
the top of the 2nd tower is 30o. If height of the 2nd tower is 120m, find the height of the 1st tower.
Ans:

50. The distance between two trees is 60m. The angle of depression of the top of the 1st tree from the
top of the 2nd tree is 45o. If height of the 1st tree is 80m, find the height of the 2nd tree.
Ans:

51. The distance between two towers is 140m. The angle of elevation of the top of the 1st tower from
the top of the 2nd tower is 30o. If the height of the 2nd tower is 60m, find the height of the 1st tower.

52. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of a 50 m high tower is 30° and that of
2
the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. Find the height of the building. Ans: 16 m
3

53. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and
the angle of depression of its foot is 45°. Determine the height of the tower. Ans: 7(√3 + 1) m

54. A man standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10m above the water level, observes the angle of
elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30 o.
Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill. Ans:

55. Angles of elevation of top of a tower from top and bottom of a 15 m high building are 30 o and 60o
respectively. Find the height of the tower and the distance between the building and the tower.
Ans:

56. A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height of 88.2 m from
the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon at her eyes changes from 60° to 30° in certain
time interval. Find the distance travelled by the balloon during the interval. Ans: 58√3 m

57. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of a plane flying at a constant height of 1500√3
m changes from 60° to 30° for a flight of 15 seconds. Find the speed of the plane. Ans: 720 km/hr

58. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of a plane flying at a constant height of 1 km
changes from 30° to 60° for a flight of 10 seconds. Find the speed of the plane. Ans:

59. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is . On moving ‘p’ m away
from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation becomes . Show that the height ‘h’ of the tower
𝑝 tan 𝛼 tan 𝛽
is given by: ℎ = tan 𝛼− tan 𝛽 .
Also determine the height of the tower if p = 150 m,  = 60o and  = 30o.

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60. From the top of a tower, the angles of depression of two objects on the same side of the tower are
found to be  and  ( > ). If the distance between the objects is ’p’ meters, show that the height
𝑝 tan 𝛼 tan 𝛽
‘h’ of the tower is given by: ℎ =
tan 𝛼− tan 𝛽

61. The angles of depression of two consecutive kilometer stones, from an aero plane on the opposite
tan 𝛼 tan 𝛽
sides of it are  and . Show that the height of the aero plane (in km) is given by: ℎ = tan 𝛼+ tan 𝛽.

62. From the top of a ‘h’ meters high light-house, the angles of depression of two boats on the
opposite sides of it are found to be  and . If the line joining the boats passes through the foot of
ℎ(tan +tan )
the light-house, then show that the distance between the two boats is: tan  tan  .

63. From a window h meters high above the ground in a street, the angles of elevation and
depression of the top and the foot of the other house on the opposite side of the street are  and 
respectively. Show that the height of the opposite house is h (1+ tan cot ).

64. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from the point h meters above a lake is  and the angle of
depression of its reflection in the lake is . Prove that the distance of the cloud from the point of
2ℎ sec 𝛼
observation is .
tan 𝛽−tan 𝛼

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17. Mensuration (2-d)

1. If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 36 cm. Find the diameter of the protractor.

2. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the center. Find:
(i) length of the arc (ii) area of the corresponding sector (ii) area of the corresponding segment.
441√3
Ans: (i) 22 cm (ii) 231 cm2 (iii) (231 − 4
) cm2

3. A chord of a circle of radius 12 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the center. Find the area of the
corresponding segment of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73). Ans: 88.44 cm2

4. A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the center. Find the areas of the
corresponding minor and major segments of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Ans: 20.4375 cm2; 686.0625 cm2

5. The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of ` 24 per meter is ` 5280. The field is to be ploughed at
the rate of ` 0.50 per m2. Find the cost of ploughing the field. Ans: ` 1925

6. The radii of two circles are 19 cm and 9 cm respectively. Find the radius of the circle which has
circumference equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two circles. Ans: 28 cm

7. The radii of two circles are 8 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the radius of the circle having area equal
to the sum of the areas of the two circles. Ans: 10 cm

8. The wheels of a car are of diameter 80 cm each. How many complete revolutions does each wheel
make in 10 minutes when the car is travelling at a speed of 66 km/hr? Ans: 4375

9. The length of minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find (i) the distance travelled by tip of the minute hand
and (ii) the area swept by the minute hand from 7:10 pm to 8:35 pm.
Ans: (i) 124.67 cm, (ii) 872 .67 cm2

10. A flat circular umbrella of radius 45 cm has equally spaced 8 ribs. Find the area between the two
22275
consecutive ribs. Ans: 28
cm2

11. A lighthouse spreads a red colored light over a sector of  80° to a distance of 16.5 km. Find the area
covered. Ans: 189.97 km2

12. A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square grass field by a 5 m long rope. Find the area of the
field in which the horse can graze.(Use π = 3.14) Ans: 19.625 m2

13. A car has 2 non overlapping wipers with each having a blade of length 25 cm sweeping through an 
158125
of 115°. Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the blades. Ans: 126
cm2

14. Tick the correct option: If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the radius
of the circle is
(A) 2 units (B) π units (C) 4 units (D) 7 units Ans: A

15. Tick the correct answer in the following: Area of a sector of angle p (in degrees) of a circle with radius
R is
𝑝 𝑝 𝑝 𝑝
(A) X 2πR (B) X πR2 (C) X 2πR (D) X 2πR2 Ans: D
180 180 360 720

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16. A circular brooch with diameter 35 mm is made with silver wire. The wire is
also used in making 5 diameters which divide the circle into 10 equal sectors
as shown in the fig. Find:
(i) the total length of the silver wire required.
(ii) the area of each sector of the brooch.

Ans: (i) 285 mm (ii) 96.25mm2

17. Adjacent figure depicts an archery target marked with its five scoring areas
from the centre outwards as Gold, Black, Red, Green and Blue. The diameter
of the region representing Gold score is 21 cm and each of the other bands is
10.5 cm wide. Find the perimeter and the area of each of the five scoring
regions.

Ans: 66 cm, 198 cm, 330 cm, 462 cm, 594 cm

346.5 cm2, 1039.5 cm2, 1732.5 cm2, 2425.5 cm2, 3118.5 cm2

18. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

14 cm

Ans: (i) 144cm (ii) 42cm2

19. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

42 cm

Ans: (i) 564cm (ii) 378cm2

20. A drain cover is made from a square metal plate of side 40 cm by having 441 holes of diameter 1 cm,
each drilled in it. Find the cost of galvanizing it at the rate of ` 8.40 per cm2. Ans: 21058.8 `

21. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.
21 cm

O
30

7 cm
Ans: (i) 42.67cm (ii) 102.67cm2

22. In the fig., find ( i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

O
40

7 cm

Ans: (i) 28.67cm (ii) 51.33cm2

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23. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

14 cm

Ans: (i) 72cm (ii) 42cm2

24. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

14 cm
Ans: (i) 44cm (ii) 42cm2

25. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

4 cm 2 cm

Ans: (i) 20.56cm (ii) 9.72cm2

26. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

Ans: (i) 24.84cm (ii) 14.13cm2

12 cm

27. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region. 12.5 cm

24 cm

Ans: (i) 70.25 cm (ii) 161.3125 cm2

28. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

2 cm

Ans: (i) 11.03 cm (ii) 6.125 cm2

3.5 cm

29. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

20 cm

Ans: (i) 100.674 cm (ii) 228 cm2

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30. Adjacent figure depicts design of a blue pond surrounded by a green

3m
grassy land. Find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of grassy land

14 m

Ans: (i) 81.12 m (ii) 154.88 m2

31. The fig. depicts a racing track whose left and right ends are
semicircular. If the straight path are each 106 m long and the
distances around the track along its inner and outer edges are 400.4
m and 463.2 m then find the area of the track (𝜋 = 3.14).

Ans: 4318 m2

32. In the adjoining fig quadrilateral OPQR is a Rhombus. O is center of the R

circle. Find area of the shaded region if its perimeter is 82.24 cm.
(use  = 3.14, √3 = 1.73)

Q O

Ans: 145.6 cm2 P

33. In the figure, find the perimeter of the shaded region if its area is 66.5 cm2.

Ans: 63.74 cm

34. The area of an equilateral ABC is 17320.5cm2. With each vertex of the  as
center, a circle is drawn with radius equal to half the length of the side of the
 as shown in the fig. Find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region. A
(Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73205)

B C

Ans: (i) 314 cm (ii) 1620.5cm2

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35. A circular arc of radius 6 cm has been drawn with vertex O of an

equilateral  OAB of side 12 cm as center as shown in the fig.
Find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

O
6 cm

A B
12 cm
Ans: (i) 55.4 cm (ii) 156.48 cm2

36. A round table cover of the radius 28 cm has six equal designs as shown in
the fig., find the cost of making the designs at the rate of ` 0.35 per cm2.
(Use √3 = 1.7)

Ans: ` 162.68

37. In the fig., two circular flower beds have been shown on two sides of a
square lawn ABCD of side 56 m. If the centre of each circular flower bed is A B
the point of intersection O of the diagonals of the square lawn, find the area
of the flower beds.
O

D C
Ans: 896 m2

38. Two circles touch internally, the sum of their areas is 116π sq. cm. and the distance between their
centers is 6 cm. Find the radii of the circles. Ans: 10 cm, 4 cm

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39. If perimeter and area of crescent formed by 2 overlapping circles are 220
cm and 770 cm2 respectively, then find radii of both circles.

Ans: 21 cm and 14 cm

40. In the adjoining figure of crescent perpendicular diameters AB and CD of

C
outer circle intersect inner circle at P and Q respectively such that AP
equal to 6 cm and CQ equal to 4 cm. Q
Find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of crescent
P
A B

D
2
Ans: (i) 81.64 cm (ii) 122.46 cm

41. In a circular table cover of radius 32cm, a design is formed leaving an

A
equilateral  ABC in the middle as shown in the fig. Find (i) perimeter and
(ii) area of the design (shaded region).

B C

Ans: (i) 367.04 cm (ii) 1886.72 cm2

42. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.
(Use √3 = 1.7)

7.4
cm

Ans: (i) 55.264 cm (ii) 15.7628 cm2

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43. Find perimeter of the design, as shown in the fig., if its area is 28 cm2.
22
(Use π = 7
)

Ans: 22 cm

44. Find area of the design, as shown in the fig., if its perimeter is 61.6 cm.
22
(Use π = )
7

Ans: 54.88 cm2

45. Find perimeter of the design, as shown in the fig., if its area is 54.88 cm2.
22
(Use π = 7
)

Ans: 61.6 cm

46. Find perimeter of the design (shaded region), if its area is 336 cm2.
22
(Use π = 7
)

Ans: 264 cm

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47. Find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region in the fig., formed by
semicircles inside a circle of radius 9.8 cm.

Ans: (i) 61.6 cm (ii) 150.92 cm2

48. In the adjoining fig if perimeter of shaded region is 40 cm then find its area.

Ans: 96.25 cm2

49. In the adjoining fig diameter of big semicircle is 9 cm. Find (i) perimeter and
(ii) area of the shaded region.

Ans: (i) cm (ii) 12.375 cm2

50. Find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region in the fig., formed by
concentric semicircles of radii 5 cm and 7 cm.

Ans: (i) cm (ii) cm2

51. How does the length of the blue curve compare to the green curve?
A) The green curve is longer
B) The blue curve is longer
C) The curves have equal length
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the given data.

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52. In the fig., ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semicircle is

drawn with BC as diameter.
Show that the area of shaded region = area of Δ ABC. B
Also find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

Ans: (i) 53.02 cm (ii) 98 cm2 A C

53. In the fig., find (i) perimeter and (ii) area of the shaded region.

2.8 cm

Ans: (i) cm (ii) cm2

2.1 cm

54. In the adjoining fig semicircles are drawn taking AB, BC and AC as
C
diameters. Show that:
Perimeter shaded region 11
(i) Perimeter of Δ ABC = 7
(ii) area of shaded region = area of Δ ABC
A B
55. To a circle with Centre C, a tangent AB is drawn with contact point B.
Region interior to triangle and exterior to circle is shaded. Prove that:
𝜋𝜃
Perimeter (shaded region) = 𝑟 [tan 𝜃 + sec 𝜃 − 1 + 180] units
𝑟2 𝜋𝜃
Area (shaded region) = [tan 𝜃 − 180] units2
2

56. In the adjoining fig, show that the area of region A = area of region B.
B
A

57. In the adjoining fig, find the area of shaded region.

14 6
0 C
cm

A B
58. In the adjoining fig, if OA = 20√2 cm, AB = 20 cm and BC = 10 cm then find D C
the area of shaded region.
A B

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18. Mensuration (3-d)

Lateral / Curved Total
Name Diagram Base Area Top Area Volume
Surface Area Surface Area
l
b
Cuboid 2(l + b)h lb lb 2(lb + bh + hl) lbh
h
a
a
Cube 4a2 a2 a2 6a2 a3
a

r 4 3
Sphere 4πr 2 0 0 4πr 2 πr
3

2 3
Hemisphere 2πr 2 πr 2 0 3πr 2 πr
r 3

Cylinder h 2πrh πr 2 πr 2 2πr(h + r) πr 2 h

r
Inner CSA=2πrh
2π(R + r)(h
Pipe h π(R2 − r 2 ) π(R2 − r 2 ) π(R2 − r 2 )h
Outer + R − r)
r R
CSA=2πRh

Right l
h 1 2
Circular πrl πr 2 0 πr(l + r) πr h
r 3
Cone
l = h + r2
2 2

r
h l
1
R 2 2 π[(R + r)l + R2 π(R2 + Rr
Frustum π(R + r)l πR πr 3
l2 + r2]
+ r 2 )h
= h2
+ (R − r)2

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1. Two cubes are joined end to end. If the surface area of the resulting cuboid is 160 cm2, then find
its volume. Ans: 128 cm3

2. Five cubes are joined end to end. If the surface area of the resulting cuboid is 198 cm2, then find
its volume. Ans: 135 cm3

3. Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 9
cm. Ans: 190.755 cm3

4
4. A hemispherical tank full of water is emptied by a pipe at the rate of 3 7 liters/sec. How much time
will it take to empty half the tank, if it is 3m in diameter? Ans: 16 min 30 sec

5. A vessel of total height 13 cm is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder.
Find the volume of the vessel, if the cost of polishing its inner surface area at the rate ` 2.10 per
cm2 is 1201.2 ` Ans: 1642.67 cm3

6. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of same radius. Find the
total surface area of the toy, if its total height is 15.5 cm. Ans: 214.5 cm2

7. Rohit wanted to color a playing top (lattu) shaped like a cone surmounted by a hemisphere. The
entire height is 5 cm and the diameter is 3.5 cm. Find the area he has to color. Ans: 39.6 cm2

8. A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispherical ends. The length of the
entire capsule is 14 mm and its surface area is 220 mm2. Find its volume. Ans: 242.26 mm3

9. The base of a decorative block is a cube with edge 5 cm, and the hemisphere fixed on the top has
a diameter of 4.2 cm. Find the TSA of the block. Ans: 163.86 cm2

10. A cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere of diameter 7 cm. Find the surface
area of the solid. Ans: 332.5 cm2

11. A hemispherical depression is cut out from one face of a cubical wooden block such that its
diameter l is equal to the edge of the cube. Determine the surface area of the remaining solid.
1
Ans: 4 l2 (π + 24)

12. From a solid cylinder of height 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical cavity of the same height
and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid.
Ans: 18 cm2

13. A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder. If the
height of the cylinder is 10 cm, and its base is of radius 3.5 cm, find the total surface area of the
article. Ans: 374 cm2

14. Mayank made a bird-bath for his garden in the shape of a cylinder with a hemispherical
depression at one end. The height of the cylinder is 1.45 m and its radius is 30 cm. Find the total
surface area of the bird-bath. Ans: 3.3 m2

15. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the
cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively, and the slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the
cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of ` 500 per m2. Ans: ` 22000

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16. A toy rocket of total height 26 cm is in the shape of a cone mounted on a cylinder. The height of
the conical part is 6 cm. Diameters of the conical portion and the cylindrical portion are 5 cm and
3 cm respectively. If the conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow,
find the area of the rocket painted with each of these colors. Ans: 63.585 cm2, 195.465 cm2

17. Shanta has a shed which is in the shape of a cuboid surmounted by a half cylinder. The base of
the shed is of dimension 7 m × 15 m, and the height of the cuboidal portion is 8 m. If the
machinery in the shed occupies 300 m3, and there are 20 workers, each occupying about 0.08 m3
on an average. Then, how much air is in the shed? Ans: 827.15 m3

18. A juice seller was serving his customers using glasses. The inner diameter of the cylindrical glass
was 5 cm, but the bottom of the glass had a hemispherical raised portion which reduced the
capacity of the glass. If the height of a glass was 10 cm, find the apparent capacity of the glass
and its actual capacity. Ans: 196.25 ml, 163.54 ml

19. A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their radii being equal to 1
cm and the height of the cone is equal to its radius. Find the volume of the solid in terms of 𝜋.
Ans: π cm3

20. A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone. The height of the
cone is 2 cm and the diameter of the base is 4 cm. Determine the volume of the toy. If a right
circular cylinder circumscribes the toy, find the difference of the volumes of the cylinder and the
toy. Ans: 25.12 cm3, 25.12 cm3

21. A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 120 cm and radius 60 cm standing on a
hemisphere of radius 60 cm is placed upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it
touches the bottom. Find the volume of water left in the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 60
cm and its height is 180 cm. Ans: 1.131 m3

22. Fatema made a wax model having a cylinder with cones attached at its ends. The diameter of the
model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of wax
used. Ans: 66 cm3

23. A gulab jamun, contains sugar syrup up to about 30% of its volume. Find approximately how
much syrup would be found in 45 gulab jamuns, each shaped like a cylinder with two
hemispherical ends with length 5 cm and diameter 2.8 cm. Ans: 338 cm3

24. A pen stand made of wood is in the shape of a cuboid with four conical depressions to hold pens.
The dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of each of the
depressions is 0.5 cm and the depth is 1.4 cm. Find the volume of wood in the entire stand.
Ans: 523.53 cm3

25. A spherical glass vessel has a cylindrical neck 8 cm long, 2 cm in diameter; the diameter of the
spherical part is 8.5 cm. Find its volume. Ans: 346.51 cm3

26. A solid iron pole consists of a cylinder of height 220 cm and base diameter 24 cm, which is
surmounted by another cylinder of height 60 cm and radius 8 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given
that 1 cm3 of iron has approximately 8 g mass. Ans: 892.26 kg

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27. A cone of height 24 cm and base radius 6 cm is made up of modeling clay. A child reshapes it in
the form of a sphere. Find the radius of the sphere. Ans: 6 cm

28. A metallic sphere of radius 4.2 cm is melted and recast into a cylinder of base radius 6 cm. Find
the height of the cylinder. Ans: 2.74 cm

29. A copper rod of diameter 1 cm and length 8 cm is drawn into a wire of length 18 m of uniform
thickness. Find the thickness of the wire. Ans: 0.67mm

30. A cylindrical bucket, 32 cm high and with base radius 18 cm, is filled with sand. This bucket is
emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is
24 cm, find radius and slant height of the heap. Ans: 36 cm; 12√13 cm

31. Metallic spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, respectively, are melted to form a single solid
sphere. Find the radius of the resulting sphere. Ans: 12 cm

32. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 60 cm and height 95 cm is filled by pumping water from a
fully filled cuboidal sump of dimensions 1.57 m × 1.44 m × 95cm. Find the height of the water left
in the sump after the overhead tank has been completely filled with water. Compare the capacity
of the tank with that of the sump. Ans: 47.5 cm, the tank capacity is half the sump capacity.

33. In one fortnight of a given month, there was a rainfall of 10 cm in a river valley of area 7236 km 2. If
the total rainfall was equivalent to water contained by 3 rivers each 1072 km long & 7.5 decameter
wide, then find depth of the rivers. Ans: 3 m

34. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height same, find the
ratio of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original cylinder.

35. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. Find ratio
of their volumes. Ans: 1 : 2 : 3.

36. A cone is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the mid–point of its axis, parallel to its
base. Compare the volumes of the two parts. Ans:

37. A metallic right circular cone 20 cm high and whose vertical angle is 60° is cut into two parts at
the middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base. If the frustum so obtained be drawn into a
1
wire of diameter 16 cm, find the length of the wire. Ans: 7964.4 m

38. How many silver coins, 1.75 cm in diameter and of thickness 2 mm, must be melted to form a
cuboid of dimensions 5.5 cm × 10 cm × 3.5 cm? Ans: 400

39. Solid spheres of diameter 6 cm are dropped into a cylindrical beaker containing some water and
are fully submerged. If the diameter of the beaker is 18 cm and the water rises by 40 cm, find the
number of solid spheres dropped in the water. Ans:

40. A conical vessel of height 8 cm and the radius of its top 5 cm, is filled with water up to the brim.
When lead shots, each of which is a sphere of radius 0.5 cm are dropped into the vessel, one-
fourth of the water flows out. Find the number of lead shots dropped in the vessel.
Ans: 100

41. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44
cm, each bullet being 4 mm in diameter. Ans:

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42. A container shaped like a right circular cylinder having diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is full of
ice cream. The ice cream is to be filled into cones having a hemispherical shape on the top. Find
the number of such cones which can be filled with ice cream, if the height of conical portion is 12
cm and diameter is 6 cm Ans: 10

43. A container shaped like a right circular cylinder having diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is full of
ice cream. The ice cream is to be filled into cones having a hemispherical shape on the top. Find
the number of such cones which can be filled with ice cream, if the total height of ice cream is 12
cm and diameter is 6 cm Ans: 12

44. A 20 m deep well with diameter 7 m is dug and the earth from digging is evenly spread out to form
a platform 22 m by 14 m. Find the height of the platform. Ans: 2.5 m

45. A well of diameter 3 m is dug 14 m deep. The earth taken out of it has
been spread evenly all around it in the shape of a circular ring of width 4
m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.

Ans: 1.125 m

46. Water in a canal, 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 10 km/h. How much area
will it irrigate in 30 minutes, if 8 cm of standing water is needed?
Ans: 562500 m2 or 56.25 hectares

47. A farmer connects a pipe of internal diameter 20 cm from a canal into a cylindrical tank in her
field, which is 10 m in diameter and 2 m deep. If water flows through the pipe at the rate of 3
km/h, in how much time will the tank be filled? Ans: 100 minutes

48. A fez, the cap used by the Turks, is shaped like the frustum of a cone. If its radius on the open
side is 10 cm, radius at the upper base is 4 cm and its slant height is 15 cm, find the area of
2
material used for making it. Ans: 710 7 cm2

49. The radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone 45 cm high are 28 cm and 7 cm. Find its volume.
Ans: 48510 cm3

50. A glass is in the shape of a frustum of a cone of height 14 cm. The diameters of its two circular
2
ends are 4 cm and 2 cm. Find the capacity of the glass. Ans: 102 3 cm3

51. Slant height of a frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the circumferences of its circular ends are 18 cm
and 6 cm. Find the curved surface area of the frustum. Ans: 48 cm2

52. The radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone 45 cm high are 28 cm and 7 cm. Find its curved
surface area and the total surface area. Ans: 5461.5 cm2, 8079.5 cm2

53. A metal container, opened from the top, is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with
radii of its lower and upper ends as 8 cm and 20 cm, respectively. Find the cost of metal sheet
used to make the container, if it costs ` 8 per 100 cm2. Ans: ` 156.75

54. A container, opened from the top, is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with radii of
its lower and upper ends as 8 cm and 20 cm, respectively. Find the cost of the milk which can
completely fill the container, at the rate of ` 20 per liter. Ans: ` 209

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55. A sweet is in the shape of a frustum of a cone having the diameters of its two circular faces as 30
cm and 35 cm and the vertical height 14 cm. If each cm3 of sweet has mass about 1.2 gms, find
the mass of one piece. Ans: 13.97 kg

56. A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of a frustum of a cone surmounted on a
hemisphere. The external diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm, the height of the entire
shuttle cock is 7 cm. Find the external surface area. Ans:

57. An open metal bucket is in the shape of a frustum of a cone, mounted on a hollow cylindrical
base. The diameters of the two circular ends are 45 cm and 25 cm, the total vertical height of the
bucket is 40 cm and that of the cylindrical base is 6 cm. Find the area of the metal sheet used and
capacity of the bucket. Ans: 4860.9 cm2, 33615.48 cm3 = 33.62 liters

58. An oil funnel made of tin sheet consists of a 10 cm long cylindrical portion attached to a frustum of
a cone. If the total height is 22 cm, diameter of the cylindrical portion is 8 cm and the diameter of
the top of the funnel is 18 cm, find the area of the tin sheet required to make the funnel.

59. Derive the formula for the curved surface area and total surface area of the frustum of a cone.

60. Derive the formula for the volume of the frustum of a cone.

HOTS

61. A copper wire, 3 mm in diameter, is wound about a cylinder whose length is 12 cm, and diameter
10 cm, so as to cover the curved surface of the cylinder. Find the length and mass of the wire,
assuming the density of copper to be 8.88 g per cm3. Ans: 12.56 m; 787.98 g

62. A right triangle, whose sides are 3 cm and 4 cm (other than hypotenuse) is made to revolve about
its hypotenuse. Find the volume and surface area of the double cone so formed.
Ans: 30.14 cm3; 52.75 cm2

63. A cistern, internally measuring 150 cm × 120 cm × 110 cm, has 129600 cm 3 of water in it. Porous
bricks are placed in the water until the cistern is full to the brim. Each brick absorbs one-
seventeenth of its own volume of water. How many bricks can be put in without overflowing the
water, each brick being 22.5 cm × 7.5 cm × 6.5 cm? Ans: 1792

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19. Statistics
Steps to find mean by table:

(i) Upper limit – Lower limit = h

(ii) Check whether ‘h’ is same for all classes? If yes, then proceed.

(iii) Make x-column.

h
(iv) First x-entry = Lower limit + 2

(v) To get other x-entries, go on adding ‘h’. i.e.

2nd x-entry = 1st x-entry + h
3rd x-entry = 2nd x-entry + h
4th x-entry = 3rd x-entry + h and so on ……….

(vi) Make d-column.

(vii) Pick up ‘a’ from x entries (normally middle most &/or most frequent).

(viii) d-entry adjoining to a-x-entry = 0

(ix) To get d-entries above zero, go on subtracting h. i.e.

above 0 are → (– h), (– 2h), (– 3h), (– 4h) and so on ……….

(x) To get d-entries below zero, go on adding h. i.e.

below 0 are → h, 2h, 3h, 4h and so on ……….

(xi) Make u-column.

(xii) u-entry adjoining to 0-d-entry = 0

(xiii) To get u-entries above zero, go on subtracting 1. i.e.

above 0 are → (– 1), (– 2), (– 3), (– 4) and so on ……….

(xiv) To get u-entries below zero, go on adding 1. i.e.

below 0 are → 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on ……….

(xv) Make fu-column.

(xvi) To get fu-entries, multiply f with respective u.

(xvii) Get N = sum of f-entries.

(xviii) Get Ʃfu = sum of fu-entries.

Ʃ𝑓𝑢
(xix) Apply formula: Mean = 𝑥̅ = 𝑎 + [ ] ( h)
𝑁

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Steps to find median:

𝑁
(i) Search cf-entry ≥ nearest to it.
2

(ii) Consider respective class as median class.

(iii) Draw following grid:

Cumulative frequency of preceding
class (cf)
Median class Frequency
(L – U) (f)

𝑁
− (cf)
(iv) Apply formula: Median = 𝐿 + [ 2 ] ( h)
𝑓

Steps to find mode:

(i) Consider class with highest frequency as model class.

(ii) Draw following grid:

𝑓0
Model class (L
𝑓1
– U)
𝑓2

𝑓1 − 𝑓0
(iii) Apply formula: Mode = 𝐿 + [ ] ( h)
2𝑓1 −𝑓0 −𝑓2

1. Name the three measures of central tendency.

2. Name the measure of central tendency which can be found graphically.

3. Sum of 13 items is 5 and the sum of the other 7 items is 8. If all these items are mixed, then what
will be the new arithmetic mean?

4. Arithmetic mean of 13 items is 5 and mean of the remaining 7 items is 8. If all these items are
mixed, find the new mean.

5. 5 items of arithmetic mean 9 and 7 items of arithmetic mean 4 are mixed with 8 items. What
should be the arithmetic mean of these 8 items so that the mean of all the items is 6.85?

6. The table below shows the number of wickets taken by bowlers. Find the mean no. of wickets.

No. of wickets 20-60 60-100 100-150 150-250 250-350 350-450

No. of bowlers 7 5 16 12 2 3
Ans: 152.89 wickets

7. Find the mean no. of days a student was absent from the following absentee record of a class.

No. of absents 0-6 6-10 10-14 14-20 20-28 28-38 38-40

No. of students 11 10 7 4 4 3 1
Ans: 12.38 days

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8. The table below gives the % of female teachers in various states of India. Find the mean
percentage of female teachers by all the three methods.

Percentage of female teachers 15-25 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65 65-75 75-85
Number of states 6 11 7 4 4 2 1

Ans: 39.71%

9. Find the mean daily expenditure on food of 25 households given in the table below.

Daily expenditure (in `) 100-150 150-200 200-250 250-300 300-350

Number of households 6 11 7 4 4

Ans: ` 211

10. Find the mean literacy rate (in percentage) of 35 cities given in the following table:

Literacy rate (in %) 45-55 55-65 65-75 75-85 85-95

Number of cities 3 10 11 8 3
Ans: 69.43%

11. The following table gives the life time of 400 neon lamps. Find the mean life time of a lamp.

Life time (in 100 hrs) 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50
Number of lamps 14 56 60 86 74 62 48
Ans:

12. A group of 10 items has arithmetic mean 6. If the arithmetic mean of 4 of these items is 7.5, find
the mean of the remaining items. Ans: 5

13. Find the median of the following data, which gives the marks obtained by 100 students in a test:

Marks obtained 20 29 28 33 42 38 43 25
Number of students 6 28 24 15 2 4 1 20
Ans: 28.5

14. Find the median of the following data, which gives the heights (in cm) of 51 girls of Class X:

Height Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
(in cm) 140 145 150 155 160 165
No. of girls 4 11 29 40 46 51
Ans: 149.03cm

15. The wickets taken by a bowler in 10 cricket matches are as follows: 2, 6, 4, 5, 0, 2, 1, 3, 2, 3.

Find the mode of the data. Ans: 2 wickets

16. The following table shows marks obtained by 30 students. Find the mean and median of the data.

Marks obtained 10 20 36 40 50 56 60 70 72 80 88 92 95
No. of students 1 1 3 4 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 3 1
Ans: 59.3, 58

17. The table below gives the monthly consumption of electricity of 70 consumers of a locality.
Find the mean and median of the data.

Consumption units 65-85 85-105 105-125 125-145 145-165 165-185 185-205

No. of consumers 4 5 13 22 14 8 4
Ans: 137, 137

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18. The table below gives daily wages of 50 workers of a factory. Find the mean and the mode.

Daily wages (in `) 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180-200

Number of workers 12 14 8 6 10
Ans: ` 145.20, ` 125

19. Find the median and mode of the following data, which gives the marks obtained by 53 students:

Marks obtained 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90 90-100
No. of student 5 3 4 3 3 4 7 9 7 8

Ans: 66.4, 75

20. Find the mean, median and modal lifetimes of the electrical components as per following data:

Lifetimes (in hours) 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100 100-120

Frequency 10 35 52 61 38 29

Ans: 65.02, 65.08, 65.625

21. Find the mean, median and mode of the data.

Family Size 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9-11

No. of families 7 8 2 2 1
Ans:

22. 100 surnames were randomly picked up and the frequency distribution of the number of letters in
the surnames was obtained as follows. Find the mean, median and mode of the data.

Number of letters 1-4 4-7 7-10 10-13 13-16 16-19

Number of surnames 6 30 40 16 4 4
Ans:

23. The Arithmetic Mean of the following frequency distribution is 47. Determine the value of p.

Classes 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100

Frequency 8 15 20 p 5
Ans:

24. Find the missing frequency f, if the mean daily pocket allowance in the table below is ` 18.

Daily pocket allowance (in `) 11-13 13-15 15-17 17-19 19-21 21-23 23-25
Number of children 7 6 9 13 f 5 4
Ans: 20

25. The table below shows the varying no. of mangoes contained by no. of boxes. Find the mean no.
of mangoes kept in a box if median is 57.18 and mode is 57.3.

No. of mangoes 50-52 53-55 56-58 59-61 62-64

No. of boxes 20 115 30
Ans: 57.1875

26. The table below shows the number of plants in various houses. Find the median, if the mean and
mode of the data are 8.1 and 8.4 respectively.

Number of plants 0-2 2-4 4-6 6-8 8-10 10-12 12-14

Number of houses 1 1 5 6 3
Ans: 8.33

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27. Following frequency table shows the number of family members in families. Find the mode of this
data, if mean is 4.2 and median is 3.75.

Family size 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9-11

Number of families 7 8 2
Ans: 3.286

28. The table below gives the teacher-student ratio in 35 schools of India. Find the mean and mode of
the data, if median is 28.61

No. of students/teacher 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50 50-55
Number of states 3 9 10 3 0 2

Ans: 29.21, 30.625

29. The table below shows the number of runs scored by 50 top batsmen. Find the median and mode
of the data, if mean is 5800.

Runs scored
3–4 4–5 5–6 6–7 7–8 8–9 9 – 10 10 – 11
(in thousands)
Number of batsmen 4 18 9 7 6 1

Ans: 5333.33, 4608.7

30. The table below gives number of heart beats per minute of 30 men. Find the mean heart beats
per minute if median is 76.25 and mode is 76.5.

Number of heart beats per minute 65-68 68-71 71-74 74-77 77-80 80-83 83-86
Number of men 2 3 7 2

Ans: 75.9

31. The table below shows concentration of SO2 in the air (in parts per million, i.e. ppm) for 30 cities.
Find the mean concentration of SO2 in the air, if median and mode are 0.096 ppm and 0.095 ppm
respectively.

Concentration of SO2
0.00-0.04 0.04-0.08 0.08-0.12 0.12-0.16 0.16-0.20 0.20-0.24
(in ppm)
Frequency 5 10 5

Ans: 0.1 ppm

32. The data shows lengths of leaves of a plant whose median is 146.75 mm and mode is 147.2 mm.
Find mean length of the leaves.

Length (in mm) 118-126 127-135 136-144 145-153 154-162 163-171 172-180
Number of leaves 3 5 9 12 5 4 2

Ans: 146.975 mm

33. The distribution below gives the weights of 30 students of a class. Find the median weight of the
students, if mean is 61.8 kg and mode is 56.5 kg.

Weight (in kg) 40-46 46-52 52-58 58-64 64-70 70-76 76-82
Number of students 2 8 5 4

Ans: 61 kg

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34. The distribution below gives the marks obtained by 50 students of a class. Find the mean marks
of the students, if median is 34 and mode is 35.4.
Marks obtained 13-20 20-27 27-34 34-41 41-48 48-55
Number of students 5 12 9

Ans: 33.58

35. The table below shows the no. of cars passing through a point for 100 periods each of 3 minutes.
Find the mode of the data, if mean is 40.7 and median is 42.

Number of cars 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
Frequency 7 14 12 20 8

Ans:

36. Find the median no. of stars earned by students of a class, if mean is 55.7 and mode is 63.

No. of stars 26-35 35-44 44-53 53-62 62-71 71-80

No. of students 7 11 14 18 19 11
Ans: 57

37. Find the mean no. of trees in 64 streets of a town, if median is 25.8 and mode is 24.25.

No. of trees 19-22 22-25 25-28 28-31 31-34 34-37

No. of streets 17 10 4
Ans: 26.359375 trees

38. The distribution below gives the ages (in years) of 40 scholars attending a seminar. Find the
mode of the data, if mean is 44.25 years and median is 44 years.

Ages (in years) 25-32 32-39 39-46 46-53 53-60 60-67

Number of scholars 5 4 3
Ans: 44.6 years

39. The total frequency of the following data is 100. Find A, B, C and D, if the mean is 522, median is
525 and mode is 537.5

0- 100- 200- 300- 400- 500- 600- 700- 800- 900-

Class interval
100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000
Frequency 2 A 9 12 17 B 15 C 7 D
Ans: 5, 20, 9, 4

40. Find A, B, C and D, if the mean of 60 samples is 29cm, median is 28.5cm and mode is 28cm.

Lengths (in cm) 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60

No. of samples A 8 B 17 C D
Ans: 5, 20, 5, 5

41. The table below gives monthly expenditure of 200 families. Find A, B, C and D, if mean is ` 2655,
median is ` 2550 and mode is ` 1850.

Expenditure (in thousand `) 1-1.5 1.5-2 2-2.5 2.5-3 3-3.5 3.5-4 4-4.5 4.5-5
Number of families A 39 33 B 28 C 16 D

Ans: 25, 30, 22, 7

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42. A life insurance agent found the following data for distribution of ages of 100 policy holders.
Calculate the median age, if policies are given only to persons having age 18 years onwards but
less than 60 year.

Below Below Below Below Below Below Below Below Below

Age (in years)
20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
No of policy holders 2 6 24 45 78 89 92 98 100

Ans:

43. The following distribution gives the daily income of workers of a factory. Draw a less than ogive.

Daily income (in `) 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180-200

Number of workers 12 14 8 6 10
Ans:

44. Draw a less than ogive for the given data and hence obtain median:

Height (in cm) 145-150 150-155 155-160 160-165 165-170

No. of persons 8 10 9 15 5
Ans:

45. The table below shows the profits earned by 30 shops. Draw both ogives and hence find the
median profit. Verify the result by the formula.

More More More More More More More

Profit (in lakhs `)
than 5 than 10 than 15 than 20 than 25 than 30 than 35
Number of shops 30 28 16 14 10 7 3

Ans:

46. Find the median weight from less than type ogive and verify the result by the formula.

Below Below Below Below Below Below Below Below

Weight (in kg)
38 40 42 44 46 48 50 52
Number of students 0 3 5 9 14 28 32 35

Ans:

47. Find the median from less than type ogive and verify the result by using the formula

More More More More More More More

No. of tree plantation / hectare
than 53 than 58 than 63 than 68 than 73 than 78 than 83
Number of towns 50 45 37 29 19 12 5

Ans:

48. Find the median from more than type ogive and verify the result by using the formula

Production yield of wheat (in kg/ hectare) 50-55 55-60 60-65 65-70 70-75 75-80
Number of farms 2 8 12 24 38 16

Ans:

49. What does abscissa of point of intersection of ‘less than’ ogive and ‘more than’ ogive represent?

50. Find the median of the data whose ‘less than’ ogive and ‘more than’ ogive intersect at (25.7, 42).

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51. Find the mode of the data whose mean and median are respectively 20 and 20.

52. The table below gives height of 70 plant samples. Find A, B, C and D, if mean is 74.563 cm,
median is 73.1 cm and mode is 74.78 cm.

71.7 – 72.4 – 73.1 – 73.8 – 74.5 – 75.2 – 75.9 – 76.6 –

Height (in cm)
72.4 73.1 73.8 74.5 75.2 75.9 76.6 77.3
No. of plant samples 5 A 10 B 14 11 C D

Ans: 8, 12, 6, 4

53. The table below gives height of 50 plants. Find A, B, C and D, if mean is 16.796 m, median is
16.85 m and mode is 17 m.

Height (in m) 13.7 –14.6 14.6 –15.5 15.5 –16.4 16.4 –17.3 17.3 –18.2 18.2 –19.1 19.1 –20.0
No of plants A 7 B 12 C D 3

Ans: 4, 8, 10, 6

54. What does abscissa of point of intersection of ‘less than’ ogive and ‘more than’ ogive represent?

55. The table below shows marks of 50 students. Find A, B, C and D, if mean is 45.6, median is 45
and mode is 43.

Marks 35 – 38 38 – 41 41 – 44 44 – 47 47 – 50 50 – 53 53 – 56
No of students A B 17 12 10 C D

Ans:

56. The table below gives height of 50 plants. Find A, B, C and D, if mean is 48.602 cm, median is
48.525 cm and mode is 48.36 cm.

Height (in cm) 45.5-46.6 46.6-47.7 47.7-48.8 48.8-49.9 49.9-51.0 51.0-52.1 52.1-53.2
No of plants 7 A B 10 C 3 D

Ans: 9, 12, 8, 1

57. The table below gives number of runs made by 50 players. Find A, B, C and D, if mean is 21.6
runs, median is 22 runs and mode is 23.25 runs.

Runs made 7-12 12-17 17-22 22-27 27-32 32-37

Number of players A B 12 15 C D
Ans: 5, 8, 6, 4

58. The table below gives weight of 25 goats. Find mode, if mean is 32.5 kg and median is 32.6875
kg.

Weight (in kg) 25-28 28-31 31-34 34-37 37-40

No. of goats 5 7
Ans: 33.25 kg.

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20. Probability
1. Define theoretical probability.
Ans: The theoretical (classical) probability of an event E, written as P(E), is defined as
Number of outcomes favourable to E
P (E) =
Number of all possible outcomes of the experiment
where we assume that the outcomes of the experiment are equally likely. This definition of probability
was given by Pierre Simon Laplace in 1795.

2. What is the difference between experimental probability and theoretical probability?

Ans: The experimental or empirical probability of an event is based on what has actually happened
while the theoretical or classical probability of the event attempts to predict what will happen on the
basis of certain assumptions. As the number of trials in an experiment, go on increasing we may
expect the experimental and theoretical probabilities to be nearly the same.

3. What is a sure event?

Ans: The probability of a sure event (or certain event) is 1.

4. What is an impossible event?

Ans: The probability of an impossible event is 0.

5. What are possible values of P(E)?

Ans: The probability of an event E is a number P(E) such that 0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1.

6. What is an elementary event?

Ans: An event having only one outcome is called an elementary event. The sum of the probabilities of
all the elementary events of an experiment is 1.

7. What are complementary events?

Ans: For any event E, P (E) + P (E’) = 1, where E’ stands for ‘not E’. E and E’ are called
complementary events.

8. Why is tossing a coin considered to be a fair way of deciding which team should get the ball at the
beginning of a football game?
Ans: When we toss a coin, the outcomes head and tail are equally likely. So, the result of an
individual coin toss is completely unpredictable.

9. Which of the following experiments have equally likely outcomes? Explain.

(i) A driver attempts to start a car. The car starts or does not start.
(ii) A player attempts to shoot a basketball. She/he shoots or misses the shot.
(iii) A trial is made to answer a true-false question. The answer is right or wrong.
(iv) A baby is born. It is a boy or a girl. Ans: (iii) and (iv)

10. Complete the following statements:

(i) Probability of an event E + Probability of the event ‘not E’ = ______
(ii) The probability of an event that cannot happen is ______. Such an event is called ______
(iii) The probability of an event that is certain to happen is ______.Such an event is called ______
(iv) The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is ______
(v) The probability of an event is greater than or equal to ______ and less than or equal to ______.
Ans: (i) 1 (ii) 0, impossible event (iii) 1, sure or certain event (iv) 1 (v) 0, 1

11. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

(A) 2 3 (B) –1.5 (C) 15% (D) 0.7 Ans: B
1
12. If a coin is tossed once, then find the probability of getting a head. Ans: 2

13. If a coin is tossed twice, then find the probability of getting at most two heads. Ans:

14. If a coin is tossed twice, then find the probability of getting at least one tail. Ans:
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15. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, then find the probability of getting at least one head.
3
Ans:
4

16. A coin is tossed thrice. Hanif wins if all the tosses give the same result i.e., three heads or three tails,
3
and loses otherwise. Find the probability that Hanif will lose the game. Ans: 4

17. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a prime even number. Ans:

18. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a number 8. Ans: 0

19. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a number less than 7. Ans: 1

20. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a number other than 3. Ans:
1
21. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a number greater than 4. Ans:
3

2
22. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a number less than or = to 4 Ans:
3

1
23. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a prime number. Ans: 2

1
24. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting a number lying between 2 & 6. Ans: 2

1
25. If a die is rolled once, then find the probability of getting an odd number. Ans: 2

26. If a die is rolled twice, then find the probability of getting a doublet. Ans:

27. If a die is rolled twice, then find the probability of getting a pair of prime numbers. Ans:
25
28. If a die is rolled twice, then find the probability that 5 will not come up either time. Ans: 36

11
29. If a die is rolled twice, then find the probability that 5 will come up at least once. Ans: 36

30. If a pair of two dice is rolled once, then find the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing
5
on the top of the dice is 8. Ans: 36

31. If a pair of two dice is rolled once, then find the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing
on the top of the dice is 13. Ans: 0

32. If a pair of two dice is rolled once, then find the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing
on the top of the dice is less than or equal to 12. Ans: 1

33. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting a black
1
king? Ans: 26

34. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting an ace.
1
Ans: 13

35. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of not getting an
12
ace. Ans: 13

36. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting neither a
club nor a jack. Ans:

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37. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting a face
3
card. Ans: 13

38. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting a red
3
face card. Ans: 26

39. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting a spade.
1
Ans: 4

40. If one card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, then find the probability of getting the
1
queen of diamonds. Ans: 52

41. A bag contains 1 red ball, 1 blue ball and 1 yellow ball. If Maya takes out a ball from the bag, then find
1 1 1
the probability that it will be (i) yellow, (ii) red, (iii) blue. Ans: (i) 3 , (ii) 3 , (iii) 3

42. A box contains 3 blue, 2 white and 4 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random from the box, then
2 1 4
find the probability that it will be (i) white, (ii) blue, (iii) red. Ans: (i) 9 , (ii) 3 , (iii) 9

43. A bag contains 3 red and 5 black balls. If a ball is drawn at random from the bag, then find the
3 5
probability that it will be (i) red, (ii) not red. Ans: (i) 8 (ii) 8

44. A box contains 5 red, 8 white and 4 green marbles. If a marble is taken out of the box at random, then
5 8 13
find the probability that it will be (i) red, (ii) white, (iii) not green. Ans: (i) 17 (ii) 17 (iii) 17

45. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball is double that
of a red ball, determine the number of blue balls in the bag. Ans: 10

46. A box contains 12 balls out of which x are black. If one ball is drawn at random from the box, what is
the probability that it will be a black ball? If 6 more black balls are put in the box, the probability of
x
drawing a black ball is now double of what it was before. Find x. Ans: 12, 3

47. A jar contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random from
2
the jar, the probability that it is green is 3 Find the number of blue balls in the jar. Ans: 8

48. A piggy bank contains hundred 50p coins, fifty Re 1 coins, twenty Rs 2 coins and ten Rs 5 coins. If it
is equally likely that one of the coins will fall out when the bank is turned upside down, what is the
5 17
probability that the coin (i) will be a 50 p coin? (ii) will not be a Rs 5 coin? Ans: (i) 9 (ii) 18

49. If P(E) = 0.05, what is the probability of ‘not E’? Ans: 0.95

50. If probability of happening of an event is 0.09, then what is the probability of not happening of that
event? Ans:

51. Two players, Sania and Rekha, play a tennis match. It is known that the probability of Sania winning
the match is 0.62. What is the probability of Rekha winning the match? Ans: 0.38

52. It is given that in a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students not having the same birthday is
0.992. What is the probability that the 2 students have the same birthday? Ans: 0.008

53. There are 48 students in a class of which 18 are girls, find the probability of selecting a boy.
Ans:

54. There are 25 girls and 15 boys in a Class. Teacher has to select one student as captain. What is the
5 3
probability that the selected student is (i) a girl? (ii) a boy? Ans: (i) , (ii)
8 8

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55. Geeta buys a fish from a shop for her aquarium. She takes out one fish at
random from a tank containing 5 male fish and 8 female fish. What is the
probability that the fish taken out is a male fish?
5
Ans:
13

56. A carton consists of 100 shirts of which 88 are good, 8 have minor defects and 4 have major defects.
Jimmy will only accept good shirts, but Sujatha will only reject the shirts which have major defects.
One shirt is drawn at random from the carton. What is the probability that (i) it is acceptable to Jimmy?
(ii) it is acceptable to Sujatha? Ans: (i) 0.88, (ii) 0.96

57. 12 defective pens are accidentally mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a pen
and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot. Determine the
11
probability that the pen taken out is a good one. Ans: 12

58. (i) A lot of 20 bulbs contain 4 defective ones. One bulb is drawn at random from the lot. What is the
probability that this bulb is defective?
(ii) Suppose the bulb drawn in (i) is not defective and is not replaced. Now one bulb is drawn at
1 15
random from the rest. What is the probability that this bulb is not defective? Ans: (i) 5 (ii) 19

59. A lot consists of 144 pens of which 20 are defective. Nuri will buy a pen if it is good, but will not buy if
it is defective. The shopkeeper draws one pen at random and gives it to her. What is the probability
31 5
that (i) She will buy it? (ii) She will not buy it? Ans: (i) 36 (ii) 36

60. In a musical chair game, the person playing the music has been advised to stop playing the music at
any time within 2 minutes after she starts playing. What is the probability that the music will stop
1
within the first half-minute after starting? Ans: 4

61. A missing helicopter is reported to have crashed somewhere in the

rectangular region shown in the fig. What is the probability that it
crashed inside the lake shown in the figure?
5
Ans: 27

62. Suppose you drop a die at random on the rectangular region shown in the
fig. What is the probability that it will land inside the circle with diameter
1m?
π
Ans: 24

63. A game consists of spinning an arrow which comes to rest pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
6, 7, 8, and these are equally likely outcomes. Find the probability that it will point at
(i) 8, (ii) an odd no., (iii) a no. greater than 2, (iv) a no. less than 9.
1 1 3
Ans: (i) 8 (ii) 2 (iii) 4 (iv) 1

64. A bag contains lemon candies only. If Rajesh takes out one candy randomly from the bag, then find
the probability that it will be (i) an orange candy, (ii) a lemon candy. Ans: (i) 0 (ii) 1

65. A box contains discs numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, find the
probability that it bears (i) a two-digit no. (ii) a perfect square (iii) a no. divisible by 5.
9 1 1
Ans: (i) 10 (ii) 10 (iii) 5

66. One box contains some marbles of red and blue and 10 marbles of white colour. One marble is taken
1 1
out randomly. If probabilities of it being red and blue are 4 and 3 respectively, then find: (i) total
number of balls in the box and (ii) probability of it being white

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67. Check correctness of the argument: If two coins are tossed simultaneously, then there are three
possible outcomes — two heads, two tails or one of each. Therefore, for each of these outcomes, the
1
probability is 3
Ans: Incorrect. We can classify the outcomes like this but they are not then ‘equally likely’. Reason is
that ‘one of each’ can result in two ways — from a head on first coin and tail on the second coin or
from a tail on the first coin and head on the second coin.

68. Check correctness of the argument: If a single die is rolled, then there are two possible outcomes —
1
an odd number or an even number. Therefore, the probability of getting an odd number is 2.
Ans: Correct. The two outcomes considered in the question are equally likely.

69. Check correctness of the argument: If a pair of two dice is rolled once, then there are 11 possible
1
outcomes — 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12. Therefore, each of them has a probability 11.
Ans: No. The eleven sums are not equally likely.

70. A child has a die whose six faces show the letters as: A B C D E A. The die is thrown once. What is
1 1
the probability of getting (i) A? (ii) D? Ans: (i) 3 (ii) 6

71. The faces of a die show the numbers 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 6. It is rolled twice and the total score is noted. Find
1 1 5
the probability that the total score is (i) even, (ii) 6, (iii) at least 6. Ans: (i) 2 (ii) 9 (iii) 12

72. A coin is tossed once. If it results in a tail, a dice is thrown and if it results in a head, a coin is tossed
again. Write the possible outcomes.

73. The ten, jack, queen, king and ace of diamonds are well-shuffled. One card is drawn out of this deck
and found to be queen which is put aside and then another card is picked up at random. Find the
1
probability that the second card picked up is (i) an ace, (ii) a queen. Ans: (i) (ii) 0
4

74. King and queen of spade are removed from a deck of 52 cards and then a card is drawn, what will be
the probability of getting a red king? Ans:

75. Shyam and Ekta are visiting a shop in the same week (Tuesday to Saturday). Each is equally likely to
visit the shop on any day as on another day. Find the probability that both will visit the shop on (i) the
1 8 4
same day, (ii) consecutive days, (iii) different days. Ans: (i) 5, (ii) 25, (iii) 5

1
76. Find the probability that two people have same birthday. Ans:
365

364
77. Find the probability that two people have different birthday. Ans:
365

78. Find the probability of getting 5 Mondays in the January.

79. Find the probability of getting 53 Fridays in a leap year.

80. Find the probability of getting 53 Tuesdays in a non-leap year.

81. A bag contains 18 balls out of which X balls are red.

(i) If one ball is drawn at random from the bag, what is the probability that it is red.
(ii) If 2 more red balls are put in the bag, the probability of drawing a red ball will be 9/8 times than that
in part (i). Find x.

82. A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times. Hanif wins if he gets three heads or three tails and loses
otherwise. Find the probability that Hanif will lose the game.

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