Physics wallah

Patna

AIATS
NEET-UG - Biology
Time Allowed: 1 hour and 20 minutes Maximum Marks: 300
1. Which of the following is a partial root parasite? [4]

a) Orobanche b) Mistletoe

c) Sandal wood d) Ganoderma

2. Species facing competition might evolve a mechanism that promotes co-existence rather [4]
than exclusion and that mechanism can be:

a) Resource partitioning b) Competitive release

c) Intraspecific competition d) Interspecific competition

3. Asexual reproduction by zoospores is observed in: [4]

a) Sponge b) Penicillium

c) Chlamydomonas d) Hydra

4. Studies had revealed that human population growth curve is: [4]

a) S-shaped b) F-shaped

c) J-shaped d) U-shaped

5. Association of animals when both partners are benefitted is called ________. [4]

a) Commensalism b) Ammensalism

c) Colony d) Mutualism

6. Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in its life time? [4]

a) Tomato b) Bamboo

c) Mango d) Eucalyptus

7. Which of the following is a major cause of reduction in gene pool? [4]

a) Reproductive isolation b) Genetic mutation

c) Breeding programmes d) Genetic drift

8. Interaction between Anabaena and Azolla is of: [4]

 a) parasitism b) mutualism

c) amensalism d) commensalism

9. Which of the following could be most intense and strongest? [4]

a) interspecific competition b) intraspecific competition

c) natural selection d) intercommunity competition

10. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national parks and sanctuaries? [4]

a) Pug marks and faecal pellets b) Pug marks only

c) Actual head counts d) Faecal pellets only

11. Autecology is the: [4]

a) Relation of heterogenous b) Relation of an individual to its

populations to its environment environment

c) Relation of a biome to its d) Relation of a community to its

environment environment.

12. In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008 died [4]
during the year. Using exponential equation, the number of people present in 2015 is
predicted as:

a) 18 millions b) 25 millions

c) 17 millions d) 20 millions

13. Exponential growth pattern in a population result into: [4]

a) Sigmoid curve b) J-shaped curve

c) L-shaped curve d) U-shaped curve

14. At high altitudes our body compensates for deficiency of oxygen by [4]

a) Decreasing rate of breathing b) Reducing the rate of respiration

within cells

c) Increasing white blood cell d) Reducing affinity of Hb for oxygen

production binding

15. What will happen to a well-growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside [4]
the forest in a park?

a) It may not survive because of b) It grows very well because the plant
change in its micro climate gets more sunlight
 c) It will grow normally d) It will grow well because it is planted
in the same locality

16. Lichens are association of: [4]

a) Alga and bacterium b) Algae (Cyanobacteria) and fungus

c) Fungus and alga d) Fungus and virus

17. Which of the following forest plants controls the light conditions at the ground? [4]

a) Lianas and climbers b) Tall trees

c) Herbs d) Shrubs

18. If 7 new plants are added to previous year plant population of 23 Salvinia plants then the birth [4]
rate will be:

a) 0.5 b) 0.4

c) 0.3 d) 0.25

19. Biosphere is: [4]

a) composed of the plants present in b) life in the outer space

the soil

c) a component in the ecosystem d) composed of all living organisms

present on earth which interact with
the physical environment

20. In Competition, the superior competitor eliminates the inferior one, this statement is called: [4]

a) Allen’s rule b) Darwinian fitness

c) Living ability d) Gause’s principle

21. An age pyramid showing declining population is: [4]

a) Bell shaped age pyramid b) S-shaped age pyramid

c) Triangular age pyramid d) Urn shaped age pyramid

22. Select the statement which explains best parasitism. [4]

a) One organism is benefited. b) One organism is benefited, other is

affected

c) Both the organisms are benefited d) One organism is benefited, other is

not affected
23. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss [4]
indicates_______.

a) Gause’s population exclusion b) Shelford’s law of tolerance

principle

c) Edge species d) Allen’s rule

24. Population ecology makes link with: [4]

a) Population genetics and evolution b) Only population genetics

c) Evolution and origin of life d) Population genetics and inheritance

25. Phytophagous insects will be categorized as [4]

a) Parasites b) Competitors

c) Vectors d) Predators

26. Which of the following is not a producer? [4]

a) Agaricus b) Spirogyra

c) Nostoc d) Volvox

27. The amount of energy flow in an ecosystem generally: [4]

a) Decreases at each higher trophic b) Remains same at each trophic level

level

c) Is different in different food chains d) Increase at each higher trophic level

28. Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of [4]

a) Economic, environmental and b) Only aesthetic goods and services.

aesthetic goods and services.

c) Only economic services. d) Only economic goods.

29. The primary productivity in an ecosystem is expressed as: [4]

a) gm-2yr b) gm-2yr-1

c) K cal m-2yr-1 d) K cal m-2

30. Among desert plants, which of the following will become limiting for primary production? [4]

a) Light b) Water

c) Chlorophyll d) Temperature
31. In a pond ecosystem, the food chain starts with: [4]

a) Phytoplanktons b) Small insects

c) Small fishes d) Zooplanktons

32. The metabolic process which causes a reduction in gross primary production: [4]

a) Excretion b) Respiration

c) Transportation d) Digestion

33. Which one of the following is the most important service provided by ecosystems? [4]

a) soil formation b) aesthetic values

c) pollination d) water purification

34. Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of: [4]
i. (kcal m–3) yr–1
ii. g–2 yr–1
iii. g–1 yr–1
iv. (kcal m–2) yr–1

a) i and iii b) ii

c) iii d) ii and iv

35. Dead parts of plants and animals that fall on the earth surface constitute: [4]

a) Humus b) Litter

c) Detritus d) Detritivore

36. Which one of the following is not a major component of the ecosystem? [4]

a) Decomposition b) Energy flow

c) Stratification d) Nutrient cycling

37. Zone of Earth occupied by living organisms is called: [4]

a) Flora and Fauna b) Biosphere

c) Ecosystem d) Biome

38. Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to [4]
chemical energy by photosynthesis?

a) 1-5% b) Less than 1%

 c) 30% d) 50%

39. The product of ecosystem processes are called as: [4]

a) Ecological benefits b) Ecosystem services

c) Economic services d) Biological services

40. The first order consumers are called: [4]

a) Herbivores b) Chemotrophs

c) Producers d) Autotrophs

41. Among the following, where do you think the process of decomposition would be the fastest? [4]

a) Alpine region b) Antarctic

c) Dry arid region d) Tropical rain forest

42. Which of the following is correct: [4]

A. GPP – R = NPP
B. NPP – R = GPP
C. GPP + NPP = R
D. NPP – GPP = R

a) D b) B

c) A d) C

43. If we remove half of the forest cover of earth the crisis that will occur: [4]

a) Many species would become b) Population, pollution and ecological

extinct. imbalance will rise.

c) Energy crisis will commence. d) The remaining forest will correct the
imbalance.

44. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem? [4]

a) Tundra b) Grass land

c) Forest d) Marine

45. Pyramid of numbers is: [4]

a) Always upright b) Ether upright or inverted

c) Always inverted d) Neither upright nor inverted

46. Secondary producers are [4]

 a) Herbivores b) Producers

c) None of these d) Carnivores

47. The second trophic level in a lake is [4]

a) Phytoplankton b) Zooplankton

c) Benthos d) Fishes

48. What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR), in the incident solar [4]
radiation?

a) 100 % b) 1-5%

c) 2-10% d) 50%

49. Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary production? [4]

a) Tropical rain forests b) Estuaries

c) Oceans d) Deserts

50. Which one of the following is not an ecological pyramid? [4]

a) Pyramid of standing crop b) Pyramid of energy

c) Pyramid of biomass d) Pyramid of number

51. The earth summit (1992) was held at: [4]

a) Japan b) Rio-de Janeiro

c) South Africa d) Johannesburg

52. Buffer zone in biosphere reserve is zone for: [4]

a) Forestry b) Agriculture

c) Tourism and restoration d) Research and education

53. Conserving biodiversity provides major contribution to economy as: [4]

a) Ecopurification b) Waste decomposition

c) Climate stabilization d) Ecotourism

54. Diversity can be promoted by: [4]

a) Fugitive species b) Pioneer species

c) Recessive species d) Dominant species

55. Which one of the following groups faces maximum threat of extinction? [4]

a) Amphibian b) Birds

c) Gymnosperms d) Mammals

56. __________ is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots. [4]

a) Lesser interspecific competition b) Endemism

c) Loss of diversity d) Species richness

57. Sanctuaries, national parks, and biosphere reserves are examples of________. [4]

a) ex situ conservation b) in vitro conservation

c) tourist Place d) in situ conservation

58. Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity? [4]

a) Desert b) Coral reefs

c) Alpine meadows d) Mangroves

59. The sixth extinction in progress currently is different from all previous extinctions on earth as [4]
it is:

a) 10-100 times faster b) 100-10000 times faster

c) 100-1000 times faster d) 1000-10000 times faster

60. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context? [4]

a) Eichhornia b) Lantana

c) Parthenium d) Cynodon

61. The three zones of biosphere reserves are [4]

a) Natural zone, buffer zone and b) Core zone, natural zone and central
transition zone. zone

c) Protected zone, buffer zone and d) Main zone, middle zone and outer
natural zone zone

62. Hot spots are places where: [4]

a) High degree of habital loss b) All of these

c) High degree of endemism d) High degree of species richness

63. If a species experiences a 90 percent decline over 10 years (or three generations), would be [4]
classified as:
 a) Vulnerable b) Endangered

c) Critically endangered d) Data deficient

64. The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from: [4]

a) Atropa b) Datura

c) Rauwolfia d) Papaver

65. Threatened species list includes: [4]

a) Only critically endangered and b) Only vulnerable and lower risk

endangered species. species.

c) Only critically endangered species. d) Critically endangered, endangered,

vulnerable.

66. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity? [4]

a) Invasion by alien species b) Keeping animals in zoological parks

c) Destruction of habitat d) Over-exploitation of natural

resources

67. Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations? [4]

a) Tropics b) Both Tropics & Temperates

c) Alpines d) Temperates

68. Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity? [4]
i. South America
ii. South Africa
iii. Russia
iv. India

a) Option (iv) b) Option (iii)

c) Option (i) d) Option (ii)

69. Conservation within the natural habitat is: [4]

a) Exsitu conservation b) Insitu conservation

c) Invivo conservation d) Exvivo conservation

70. Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots? [4]

a) Abundance of endemic species b) Large number of species

 c) Mostly located in the tropics d) Mostly located in the polar regions

71. In which of the zone of biosphere reserves human activity is not allowed [4]

a) Manipulation zone b) Buffer zone

c) Transition zone d) Core or natural zone

72. The newest addition to India’s national parks is: [4]

a) Sundarbans National Park b) Manas National Park

c) Nagarhole National Park d) Sultanpur National Park

73. The main cause of diversity loss is: [4]

a) struggle for existence. b) volcanic eruptions.

c) due to human activities. d) climate change.

74. Human settlement often leads to habitat loss which leads to fragmentation, forming smaller [4]
patches of habitats. Select the statements that describe how a small patch differs from a
large patch of the same habitat.
i. Invasive species will never be seen here.
ii. Population of large animals decreases.
iii. Biodiversity decreases.
iv. Competition from surrounding habitats increases.

a) (ii) and (iv) only b) (i) and (iii) only

c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

75. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to: [4]

a) Bird flu virus infection b) Non-availability of the food

c) Increased number of predatory birds d) Over exploitation by humans