SUBJECTS NEET GRAND TEST – 6 QP

PHYSICS XI & XII FULL SYLLABUS

CHEMISTRY XI & XII FULL SYLLABUS
BOTANY XI & XII FULL SYLLABUS
ZOOLOGY XI & XII FULL SYLLABUS
TOTAL MARKS – 720 DURATION – 3 Hrs
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 4 MARKS. (-1 MARK) FOR WRONG ANSWER.

PHYSICS
SECTION – A (ANSWER ALL)
1. A uniform horizontal metre scale of mass m is suspended by two vertical strings attached to its two ends.
A body of mass 2m is placed on the 75-cm mark. The tensions in the two strings are in the ratio
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
2. The first overtone frequency of a closed organ pipe P1 is equal to the fundamental frequency of an open
organ pipe P2. If the length of P1 is 30 cm, the length of P2 is
(a) 90 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 60 cm
3. A car goes on a horizontal circular road of radius R, the speed is increasing at a constant rate ‘a’. If the
friction coefficient between the road and tyre is . The speed at which the car will skid is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
4. A batsman deflects a ball of mass 0.25 kg by an angle of 60º without changing its initial speed of 72
kmph. The impulse imparted to ball is
(a) 20 N – s (b) 10 N – s (c) 5 3 N -s (d) 5 N – s
5. Blocks A and B have masses of 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The ground is smooth. P is an external force
of 10 N. The force exerted by B on A is

(a) 4 N (b) 6 N (c) 8 N (d) 10

6. The dimensions of (0 0) are
-1/2

(a) L-1T (b) LT-1 (c) L-1T1/2 (d) L-1/2T-1/2

7. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency and fixed amplitude V0 is connected in series with a
capacitance C and an electric bulb of resistance R (inductance zero). When angular frequency of source
is increased
(a) The bulb glows dimmer
(b) The bulb glows brighter
(c) Total impedance of the circuit is unchanged
(d) Total impedance of the circuit increases
8. In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit be minimum?
(a) Hydrogen atom (b) Deuterium atom
(c) Singly ionized helium (d) Doubly ionized lithium
9. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a
frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 14 ms-1 to the heavier block in the
direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the centre of mass is
(a) 30ms-1 (b) 20ms-1 (c) 10ms-1 (d) 35ms-1
10. Three positive charges each having the value q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The
resulting lines of force should be sketched as

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
11. Two full turns of the circular scale of screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The total
number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a zero error
of – 0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3
mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire
is
(a) 3.38 mm (b) 3.32 mm
(c) 3.73 mm (d) 3.67 mm
12. The magnetic field due to a semi-circular wire of radius 10 cm carrying a current of 5A at its centre of
curvature is
(a) 1.610-5T (b) 3.210-5T
(c) 1.810-5T (d) 3.610-5T
13. Assertion (A): When a sphere falls under gravity or moves up due to buoyancy forces in a long column
of viscous fluid, its velocity becomes constant after some time.
Reason (R): The force of viscosity is proportional to velocity.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. A flat, rectangular coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field and rotated about an axis passing through its
centre, parallel to its shorter edges and perpendicular to the field. The maximum emf induced is E. If the
axis is shifted to coincide with one of the shorter edges, the maximum induced emf will be
(a) Zero (b) E/2 (c) E (d) 2E
15. The flux linked with a coil is 0.8 Wb when 2 A current flows through it. If this current begins to increase
at the rate of 0.4 A/s, the emf induced in the coil will be
(a) 0.02 V (b) 0.04V
(c) 0.08V (d) 0.16V
16. A magnet of magnetic moment M is rotated through 360o in a magnetic field H, the work done will be
(a) MH (b) 2MH
(c) 2πMH (d) Zero
17. A square loop ABCD, carrying a clock wise current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight
conductor XY carrying a current I.

(a) There is no net force on the loop. (b) The loop will be attracted by the conductor.
(c) The loop will be repelled by the conductor. (d) The loop will rotate about the conductor.
18. An electric bulb is rated 200 V – 100 W. The electrical resistance of bulb is
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 400
19. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to R. The equivalent resistance between diagonally
opposite corners is

(a) R (b) R/3 (c) 2R/3 (d) 4R/3

 
 
20. Charge Q is given a displacement r  ai  bj in an electric field E  E1 i  E2 j . The work done is

 E1a    E2 b 
2 2
(a) Q (E1a + E2b) (b) Q

(c) Q  E1  E2  a 2  b 2 (d) Q E 1
2
 E22  a 2  b 2
21. In a vernier callipers each main scale division is 1 mm. If 10 vernier scale divisions coincides with 8
main scale divisions, the least count of the vernier is
(a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.2 mm (c) 0.5 mm (d) 0.4 mm
22. Match List A with List B.
A body is projected with a velocity 40 2 ms-1 at 45º to horizontal. It is moving in xy-plane. g =10ms-1
List – A List – B
A) Change in velocity after 1s is D) 40ms-1
B) Speed of projectile after 1s is E) 10ms-1
C) X-component of velocity after 1s is F) 50ms-1
(a) A – D, B – E, C – F (b) A – E, B – F, C – D
(c) A – F, B – E, C – D (d) A – E, B – D, C – F
23. In a Young’s double-slit experiment using slits of unequal widths, the intensities on the screen due to the
slits are in the ratio 4 : 9 when the slits are used separately. When they are used together, the ratio of the
intensity at a dark fringe to the intensity at a bright fringe on the screen will be
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 1 : 9 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 1 : 25
24. When beats are formed between sound waves of slightly different frequencies, the intensity of the sound
heard changes from maximum to minimum in 0.2 s. The difference in frequencies of the two sound
waves is
(a) 5 Hz (b) 4 Hz (c) 2.5 Hz (d) 2 Hz
25. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity 2.25108 ms-1 is equal to the wavelength
of a photon. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the particle to the energy of photon is (velocity of light is
3108 ms-1)
(a) 1/8 (b) 3/8 (c) 5/8 (d) 1
26. The current through battery in each of the circuits shown in figure are

(a) 1A, 0.5 A (b) 2A, 1 A (c) 1A, 1A (d) 0.5A, 2A

27. The specific heats at constant pressure is greater than that of the same gas at constant volume because
(a) at constant pressure work is done in expanding the gas
(b) at constant volume work is done in expanding the gas
(c) the molecular attraction increases more at constant pressure
(d) the molecular vibration increases more at constant pressure
28. An electric dipole has moment P. Two points which are at equal distances from the dipole, and far away
from it, one on axial line and other on equatorial line have electric intensities E1 and E2. The ratio of
E1/E2 must
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 1/2
29. A diode that radiates energy as light instead of heat is called
(a) Photo - diode (b) Photo cell (c) Zener diode (d) LED
30. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 showing a full scale deflection of 50 A. The resistance to
be used to use it as an ammeter of range 10 mA is
(a) 0.5 in series (b) 0.5 in parallel (c) 100 in series (d) 100 in parallel
31. In a compound microscope, maximum magnification is obtained when the final image
(a) Is formed at infinity
(b) Is formed at the least distance of distinct vision
(c) Coincides with the object
(d) Coincides with the objective lens
32. A diatomic gas has volume V and pressure P. The total translational kinetic energy of all the molecules
of the gas
(a) 1/2PV (b) 3/2PV (c) 5/2PV (d) PV
33. Two identical containers joined by a small pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure P0 and absolute
temperature T0. One container is now maintained at the same temperature while the other is heated to
2T0. The common pressure of the gases will be
(a) 3/2P0 (b) 4/3P0 (c) 5/3P0 (d) 2P0
34. A paramagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field. Consider the following statements. The correct
statements are
A) If the magnetic field is increased, the magnetization is increased
B) The magnetic susceptibility    is greater than one (1)
C) The relative permeability r is less than one (1)
D) If the temperature is increased, the magnetization is decreased
(a) A, D (b) B, C, D
(c) A, C (d) A, B, D

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35. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated,

(a) Both d1 and d2 will decrease (b) Both d1 and d2 will increase
(c) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease (d) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
SECTION – B (ANSWER ANY 10)
36. A large open tank has a small opening near the bottom of it. If the height of the water level in the tank is
H above the bottom, the initial velocity of water coming out of the opening is
(a) 2 gH (b) gH / 2 (c) gH (d) 2gH
37. The electrostatic potential energy per coulomb of charge is a measure of
(a) Electric potential (b) Electric field
(c) Electrical resistance (d) Electrical capacity
38. A 12 V AC is used to supply 2 mA of current to the 300 turns in the primary coil of a given transformer.
If secondary has 150 turns, the current in secondary is
(a) 1 mA (b) 2 mA (c) 8 mA (d) 4 mA
39. Two wires A and B of equal cross-section are joined end to end. When the combination is kept under
tension the elongation in the two wires are found to be equal. If their young’s modulus YA and YB are in
the ratio 2 : 3, the ratio of length of A to that B is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 9 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3
40. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from earth’s surface to infinity is (R is the radius
of earth)
(a) 1/2mgR (b) mgR (c) 2mgR (d) 1/4mgR
-1
41. A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500ms is fired into a door and gets embedded exactly at the centre of
the door. The door is 2 m wide and weighs 12 kg. It is hinged at one end and rotates about a vertical axis
without friction. The angular speed of door just after the bullet embeds into it is.
(a) 5/8rad s-1 (b) 5/16rad s-1 (c) 5/4rad s-1 (d) 5/32 rad s-1
42. The photocurrent in an experiment on photoelectric effect increases if
(a) The intensity of sources is decreased (b) Energy of photon is increased
(c) The intensity of source is increased (d) The work function of the source is decreased
43. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up
vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting the subsequent motion and the air resistance, how its velocity v
varies with the height h above the ground?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

44. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different
ways. The work done by the gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3 if
purely adiabatic. Then
(a) W2 > W1 >W3 (b) W2 >W3 >W1
(c) W1 > W2 >W3 (d) W1 > W3 > W2
45. In a microwave oven, the food is kept in a plastic container and the microwave is directed towards it.
The food is cooked without melting the container because
 (a) The natural frequency of water matches the frequency of microwave
(b) The natural frequency of plastic container matches the frequency of microwave
(c) Microwaves are diffracted by plastic container
(d) Microwaves cannot pass through plastic
46. A conducting ring R is placed on the axis of a bar magnet M. The plane of R is perpendicular to this
axis. M can move along this axis

(a) M will repel R when it is moving towards R.

(b) M will attract R when it is moving towards R.
(c) M will repel R when moving towards as well as away from R.
(d) M will attract R when moving towards as well as away from R.
47. A converging glass lens with a refractive index of 1.5 has a focal length of f in air. When it is completely
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 2, its focal length and nature will be respectively
(a) 2f and converging (b) 3f and converging
(c) 2f and diverging (d) 3f and diverging
48. The maximum speed and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion are 10ms-1 and
50ms-2. The amplitude of oscillation of the particle is
(a) 5 m (b) 1.2 m (c) 2 m (d) 1.5 m
49. Assertion (A): Nuclear fusion reactions are impossible at ordinary temperatures and pressure.
Reason (R): At ordinary temperatures and pressure the positively charged nuclei do not carry enough
energy to overcome the coulombic repulsive barrier between them.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true
50. In a logic gate the output is high if any of the inputs is high. The statement represents
(a) AND gate (b) NOR gate (c) OR gate (d) NOT gate
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A (ANSWER ALL)
51. Among the following, number of meta directing groups when attached to benzene ring are
-CN, -NO2, -COOH, -CH3, -SO3H, -CHO, -F
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 6
52. Which of the following is most acidic?

(a) n – Bu-OH (b)

(c) (d)
53. 100 ml of 0.1M Co  NH 3  y Cl x  Cl z reacts with excess AgNO3 solution to produce 20 millimoles AgCl
 
ppt. Values of x, y, z are respectively.
(a) 0,6,3 (b) 1,5,2 (c) 2,4,1 (d) 3,3,0
54. Match the following

The correct match is

(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 (b) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-5
(c) A-2 B-4 C-5 D-1 (d) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-5
 2NO(g) is 4  10–4 at 200 K. In presence
55. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) 
of a catalyst the equilibrium is attained 10 times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant in presence
of catalyst at 200K is
(a) 4010-4 (b) 410-4 (c) 410-3 (d) can’t be calculated
th
56. 13 group element with highest density is
(a) B (b) In (c) Tl (d) Al
57. Correct order of 1st ionization potential for the elements Be, B, C, N, O is
(a) B<Be<C<O<N (b) B<Be<C<N<O
(c) Be<B<C<N<O (d) Be<B<C<O<N
58. The bond line representation of following compound is CH(OH)(CN)2

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
59. Which of the following cannot show variable oxidation states?
(a) Chlorine (b) Fluorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
60. Which of the following will react faster through SN1 mechanism
(a) CH2=CH-CH2-Cl (b) C6H5-Cl
(c) CH2=CHCl (d) CH3-CH2-Cl
61. A hypothetical reaction
A2 + B22AB follows the following mechanism
 A + A..................... fast
A2 
A + B2  AB + B..................... slow
A + BAB……………… fast
The order of the overall reaction is
(a) 2 (b) 3/2 (c) 1 (d) 0
62. Square planar complex among the following is
(a) [NiCl4]2- (b) [Ni (CO)4] (c) [Ni(CN)4]2- (d) [Zn(NH3)4]2+
63. For a first order reaction, a graph is plotted between log [R]t on y - axis vs time (minutes) on x - axis.
Slope of the graph would be ( Ro= initial concentration of reactant; Rt = concentration of reactant left
unreacted after time ‘t’)
K 1 2.303
(a)  (b)  (c)  (d) -K
2.303 K K
64. Which of the following combination can form an acid buffer?
(a) 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
(b) 100 ml of 0.2 M NaOH +100 ml of 0.1 M HCl
(c) 100 ml of 0.2 M CH3COOH +100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
(d) 50 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH +50 ml of 0.2 M NaOH
65. One gram atom of element ‘X’ has 0.444 times the mass of one gram atom of element ‘Y’. One gram
atom of element ‘X’ has 2.96 times the mass of one gram atom of C12. The atomic weight of ‘Y’ is:
(a) 80 (b) 15.77 (c) 46.67 (d) 40
66. Which of the following purification method is based on solubility of solid compound.
(a) Distillation (b) Sublimation (c) Crystallization (d) Column chromatography
67. The 3d element with least enthalpy of atomisation is
(a) Ni (b) Cu (c) Zn (d) Fe
68. Benzaldehyde cannot react with
(a) Conc. KOH (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) 2, 4 – DNP (d) Fehling’s reagent

69. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
70. Number of stereo isomers for the square planar, MabXL complex is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 3
71. The conversion of C to D is.

(a) Elimination (b) Addition (c) Isomerization (d) Reduction

72. The compound C is

(a) Propanone (b) Prop-1-en-2-ol (c) Propanal (d) Prop-1-en-1-ol

73. alkali soluble derivative. ‘X’ is
(a) diethyl amine (b) trimethyl amine (c) methyl amine (d) diphenyl amine

74.
A and B respectively are

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
75. Statement - 1: H2 Te is more acidic than H2S
Statement - 2: H2 Te has more bond dissociation energy than H2S
(a) Statement 1 and 2 both are correct
(b) Statement 1 and 2 both are incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
(d) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
76. Which of the following option contain amphoteric oxide(s) only?
(a) SnO2 and SiO (b) SiO2 (c) SnO2 and PbO2 (d) CO and SiO
77. Assertion (A): Noble gases have very high boiling points
Reason (R): Noble gases have strong dispersion forces hence they liquify at low temperature, hence
they have high boiling point.
(a) (A) and (R ) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) and (R ) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) and (R) are false
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
78. Which of the following is true for electro chemical cell made with SHE and Cu electrode:
(a) H2 is cathode & Cu is anode (b) H2 is anode and Cu is cathode
(c) Reduction occurs at H2 electrode (d) Oxidation occurs at Cu electrode
79. The limiting conductivities ° for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 s.cm2. mol-1 respectively.
Then ° for NaBr in s.cm2. mol-1 is
(a) 128 (b) 176 (c) 278 (d) 302
80. The potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is equal to 10 is
(a) 0.0591 (b) 0.591 (c) -0.591 (d) -0.0591
81. Statement – I : 2 – ethyl – 3 – methyl butane is a proper IUPAC name
Statement – II : 1 – chloro – prop – 2 – ene is a proper IUPAC name
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  w
82. 0.6 0 0   urea is isotonic with
v
 w  w
(a) 0.6 0 0   C6H12O6 (b) 0.6 0 0   NaCl
v v
(c) 0.1M C6H12O6 (d) 0.1M NaCl
83. Which one of the following can exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
84. 0.4 grams of an organic compound in kjeldahl’s method liberated ammonia which required 40ml of
0.2M H2SO4 for complete neutralisation. Percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is
(a) 28 (b) 56 (c) 42 (d) 84
3
85. Decomposition of 50 grams of pure CaCO3 liberates x dm of CO2 at STP. Mass of 80% pure KOH
required for the complete neutralisation of the liberated gas (at STP) is
(a) 84 g (b) 42 g (c) 56 g (d) 70 g
SECTION – B (ANSWER ANY 10)
86. For a cell reaction involving a two electron transfer the standard EMF, of the cell is found to be 0.295V
at 25°C. At the same temperature, equilibrium constant will be
(a) 10 (b) 11010 (c) 10-8 (d) 29.510-2
87. How many of the following statements are true?
(i) Chromate ion is square planar
(ii) Green manganate ion is diamagnetic
(iii) Sodium dichromate can be prepared from sodium chromate.
(iv) Purple KMnO4 disproportionated in acidic medium and neutral medium
(v) Ionic character of oxides decreases with increase in oxidation number of transition metal
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
88. Most suitable indicator for the titration of HCl versus Na2CO3 is
(a) Methyl orange (b) Phenolphthalein (c) Litmus (d) Phenol red

89.
Correct match for the identification of basic radical by qualitative analysis is
(a) I – C ; II – A, III – B ; IV – D (b) I – C ; II – A, III – D ; IV – B
(c) I – B ; II – C, III – D ; IV – A (d) I – D ; II – C, III – B ; IV – A
90. Shortest wavelength in Balmer series of He ion will be
4 1 4 15
(a) (b) (c) (d)
RH RH 3RH 16 RH
91. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed?
(a) n = 3, 1=2, m =0, s = +1/2 (b) n =3, 1 = 2, m = -2, s = +1/2
(c) n = 3, 1 = 3, m = -3, s = -1/2 (d) n = 3, 1 = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2
92. Which of the following species cannot undergo disproportionation?
(a) ClO4- (b) ClO3- (c) ClO2- (d) ClO-

93. In the reaction

The Equivalent weight of ClO3- is
(a) Formula weight / 6 (b) Formula weight / 3
(c) Formula weight / 4 (d) Formula weight / 5
94. The enthalpy changes for two reactions are given by the equations

What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction?

(a) -1460kJ (b) 800kJ (c) -800kJ (d) + 1460 KJ

95. Which among the following is an extensive property and also a state function?
(a) Internal energy (b) Pressure (c) Boiling point (d) Work
96. If H° and S° of the following reaction are 182.5 kJmol and 25JK mol-1. At what minimum
-1 -1

temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous

(a) 2500K (b) 4600K (c) 7300K (d) 6500K
97. A set of solutions is prepared using 180g of water as a solvent and 10 g of different non-volatile solutes
A, B and C. The relative lowering of vapour pressure in the presence of these solutes are in the order
(given molar mass of A =100gmol-1, molar mass B =200gmol-1 and molar mass of C = 10,000gmol-1)
(a) B > C > A (b) C > A > B (c) A > B > C (d) A > C > B
98. Which of the following base is not present in DNA?
(a) Adenine (b) Thymine (c) Uracil (d) Cytosine
99. Each of the following pair forms ideal solution except
(a) C2H5Br and C2H5I (b) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br
(c) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 (d) C6H5NH2 + C6H5OH
100. Statement I: Sucrose is a non – reducing sugar
Statement II: During denaturation of proteins primary structure of protein is unaffected.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
BOTANY
SECTION – A (ANSWER ALL)
101. Assertion: Viruses having RNA genome have shorter life span and mutate faster.
Reason: RNA is unstable and thus mutates faster.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
102.Read the following statements I and II carefully and choose the correct option
Statement I: The genetic code is degenerate
Statement II: Most of the codons code for more than one amino acids
(a) Both the statements I and II are incorrect (b) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(c) Both the statements I and II are correct (d) Statement II is correct but I is incorrect
103.Initiation codon in higher plants is
(a) UAG (b) AUG (c) AGU (d) GAU
104.Which of the following is not a feature of an adapter molecule(tRNA):
(a) Its three-dimensional structure is inverted L shaped
(b) It reads the code on one hand and binds specific amino acid on the other hand
(c) Was known as soluble RNA before the genetic code was postulated
(d) Every stop codon has it`s own specific adapter molecule
105.Match the following
Column – I Column – II
A.  - galactosidase i. Enzymatic synthesis of RNA
B. Permease ii. Peptide bond formation
C. Polynucleotide phosphorylase iii. Hydrolysis of lactose
D. Ribozyme iv. Increases permeability of cell to Beta – galactosides
(a) A(iii), B(iv), C(i), D(ii) (b) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
(c) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(ii) (d) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)
106.Assertion: Rho factor is involved in termination of transcription
Reason: Sigma factor alters the specificity of RNA polymerase to initiate the transcription
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) R is correct but A is incorrect
107.Which of the following is associated with synthesis of glycogen?
(a) Golgi body (b) Mitochondria (c) Lysosomes (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
108.In a cross between yellow body, white eyed female and the wild type brown body, red eyed male,
Morgan obtained.
(a) 1.3% parental type and 98.7% recombinant type in F2 generation
(b) 98.7% parental type and 1.3% recombinant type in F2 generation
(c) 62.8% parental type and 37.2% recombinant type in F2 generation
(d) 37.2% parental type and 62.8% recombinant type in F2 generation
109.In an F2 population of 96 plants produced from a Mendelian cross of RRYY (round yellow) and rryy
(wrinkled – green) how many plants will be homozygous (RRyy)?
(a) 24 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 16
110.Which one of the following is not the adaptive features of entomophilous (pollination by insects)
flower?
(a) Light and non-sticky pollen grains (b) Colourful and fragrant flowers
(c) Rich in nectar (d) Large flowers
111.The basics of taxonomy like identification, naming and classification of organisms are universally
evolved under
(a) State codes (b) International codes
(c) National codes (d) Head of taxonomy department of a country
112.Which of the following helps in the curling of the leaf surface?
(a) Bulliform cells (b) Xylem tissue
(c) Palisade parenchyma (d) Bundle sheath cells
113. Translation process is
(a) Dictated by RNA and represented by RNA
(b) Dictated by DNA and represented by DNA
(c) Dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA
(d) Dictated by RNA and represented by DNA
114. The point of attachment between the homologous chromosomes after dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex is called ____
(a) Recombinase (b) Chiasmata (c) Congression (d) Terminalisation
115. Consider the following processes given in box

Which of these do not occur in chloroplast?

(a) only D (b) D and E both (c) C and D both (d) A, B and D
116. Analyse the following statements regarding the pollination process in gymnosperms and select the
correct option:
Assertion A: In gymnosperms, pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and are dispersed
by wind.
Reason R: Wind aids in the transportation of pollen grains to the archegonia, bypassing the need for a
pollen tube since the male gametes are directly released near the archegonia.
(a) If both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A
(b) If both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of the A
(c) If A is true, but R is false
(d) If both A & R are false
117. Identify the correct set of statements regarding phases of cell cycle.
(A) Interphase is known as resting phase
(b) During interphase, cell prepares itself for cell divisions by cell growth
(C) In M phase, both karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur
(D) Division of nucleus is called cytokinesis Choose the correct answer from the given options below.
(a) A, B & C (b) B, C & D (c) A, B & D (d) A, B, C & D
118. Use of biological agents to degrade or decompose toxic environmental compounds into less toxic forms,
called
(a) Bioprospecting (b) Bioremediation (c) Biomechanics (d) Biosensoring
119. Match the given columns and select the correct option

(a) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (b) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(c) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (d) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
120.Statement I: Genes that are loosely linked exhibit recombination, whereas genes that are completely
linked do not undergo recombination.
Statement II: Test cross is the tool for knowing genotype of test organism
(a) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(c) Both the statements I and II are correct
(d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
121.Statement-I: Only a small proportion of plants utilize abiotic agents such as wind and water for
pollination
Statement-II: The encounter between pollen grains and the stigma is a random event in both wind and
water pollination, due to the unpredictable nature of these abiotic pollination agents. Select the correct
option:
(a) Both statements are correct (b) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct (d) Both statements are incorrect
122.Which of the following statements is incorrect for growth in plants?
(a) Growth is an irreversible and permanent process
(b) Growth of pollen tube is measured in terms of it`s length
(c) Vacuolation of cell starts in maturation phase of growth
(d) Plasmatic modification in plant cells may lead to differentiation
123.Net gain of ATP in alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation (with respect to one glucose
molecule) is
(a) 2 ATP and 4 ATP respectively (b) 6 ATP and 4 ATP respectively
(c) 2 ATP in both cases (d) 6 ATP in both cases
124.Match the following columns and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
A. Auxins i. Chloroplast formation in leaf
B. Gibberellins ii. Xylem differentiation
C. Cytokinins iii. Inducting of seed dormancy
D. Abscisic acid iv. Bolting in rosette pants
(a) A(ii), B(iv), C(i), D(iii) (b) A(iii), B(iv), C(i), D(ii)
(c) A(i), B(iv), C(ii), D(iii) (d) A(ii), B(iii), C(i), D(iv)
125.Read the statement carefully
A. Three NADH + H+ and one FADH2 molecules are generated during two turns of TCA cycle
B. Two molecules of CO2 are released per molecule of acetyl CoA oxidized in TCA cycle
C. The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment of
OAA.
D. Respiration/Kreb’s cycle is an amphibolic pathway How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) All are correct except A (b) A, B and D are correct
(c) A and B are incorrect (d) All A, B, C and D are correct
126.Plants which lack ‘Kranz’ anatomy in their leaf
(a) Show chloroplast dimorphism (b) Show double CO 2 fixation during day
(c) Require only NADPH2 for CO2 fixation (d) Require both ATP and NADPH 2 for CO2 fixation
127.The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of
chromosomes, is
(a) Splitting of the centromeres (b) Splitting of the Chromatids
(c) Replication of the Genetic Material (d) Condensation of the Chromatin
128. Assertion (A): Replication of DNA during cell cycle occur in S-phage of interphase.
Reason (R): Centriole duplication occurs in nucleus during S-phase of interphase. In the light of the
above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(d) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
129. Match the columns and identify the correct option

(a) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i) (b) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(ii)
(c) A(iii), B(iv), C(i), D(ii) (d) A(iii), B(i), C(iv), D(ii)
130. Assertion: Leaf colouration is due to the presence of four pigments – Chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b,
xanthophylls and carotenoids.
Reason : Chlorophyll b is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
131. Read the following statements regarding dicot leaf and select the correct option
Statement I: Bulliform cells are arranged on adaxial surface
Statement II: Palisade tissue is present towards abaxial surface
(a) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct (b) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(c) Both the statements I and II are incorrect (d) Both the statements I and II are correct
132. Select the incorrect option with respect to nucleolus
(a) Membrane bound structure
(b) Site for active rRNA synthesis
(c) Larger and more numerous in protein synthesizing cells
(d) Content of nucleolus is continuous with nucleoplasm
133. Which of the following is a liverwort?
(a) Sphagnum (b) Funaria
(c) Marchantia (d) Polytrichum
134. Monadelphous and polyadelphous condition of stamens are seen respectively in
(a) Brinjal, Lily (b) Hibiscus, Citrus (c) Lily, Brinjal (d) Citrus, Brinjal
135. Which of the following is example of brown algae used as a source of algin?
(a) Spirogyra (b) Laminaria (c) Chlorella (d) Volvox
SECTION – B (ANSWER ANY 10)
136. Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom because
(a) These plants live in soil and depend on marine organisms for asexual reproduction.
(b) These plants live in soil and depend on water for sexual reproduction.
(c) These plants live in water and depend on land animals for sexual reproduction.
(d) These plants live near water bodies.
137.Read the statements carefully.
A) Algae are chlorophyll bearing complex, thalloid and largely terrestrial organisms
B) Plant body of liverwort is more differentiated than algae
C) The sporophyte of pteridophyte produces diploid spores
D) The microsporophyll’s and megasporophylls are arranged spirally to form female and male cones
respectively Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, C and D (b) Only B (c) B and D (d) B, C and D
138.Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
(a) bees (b) butterflies (c) birds (d) wind
139.Toxins released by which group of organisms may kill marine animals such as fishes
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Diatoms
(c) Euglena (d) Marine Amoeba
140.Regarding to stele, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) All the tissues inner to pericycle (b) All the tissues inner to endodermis
(c) All the tissues inner to hypodermis (d) All the tissues inner to epidermis
141.Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
(a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II
(c) Anaphase II (d) Telophase II
142.Assertion (A): The respiratory Quotient (RQ) depends on the type of respiratory substrate used in
metabolism
Reason (R): Different respiratory substrates such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats yield different
amounts of carbon dioxide CO2  and water H2O  for the same amount of oxygen O2  consumed,
there by affecting the RQ value. Choose the correct option:
(a) If both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A
(b) If both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of the A
(c) If A is true, but R is false
(d) If both A & R are false
143.Select the correct statements
i) Lac operon is under negative as well as positive control
ii) Grifith performed transformation experiment on bacteria E. coli
iii) Frame shift mutation is due to deletion or insertion of one or two bases
iv) In all viruses, flow of information is in reverse direction only
(a) i and ii only (b) i and iii only
(c) i, iii, iv only (d) i, ii, iii and iv
144.The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is
(a) 8 – celled (b) 7 – celled (c) 6 – celled (d) 5 – celled
145.Select the statement which holds true for crylAb gene
(a) It protects the crops against insects by damaging insect gut lining
(b) It cannot be inserted into genome of corn plant because corn plant is a monocot
(c) It codes for those proteins which can kill cotton bollworm
(d) It cannot kill the insect
146.____method is used to control the infection of a nematode like Meloidogyne incognitia in tobacco plant
and this control is due to production of _____
(a) DNAi, ssRNA (b) RNAi, dsRNA
(c) RNAi, dsDNA (d) dNAi, dsRNA
147.Fertilization is depicted by the condition
(a) N → 2N (b) 2N → N (c) 2N → 4N (d) 4N → 2N
148. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because they are
(a) Easily available
(b) Able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA only
(c) Extra chromosomal DNA which can replicate independent of chromosomal DNA
(d) Rich in histone proteins
149. Statement –I : The acid soluble pool contains all lipids, amino acids and sugar.
Statement-II : Nucleotides are bio micro molecules
(a) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(c) Both the statements I and II are correct
(d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
150. Following is a representation of an enzymatic reaction.
Choose the correct type of enzyme which is represented as ‘E’

(a) Oxidoreductase (b) Hydrolase (c) Tansferase (d) Lyase

ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (ANSWER ALL)
151. Given below is the leaf twig of a plant

Identify the drugs which are NOT obtained from this plant.
(a) Charas and Ganja (b) Hashish and Marijuana
(c) Cocaine and Heroin (d) Hashish and Ganja
152. Which one of the following is the CORRECT combination of approaches used for cancer treatment?
(a) Biopsy, chemotherapy, immunotherapy (b) CT, chemotherapy, immunotherapy
(c) Surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy (d) Surgery, MRI, chemotherapy
153. Identify the INCORRECTLY matched pair.
(a) Salivary gland - Multicellular glandular epithelium.
(b) Blood - Fluid connective tissue
(c) Cartilage - Dense irregular connective tissue
(d) Tendon - Dense regular connective tissue
154. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option

(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (d) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
155.During resting of muscle fibre, sub-unit of troponin partially covers
(a) calcium binding sites on troponin.
(b) actin binding sites on myosin.
(c) myosin binding sites on actin.
(d) calcium binding sites on actin.
156.Which of the following are the components of hindbrain?
(a) Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Medulla
(b) Pons, Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata
(c) Pons, Cerebrum, Medulla
(d) Thalamus, Pons Cerebellum
157.The resting membrane potential is due to
(a) high concentration of Na+, low concentration of K+ ions and negatively charged proteins inside
axoplasm.
(b) low concentration of Na+, high concentration of K+ ions and negatively charged proteins inside
axoplasm.
(c) low concentration of Na+, high concentration of K+ ions and negatively charged proteins outside the
axoplasm.
(d) high concentration of Na+, high concentration of K+ ions and negatively charged proteins inside
axoplasm.
158.Identify the INCORRECT match.
(a) Flippers of penguins and dolphins - Divergent evolution
(b) Wings of birds and insects - Convergent evolution
(c) Eyes of octopus and cat - Exhibit analogy
(d) Forelimbs of cheetah and bat - Exhibit homology
159.Read the statements given below. i. Conditional reabsorption of the Na + and H2O takes place in this
segment. ii. It is capable of reabsorption of HCO3-. iii. This region is also capable of selective secretion
of H+ and K+ ions. iv. It helps to maintain pH and Na-K balance in blood The above features are
associated with
(a) Descending limb of Henle’s Loop (b) DCT
(c) Collecting duct (d) PCT
160.If too much growth hormone is released during the growth period, it can cause ________
(a) Acromegaly (b) Crohn’s Disease
(c) Gigantism (d) None of the above
161.Read the following statements (i - iv) and select the option which correctly states whether the given
statement is True (T) or False (F).
i. Spermatogenesis begins in males before birth.
ii. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary during the process of
ovulation.
iii. Each female ovary encloses the ovarian stroma, which is divided into a peripheral cortex and inner
medulla.
iv. Decreased levels of GnRH acts at the posterior pituitary and stimulates the secretion of
gonadotropins.
i ii iii iv
(a) T F F T
(b) T T F T
(c) F T T F
(d) F F T T
162. Match Column I (Animals) with Column II (Characteristics) and Column III (Taxon) and choose the
correct option
Column I Column II Column III
i. Ichthyo phis a. Three chambered poikilo therm P. Reptilia
ii. Clarias b. Electric organs Q. Amphibia
iii. Torpedo c. Paired appendages absent R. Osteich thyes
iv. Naja d. Four pairs of gills S. Chondrich thyes
(a) i-d-Q, ii-c-R, iii-b-S, iv-a-P (b) i-b-P, ii-c-S, iii-d-Q, iv-a-R
(c) i-c-Q, ii-d-R, iii-b-S, iv-a-P (d) i-b-R, ii-a-P, iii-d-S, iv-c-Q
163. Lactational amenorrhea refer to absence of
(a) lactation (b) parturition (c) menstruation (d) insemination
164. In the food web given below, an increase in the population of snakes will result in

(a) decrease in the population of mouse.

(b) increase in the population of rabbits and lizards.
(c) decrease in the population of hawks and increase in the population of mouse.
(d) decrease in the population of grasshoppers
165. Adrenocorticotropic hormones stimulate the adrenal cortex to produce _________
(a) Testosterone (b) Aldosterone (c) Cortisol (d) None of the above
166. Match the columns and select the correct option

(a) I-b-r, II-a-s, III-d-p, IV-c-q (b) I-b-r, II-a-s, III-c-p, IV-d-q
(c) I-b-r, II-a-s, III-d-q, IV-c-p (d) I-a-r, II-b-s, III-d-q, IV-c-p
167. Which human protein is used to treat emphysema?
(a) α-amylase (b) α-1-lactalbumin
(c) α-1-antitrypsin (d) β-galactosidase
168. What do 'r' and 'K' stand for in the equation, dN/dt = rN [(K - N)/K] for logistic growth?
(a) r = rate of growth; k = exponential constant
(b) r = resource availability; k = logarithmic constant
(c) r = co-efficient of correlation; k = maximum growth possible
(d) r = intrinsic rate of natural increase; k = carrying capacity
169. Which one of the following plasma proteins help in osmotic balance?
(a) Globulins (b) Fibrinogens (c) Albumins (d) Prothrombin
170. Assertion: After performing autoradiography technique, the clone having the mutated gene does not
appear on the photographic film.
Reason: The probe will not have complementarity with mutated gene.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Only assertion is true and reason is wrong.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong
171. Which of these statements is false regarding myofibrils?
(a) The A band is also known as the light band
(b) Myosin is parallel to the longitudinal axis of myofibril
(c) Light bands contain actin
(d) Anisotropic bands contain myosin
172. Broadly utilitarian argument says that,
(a) Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that the nature provides.
(b) More than 25 percent of the drugs currently sold in the market world wide are derived from plants.
(c) Major resources can be put into 'Bio prospecting'.
(d) Human derive countless direct economic benefits from nature.
173. In human beings, the skeleton of the hand consists of
(a) 7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges (b) 8 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges
(c) 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges (d) 7 carpals, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges
174. Interaction between these organisms represents predation:
(a) Clownfish and sea anemone (b) Orchid Ophrys and bees
(c) Monarch butterfly and bird (d) Cattles and cattle egret
175. Match the Column I (Common name of animals) with Column II (Scientific name) and select the
correct option.
Column I Column II
i. Pearl oyster a. Ancylostoma
ii. Hookworm b. Pinctada
iii. Dogfish c. Scoliodon
iv. Tortoise d. chelone
e. Testudo
(a) i-e, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e
(c) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (d) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
176. Which of these structures has alternate dark and light bands on it?
(a) Fascicles (b) Sarcolemma (c) Myofibrils (d) Fascia
177. The environments of tropical and temperate regions. Identify the INCORRECT differences

(a) i and iv (b) i and ii (c) ii and iii (d) iii and iv
178.The gene for haemophilia is located on 'X' chromosome. Hence, it is normally impossible for a
(a) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his daughter
(b) carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter
(c) carrier mother to pass the gene to her son
(d) haemophilic father to pass the gene to his son
179.The atrium and ventricle from the same side are separated by a
(a) thick fibrous tissue called ventricular septum
(b) thick fibrous tissue called atrio-ventricular septum
(c) thin fibrous tissue called atrio-ventricular septum
(d) thick fibrous tissue called inter-atrial septum
180.Progestogen in combination with oestrogen is used in
(a) contraceptive implants (b) contraceptive vaults
(c) diaphragms (d) cervical caps
181.(2n+1) condition is seen in which of the following? i. Klinefelter syndrome ii. Down syndrome iii.
Turner syndrome iv. Sickle-cell anaemia v. Colour blindness
(a) i, iv and v (b) i, ii and iv (c) i and ii only (d) iii, iv and v
182.Original variety of Darwin finch was
(a) insectivorous (b) cactus eater
(c) seed eater (d) woodpecker
183.The property of emitting light from a living organism is called as ________
(a) Bioluminescence (b) Phosphorescence
(c) Biophosphorescence (d) Cytoluminescence
184.Identify the CORRECT statement about active immunity.
(a) It produces immune response very quickly.
(b) It is elicited on injecting microbes deliberately.
(c) It is provided through colostrum.
(d) It is produced by injecting antibodies
185.Which among the following is incorrect about transport canal system in Porifera?
(a) Water enters the cavity through minute pores called as ostia
(b) Flagellated cells create water currents inside spongocoel
(c) Collar cells help in the distribution and filtering of food materials
(d) Water leaves the spongocoel through Osculum
SECTION – B (ANSWER ANY 10)
186.Listed below are the factors (i-v) regarding formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
i. High pO2 ii. Low pCO2
iii. Less H+ ion Concentration iv. Low temperature
v. Low PH
Identify the appropriate factors that favour oxyhaemoglobin formation and select the correct option.
(a) i, ii, iii, v (b) ii, iii, iv, v (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) i, iii, iv, v
187.Statement I: Pyramid of biomass of aquatic ecosystem is always inverted.
Statement II: Biomass of producers in sea exceeds the biomass of consumers.
(a) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
188.The main function of the skin of frog is
(a) the exchange of respiratory gases (b) the storage of fat
(c) the storage of energy (d) to convert light vitamin D
189. Which of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
(a) Fragmentation - Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
(b) Humification - Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance called humus which
undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate.
(c) Catabolism - Occurs before fragmentation
(d) Leaching Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
190. Identify the hormones, 'a', 'b' and 'c' with respect to their functions given below

(a) a-ACTH, b-GH, c-TSH (b) a-GnRH, b-TSH, c-LH

(c) a-LH, b-FSH, c-GH (d) a-PRL, b-GnRH, c-ACTH
191. Aschelminthes are characterized by
(a) females being longer than males
(b) absence of coelom but presence of metameric segmentation.
(c) dorso-ventrally flattened body and presence of true coelom.
(d) presence of scattered pouches of ectoderm between meso and endoderm
192. In the figure of Malpighian body given below, five structures are labelled as (P, Q, R, S, T). Select the
CORRECT statement regarding the figure.

(a) S carries out ultrafiltration of blood. (b) P carries blood away from the structure S.
(c) R and T together form the renal corpuscle. (d) T is a tuft of capillaries.
193. If in a normal menstruating woman, menses occur on 5th April, what will be the expected date of
ovulation?
(a) 10th April (b) 18th April (c) 29th April (d) 14th April
194. Identify the INCORRECT statement about inspiration.
(a) It occurs when there is negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.
(b) It involves contraction of diaphragm which reduces the volume of thoracic chamber.
(c) The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and sternum, increasing the
pulmonary volume.
(d) During inspiration, atmospheric air is drawn into the lungs
195. Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
(a) Tympanum (b) Skin (c) Sebaceous (d) Nictitating
196. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option

(a) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-e (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-e, iv-a
(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-e, iv-a (d) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e
197. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Vascular system of frog is closed type.
(b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
(c) During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
(d) All the statements are correct.
198. What caused the extinction of Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon?
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation (b) Invasion of alien species
(c) Over exploitation (d) Co-extinction
199. Assertion: Anger in a person, stimulates the secretion of hormones by adrenal medulla.
Reason: Adrenaline and noradrenaline are the hormones secreted by adrenal medulla that prepares the
individuals for fight or flight.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
200. Complete the following pathway representing pulmonary circulation.
Blood flows from the right ventricle → I → lungs oxygenation of blood→ II → III.
(a) I-left atrium, II-2 pulmonary veins, III-pulmonary artery
(b) I-4 pulmonary veins, II-left atrium, III-pulmonary artery
(c) I-left atrium, II-4 pulmonary veins, III - pulmonary artery
(d) I-pulmonary artery, II-4 pulmonary veins, III-left atrium