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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

11. In order to know whether a column is long or

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY short, we must know its
(A) Ultimate shear stress of the column
KARAIKUDI (B) Factor of safety (C) Torque resisting capacity
(D) Slenderness ratio
TNPSC JDO MODEL EXAM -IV
PAPER I ( CIVIL ENGINEERING) 12. When both ends of a column are fixed, the
Maximum Marks: 300 Duration :03.00Hrs effective length is
1. The property of a material by virtue of which it can (A) Its own length (B) Twice its length
be beaten or rolled into plates is called (C) Half its length (D) 1/√2 × its length
(A) Malleability (B) Ductility
(C) Plasticity (D) Elasticity 13. The section modulus of a circular section about an
axis through its C.G., is
2. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying (A) πd²/4 (B) πd²/16 (C) πd3/16 D) πd3/32
load from zero at ‘B’ and ‘w’ per unit length at ‘A’. The
shear force at ‘B’ is equal to 14. The assumption made in Euler's column theory is
(A) wl/6 (B) wl/3 (C) wl (D) 2wl/3 that
(A) The failure of column occurs due to buckling alone
3. A material obeys hook’s law up to (B) The length of column is very large as compared to
(A) Plastic limit (B) Elastic limit its cross-sectional dimensions
(C) Yield point (D) Limit of proportionality (C) The column material obeys Hooke's law
(D) All of the above
4. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a
mild steel specimen, strain 15. The value of shear stress which is induced in the
(A) Becomes constant (B) Starts decreasing shaft due to the applied couple varies
(C) Increases without any increase in load (A) From maximum at the center to zero at the
(D) None of the above circumference
(B) From zero at the center to maximum at the
5. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as circumference
compared to a solid shaft transmit (C) From maximum at the center to minimum at the
(A) Same torque (B) Less torque circumference
(C) More torque (D) Unpredictable (D) From minimum at the center to maximum at the
circumference
6. The shape of the BMD cantilever for uniformly
distributed load will be
16. The deformation of a bar under its own weight
(A) Straight line (B) Parabolic
compared to the deformation of same body subjected
(C) Elliptical (D) Cubic to a direct load equal to weight of the body is
(A) Same (B) Double (C) Half (D) Four times
7. For a simply supported beam of length ‘l’, when a
concentrated load W is applied in the center of the
17. The shear force at the ends of a simply supported
beam, the maximum deflection is
beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
(A) 5WL³/ 384EI (B) WL³/384EI
unit length is
(C) WL³/ 348EI (D) WL³/ 48EI
(A) Zero at its both ends
(B) wl at one end and -wl at the other end
8. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering
(C) wl/2 at one end and -wl/ 2 at the other end
section is at
(D) wl²/2 at one end and -wl²/ 2 at the other end
(A) Smaller end (B) Larger end
(C) Middle (D) Anywhere
18. The section modulus of a rectangular section about
9. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section an axis through its C.G., is
modulus. (A) b/2 (B) d/2 (C) bd²/2 (D) bd²/6
(A) Inversely proportional to two times
(B) Directly proportional to 19. A non yielding support implies that the
(C) Inversely proportional to (D) None of these (A) Support is frictionless
(B) Support can take any amount of reaction
10. In the torsion equation T/J = τ/r = Gθ/ L, the term (C) Support holds member firmly
J/R is called (D) Slope of the beam at the support is zero
(A) Shear modulus (B) Section modulus 20. A beam supported on more than two supports is
(C) Polar modulus (D) None of these called
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

(A) Simply supported beam (B) Fixed beam 28. In moment distribution method, the sum of
(C) Overhanging beam (D) Continuous beam distribution factors of all the members meeting at any
joint is always
21. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and (A) Zero B) Less than 1 C) 1 D) Greater than 1
depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same length and
width but depth is double that of 'A'. The elastic 29. Statically indeterminate structure requires
strength of beam B will be __________ as compared to a) Equilibrium Conditions Only
beam A. b) Compatibility Conditions Only
(A) Same (B) Double (C) Four times (D) Six times c) Equilibrium and Compatibility Condition together
d) Cannot be solved analytically
22. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling
load of a column is given by p = π²EI/Cl². In the 30. Which of the following is not true for the method
Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with one of joints?
end fixed and the other end free, is a) Equilibrium of joints is considered in method of
(A) ½ (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4 joints
b) Number of equilibrium equations are 2 for method
23. A simply supported beam of length ‘l’ carries a of joints
point load ‘W’ at a point C as shown in the below c) Method of joints can be used to solve for up to 3
figure. The maximum deflection lies at unknowns at a joint
d) Forces in prior member are to be calculated first, for
calculating internal forces in any chosen member

(A) Point A (B) Point B C) Point C

(D) Between points B and C

24. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is
that the plane sections before bending remains plane
after bending.
(B) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain
is directly proportional to the distance from the neutral
axis.
(C) At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is
maximum.
(D) The bending stress in a beam is inversely
proportional to the section modulus.

25. If in a pin-jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the

frame is (Where ‘m’ is number of members, ‘r’ is
reaction components and ‘j’ is number of joints)
(A) Stable and statically determinate
(B) Stable and statically indeterminate
(C) Unstable
(D) None of the above

26. A rigid-jointed plane frame is stable and statically

determinate if
(A) (m + r) = 2j (B) (m + r) = 3j
(C) (3m + r) = 3j (D) (m + 3r) = 3j

27. The carryover factor in a prismatic member whose

far end is fixed is
(A) 0 (B) ½ (C) 3/4 (D) 1
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

31. Find the force in member ED? 40. A continuous beam of two equal spans l,each is
simply supported at the two ends.It is subjected to
𝒘
u.d.l., 𝒎, on both the spans.The reaction at the central
support will be
3 5
a)wl b)2 𝑤𝑙 c) 4 𝑤𝑙 d)2wl

41. When a brick is cut into two halves longitudinally,

one part is called:
a) 1KN (COMPRESSIVE) b) 1KN (TENSILE)
A.king closer B. cornice brick
c) √2 KN (TENSILE) d) 0KN
C. queen closer D. voussoir
32. If a point load acting at the mid span of a fixed
42. The red colour obtained by the bricks is due to the
beam of uniform section produces fixed end moments
presence of:
60 kNm, then same load spread uniformly over the
A.lime B. silica
entire span will produce fixed end moments equal to
C. manganese D. iron oxide
a) 20kNm b) 30kNm c) 40kNm d) 45kNm
43. Which constituent of the cement, upon addition of
33. A cantilever subjected to a uniformly distributed
𝒘 water, sets and hardens first?
load of intensity is propped by a rigid prop to the
𝒎 A. tricalcium silicate B. tricalcium aluminate
same level of fixed support. The reaction in the prop C. dicalcium silicate D. free lime
is
3 𝑤𝑙 5
a)8 𝑤𝑙 b) 2 c)wl d) 8 𝑤𝑙 44. The aggregate is called fine aggregate if it is
completely passed on
34. In a propped cantilever subjected to u.d.I A. 0.15 mm sieve B. 0.30 mm sieve
throughout the span, the point of contraflexure will
C. 4.75 mm sieve D. None of these
occur at
𝑙 𝑙
a) b) from propped end 45. The fineness of cement is tested by
2 4
𝑙
c) from fixed end d)propped end a) air-permeability method
4
b) Le-chatelier method
35. A continuous beam has two equal spans,l each and c) Vicat’s apparatus d) all of these
is simply supported at the two ends.If it is subjected
𝒘
to u.d.l., , on both the spans.The bending moment at 46. The initial setting time of ordinary Portland
𝒎 cement should not be less than
the central support will be
𝑤𝑙 2 𝑤𝑙2 𝑤𝑙2 𝑤𝑙2
(a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes
a) b) c) d) (c) 45 minutes (d) one hour.
4 2 12 8

36. What is the ratio of the bending moment at the 47. The fineness modules of coarse and fine
centre of a simply supported beam to the bending aggregates are F2 and F1. What is the ratio X of fine
moment at the centre of a fixed beam ,when both are aggregate to coarse aggregate in a mix whose desired
of same span and both are subjected to same u.d.l fineness modulus in F
F2 −F1 F2 −F F −F F−F
a)1.5 b)3 c)6 d)9 (a) X = F−F (b) X = F−F (c) X = F1 −F2 (d) X = F−F2
1 1 1 1

37. A fixed beam is subjected to a u.d.l over its entire

48. The most commonly used substance as a vehicle in
span. The joints of contraflexure will occur on either
the oil paints is
side of the centre at a distance of _______from the
(a) zinc oxide (b) turpentine oil
centre
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 (c) white lead (d) linseed oil.
a)√3 b) 3 c) 2√3 d) 4√3
49. The clinker is formed at a temperature of
38. The maximum eccentricity of the vertical load on
a) 500˚C b) 1000˚C c) 900˚C d) 1500˚C
a short column of external diameter D and internal
diameter d, for no tension to occur, is
8𝐷 𝐷 2 +𝑑2 𝐷 2 +𝑑2 𝐷 2 −𝑑 2
50. The solution of salts from the soil absorbed by the
(a) (b) (c) (d) trees which becomes a viscous solution due to loss of
𝐷 2 +𝑑2 8𝐷 𝐷 8𝐷
moisture and action of carbon dioxide is knownas:
39. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions A.pith B. cambium C. bark D. sap
for a column of circular section of diameter(d)is
a)d / 4 b)d / 8 c)d/ 1 2 d)d / 1 6
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

51. If the load coming on to a pile is transferred to a 58. The desirable value of co-efficient of friction along
suitable bearing stratum at its bottom end, then it is longitudinal direction is
called A) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.15
a)sheet pile b)friction pile
c)bearing pile d)compaction pile 59. The dampness in the building may be caused due
to
52. The portion of the wall between the facing and a)moisture rise in the walls through capillary action
backing of the wall is called b)rain beating against external walls and rain travel
a)jamb b)frog c)throating d)hearting from wall tops
c)defective construction such as poor joints in masonry,
53. Stretcher bond is possible only in defective throating ,imperfect roof slope etc
a)half brick wall b)one brick wall d)all of the above
c)one and half brick wall d)wall if any thickness
60. In the case of R.C.C roof slabs covered by
54. The biggest disadvantage of brick flooring is that insulating layers, the maximum spacing of expansion
a)it is very expensive b)it requires skilled workmen joints is
c)it is water absorbent d)it is not fire resistant a)20 to 30m b)30 to 40m
c)10 to 15m d)more than 60m

61. The type of door commonly used for garages,

shops, and godowns
a)swing door b)revolving door
c)rolling shutter door d)flush door

62. The shift (S) of a transition curve is given by

𝐿2 𝐿2 𝐿2 𝐿2
a) S = 6𝑅 b) S = 12𝑅 c) S = 24𝑅 d) S = 48𝑅

63. Higher values of super elevation is dangerous in

case of
(a) A fast-moving motor cycle
(b) Heavily loaded (but with a light material as cotton)
bullock cart
(c) A road that is always dry
(d) A long truck with a trailer.

64. For non-passing sight distance a stationary object

of this height is considered
(a) 10 cm b) 15 cm c) 50 cm d) 100 cm

55. The advantage of R.C.C lintel is that 65. Travel speed is

a)the sunshade can be cast monolithic along with lintel (a) Instantaneous speed of a vehicle at a cross section
b)there is no limitation on span (b)Average speed of a vehicle crossing a particular
c)they are strong and fire resistant cross-section
d)all the above (c)
Distance covered
Time of travel excluding halting time
Distance covered
56. A roof which slopes in all four direction and (d) Time of travel including halting time
having flat top is known as
a)deck roof b)duck roof
66. A well prepared WBM road can accept
c)dual roof d)durable roof
(a) 450t of pneumatic load/day
57. In doors and windows, stile is (b) 450t of iron wheeled traffic/day
a)the vertical member of the frame (c) 450t of pneumatic traffic + 450t of iron wheeled
b)the vertical member of the shutter traffic/day
c)the member which divides the frame into two vertical (d) 900t of mixed traffic/day
portions
d)none of the above 67 . In plains the minimum length of transition curve
is
𝑉2 𝑉2 2.7𝑉 2 𝑉2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑅 1.5𝑅 𝑅 24𝑅
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68. The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of (A) Reconnaissance (B) Judging the distance
a given soil is (C) Determination of slope
(a) void ratio (b) porosity (D) Establishing intermediate points between terminals
(c) air content (d) air ratio
82. If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as
69. The symbol GM indicates 0.75 m from a tachometer, the horizontal distance
(a) Gravels (b) Gravelly silts between tachometer and staff
(c) Silty gravel (d) Silts (A) 7.5 m (B) 25 m (C) 50 m D) 75 m

70. The traffic capacity of a highway is 83. During secular variation of magnetic meridian at
always………as compared to traffic volume. different places
a)equal b) more c) less (A) Range of oscillations is constant
(B) Period of oscillation is constant
71. The Indian Roads Congress (I.R.C.) was set up in (C) Range and period of oscillation both vary
a) 1930 b)1934 c) 1948 d)1956 (D) Period of oscillation only varies

72. According to Indian Roads Congress, the 84. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents
maximum width of a road vehicle is (A) Steep slope (B) Gentle slope
a)1.85 m b)2.25 m c) 2.45 m d)3.2 m (C) Uniform slope (D) Plane surface

73. The thickness of road surfacing depends upon 85. The radius of a simple circular curve is 300 m and
the length of its specified chord is 30 m. The degree of the
a) type of traffic b)intensity of traffic curve is
c) type of material d)all of these (A) 5.73° (B) 5.37° (C) 3.57° D) 3.75°

74. The traffic volume is equal to 86. Which of the following methods of theodolite
a) traffic density/traffic speed traversing is suitable for locating the details which
b) traffic speed/traffic density are far away from transit stations?
c) traffic density x traffic speed d)none of these (A) Measuring angle and distance from one transit station
(B) Measuring angles to the point from at least two
75. The most effective method for compacting sand is stations
by using (C) Measuring angle at one station and distance from
(a) Pneumatic rollers b) Sheep foot rollers other
(c) Steel tyred rollers d) Vibration. (D) Measuring distance from two points on traverse line

76. Compaction of soil is aimed at 87. The line of collimation method of reduction of
(a) Decreasing dry density b) Increasing porosity levels, does not provide a check on
(c) Decreasing void ratio (d) Decreasing shear strength. (A) Intermediate sights (B) Fore sights
77. Which of the following is not the component of (C) Back sights (D) Reduced levels
substructure of a bridge?
a) Pier b) Abutment 88. If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N30°W
c) Wing-walls d) Roadway and length is 100 m, then the latitude and
departure respectively of the line AB will be
78. A end supports of the superstructure of a bridge (A) +50 m, +86.6 m (B) +86.6 m, -50 m
are called __ (C) +50 m, -86.6 m (D) +70.7 m, -50 m
a) Wing-walls b) Abutment
c) None of these d) both 89. Contour interval is
(A) Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
79. As per I.R.C. approaches should be straight for a (B) Directly proportional to the flatness of ground
minimum length of __ on either side of a bridge. (C) Larger for accurate works
a) 5 m b) 10 m c) 15 m d) 20 m (D) Larger if the time available is more

80. Slab culverts are suitable for maximum span of 90. Determining points of strategic importance
a) 3 m b) 6 m c) 9 m d) 12 m are called _______
a) Topographic surveying b) City surveying
c) Military surveying d) Traverse surveying

81. Ranging is an operation of

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91. The smaller horizontal angle between the true 94. The line normal to the plumb line is known as
meridian and a survey line, is known (A) Horizontal line (B) Level line
(A) Declination (B) Bearing (C) Datum line (D) Vertical line
(C) Azimuth (D) Dip
95. The desired sensitivity of a bubble tube with
92. Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying, 2 mm divisions is 30". The radius of the bubble
are essentially required tube should be
(A) To plot the chain lines (B) To plot the offsets (A) 13.75 m (B) 3.44 m (C) 1375 m (D) None
(C) To indicate the accuracy of the survey work
(D) To increase the out-turn 96. In levelling operation
(A) When the instrument is being shifted, the staff must
93. There are two stations A and B. Which of the not be moved
following statements is correct? (B) When the staff is being carried forward, the
(A) The fore bearing of AB is AB instrument must remain stationary
(B) The back bearing of AB is BA (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Neither (a) nor (b)
(C) The fore and back bearings of AB differ by 180°
(D) All the above 97. Tacheometric formula for horizontal distances
using horizontal sights can also suitable be employed
for inclined sights through θ by multiplying
(A) The constants by sin2θ (B) The constants by cos2θ
(C) The constants by cosθ
(D) The multiplying constant by cos2θ and additive
constant by cosθ
98. Chain surveying is well adopted for
(A) Small areas in open ground
(B) Small areas with crowded details
(C) Large areas with simple details
(D) Large areas with difficult details

99. A tape of length ‘l’ and weight ‘W’ kg/m is

suspended at its ends with a pull of ‘P’ kg, the sag
correction is
(A) l3W2/24P2 (B) l2W3/24P2
(C) l2W2/24P3 (D) lW2/24P

100. Which of the following is considered as modern

GPS technology?
a) GIS b) GPS mode c) Instantaneous mode
d) Kinematic positioning technique

101. In the inverted U-tube Differential manometer,

how is the specific gravity of manometric fluid used
relative to the fluid flowing in the pipes
a) Specific gravity is more than that of fluid flowing in pipes
b) Specific gravity is less than that of fluid flowing in pipes
c) Specific gravity is equal to that of fluid flowing in pipes
d) None of the mentioned

102. A channel is said to be of most economical cross

section, if
a) it gives maximum discharge for a given cross-
sectional area and bed slope
b) it has minimum wetted perimeter
c) it involves lesser excavation for the designed amount
of discharge d) all of the above

103. A beaker half-filled with water is exposed to the

atmosphere. If the pressure at points A, B and C as
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

shown are Pa, Pb and Pc respectively, which one of 110. Which property of the fluid accounts for the
the following will be the relation connecting the major losses in pipes?
three? a) density b) specific gravity
c) viscosity d) compressibility
a) Pa > Pb = Pc
b) Pa > Pb > Pc 111. Hydraulic gradient line takes into consideration
c) Pa < Pb < Pc a) potential and kinetic heads only
d) Pa < Pb = Pc b) potential and pressure heads only
c) kinetic and pressure heads only
d) potential, kinetic and pressure heads

112. Which of the following is true?

104. Define Viscosity?
a) the slope of EGL will always be greater than that of
a) Resistance to flow of an object
the axis of the pipe
b) Resistance to flow of air
b) the slope of EGL will always be smaller than that of
c) Resistance to flow of fluid
the axis of the pipe
d) Resistance to flow of heat
c) the slope of EGL will always be equal to that of the
axis of the pipe
105. Can centre of pressure for a vertical plane
d) the slope of EGL will always be independent of that
submerged surface be ever be above centre of Gravity
of the axis of the pipe
a) Yes b) No
c) It can be above in cases where the surface height is 113. What is the total loss developed in a series of
very large pipes?
d) None of the mentioned a) Sum of losses in each pipe only
106. Which method is used exclusively in fluid b) Sum of local losses only
mechanics? c) Sum of local losses plus the losses in each pipe
a) Lagrangian method b) Eulerian method d) Zero
c) Both Lagrangian and Eulerian methods
d) Neither Lagrangian nor Eulerian method 114. A liquid flowss through two similar pipes 1
and 2. If the ratio of their flow velocities v1 : v2
107. A beaker contains water up to a certain height as be 2:3, what will be the ratio of the head loss in
shown. If the water is allowed to get discharged the two pipes?
through a small pipe (of a uniform diameter), what a) 3:2 b) 9:4 c) 2:3 d) 4:9
type of flow will it be in the pipe?
115. When is orifice called ‘large orifice’?
a) steady and uniform a) If the head of liquid is less than 5 times the depth of
b) unsteady and uniform orifice
c) steady and non- b) If the head of liquid is less than 2.5 times the depth of
uniform orifice
d) unsteady and non- c) If the head of liquid is less Hence, 4 times the depth of
uniform orifice
d) If the head of liquid is less than 1.5 times the depth of
orifice
108. Which of the following statements is true
regarding one and two-dimensional flows?
a) Flow in a pipe is always taken as one-dimensional 116. Trapezoidal weir has another popular name.
flow What is it?
b) Flow in a pipe is always taken as two-dimensional a) Cipolletti weir b) Hagen Poiseuille’s weir
flow c) Reynold’s weir d) Euler’s weir
c) Flow in a pipe is taken as one-dimensional flow when 117. Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied when the
average flow parameters are considered flow is
d) Flow in a pipe is taken as two-dimensional flow (A) rotational (B) turbulent
when average flow parameters are considered (C) unsteady (D) all of the above
118. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to
109. Three flows named as 1,2 and 3 are observed in a) Transfer speed b) Transfer pressure
pipes. The Reynold’s number for the three are 100, c) Transfer temperature d) Transfer energy
1000 and 10000. Which of the flows will be laminar?
a) only 1 b) only 1 and 2 119. What is the dimension of C?
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) only 3 a) LT b) L1/2 T-1 c) LT-1 d) L-1 T-1
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120. Estimate the hydraulic radius of the most

economical trapezoidal channel section having depth 128. The shrinkage in a concrete slab
y and side slope Z. a)causes shear cracks b)causes tension cracks
a) y⁄2 b) y c) 2y d) 3y c) causes compression cracks
d)does not cause any cracking
121. In a singly reinforced concrete beam if the load is
very small
a) only concrete will resist tension
b) only steel bars will resist tension
c) both concrete and steel will resist tension
d) both concrete and steel will resist compression

122. For an over reinforced (singly reinforced)

rectangular reinforced concrete section
a) the lever arm will be less than that for a balanced
section
b) the maximum stress developed by steel will be equal
to the allowable stress in steel
c) the maximum stress developed by concrete will be
equal to allowable stress in concrete
d) none of the above

123. The neutral axis of an over-reinforced section

falls
a) on the critical neutral axis of balanced section
b) below the critical neutral axis of balanced section
c) above the critical neutral axis of balanced section
d) none the above

124. Which one of the following sections of equal

cross-sectional area can resist the torsional moment
of a R.C.C. beam section more efficiently when
working stress design is adopted ?
a) An unsymmetrical section b) A box section
c) A solid rectangular section
d) Asymmetrical I-section

125. A doubly reinforced section is used 129. If plain bars are used, the area of distribution
a) when the members are subjected to alternate external reinforcement in slabs should not be less than
loads and the bending moment in the sections reverses a) 0.12 % of the gross area of concrete
b) when the members are subjected to loading eccentric b)0.15 % of the gross area of concrete
on either side of the axis c) 0.18 % of the gross area of concrete
c) when the members are subjected to accidental lateral d)0.21 % of the gross area of concrete
loads
d) all of the above 130. When a slab is continuous over several spans,
negative (i.e. hogging) bending moment is induced
126. The section of the beam having greater width at over the
the top in comparison to the width below a)end supports b)intermediate supports
neutral axis is known as c) both(a)and (b) d)none of these
a)critical section b)T-section
c) L-section d)none of these 131. For a slab spanning in two directions, the ratio of
span to the depth of slab should not exceed
127. The side face reinforcement, if required, in a T-
a)10 b)20 c) 35 d) 50
beam will be
132. A _________ is a horizontal member which is
a) 0.1 % of the web area b) 0.15 % of the web area
placed across an opening to support the position of
c) 0.2 % to 0.3 % of the web area depending upon the
the structure above it.
breadth of the slab
a)Door b)Window c)Sill d) Lintel
D) half the longitudinal reinforcement
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143. The best material for pipes to be laid under water

133. _________ consist of slabs of Stones which are is
placed across the opening. (a) Cast iron (b) Steel
a)Stone Lintels b)Brick Lintels (c) Cement concrete (d) Asbestos cement.
c)Steel Lintels d) Wood Lintels
144. Highly coloured waters are
134. How many R.C.C. columns shall be for minimum (a) Unaesthetic (b) highly polluted
clear cover? (c) Require elaborate treatment
a) Greater of 25 mm or diameter (d) Rich in iron and manganese.
b) Smaller of 40 mm or diameter
c) Greater of 40 mm or diameter 145. In a D.O. test oxygen is replaced by equivalent in
d) Smaller of 25 mm or diameter (a) Iodine b) Sodium thiosulphate
(c) Manganous sulphate d) Sulphuric acid.
135. The minimum eccentricity that should be used in the
design of any R.C.C. column is given by 146. Laxative effect is because of
unsupported length
(a) 50 mm (b) (a) CaS04 (b) CaCl2 (c) MgCl2 d) MgS04.
500
lateral dimension unsuported length lateral dimension
(c) (d) +
30 500 30 147. Eutrophication of a lake is
(a) Organic pollution (b) Inorganic pollution
136. The minimum number of longitudinal steel bars in (c) Enrichment of water quality with nutrients
R.C.C. rectangular columns must be (d) Deterioration of water bodies with biological
(a)2 (b)4 (c)6 (d)8. growths.

137. A compression member is termed as column or strut if 148."Dental Caries" will be absent where the
the ratio of its effective length to the least lateral dimension following is present
is more than (a) Mottled enamel of teeth (b) Itai-itai
(a)1 b)2 c) 3 (d) no limit. (c) Methamoglobinemia (d) Cancer.

138. The cross-section of a standard fillet weld is a 149. The jar test is to be carried out immediately after
triangle with base angles of the collection of the water sample so that
(a) 45° and 45° (b) 30° and 60° (a) Concentration of dissolved gases as oxygen,
(c) 40° and 50° (d) 35° and 55°. nitrogen, carbon dioxide shall not change
139. Net sectional area of a tension member is equal to (b) Sedimentation of Colloids do not take place before
its gross sectional area the test
(a) Plus the area of the rivet holes (c) Quality of water may not get deterioration
(b) Divided by the area of the rivet holes (d) Least amount of coagulant can be used.
(c) Minus twice the area of the rivet holes
(d) Minus the area of the rivet holes. 150. BOD test is not well suited to industrial wastes
because
140. Outstanding length of a compression member (a) It is a slow process
consisting of an angle or channel is measured as (b) Toxic chemicals produce wrong results
(a) Nominal width of the section (c) The waste lacks in nutrients
(b) One-half of the nominal width of the section (d) Oxidation is incomplete.
(c) Distance from the free edge to the first row of rivet
(d) Slenderness ratio of the section. 151. For any waste
(a) COD may be less than BOD
141. Waters from the following source is likely to be (b) BOD and COD are equal
hard
(c) COD is always greater than BOD
(a) River (b) lake
(d) Depending upon the percentage of biodegradable
(c) Deep well (d) shallow well.
matter, it may be either way.
142. Losses in a distribution system are due to
(a) Poor quality of pipes and fittings 152. A water borne disease is
(b) Unauthorized connections a) Malaria (b) cancer
(c) Dead end system of network of pipes (c) Dysentery (d) encephalitis.
(d) Low morale of people.
153. The level of sound during normal conversation is
(A) 20 dbA (B) 40 dbA (C) 60 dbA (D) 80 dbA
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

c) The total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities

154. Self-purification of a stream is quite rapid by the tenants
when d) A part of the money kept in reserve for providing
(a) Stream had sluggish flow additional structures and structural modifications
(b) Straight course with uniform cross-section
165. The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar
(c) Course is full of rapids and water falls
in foundation and plinth per mason per day, is
(d) More bacterial pollution exists.
a) 1.00 m3 b) 1.25 m3 c) 1.50 m3 d)1.75 m3
155. A septic tank is a water tight tank where the 166. The volume of cement of 10m3 of brickwork in 1:6
following operation(s) take place cement mortar is approximately equation to
(a) Sedimentation a) 3/4m3 b) 3/6m3 c) 3/7m3 d) 3/5m3
(b) Sedimentation + digestion (anaerobic)
(c) Digestion (aerobic) 167. The amount required to be deposited by a
(d) Decomposition of organic and inorganic contractor while submitting a tender is known as
matter by bacteria. a) fixed deposit b) caution deposit
c) security deposit d) earnest money deposit
156. A sanitary sewer is expected to run
(a) Full (b) half full 168. Which of the following is known as general
(c) 2/3 full (d) 90% full. overhead?
a) losses on advance b) interest on investment
157. The number of functional components of solid c) travelling expenses d) amenities to the labor
waste management is:
a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4

158. Under which rule of Government, guidelines for

solid waste management are followed today?
a) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000
b) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2016
c) Solid Waste Rules, 2000
d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016

159. Which of the following is called the secondary air

pollutant?
(a) PANs (b) Ozone
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Nitrogen Dioxide

160. Which of the following diseases are caused by

smog?
(a) Rickets (b) Bronchitis
(c) Breathing Problems (d) All of the above

161. A person who takes the lease is known as

a) Leaser b) Leaseholder
c) Owner d) Short-term owner

162. Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area
estimate
a) Wall thickness b) Courtyard area
c)Water closet area d) Verandah area
163. The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level
is kept
a) 60 cm b)70 cm c) 75 cm to 80 cm d)80 cm

164. Sinking fund is

a) Raised to meet maintenance costs
b) The fund for rebuilding a structure when its
economic life is over
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

169. The technique of finding the fair price of an

existing building or property is known as 180. How many mazdoors will be required for the
a) estimation b) valuation disposal of 30cu.m of surplus earth within a lead of
c) pricing d) costing 30m in one day?
a) 1 b) 5 c) 10 d) 30
170. The approximate cost of the complete labor as a
percentage of the total cost of the buildings is 181. In PWD, a tender is called “ for and on behalf of
a)10% b)25% c)40% d)5% the”
a) Chief Engineer b) Executive Engineer
171. When not specified, the volume of steel in R.C.C
c) Governor of the state d) Government
work for beam is taken as
a)1% to 1.6%of R.C.C volume
b) 2% to 4%of R.C.C volume 182. Which of the following is a dummy activity?
c) 4% to 6%of R.C.C volume a) Excavation of foundations
d) 0.6% to 1.0%of R.C.C volume b) Laying the foundation concrete
c)Awaiting the arrival of concrete material
172. To account for the corrugation, the plain area of d) Curing the foundation concrete
the semi-corrugated asbestos sheet is increased by
a)1% b)10% c)20% d)30%
183 The planning undertaken by the contractor
173. A document containing detailed description of after receipt of Tender Notice and before
all items of work (but their quantities are not submitting the Bid
mentioned) together with their current rates is called a) Tender scheduling b) Schedule planning
a) tender b) schedule of rates c) Post-tender planning d) Pre-tender planning
c) analysis of rate d) abstract estimate
184. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by
174. In the rent fixation, the owner expects about 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 − 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡
higher interest than the prevalent rate, to cover up the
a) 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 b) 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 − 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
risk of his investment 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 − 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
c) d)
a) 2% b) 3% c) 6% d) 8% 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝐶𝑟𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 − 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡

175. The net annual letting out value of a 185. When the activity A preceeds B but succeeds
property, which is obtained after deducing the C, then the net work is
amount of yearly repairs from the gross income, is
known as
a) Market value b) Book value
c) Sinking value d) Ratable value

176. The amount of S.D. to be deposited by the

tenderer is
186. In resources levelling
a. 1% of the tender amount a) total duration of project is reduced
b. 10% of the tender amount b) total duration of project is increased
c. 15% of the tender amount c) uniform demand of resources is achieved
d. 20% of the tender amount d) cost of project is controlled
177. The net area of the living rooms excluding 187. If the probability factor is zero, the chances of
kitchen, pantry etc. completing the project in scheduled time are
a. non-liveable area b. carpet area a)0% b)50% c)75% d)100%
c. plinth area d. tota area
188. Negative float for any activity means that the
178. ’Lead and lift’ is the term used in
activity is
a)earthwork b)reappropriation of funds
a)super-critical b)sub-critical
c) salvage value d) tender notification.
c)critical d)none of the above
179. The centre line method is specially adopted
for estimating 189. According to Beta distribution ,the standard
a)circular buildings b)hexagonal buildings deviation of the time of completion is given by
tp −t0 tp −t0 tp −t0 tp −t0
c)octagonal buildings d)all of these a)σ = 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
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CODE: JDO 2021/PAPER II / MODEL EXAM IV

190. Crashing to the project means b) I and II require neither time nor resources.
a)reducing the time of completion by spending more c) I require neither time nor resources, but II
resources requires time only
b)reducing the cost of project by delaying the time of d) I and II require time and resources.
completion
c)reducing the project size to save the resources 199 . If the path of an activity leads back into itself,
d)all the above the resulting error in the network is known as
a) Looping b) Dangling
191. The entries in the measurement books (M- c) Interfacing d) Splicing
books) has to be entered by the
A. Technical Assistant b. Section Officer 200. Which of the following does not represent an
c. Sub-Divisional engineer d. Divisional Engineer activity
a) Site is located b) Office area is being cleaned
192. The process of laying out the various activities of c) Invitations are being sent d) Foundation is being dug
the project in a project in a time sequence – .
logically, orderly and systematic manner
A. Project Surveying b. Project Sequencing
c. Project Controlling d. Project Scheduling

193. The business organization run by an

individual is called
a. One man Organization b. Individual organization
c. Single man proprietorship d. Sole proprietorship

194. The ratio of average annual earning per year to

the net total investment
A. Present Value of Index (PVI)
b. Net Present Value (NPV)
c. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
d. Accounting Rate of Return (ARR)

195. The probability that the activity will be

completed in the expected time, depends upon the
dispersion of the distribution curve, which is
measured by
(a) Mean (B) Variance (c) Standard Deviation
(d) Probability Density Function

196. The bill to be used for making a single payment

for a work
a) First and final bill b) Running account bill
c) Lumpsum contract bill d) none of these

197. A dual role event is

a) The beginning of one event and the end of
another
b) Any event other than the initial & final event
c) The head event as well as tail event
d) None of these.

198. Consider the following:

I. Dummy activity II. Artificial activity
a) I requires time and resources, but II requires time
only.