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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

10. When a shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY stress induced in the shaft varies from
a) minimum at the centre to maximum at the
KARAIKUDI circumference
b) maximum at the centre to minimum at the
TNPSC JDO MODEL EXAM -II circumference
PAPER I ( CIVIL ENGINEERING) c) zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
Maximum Marks: 300 Duration :03.00Hrs d) maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
1. Young's modulus may be defined as the ratio of
a)linear stress to lateral strain 11. A three-hinged semicircular arch of radius R
b)lateral strain to linear strain carries a uniformly distributed load w per unit run
c)linear stress to linear strain over the whole span. The horizontal thrust is
d)shear stress to shear strain a) wR b) wR/2 c) 4wR/3π d) 2wR/3π

2. A pin jointed plane frame with j number of joints 12. Two shafts ' A ' and ' B ' are made of same material.
and n number of members will be internally The shaft ' A ' is of diameter D and shaft 'B' is of
redundant diameter D / 2 . The strength of shaft 'B'
a)n>(2j-3) b)n<(2j-3) c)n=(2j-3) d)n<(2j+3) is……………as that of shaft ' A ' .
a) one-eighth b ) one-fourth
3. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a c)one-half d ) four times
rectangular beam and a circular beam of the
same cross-sectional area is 13. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly
a)2/3 b ) 3/4 c) 1 d ) 9/8 loaded, is …………. same load is applied gradually.
a ) equal to b ) one-half c) twice d) four times
4. The bending moment at a section tends to bend or
deflect the beam and the internal stresses 14. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN /
resist its bending. The resistance offered by the m2 (tensile) and 10 kN / m2 (compressive) acting
internal stresses, to the bending, is called perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear
a ) compressive stress b ) shear stress stress is
c) bending stress d) elastic modulus a ) 5kN/m2 b ) 10kN/m2 c) 15kN/m2 d ) 20kN/m2

5.For analyzing pin jointed frames by the method of 15. The relation between modulus of elasticity ( E )
joints, the number of equations of static equilibrium and modulus of rigidity c) is given by
available is a) C = b) C = c) C = d) C =
a)3 b)1 c)0 d)2

6. Which of the following is the correct torsion 16. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly
equation from diameter d1,at one end to diameter d 2 at the other
end, and subjected to an axial pull of P is given by
a) b)
a) b) c) d)
c) d)
17. When a bar of length l and diameter d is rigidly
7. A simply supported beam of span L carries a u.d.l fixed at the upper end and hanging freely, then
of w per unit length over the entire span. The strain the total elongation produced in the bar due to its own
energy stored by the beam is given by weight is
W2 L5 W2 L5 W2 L5 W2 L5
a) 84EI b) 184EI c) 240EI d) 384EI a) b) c) d)

8. When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the 18. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter
stress at any point is……………..the distance of that (D) is
point from the neutral axis.
a ) equal to b ) directly proportional to a) b) c) d)
c)inversely proportional to d ) independent of
19.What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy of
9. For a conjugate beam,the fixed end of a real beam the beam shown in Fig.,
corresponds to
a)fixed end b)free end
c)hinged end d)hinged end on rollers
a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5
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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

20. The theorem of three moments for the solution of 29.For a symmetrical two hinged parabolic arch, if one
continuous beams is formulated by of the supports settles horizontally, then the
a)Young b)Maxwell c)Williot-Mohr d)Clapeyron horizontal thrust
a)is increased b)is decreased
21. The radius of gyration of a section of area A and c)remains unchanged d)becomes zero
least moment of inertia / about the centroidal axis is
a) A/I b) I/A c) √(I/A) d) √(A/I) 30.The moment required to rotate the near end of a
prismatic beam through unit angle without
22. The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free translation, when the far end is fixed, is
end of a cantilever of length L and having flexural (a)EI/L (b) 2EI/L (c) 3EI/L (d) 4EI/L
rigidity EI, is
a) WL2/2EI b) WL2/3EI c) WL3/2EI d) WL3/3EI 31.Which of the following is not the
displacement method?
23.When there is a sudden increase or decrease in a)Equilibrium method b)Column analogy method
shear force diagram between any two points, it c)Moment distribution method
indicates that there is a d)Kani's method
a ) point load at the two points
b ) no loading between the two points
c) uniformly distributed load between the two points
d) uniformly varying load between the two points

24. The simply supported beam ' A 'of length l carries

a central point load W. Another beam 'B' is
loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that
the total load on the beam is W . The ratio of
maximum deflections between beams A and B is
a ) 5/8 b ) 8/5 c)5/4 d ) 4/5

25. A statiscally indeterminate structure is the one

which
a)cannot be analysed using the equations of statics
alone
b)cannot be analysed at all
c)is not stable for general loading
d)can be analysed with the equation of statics alone

26.Castigliano's first theorem is applicable

a)for statically determinate structures only
b)when the system behaves elastically
c)only when principle of superposition is valid
d)none of the above

27.If there are an unknown member forces, r

unknown reaction components and j number of joints
then the degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-
jointed plane frame is given by
a) m+ r+ 2i c b) m –r + 2j
c) m+ r -2j d) m+ r-3j

28.In a simple bending theory, one of the assumption

is that the material of the beam is isotropic. This
assumption means that the
a) normal stress remains constant in all directions
b) normal stress varies linearly in the material
c) elastic constants are same in all the directions
d) elastic constants varies linearly in the material

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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

32. A cantilever beam of length l and carrying a point 37.A rigid frame is a structure composed of members
load W a t the free end is shown in Fig. Which of the which are connected by
following is correct? a)rigid joints b)simple bending
c)a single rivet d)none of the above

38.A suspension cable, supporting loads, will be

under
a)tension b)bending
c)compression d)compression and bending

39.Independent displacement components at each

joint of a rigid jointed plane frame are
a) three linear movements
b) two linear movements and one rotation
a ) A is the bending moment diagram and C is the c) one linear movement and two rotations
shear force diagram d) three rotation
b ) A is the shear force diagram and C is the bending
moment diagram 40. The forces in the members of simple trusses, may
c ) B is the bending moment diagram and D is the be analysed by
shear force diagram a) graphical method b) method of joints
d ) B is the shear force diagram and D is the bending c) method of sections d) all the above.
moment diagram
41. The binding material in the mortar is also called
33.In the pin-jointed plane frame shown in the given (a) Admixture (b) Paste (c) Adulterant (d) Matrix
figure, the force in the member BD is

42. The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient

of cement is that of ____
a)magnesium oxide b) iron oxide c) alumina d) lime

43. The correct sequence of workability

a) 50000 N (Tensile) b) 50000 N (Compressive) test(s)/method(s) in the order of their application
from low to high workability is
c)50000√2N (Tensile) d) zero
a) slump test, compacting factor test and vee-bee
34.Which one of the following is true example of a
consistometer
statically determinate beam?
b) compacting factor test, vee-bee consistometer and
a) One end is fixed and the other end is simply
slump test.
supported
c) vee-bee consistometer, slump test and compacting
b) Both the ends are fixed
factor test.
c) The beam overhangs over two supports
d) vee-bee consistometer, compacting factor test and
d) The beam is supported on three supports
slump test
35.While using three moments equation, a fixed end
of a continuous beam is replaced by an additional 44. The percentage of pigments added to white
span of cement in order to get colocrete is
a) 5 % b) 10 % c) 20 % d) 30 %
a) Zero length b) infinite length
c) Zero moment of inertia d) none of the above
45. The standard rate of application of loading to be
36. A simply supported beam is loaded as shown in adopted in the concrete cube testing is
Fig. The bending moment diagram will be a) 14 N/mm2 per minute b) 5N/mm2 per minute
c) 7 N/mm2 per minute d) 10N/mm2 per minute

46. The property of fresh cement concrete, in which

the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while
placing and compacting is called
a) segregation b) bleeding
c) creep d) bulking

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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

47. If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm (c) it has a higher strength to weight ratio
and the depth of the sand when fully inundated with (d) all the above.
water is 12 cm, the bulking of the moist sand, is
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25% 60. The ingredient which makes the stainless steel
corrosion resistant is
48. If P is the percentage of water required for normal (a) carbon (b) sulphur
consistency, water to be added for determination of (c) chromium (d) manganese.
soundness is ______
a) 0.85 P b) 0.78 P c) 0.76 P d) 0.73 P 61. Well foundation is also known as
a) caisson b) swage pile
49. The test conducted by Vicat’s apparatus c) under ream d) none of the above
a) Fineness b) Compressive strength
c) Tensile strength d) Consistency 62. The surface of the wall exposed to weather is
called
50. The indentation marks left on bricks during the a)the face b)the back c)the side d)perpend
process of moulding, are known as
a) fillets b) frogs c) projections d) marks 63. groove provided on the underside of projecting
elements such as cornices, copings such that rain
51. The alkaline salt present in the bricks, absorbs water can be discharged clear of the wall surface is
moisture from the air which on the drying called
a) leaves pores and makes the bricks porous a)corbel b)throating c)hearting d)weathering
b) leaves high powder deposit on the brick c)makes
the brick brittle and weak 64. The bond in which the bonding bricks are at an
d) all of these. inclination to the direction of the wall is known as
a) English bond b) Flemish bond
52. The central part of a tree is called c) Raking bond d) Dutch bond
a) heart wood b) pith
c)sap wood d) cambium layer 65. Timber flooring is preferred in
a)all residual buildings b)only bath rooms
53. Seasoning of timber c)auditoriums and dancing halls d)public buildings
a) increases the weight of timber
b) improves %strength properties of timber 66.To what category do the gravel and sand belong ?
c) doesn’t give dimensional stability (a) cohesionless soils (b) cohesive soils
d) all of these (c) marine soils (d) expansive soils

54. The thinner used for oil paints is 67 .The symbol GM indicates
a) water b) turpentine (a) Gravels (b) Gravelly silts
c) carbon tetrachloride d) any one of these (c) Silty gravel (d) Silts

55. An assembled product made up of veneers and 68.For the same soil, increase in compaction effort
adhesives is called (a) Does not affect OMC (b) Increases OMC
a) board b) plank c)plywood d) batten (c) Decreases OMC d) Decreases more density
69. The test that will be preferred for testing of shear
56. Which of the following paint is highly resistant to strength of a saturated clay is
fire? (a) Direct shear test (b) Vane shear test
a) Cement paint b) Asbestos paint (c) Triaxial test (d) Unconfined compression test
c)Aluminium paint d) Enamel paint
70. When the area of all the footings covers more than
57. The main ingredient in the manufacture of glass is 50% of the total area of the structure, then the
(a) silica (b) potash (c)soda (d)lime foundation that is preferrable is
(a) Isolated foundation b) Combined footings
58. The type of glass used to make laboratory (c) Raft foundation d) None of the above
equipment and cooking utensils is
(a) soda lime glass (b) lead glass 71. The road connecting a district headquarters of one
(c) boro-silicate glass (d) wired glass state to the district headquarters of another bordering
59. Fibre glass has the characteristic that state is called
(a) it retains heat longer (a) National Highway (b) State Highway
(b) it is shockproof and fire retardant (c) Major District Road (d) Expressway
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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

72. Mixed traffic means 74. Ruling gradient in plains is

(a) Both up and down traffic (a) 1 in 20 (b) 1 in 30 (c) 1 in 40 (d) 1 in 50
(b) Light traffic as of cycles to that of heavy traffic as of
trucks 75. The normal elevation of driver’s eye is
(c) Pedestrians + animal drawn coaches + lorries (a) 100 cm above road level (b) 120 cm above road level
(d) Slow moving and fast moving traffic (c) 150 cm above road level (d) 200 cm above road level

76. A pavement is classified as flexible pavement or

73. The primary object of providing Camber is
rigid pavement based on its
(a) Easy drainage (b) Improved appearance
(a)Wearing course (b) Base course
(c) Easy separation of up and down traffic
(c) Sub-base (d) Sub-grade
(d) Easy overtaking facility
77. Effective traffic control, adopt
a) More number of traffic signs
(b) Limited number of traffic signs
(c) More varieties of traffic signs
(d) More ‘warning’ and less ‘informatory’ signs

78. The type of foundations recommended for heavily

loaded steel stanchions in soils with poor bearing
capacity
a)grillage foundation b)raft foundation
c)pile foundation d)well foundation

79. The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC

recommendation is equal to
a) Overtaking sight distance
b) Two times the overtaking sight distance
c) Three times the times the overtaking sight distance
d) Five times the overtaking
80.If the stopping distance is 60 metres, then the
minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two
way traffic is
a) 30m b) 60m c) 120m d) 180m

81. The hydraulic law states that rate of increases of

pressure in a vertical direction
(a) is equal to density of the fluid
(b) is equal to specific weight of the fluid
(c) is equal to weight of the fluid
(d) none of the above

82. Kinetic viscosity is defined as equal to

(a) dynamic viscosity x density
(b) dynamic viscosity/density
(c) dynamic viscosity x pressure
(d) pressure x density

83. Pitot-tube is used for measurement of

(a) pressure (b) flow
(c) velocity at a point (d) discharge

84. Irrotational flow means

(a) the fluid does not rotate while moving
(b) the fluid moves in straight lines
(c) the net rotation of fluid-particles about their mass
centres is zero (d)none of the above.

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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

85. The range for co-efficient of discharge (Cd) for a 94. Specific energy of a flowing fluid per unit weight
venturi-meter is is equal to
(a) 0.6 to 0.7 (b) 0.7 to 0.8 p V2 p V2 p V2
a)w + 2g b) w + h c) 2g +h d) w + 2g +h
(c) 0.8 to 0.9 (d) 0.95 to 0.99
95. The flow in open channel is laminar if the Reynold
86. For the laminar flow through a pipe, the shear
number is
stress over the cross-section
a)2000 b)less than 2000 c)less than 500 d)none
a)varies inversely as the distance from the center of the
pipe
96. The manometric efficiency (𝛈𝐦𝐚𝐱 ) of a centrifugal
b)varies directly as the distance from the surface of the
pump is given by
pipe H gH Vw u gVw2 u2
c)varies directly as the distance from the center of the a) m b) m c) 2 2 d)
gVw2 u2 Vw2 u2 gHm Hm
pipe
97. The square root of the ratio of inertia force to
d)remains constant over the cross-section
pressure force is known as
a)Reynold number b)Froude number
87. A boundary is known as hydro dynamically
c)Mach number d)Euler number
smooth if
k k k k
a)δ′ =0.3 b) δ′>0.3 c) δ′ <0.25 d) δ′=6.0 98. Specific yield of an aquifer is defined as the ratio
where k=average height of the irregularities from the of the
boundary δ′ =thickness of laminar sub-layer (a) Volume of pore space to the total volume of soil
(b) Volume of water freely drained from a saturated soil
88. The Bernoulli’s equation can take the form to the volume of soil
p V2 p V2 (c) Volume of water retained when a saturated soil is
(a) ρ1 + 2g1 + Z1 = ρ2 + 2g2 + Z2
1 2 freely drained to the volume of soil
p1 V21 p V2
(b) ρ + 2g + Z1 = ρ 2g + 2g + Z2 (d) Volume of pore space to volume of soil grains.
1q 2
p1 V21 p2 V22
(c) + + gZ1 = + + gZ2 99. The equation for steady state yield from a tube-
ρ1 g 2g ρ2 g 2g
p1 V21
(d) ρ g + 2g + Z1 = ρ g + 2g + Z2
p2 V22 well was first developed by
1 2 (a)Darcy (b)Dupuit (c) Jacob (d)Chow.
89. When the pipes are connected in series, the total
100. The transmissivity of the aquifer is defined as the
rate of flow
product of
a)is equal to the sum of the rate of flow in each pipe
(a) Radius of well and radius of influence
b)is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of rate of flow in
(b) Thickness of aquifer and radius of influence (c)
each pipe
Radius of the well and the permeability of the aquifer
c)is the same as flowing through each pipe
(d)Permeability of the aquifer and the thickness of the
d)none of the above
aquifer.
90. The difference in pressure head,measured by a
101. The specific speed (𝐍𝐬 )of a pump is given by the
mercury water differential manometer for a 20m
expression
difference of mercury level will be
N√Q N√P N√Q N√P
a)2.72m b)2.52m c)2.0m d)0.2m a)Ns = 5/4 b) Ns = 3/4 c) Ns = 3/4 d) Ns = 5/4
Hm Hm Hm Hm

91. The difference of pressure head (h) measured by a 102. The loss of head due to sudden expansion of a
mercury –oil differential manometer is given as pipe is given by
sg
a)h=x[1 − s ] b)h=x[sg − s0] V21 −V22 0.5 V21 (V1 −V2 )2
0 a)hL = 2g
b) hL = 2g
c) hL = 2g
sg
c) h=x[s0 − sg ] d) h=x[ − 1] d) none of the above
s0

92. Dynamic viscosity (µ) has the dimensions as 103 . Which of the following methods of contouring is
a) MLT −2 b) ML−1 T −1 most suitable for a hilly terrain?
c) ML−1T −2 d) M −1 L−1T −1 A. Direct method B. Square method
93. The boundary layer is called turbulent boundary C. Cross-sections method D. Tachometric method
layer if
a)Reynold number is more than 2000 104. For a tacheometer the additive and multi-plying
b)Reynold number is more than 4000 constants are respectively
c)Reynold number is more than 5 x 105 A. 0 and 100 B. 100 and 0 C. 0 and 0 D. 100 and 100
d)none of the above
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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

105. Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of

A. large water bodies B. heavenly bodies
C. mountaineous region D. canal system

106. Pick up the correct definition from the following

with response to GIS.
A. Common boundary between two areas of a locality
is known as adjacency
B. The area features which are wholly contained within
another area feature, is known so containment
C. The geometric property which describes the linkage
between line features is defined as connectivity
D. All of these

107. If S is the length of a subchord and R is the radius

of simple curve, the angle of deflection between its
tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal to
A. 573 S/R B. 1718.9 S/R C. 171.9 S/R D. 1718.9 R/S

108. What will be the length of the base line in case of

short baseline method of GPS surveying?
a) Less than 50km b) Greater than 50km
c) Less than 2km d) Greater than 100km

109. In chain surveying tie lines are primarily

provided
A. to check the accuracy of the survey
B. to take offsets for detail survey
C. to avoid long offsets from chain lines
D. to increase the number of chain lines.
110. The contour interval depends upon the
a ) nature of the ground b ) scale of map
c) purpose and extent of survey d ) all of these

111. Two theodolite method of setting out a curve

involves
a) linear measurements only
b ) angular measurements only 116. The lens used in aerial photogrammetry is having
c) both linear and angular measurements a maximum coverage capacity of ________ (in angles)
d ) none of these a) 930 b) 630 c) 530 d) 980

112. The angle between two plane mirrors of optical 117. If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at
square, is noon in southern hemisphere is 167°, the magnetic
A. 20° B. 30° C. 45° D. 60° declination at that place is
113.Fuction of total station is A. 77° N B. 23° S C. 13° E D. 13° W
a. Angle measurement b. Distance measurement
c. Coordinate measurement d. both a, b & c 118. In the surveying telescopes, cross hairs are fitted
a ) centre of the telescope
114. GIS uses the information from which of the b) optical centre of the eye piece
following sources? c) front of the eye piece
a) Non- spatial information system d) front of the objective
b) Spatial information system
c) Global information system 119. The curve composed of two arcs of different radii
d) Position information system having their centres on the opposite side of the curve,
is known
115. In a whole circle bearing system, S 25° 15' E A. a simple curve B. a compound curve
corresponds to C. a reverse curve D. a vertical curve.
a ) 115° 15' b ) 154° 45' c) 205° 15' d ) 334° 45'
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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

120. In chain surveying field work is limited to 133. A reflux valve is also known as
A. linear measurements only a)safety valve b)scour valve
B. angular measurements only c) air valve d)check valve
C. both linear and angular measurements
D. all the above. 134 . The minimum size of a fire hydrant is
a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15 cm d) 20 cm
121. Turbidity is mainly due to
(a) Floating solids (b) suspended solids 135. For an area developed in haphazard way, the type
(c) Colloidal solids (d) dissolved solids. of layout used for the distribution of pipes isknown
as
122. "Biological Magnification" is a)dead end system b)ring system
(a) Decrease in concentration with trophic level c) radial system d)grid iron system
(b) Increase in concentration with trophic level
(c) Equilibrium in concentration 136. A septic tank is a
(d) Magnification of poisons with time. a) sedimentation tank b) digestion tank
c) combination of sedimentation and digestion tank
123. A desirable pH value for water is d) aeration tank
(a) 7 (b) 6 to 8 (c)5to9 (d) 7 to 8.5.
137. For large sewers, the maximum distance between
124. A minimum amount of …………. mg/1 of manholes should be
alkalinity is desirable in any water. a) 75 m b)150 m c) 200 m d) 300 m
(a) 10 (b)20 (c)50 (d)100.
138. The most suitable excreta disposal unit for
125. The main souce of CO is human excreta is
a)oxidation of methane b)smoking of tobacco a) privy pit b) cesspool c) soak pit d) none of these
c)diesel exhaust d)gasoline exhaust
139. Match the pair
126. Salty taste is mainly due to I II
(a) NaCl (b) CaCl2 (c) MgCl2 (d)AgCl (A) joist (i) tension member in roof truss
(B) girder (ii) member supporting purlin
127 In India, as per Indian standards, water (C) tie (iii) member supporting roof in a
consumption per capita per day for domestic purpose building
is (D) rafter (iv) major floor beam in building
a) 85 litres b)100 litres c) 115 litres d)135litres a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
c) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-I d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
128. According to Kuichling formula, the fire demand
(Q) in litres per minute is given by
P P 140. A beam section is provided on the basis of
a) Q = 1135(5 + 10) b) Q = 2500(5 + 10) (i) section modulus, (ii) deflection, (iii) shear
c) Q=3182√P d) Q = 5663√P a) i, ii b) ii, iii c) i, iii d) i, ii and iii
129. The design period for a water supply project is
taken as
a) 5 to 10years b) 10 to 15 years 141. Which of the following statement is correct?
c) 15to 20years d)20 to 30years a) single angle section with bolted connection produce
eccentricity about both planes
b) single angle section with bolted connection produce
130. The minimum dissolved oxygen required in
water to save the aquatic life is eccentricity about one plane only
a) 1 ppm b) 2 ppm c) 4 ppm d) 8 ppm c) single angle section with welded connection produce
eccentricity about both planes
131. Salvaging is d) single angle section with welded connection does not
(a) Dumping of solid waste produce eccentricity about one plane
(b) Sanitary land filling of solid waste 142. What are residual stresses?
(c) Composting and soil conditioning a) stresses developed during construction
(d) Extraction of essence from waste. b) stresses developed due to seismic load
c) stresses developed due to vibration
132. Usual population equivalent of BOD is d) stresses developed during manufacturing
(a) 10 g/capita/day (b) 20 g/ capita/day
(c) 50 g/capita/day (d) 80g/capita/day.
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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

143. What is the maximum effective slenderness ratio d) dependent on the magnitude of shear reinforcement
for a tension member in which stress reversal occurs? provided
a) 180 b) 200 c) 280 d) 300
151. The bond between steel and concrete is mainly
144. What is net section rupture failure? due to
a) rupture of member when the cross section reaches a) pure adhesive resistance b) frictional resistance
yield stress c) mechanical resistance d) all of these
b) rupture of member when the cross section reaches 152 The minimum percentage of tension reinforcement in
ultimate stress R.C.C. beams is
0.85 40S
c) rupture of member when the cross section reaches (a) f (b) 0.4 c) 4 (d) f dv
y y
less value than yield stress
d) rupture of member when the cross section is reaches 153. For simply supported two way slabs of small pans
very less value than ultimate stress with HYSD bars of grade Fe 415 the span to over all depth
ratio is limited to
145. What is slenderness ratio of compression (a) 20 (b)26 (c)28 (d)35.
member?
a) ratio of effective length to radius of gyration
b) ratio of radius of gyration to effective length
c) difference of radius of gyration and effective length
d) product of radius of gyration and effective length

146 What is the relation between critical stress and

slenderness ratio?
a) critical stress is directly proportional to slenderness
ratio
b) critical stress is inversely proportional to slenderness
ratio
c) critical stress is square of slenderness ratio
d) critical stress is cube of slenderness ratio

147. Which is an ideal section for compression

member?
a) one having different moment of inertia about any
axis through its centre of gravity
b) one having same moment of inertia about any axis
through its centre of gravity
c) one having larger length
d) one made up of costly material

148. Knee braces are __________

a) long compression members
b) short compression members
c) long tension members d) short tension members

149. As per IS specification, the beam sections should

be
a) not symmetrical about any principal axes
b) at least symmetrical about one of the principal axes
c) symmetrical about all principal axes
d) unsymmetrical about all principal axes
150. For a reinforced concrete beam section, the shape
of the shear stress diagram is
a) parabolic over the whole section with maximum
value at the neutral axis
b) parabolic above the neutral axis and rectangular
below the neutral axis
c) linearly varying as the distance from the neutral axis

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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

154. When the factored shear force and factored torsional B. Half breadth of wall on each side
moment acting on a beam arc denoted byV u andT u and C. One fourth breadth of wall on each side
the breadth of the beam by b the equivalent shear V e is D. None of these
given by
V T
( a ) Tu + 1.6 bu ( b ) Vu + 1.6 bu 164. The rate of an item of work depends on
b b A. Specifications of works B. Specifications of materials
( c ) Tu + ( d ) Vu +
1.6Vu 1.6Tu C. Proportion of mortar D. All the above

155. For deformed bars, the allowable bond stress in 165. The most reliable estimate of Preliminary
tension is increased by per cent over the corresponding estimate is
value of plain bars. A. Carpet area method B. Cubical content estimate
(a)20 (b)40 c)60 (d)80. C. Plinth area estimate D. Detailed estimate

156. The side face reinforcement, if required, in a T- 166. The main factor to be considered while preparing
beam will be a detailed estimate, is
a) 0.1 % of the web area b) 0.15 % of the web area A. Quantity of the materials B. Availability of materials
c) 0.2 % to 0.3 % of the web area depending upon the C. Transportation of materials D. All the above
breadth of the slab
c) half the longitudinal reinforcement 167. The expected out turn of brick work in cement
mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per day, is
157. The area of longitudinal steel reinforcement in a A. 1.00 m³ B. 1.25 m³ C. 1.50 m³ D. 1.75 m³
column should not be
a) less than 0.8 % of the area of concrete section required 168. New floor area ratio in Tamil Nadu
for direct load alone a) 2 b)1.5 c)1.75 d)none
b) more than 6 % of the gross sectional area of column
c) either(a)and (b) d) both (a) and (b) 169. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
158. One way shear strength in a R.C.C. footing is checked A. Dimensions are measured to the nearest 1 cm
at a distance equal …… to of the footing from face B. Areas are measured to the nearest 0.01 sq.m
of the column C. Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 cum
a) one-fourth of the effective depth D. Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes
( b ) one-half of the effective depth
(c) three-fourth of the effective depth 170. The height of the sink of wash basin above floor
( d ) the effective depth. level is kept
A. 60 cm B. 70 cm C. 75 cm to 80 cm D. 80 cm
159. As per IS : 456, the ultimate load in structures in which
effect of wind or earth quake load is considered, should be 171. The value of a property which can be obtained at
(a) 1.2 D . L + 1.2 L . L + 1.2 W . L any particular time from the open market if the
( b ) 1.5 D . L + 1.5 L . L + 1.5 W . L property is put for sale, is known as
(c) 1.5 D . L + 1.5 L . L + 1.2 W . L a) Market value b) Book value
(d) 1.5 D . L + 2.1 L . L + 2.2 W . L c) Current value d) Rateable value

160. In the limit state method, the partial safety factor for 172. Net rent + outgoings =
concrete is taken as a) Total rent b) Annual rent
(a) 3 (b)2 (c)l (d)1.5. c) Depreciation value d) Gross rent

161. Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is 173. The value of property, without being dismantled,
prepared if the sanctioned estimate exceeds at the end of the useful life period as known
A. 10 % B. 50 % C. 4.0 % D. 5.0 % a) salvation value b) book value
c) scrap value d) junk value
162. The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with 174. A work costing Rs.20,000 is termed as
cement mortar is a) Petty work b) Minor work
A. 8.0 cq m B. 4.0 sq m C. 4.0 cu m D. 8.0 sq m c) Major work d) Major project

163. In long and short wall method of estimation, the 175. The minimum width of a septic tank is taken
length of long wall is the centre to centre distance A. 70 cm B. 75 cm C. 80 cm D. 90 cm
between the walls and
A. Breadth of the wall
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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

176. No deductions is made in the masonry for the 180. The performance of a specific ta sk in
openings if the area of the opening does not exceed CPM, is known
a)0.5m2 b)0.25m2 c)0.15m2 a) Dummy b ) Eventc) Activity d ) Contract.
d)0.10m 2

181. The Fig. 19.8 is u sed to indicate

177. when it is not specified ,the number of hold fasts
for a door is usually taken as
a)2 b)4 c)6 d)8

178. The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq.

m in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30 cm, is termed
as a)a merge b) an event
a) Excavation b) Surface dressing c)a burst d ) an activity
Cutting d)Surface excavation
182. Bar chart is also is known as
179. Various activitie s of a project, a re sho wn a)Histogram chart b)Flow chart
on bar charts by c)Time chart d)Gantt chart
a)vertical lines b ) horizontal lines
c)dots d ) crosses. 183. CPM stands for
a)computer programming mode
b)critical project management
c)controlling, planning and maintenance
d)critical path method

184. CPM is
a)activity oriented b)event oriented
c)time oriented d)resource oriented

185. A dummy activity

a)has no tail event but only a head event
b)has only head event but no tail event
c)does not require any resources or anytime
d)has no bearing on the network and can appear
anywhere

186. A dual role event

a)is the head events as well as a tail event
b)consumes o time
c)is the beginning of one event and the end of another
d)is any event other than the initial and final events
187. The construction of airports are treated as
a) light construction b) heavy construction
c) industrial construction d) none of these

188. The first stage of a large construction work to

a) contract b) design
c) conception d) study and evaluation
189. A construction team includes
a) owner b) engineer c) architect d) all of these

190. If 𝐭𝟎 , 𝐭𝐩 , 𝐭𝐋 represents the optimistic,pessimistic

and most likely time estimates,the expected time of
completion of the activity is given by
t +t +t t +2t +t
a)t E = 0 3L p b) t E = 0 4L p
t0 +3tL +tp t0 +4tL +tp
c) t E = 5
d) t E = 6

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CODE: JDO 2021/ MODEL EXAM II/PAPER I

191. Float may be defined as the difference between 197. Investment can be defined.
a)latest start time and the earliest start time A) Person’s dedication to purchasing a house or flat
b)latest finish time and the earliest finish time B) Use of capital on assets to receive returns
c)time available and the time required to complete the C) Usage of money on a production process of products
activity d)all the above and services
D) Net additions made to the nation’s capital stocks
192. A critical activity has 198. The capital budget is associated with.
a) maximum float b) minimum float A) Long terms and short terms assets
c) zero float d) average float B) Fixed assets C) Long terms assets
D) Short term assets
193. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by
𝐂𝐫𝐚𝐬𝐡 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 𝐂𝐫𝐚𝐬𝐡 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 − 𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭
a) 𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 b) 𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐭𝐢𝐦𝐞 − 𝐂𝐫𝐚𝐬𝐡 𝐭𝐢𝐦𝐞 199. Hazards and Disasters are mainly classified as
a. Physical and chemical
𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐭𝐢𝐦𝐞 − 𝐂𝐫𝐚𝐬𝐡 𝐭𝐢𝐦𝐞 b. Natural and Human induced
c) d)
𝐂𝐫𝐚𝐬𝐡 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 𝐂𝐫𝐚𝐬𝐡 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 − 𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐭 c. Physical and Human d. Social and cultural

194. The contractor is responsible for 200. A place where an earthquake originates is called
a) procuring material which is not supplied by the the
owner a) Focus b) Tsunami
b) organising and planning the work as per drawing c) Fault Line d) Epicenter
c) executing the work as per specifications laid down in
the contract
d) all of the above

195. In a cash-flow diagram:

A. Time 0 is considered to be the present
B. Time 1 is considered to be the end of time period1
C. A vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive
cash flow
D. All of these
196. Which one of the following theory has the
attribute of moderate risk taking as a function of skill,
not chance?
A) Need for independence B) Need for achievement
C) Need for affiliation D) Need for authority

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