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Syllabus and Sample Question for Science Stream

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89 views27 pages

Syllabus and Sample Question for Science Stream

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phooey349
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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EXAM PATTERN AND SYLLABUS FOR DAT 2025.

26

STREAM: SCIENCE
(r). EXAM PATTERN

(i) The test is of 3 hours duration with 100 multiple choice questions (4 options with
a single correct answer). Physics (20 questions), Chemistry (20 questions),
Biology (20 questions) & [Mathematics (40 questions).

(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response 4 marks will be
awarded and for each incorrect response (-1) mark will be awarded. lf a question
is left unanswered no mark will be awarded,

(iii) Question paper design

Level of Questions Approxi mate Pe rcentage


Average 25%
Difficult 25%
HOTS 50%

(il). SYLLABUS:

A. CHEMISTRY

CLASS-IX:

1. Particte nature and their basic units: Atoms and molecules, Law of constant proportions,
Atomic and molecular masses.

2. Structure of atoms: Electrons, protons and neutrons, valency, chemical formula of


common compounds. lsotopes and lsobars.

CLASS.X:
1. Ghemical reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation, implications
of a balanced chemical equation, types of chemical reactions: combination,
decomposition, displacement, double displacement, precipitation, neutralization,
oxidation and reduction.
2. Acids, bases and satts: Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H* and OH- ions,
General properties, examples and uses, concept of pH scale (Definition relating to
logarithm not required), importance of pH in everyday life; preparation and uses of
Sodium Hydroxide, Bleaching powder, Baking soda, Washing soda and Plaster
of Paris.
3. Metals and nonmetals: Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series;
Formation and properties of ionic compounds, l/etallurgy.
4. Garbon compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of
carbon, Homologous series. lsomerism, organic reactions, soap and detergents,
Nomenclature of organic compounds (IUPAC Name)
B. BIOLOGY
CLASS-Ix
1. Cell - Basic Unit of life: Cell as a basic unit of life; prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells,
multicellular organisms; cell membrane and cell wall, cell organelles and cell inclusions;
chloroplast, mitochondria, vacuoles, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus; nucleus,
chromosomes - basic structure, number.
2. Tissues, Organs, Organ System, Organism: Structure and functions of animal and plant
fissues (only four types of tissues in animals; Meristematic and Permanent tissues in
plants).

CLASS-X
1. Life processes:'Living Being'. Basic concept of nutrition, respiration, transport and
excretion in plants and animals.
2. Gontrol and co-ordination in animals and plants: Tropic movements in plants;
lntroduction of plant hormones; Control and co-ordination in animals: Nervous system;
Voluntary, involuntary and reflex action; Chemical co-ordination; animal hormones.
3. Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual) reproductive
health- need and methods of family planning. Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS. Child bearing and
women's health.
4. Heredity: Heredity; Mendel's contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex
determination: brief introduction;
5. Our environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, waste
production and their solutions. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.

C, PHYSICS

CLASS.IX
1. Motion: Distance and displacement, velocity; uniform and non-uniform motion along
a straight line; acceleration, distance-time and velocity{ime graphs for uniform motion
and uniformly accelerated motion, equations of motion; elementary idea of uniform
circular motion.
2. Force and Newton's laws : Force and ft/lotion, Newton's Laws of [\tlotion, Action and
Reaction forces, lnertia of a body, lnertia and mass, Momentum, Force and
Acceleration.

CLASS.X
3. Natural Phenomena-Reflection of light by curved surfaces; lmages formed by
spherical mirrors, centre of curvature, principal axis, principal focus, focal length,
mirrorformula (Derivationnotrequired), magnification.
Refraction; Laws of refraction, refractive index, Refraction of light through glass slab
Refraction of light by spherical lens; lmage formation by spherical lenses; Lens
formula (Derivation not required); Magnification. Power of a lens.
Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light, applications
in daily life. (excluding colour of the sun at sun rise and sun set)
Functioning of a lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections, applications
of spherical mirrors and lenses. Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of
light, scattering of light, applications in daily life (excluding colour of the sun at sunrise
and sunset).
4. Effect of Gurrent-Electric
current, potential difference and electric current. Ohm's
law; Resistance, Resistivity, Factors on which the resistance of a conductor
depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of resistors and its
1o
applications in daily life. Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily
life. Electric power, lnterrelation between P, V, I and R.
5. Magnetic effects of current : [Vlagnetic field, field lines, field due to a current
carrying straight conductor, field due to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on
current carrying conductor, Fleming's Left Hand Rule, Alternating current and
Direct current (AC & DC), Domestic circuit frequency of AC, Advantage of AC over
DC.

D. SUBJECT.MATHEMATTCS

CLASS.X
1. REAL NUMBERS
Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic - statements after reviewing work done earlier
and after illustrating and motivatingj through examples, Proofs of irrationality of
Ft*5,
+dlvr v3.

2. POTYNOMIALS
Zeros of a polynomial. Relationship between zeros and coefficients of quadratic polynomials

3. PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES


Pairof linearequationsin two variables and graphical method of their
solution, consistency/in consistency.
Algebraic conditions for number of solutions. Solution of a pair of linear
equations in two variables algebraically - by substitution, by elimination.
Simple situational problems.
4. qUADRATIC EqUATTONS

Standdrd form of a quadratic equation a*2 * bx + c = A, (a. 0). Solutions of


quadratic equations (only real roots) by factorization, and by using quadratic
formula. Relationship between discriminant and nature of roots.

Situational problems based on quadratic equations related to day to day activities


to be incorporated.

5. ARITHMETIC PROGRESSIONS
Arithmetic Progression Derivation of the nth term and sum of the first n terms
of A.P. and their application in solving daily life problems.

6. CO.ORDINATE GEOMETRY
Concepts of coordinate geometry, graphs of linear equations. Distance
formula. Section formula (internal division).

7. TRIANGLES
Definitions, examples, counter examples of similar triangle

t. lf a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two
sides in distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.

il. lf a line divides two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, the line is parallel to
the third side.
L
lll. lf in two triangles, the corresponding angles are equal, their corresponding"
sides are proportional and the triangles are similar.

IV lf the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, their


corresponding angles are equal and the two triangles are similar.

V. lf one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of another triangle and the sides
including these angles are proportional, the two triangles are similar'

8. CTRCLES
Tangent to a circle at, point of contact
l. The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point
of contact.

ll. The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
9. INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
Trigonometric ratios of an acute angle of a right-angled triangle. Proof of theii
existence (well defined). Values of the trigonometric ratios of 300, 450 and
600. Relationships between the ratios.
10. TRIGONOMETRIC IDENTITIES
Proof and applications of the identity sin2A + cos2A = 7. Only simple identities
to be given.
11. HEIGHTS AND DISTANCES: Angle of elevation, Angle of Depression.
Simple problems on heights and distances. Problems should not involve
more than two right triangles. Angles of elevation / depression should be only
30',45o, 60o.

12. AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES


Area of sectors and segments of a circle. Problems based on areas and
perimeter / circumference of the above said plane figures. (ln calculating area
of segment of a circle, problems should be restricted to central angle of 60",
90' and 120" only.
13. SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES
Surface areas and volumes of cubes, cuboids, spheres (including hemispheres) and
right circular cylinders/cones.
14. STATTSTTCS

Mean, median and mode of grouped data (bimodal situation to be avoided).


l5.PROBABILITY

Classical definition of probability. Sirnple problems on finding the probability


of an event.
PHYSICS
SET – I
1. A man driving a car on a straight road to reach a destination by some fixed time,
1
initially travelled rd of the distance at a uniform speed 20 km/h. Then he moved with a uniform
3
speed of 60 km/h to cover the remaining distance in time. His average speed during the journey was
(a) 40 km/h (b) 36 km/h (c) 48 km/h (d) 24 km/h
2. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass
‘m’. The force applied at one end of the rope is F. Then the force exerted by the rope
on the block is
m
M F

(a) F (b) FM/(M + m) (c) Fm/(m + M) (d) FM/m


3. A ball hangs by a string from the cabin roof inside a train moving on a straight track.
The string is observed to be inclined towards the rear part of the cabin making a
constant small angle with the vertical. This indicates that the train is moving.
(a) forward with uniform acceleration (b) backward with uniform acceleration
(c) forward with uniform velocity (d) backward with uniform velocity
4. A person sitting on a boat at rest pushes the back side wall of the boat. Which of the
following state would happen to the boat ?
(a) Boat will move forward uniformly
(b) Boat will move forward with a constant acceleration
(c) Boat will move backward uniformly
(c) Boat will remain at rest
5. A body is describing uniform circular motion. Then which of the following statement
is not correct related to the motion of the body.
(a) The acceleration of the body is constant
(b) The speed of the body is constant
(c) The kinetic energy of the body is constant
(d) The momentum of the body is not constant
6. The velocity-time graph of a car moving on a straight road is given in the figure where
 = tan1 and  = tan2. If the total time elapsed is T; the maximum velocity attained
by the car during its journey is;
A

V
(m)

θ1 θ2
O C B
t (sec)

(a) T (b) T (c) T/( + ) (d) ( + )T/


7. An object is placed at a distance ‘d’ in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved
away from the object through a distance ‘x’ parallel to itself, the image would move
away by a distance
(a) (x + d) (b) 2x (c) (d + 2x) (d) x
8. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at some angle o. A ray of light incident
on one of them at an angle 45o is found to reverse its path after being reflected from
the second mirror. Then the angle between the two mirrors is
(a)  = 135o (b)  = 67.5o (c)  = 45o (d)  = 90o
9. The diameter of Sun subtends an angle of -radian at the pole of a concave mirror of
focal length ‘f ’. Which of the following statement would not be true in this case?
(a) The image of the Sun would be virtual, erect and diminished
(b) The image of Sun will be formed on the focal plane of the mirror
(c) The diameter of the image of Sun would be proportional to -radian.
(d) The image would be real, inverted and diminished
10. A plane mirror is placed 22.5 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm.
Where can one object be placed between the two mirrors so that the first image of
both the mirrors would coincide ?
(a) 15 cm in front of the concave mirror
(b) 30 cm in front of the concave mirror
(c) 15 cm in front of the plane mirror
(d) 30 cm in front of the plane mirror
11. The size of the image of an object as formed by a convex mirror is always
(a) magnified
(b) diminished or magnified depending on the focal length of the mirror
(c) diminished
(d) diminished or magnified depending upon the object distance
12. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the pole of a convex mirror of focal
length 20 cm. The image is produced at
(a) 13.3 cm in front of the mirror (b) 20 cm behind the mirror
(c) 25 cm behind the mirror (d) 10 cm behind the mirror
13. Read the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of
the given ones as below.
Assertion (A) : Even if a prism and a glass slab are made up of same material glass;
dispersion is produced by the prism but not by the glass slab.
Reason (R) : In case of a slab, different colours although travel with different speeds
so as to traverse different paths just as in a prism, all of them emerge together at the
same time without getting separated unlike the case of a prism.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are not entirely true
14. A beam of light converges to a point P. A convex lens of focal length of 15 cm is
placed on the path of the beam at a distance 10 cm behind P. Then at what distance
from the lens the beam would converge now ?
(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 18 cm

15. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm infront of his eye. To correct this problem
what kind of remedial measure is to be prescribed ?
(a) A concave lens of power 1.25 D (b) A convex lens of power +1.5 D
(c) A concave lens of power 2.5D (d) A convex lens of power +3D
16. The most suitable reason for which tungsten is used almost exclusively for the
filament of an electric bulb or as the heating element of an electric iron instead of
Copper or Aluminium is;
(a) Tungsten is an alloy
(b) Tungsten has more tensile strength
(c) Tungsten has higher resistivity than copper or aluminium
(d) Tungsten as an alloy does not oxidize readily at high temperature
17. Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in a network as shown in the figure. Then
the equivalent resistance R must be such that
R1 R2 R3
A
C D B

(a) R = R1 + R2 + R3 (b) 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3


(c) R = R3 + R1R2/(R1 + R2) (d) R = R1 + R2R3/(R2 + R3)
18. Choose the incorrect statement
(a) Fleming’s right-hand rule is a simple rule to know the direction of induced current.
(b) A charge particle does not experience any magnetic force when moves along or
opposite to the direction of magnetic field.
(c)
The difference between direct and alternating currents is that the direct current always
flows in one direction, whereas the alternating current reverses its direction
periodically.

(d) In India the AC changes direction after every 1/50 second.


19. A generator produces 100 kW power at a potential difference of 10 kV. This power
is transmitted through cables of total resistance 5. The power loss in the cables
would be
(a) 500 W (b) 50 W (c) 5 kW (d) 50 kW
20. Given a statement as Assertion (A) and another as Reason (R) as follows –
Assertion (A) : A horizontal power line carries a current in west to east direction. The
magnetic field lines around the cable when looked from western side would be
anticlock wise by circular in configuration.
Reason (R) : According to the right hand thumb – rule the magnetic field lines will be
along the finger-wrapping way, when the current carrying conductor is thought to be
held by the right hand with its thumb in the current direction.
Which of the following option is the correct one.
(a) (A) and (R) are both true
(b) (A) is true (R) is false
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

ANSWERS
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. C
DAT 2024
CHEMISTRY
SET-I
1. Which orbital is non-directional ?
(a) s (b) p (c) d (d) All the above
2. If Mg atom having atomic number 12 has an isotope with mass no 26 then the no. of
protons, neutrons and electrons respectively are
(a) 12, 12, 14 (b) 12, 14, 12 (c) 14, 12, 12 (d) 12, 12, 12
3. Oxidation no of A, B and C are +2, +5 and −2 respectively. Possible formula of the
compound is
(a) A2(BC2)2 (b) A3(BC4)2 (c) A2(BC3)2 (d) A3(B2C)2
4. Which of the following ion will form most water soluble hydroxide ?
(a) K+ (b) Ni2+ (c) Zn2+ (d) Al3+

5. The element which can never show +ve oxidation state ?


(a) N (b) O (c) F (d) Xe
6. Which is a disproportionation reaction ?
(a) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 (b) P4 + NaOH + H2O → NaH2PO2 + PH3
(c) KClO3 → KClO4 + KCl (d) All of the these
7. A dilute FeSO4 solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
KMnO4 solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation ?
(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4
(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and it oxidises KMnO4
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved
(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a
colourless compound.
8. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a
long time ?
(a) CO2(g) or O2(g) (b) N2(g) or O2(g)
(c) CO2(g) or helium(g) (d) Helium(g) or N2(g)
9. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the
following solution would reverse the change ?
(a) Baking powder (b) Lime
(c) NH4OH solution (d) HCl acid aqueous solution
10. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation ?
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda (c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum
11. Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is
(a) Basic (b) Acidic (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric
12. Which of the following phenomena occur, when a small amount of acid is added to
water ?
(i) Ionisation (ii) neutralisation (iii) dilution (iv) salt formation
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
13. Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(a) H 3O + Cl  
(b) H3O + O H
 
(c) Cl + O H

(d) unionised HCl

14. Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water.
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Fe
15. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are
refined by electrolytic refining ?
(i) Au (ii) Cu (iii) Na (iv) K
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
16. Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten
state ?
(i) Na (ii) Ca (iii) Fe (iv) Cu
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
17. A molecule of CO2 has
(a) two  and two  bonds (b) one  and three  bonds
(c) one  and one  bond (d) three  and one  bond
18. Ethanol reacts with metallic sodium and forms two products.
(a) sodium ethanoate and hydrogen (b) sodium ethanoate and oxygen
(c) sodium ethoxide and hydrogen (d) sodium ethoxide and oxygen
19. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
CH3 − CH2 − CHO
(a) Propan-1-al (b) Propan-1-one (c) Ethan-1-ol (d) Ethanal
20. The acidity order of the hydrohalo (HX) acids follows the correct order
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HI > HF > HBr > HCl (d) HBr > HCl > HF > HI

ANSWER
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. A
DAV APTITUDE TEST-2024
CHANDRASEKHARPUR, BHUBANESWAR
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
√ √2
8
1. The simplified value of the expression: √ √ is .
8
2
√ √
√ √
(A) 1. (B) 2. (C) 2 2. (D) 2 2.

2. Consider the following statements.


P. If x = 0.7, then 2x = 1.5.
Q. For positive real numbers x and y, if HCF (x, y) = 1, then
HCF (x + y, xy) = 2.
Then which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) P is true, but Q is false. (B) P is false, but Q is true.
(C) Both P and Q are true. (D) Neither P nor Q is true.

3. For what value of k, the following pair of linear equations:


(3k + 1)x + 3y = 2, (k2 + 1)x + (k − 2)y = 5
have no solution ?
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) −1

4. Two candidates attempt to solve a quadratic equation of the form:


ax2 + px + q = 0. One candidate starts with an incorrect value of p and finds
the roots to be 2 and 6. The other candidate starts with a wrong value of q
and gets the roots as 2 and −9. Then the correct roots of the equation are
.
(A) 3 and 4 (B) −3 and − 4 (C) 3 and − 4 (D) −3 and 4

1
5. Let a and b be two real numbers such that a + b = 1 and ab = −1. If
Pn = an + bn , Pn−1 = 11 and Pn+1 = 29
for some integer n ≥ 1, then Pn = .
(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 18 (D) 22

6. The set of all possible values of θ ∈ (0, π) for which the points (1, 2) and
(sin θ , cos θ ) lie on the same side of the line x + y = 1 is .
   
 π  π 3π π 3π
(A) 0, (B) 0, (C) 0, (D) ,
4 2 4 4 4

tan 57◦ + cot 37◦


7. The simplified value of the expression: is .
tan 33◦ + cot 53◦
(A) tan 57◦ cot 37◦ (B) tan 30◦ cot 57◦ (C) tan 33◦ cot 53◦ (D) tan 33◦ cot 37◦

8. Consider the following assertions.


 
◦ ◦ θ
P. If 90 < θ < 180 , then cos < 0.
2
Q. If 0 < θ < 90◦ , then cos2 (θ ) < cos(θ ).
Which one of the following options is true ?
(A) P is true, but Q is false. (B) P is false, but Q is true.
(C) Both P and Q are true. (D) Both P and Q are false.

9. If a, b and c are non-negative real numbers such that


LCM (x − 3)a (2x + 1)b (x + 13)7 , (x − 3)4 (2x + 1)9 (x + 13)c


= (x − 3)6 (2x + 1)10 (x + 13)7 , then the least value of a + b + c is .

(A) 5 (B) 13 (C) 16 (D) 20

10. Let p(x) be a quadratic polynomial such that p(0) = 1. If p(x) leaves a re-
mainder 4 when divided by (x − 1) and it leaves a remainder 6 when divided
by (x + 1), then which one of the following options is correct ?
(A) p(−2) = 19. (B) p(2) = 11. (C) p(−2) = 11. (D) p(2) = 19.

2
11. Let the real numbers a1 , a2 , . . . , an , . . . be in AP. If a1 + a2 + · · · + a11 = 0 and
a1 + a3 + a5 + · · · + a23 = K a1 , then K = .
121 72 72 121
(A) (B) (C) − (D) −
10 5 5 10

12. Let P(−1, 3) and Q(2, 5) be points on the plane. If the point R(x, y) lies on the
3
line joining P and Q such that PR = PQ, then which one of the following is
5
true ?
4 21 7 21 4 11 4 21
(A) x = , y = . (B) x = , y = . (C) x = , y = . (D) x = , y = .
5 5 5 8 5 5 7 5

13. A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 meters high tree. From a point on the ground,
the angle of elevation of the bird is 45◦ . The bird flies away horizontally in such
away that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds,
the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30◦ . The speed at
which the bird flies is .
√ √
(A) 20( 3 − 1) meters/sec. (B) 25( 3 − 1) meters/sec.
√ √
(C) 35( 3 − 1) meters/sec. (D) 40( 3 − 1) meters/sec.

14. In the adjoining figure, PQ is a common chord of the


two circles. APB is a secant line joining the points A
and B on the two circles. Two tangents AC and BC
are drawn. If the measure of ∠ACB = 45◦ , then what
is the measure of ∠AQB ?

(A) 75◦ (B) 90◦ (C) 120◦ (D) 135◦


15. In the given figure, PQRS is a square of side 7 2
cm. With P, R as centres and PQ as radius, the
arcs QAS and QBS are drawn. Then the area of
the shaded region is (Use π = 22/7).

(A) 42 cm2 . (B) 44 cm2 . (C) 48 cm2 . (D) 50 cm2 .

3
16. In △ABC, AB = AC = 28 cm and BC = 20 cm. Points D, E, F
are on the sides AB, BC and AC such that DE, EF are parallel to
AC, AB, respectively. Then the perimeter of the parallelogram
ADEF is .

(A) 48 cm (B) 52 cm (C) 56 cm (D) 60 cm

17. In the parallelogram ABCD, AL,CM are perpen-


dicular to CD and AD, respectively. If AL = 20 cm,
CD = 18 cm and CM = 15 cm, then the perimeter
of the parallelogram is .

(A) 64 cm (B) 76 cm (C) 80 cm (D) 84 cm

18. Consider the adjoining figure of a solid in the shape of


a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their radii
being equal to 1cm and the height of the cone being
equal to its radius. Then the volume of the solid is
.

π π2
(A) cm3 (B) π cm3 (C) cm3 (D) π 2 cm3
2 2

19. In the adjoining figure, AB is the chord of


a circle with centre at O. AB is produced
to C such that BC = OB. CO is joined and
produced to meet the circle at D. If y = 10,
then x = .

(A) 25◦ (B) 30◦ (C) 35◦ (D) 40◦

4
20. ABCD is a rectangle. The points P, Q
lie on AD and AB, respectively. If
△PAQ, △QBC, △PCD have the same
areas and BQ = 2 cm, then the length
AQ= cm.
√ √ √ √
(A) 1 + 5. (B) 1 − 5. (C) 7. (D) 2 7.

21. In the adjoining figure, CD ∥ LA and DE ∥ AC. If


BE = 4cm and EC = 2cm, then the length of the line
CL is .

(A) 2 cm. (B) 3 cm. (C) 4 cm. (D) 5 cm.

22. A square is inscribed in a circle of diameter d unit(s)


and another square is circumscribing the circle. Then
which one of the following is true ?

(A) Area of the outer square =2× Area of the inner square.
(B) Area of the outer square =2.5× Area of the inner square.
(C) Area of the outer square =3× Area of the inner square.
(D) Area of the outer square =4× Area of the inner square.

23. The wheels of a car are of diameter 80 cm each. How many complete revolu-
tions does each wheel make in 10 minutes, if the car is travelling at a speed of
66 km/hr. ?
(A) 3457 (B) 3475 (C) 4357 (D) 4375

5
24. Pick out the area of the shaded region in the given
figure from the options given below, where OACB is
a quadrant of a circle centred at O with radius 3.5 cm
and OD = 2 cm (Use π = 22/7).

45 47 49 51
(A) cm2 . (B) cm2 . (C) cm2 . (D) cm2 .
8 8 8 8
25. In the given figure, two line segments AC
and BD intersect each other at the point P
such that PA = 6cm, PB = 3cm, PC = 2.5cm,
PD = 5cm, measure of ∠APB = 50◦ and mea-
sure of ∠CDP = 30◦ . Then the measure of the
∠PBA = .
(A) 100◦ (B) 75◦ (C) 60◦ (D) 50◦

26. The probability of selecting a red ball at random from a jar that contains only
red, blue and orange balls is 1/4. The probability of selecting a blue ball at
random from the same jar is 1/3. If the jar contains 10 orange balls, then the
total number of balls in the jar is .
(A) 25 (B) 24 (C) 21 (D) 13

27. Two people agree to meet on January 10, 2024 between 6 P.M. to 7 P.M. with
the understanding that each will wait no longer than 20 minutes for the other.
Then what is the probability that they will meet ?
2 4 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 9 9

28. A cylindrical vessel of diameter 9 cm has some water in it. A cylindrical


iron piece of diameter 6 cm and height 4.5 cm is dropped in it. After it was
completely immersed, what is the rise in the level of water ?
(A) 0.4 cm (B) 0.8 cm (C) 1 cm (D) 2 cm

6
29. To conduct the Sports Day activities in a rect-
angular shaped school ground ABCD, lines
have been drawn with chalk powder at a dis-
tance of 1 meter each. 100 flower pots have
been placed at a distance of 1 meter from each
other along AD as shown in the adjoining fig-
1
ure. If Geeta runs -th distance of AD on
4
the 2-nd line and posts a green flag, Rashmi
1
runs -th distance of AD on the eighth line
5
and posts a red flag, then what is the distance
between both the flags ?
√ √ √ √
(A) 61 meters (B) 8 2 meters (C) 51 meters (D) 8 3 meters

30. As the adjoining figure shows, a horse is tied to a peg


at one corner of a square-shaped grass field of side 15
meters by means of a 6 meters long rope to graze. If
the length of the rope is increased to 12 meters long
instead of 6 meters, then what is the increase in the
grazing area for the horse ?

(A) 20 π meters2 . (B) 25π meters2 . (C) 27 meters2 . (D) 30 meters2 .

Direction: In the question number 31, 32 and 33, a statement of assertion (A)
is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct answer from the
options given below each question.
31. Assertion: If one of the zero of the polynomial p(x) = (k2 + 4)x2 + 13x + 4k
is the reciprocal of the other zero, then k = 2.
Reason: If (x − a) is a factor of p(x), then p(a) = 0, i.e., a is a zero of p(x).

(A) Both assertion (A), reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct expla-
nation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but reason (R) is true.

7
DAV Aptitude Test – 2024
Biology

1. In a histology lab a scientist observes the following features under the


microscope. Which of these observations supports cell theory?

I. Cardiac cells are joined by gap junctions.


II. Mature platelet cells do not contain a nucleus, but do contain
mitochondria.
III. Spermatogonia undergoing mitosis.
IV. The bulk of tissue samples from endocrine glands contain cells as their
main building blocks.

a) II only
b) I and III
c) III and IV
d) II and IV

2. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk, which is white in


colour but the stools, which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is
this yellow colour due to?

a) Intestinal juice
b) Bile pigments passed through bile juice
c) Undigested milk protein casein
d) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum

3. Nandita during her game period fell down from the swing and hit her spinal
cord and elbow to an iron bar. The spinal cord will take much time to heal as
compared to elbow because
a) Presence of Schwann cells which do not have capacity to regenerate
b) Presence of Oligodendrocytes which do not have capacity to regenerate
c) Spinal cord is a delicate tissue hence injury will remain forever
d) The microglia cells cannot fight at the site of CNS

4. Organelle X bears ribosomes on its outer surface. Organelle X and Y together


gives rise to organelle Z which is often referred to as ‘suicide bag’ of cells.
Identify the organelles X, Y and Z.

a) X – RER, Y – Mitochondria and Z - Centrosome.


b) X – Golgi complex, Y – ER and Z - Lysosome.
c) X – Mitochondria, Y – Golgi complex and Z - Ribosome.
d) X – RER, Y – Golgi complex and Z - Lysosome.
5. When the xylem of a plant were destroyed, it started wilting because
a) Failed to transport nutrients
b) Failed to transport oxygen
c) Failed to transport carbon dioxide
d) Failed to transport water

6. A friend of yours who is not an athlete and not physically fit is suddenly
asked by your games teacher to do physical exercise, then the increased
demand of such vigorous exercise of his body are met primarily by:

a) decreased stroke volume.


b) increased heart rate.
c) increased blood volume.
d) Decreased heart rate.

7. Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and reason (R). Choose one of the
correct alternatives given below.
Assertion (A): The opening and closing of the stomatal pore is a function of the
guard cells.
Reason (R): Stomatal pores are the site for exchange of gases by diffusion.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
8. Which one of the following is not a tropic movement in plants?
a) Bending of plants towards light
b) Growing of roots towards gravity
c) Movement of pollen tube towards ovary
d) Dropping of Mimosa plant on touch

9. Adult human RBCs are anucleate. Which of the following statement is/are
most appropriate explanation for this feature?
I. They do not need to reproduce
II. They are somatic cells
III. They do not metabolise
IV. Their internal space is available for oxygen transport
a) III
b) I
c) I, III, and IV
d) II, and III
10. Ozone forms by the combination of free oxygen atoms and oxygen molecules.
How do free oxygen atoms form at higher levels of the atmosphere?
a) By splitting molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of
low-energy UV radiations
b) By splitting molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of
high-energy UV radiations
c) By the combination of two molecular oxygen in the presence of high
energy UV radiations
d) By the combination of two free oxygen atoms in the presence of lower
energy UV radiations

11. Many plants produce waste products that are stored as gums and resins.
The most common site of storage of such wastes is

(a) as droplets in the cytoplasm of cortical tissues

(b) as droplets in the old-xylem elements

(c) as droplets in the sieve tubes

(d) as droplets in the bark tissues

12. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due
to improper movement of

a) diaphragm
b) neck
c) tongue
d) epiglottis

13. Seeds were placed on a flat and moist seed bed and the bed was rotated up
and down at a speed of 20 rpm. The rotation continued till the seeds germinated
and then the rotation was stopped. The bed was brought to the right position.
Which of the following will be observed?

(a) The shoots will be found facing upward and roots downward

(b) Both shoots roots will be found facing downward

(c) There will be growth of roots and shoots in all directions

(d) Germinated seeds will have only roots growing in all directions
14. Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and reason (R). Choose one of the
correct alternatives given below.
Assertion (A) : Many bacteria and protozoa simply split into two equal halves
during fission.
Reason (R): The splitting of two cells during such division occurs in only one
pre-determined plane.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

15. The transportation of food and other substances in plants takes place in the
sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion cells. In addition to this the
companion cells also

(a) support sieve elements to provide mechanical strength

(b) support sieve elements in cell metabolism and regulation

(c) maintain a high osmotic pressure that is required for loading and unloading of
sieve elements

(d) Interact with phloem parenchyma and bast fibres for phloem loading and
unloading.

16. Which of the following statements is not correct about asexual reproduction?
(a) Asexual reproduction does not involve fusion of gametes
(b) Asexual reproduction occurs when the conditions for growth are generally
favourable
(c) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent.
(d) Meiotic division of vegetative cells produce asexual spores in lower plants

17. Two pea plants, one with genotype (RRYY) and another with genotype (rryy)
when crossed produce F1 progeny that have genotype (RrYy). When F1 plants
are self-pollinated, the F2 progeny will have a new combination of characters.
Choose the new combinations from the following:
(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
(iv) Wrinkled, green

a) (i) and (ii)


b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i) and (iii)

18. The division of primary oocyte results in:


a) Unequal cells, a smaller haploid secondary oocyte and a large polar body
b) Unequal cells, a larger haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid
polar body
c) Unequal cells, a smaller diploid secondary oocyte and a lager haploid polar
body
d) Equal cells, a haploid secondary oocyte and a polar body

19. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with purebred pea plant B. It is found that the
plants which look like A do not appear in F1 generation but re-emerge in F2
generation. Which of the plants A and B are tall and dwarf?
a) A are tall and B are dwarf.
b) A are tall and B are also tall.
c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf
d) A are dwarf and B are tall

20. Read the following statements and select the correct ones.

I) species having male and female flowers in the same plant are called
monoecious

II) bisexual flowers possess either stamens or pistils

III) female flowers, after fertilization, produce fruits

IV) lower plants like Pteridophytes do not produce flower and therefore do not
show sexual reproduction

(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, III, and IV

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