Yakeen Plus (2025)

PRACTICE TEST - 11

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 27/11/2024 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Gravitation, Properties of Solids and Liquids, Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory of Gases, Oscillation and
Waves
Chemistry : Redox Reaction, Electrochemistry, Hydrocarbon, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Coordination Compound
Biology : (Botany) : Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Respiration in Plants,
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Plant Growth and Development
(Zoology): Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products & their Elimination, Locomotion &
Movement, Neural Control & Coordination, Chemical Coordination & Integration

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and Section B
consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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 [Practice Test-11 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 27/11/2024]
Gravitation; Properties of Solids and Liquids; Thermodynamics; Kinetic Theory of Gases; Oscillation and Waves

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS
SECTION - A 7. For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If the
1. The distance of the centres of moon and earth is satellite is launched at an angle of 60° with the
D. The mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the vertical, then escape velocity will be:
moon. At what distance from the centre of the (1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s
earth, the gravitational force will be zero. 11
D 2D (3) km/s (4) 33 km/s
(1) (2) 3
2 3
4D 9D 8. The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B of
(3) (4)
3 10 same material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their
diameter is 2 : 1. They are stretched by the same
2. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and force, then the ratio of increase in length will be:
(1 – x)M. For a given separation, the value of x for (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
which the gravitational attraction between the two (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
pieces becomes maximum is:
1 3
(1) (2) 9. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a
2 5 pool, its volume decreases by 0.1%. If the density
(3) 1 (4) 2 of the water is 1×103 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2, then
the volume elasticity in N/m2 will be:
3. If the change in the value of ‘g’ at a height h
(1) 108 (2) 2 × 108
above the surface of the earth is the same as at a 9
(3) 10 (4) 2 × 109
depth x below it, then (both x and h being much
smaller than the radius of the earth):
10. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two
(1) x = h (2) x = 2h
materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA
h
(3) x = (4) x = h2 and YB are the Young’s modulus of the materials,
2
then:
4. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the
earth's surface, where R is earth's radius. If g is
acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface, the
increase in potential energy is:
4
(1) mgh (2) mgh
5
5 6 (1) YB = 2YA (2) YA = YB
(3) mgh (4) mgh
6 7 (3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB

5. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution 11. The orbital angular momentum of a satellite
is E = K/x3 in the x-direction. (K is a constant). revolving at a distance r from the centre is L. If
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at the distance is increased to 16r, then the new
infinity, its value at a distance x is:
angular momentum will be:
(1) K/x (2) K/2x
(1) 16 L (2) 64 L
(3) K/x2 (4) K/2x2
L
(3) (4) 4 L
6. Select the correct statement from the following: 4
(1) The orbital velocity of a satellite increases
with the radius of the orbit. 12. A beaker containing a liquid of density  moves
(2) Escape velocity of a particle from the surface up with an acceleration ‘a’. The pressure due to
of the earth depends on the speed with which the liquid at a depth h below free surface of the
it is fired. liquid is:
(3) The time period of a satellite does not depend (1) hg (2) h ( g – a )
on the radius of the orbit.
g –a
(4) The orbital velocity is inversely proportional (3) h ( g + a ) (4) 2hg  
to the square root of the radius of the orbit.  g+a
13. Two liquids having densities d1 and d2 are mixed 18. In a hydraulic jack as shown, mass of the car W =
in such a way that both have same mass. The 800 kg, A1 = 10cm2, A2 = 10m2. The minimum
density of the mixture is: force F required to lift the car is:
d1 + d 2 d + d2 w
(1) (2) 1
2 d1d 2 F
d1d 2 2d1d 2 A2
(3) (4)
d1 + d 2 d1 + d 2 A1

14. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and

2 having densities 1 and 2 respectively. A solid
(1) 1 N (2) 0.8 N
ball, made of a material of density 3, is dropped
(3) 8 N (4) 16 N
in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
shown in the figure. Which of the following is
19. A copper rod length L and radius r is suspended
true for 1, 2 and 3? from the ceilling by one of its ends. What will be
elongation of the rod due to its own weight when
liquid 1 1 ρ and Y are the density and Young's modulus of
the copper respectively?
3 2 gL2 gL2
(1) (2)
2Y 2Y
liquid 2 2 2 g 2 L2 gL
(3) (4)
2Y 2Y
(1) 1 < 3 < 2 (2) 3 < 1 < 2
(3) 1 > 3 > 2 (4) 1 < 2 < 3 20. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three
different processes as indicated in the P-V
15. For the given figure ratio of pressure at A and B diagram.
will be ( = 1000 kg/m3, Po = 105 Pa): A 1
2
P
10 m
A  Pa 3 B
=?
P V
B If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas
20 m 2
along the three processes and U1 , U 2 , U 3
B
indicate the change in internal energy along the
1 1 three processes respectively, then
(1) (2)
2 4 (1) Q1  Q2  Q3 and U1 = U 2 = U 3
1 2
(3) (4) (2) Q3  Q2  Q1 and U1 = U 2 = U 3
3 3
(3) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1  U 2  U 3
16. In the Young’s experiment, If length of wire and (4) Q3  Q2  Q1 and U1  U 2  U 3
radius both are doubled then the value of Y will
become: 21. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
(3) Remains same (4) Half shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the planet to
move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from
17. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of A to B, then:
radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
is:
1 1 Gm
(1) v = (2) v =
2 R Gm 2R
1 Gm 4Gm
(3) v = (4) v = (1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2
2 R R (3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
22. A satellite has kinetic energy K, potential energy 27. Two wires of equal length and cross-section are
K +U + E suspended as shown. Their Young’s modulii are
U and total energy E. The value of
K −U Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young’s
will be: modulus will be:
2
(1) (2) 1
3
2 3
(3) − (4)
3 2

23. A planet moving around the sun sweeps area A1 in

3 days, A2 in 6 days and A3 in 2 days. The relation Y1 + Y2
(1) Y1 + Y2 (2)
between A1, A2 and A3 is: 2
Y1Y2
(3) (4) Y1Y2
Y1 + Y2

28. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal

tube as shown in the following fig. Then the velocity
(1) A1 = A2 = A3 (2) 2A1 = A2 = 3A3 v of the fluid is:
(3) 4A1 = A2 = 6A3 (4) A1 = 2A2 = 3A3

24. A mass m is at a distance x from one end of a

uniform rod of length L and mass M. The
gravitational force on the mass due to the rod is:

GMm GMm
(1) (2)
( x L) 2 x( L x ) (1) 3.0 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s
GMm GMm (3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2.25 m/s
(3) (4)
x2 L 
2
 + x 29. When at rest, a liquid stands at the same level in
2 
the tubes shown in figure. But as indicated a
height difference h occurs when the system is
25. If density of earth is ρ, radius is Re then its
gravitational field at distance Re/4 from centre will given an acceleration a towards the right. Here h
be: is equal to:
GRe GRe
(1) (2)
3 12
GRe GRe
(3) (4)
4 6

26. For a fluid which is flowing steadily, the level in

the vertical tubes is best represented by: aL gL
(1) (2)
2g 2a
(1) gL aL
(3) (4)
a g

(2) 30. Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4 cm

and 5 cm are touching each other over a common
surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be:
(3)

(4) (1) 4 cm (2) 20 cm

(3) 5 cm (4) 4.5 cm
31. A liquid flows in the tube from left to right as SECTION - B
shown in figure. A1 and A2 are the cross-section 36. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic
of the portion of the tube as shown. The ratio of process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work
speed v1 / v2 will be: done by the system is:
P
C B
3P0

2P0 O
A1
(1)
A2 P0 D
A
A2 V
(2) V0 2V0
A1
(1) P0V0 (2) 2P0V0
A2
(3) P0V0
A1 (3) (4) Zero
2
A1
(4)
A2 37. Work done in the cyclic process shown in figure is:

32. In thermodynamic processes which of the

following statements is not true?
(1) In an isochoric process pressure remains
constant.
(2) In an isothermal process the temperature
remains constant. (1) 4P0V0
(3) In an adiabatic process PV  = constant. (2) –4P0V0
(4) In an adiabatic process the system is 22
(3) − P0V0
insulated from the surroundings. 7
(4) –13P0V0
33. The S.H.M. of a particle is given by the equation
y = 3sin  t + 4cos  t . The amplitude is: 38. In the figure shown here, the work done in the
process ACBA is:
(1) 7 (2) 1
(3) 5 (4) 12 A
3P0
Pressure

34. In thermodynamic process, 200 Joules of heat is

given to a gas and 100 Joules of work is also done
P0 B
on it. The change in internal energy of the gas is: C
(1) 100 J V0 Volume 3V0
(2) 300 J
(1) 4P0V0
(3) 419 J (2) 6 P0V0
(4) 24 J (3) –2 P0V0
(4) – 4 P0V0
35. The adjoining figure shows graph of pressure and
volume of a gas at two temperatures T1 and T2. 39. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes
Which of the following interferences is correct: are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
P correspond respectively to:
P

1
T2
T1 2
V V
(1) T1 > T2 (1) He and O2
(2) T1 = T2 (2) O2 and He
(3) T1 < T2 (3) He and Ar
(4) No interference can be drawn (4) O2 and N2
40. A gas of given mass, is brought from stage 45. A string is stretched between fixed points
A to B along three paths 1, 2 and 3, as shown in separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have
the figure. If the amount of work done in these resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There
three processes is respectively equal to W1, W2 and are no other resonant frequencies between these
W3, then: two.
A The lowest resonant frequency for this string is:
(1) 105 Hz (2) 155 Hz
3 (3) 205 Hz (4) 10.5 Hz
P 2
1
B
46. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of
V three segments into which a string is divided, then
(1) W1 > W2 > W3 the original fundamental frequency n of the string
(2) W1 < W2 < W3 is given by:
(3) W1 = W2 = W3 1 1 1 1
(4) W1 < W2, W3 < W2 (1)
n n1 n2 n3
1 1 1 1
41. Two springs of force constants K and 2K are (2)
connected to a mass as shown below. The n n1 n2 n3
frequency of oscillation of the mass is
(3) n n1 n2 n3
K 2K
(4) n n1 n2 n3
m

47. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given

(1) (1 / 2) ( K /m)
by y 3sin (50t x ) , where x and y are in
(2) (1 / 2) (2 K /m) 2
metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum
(3) (1 / 2) (3K /m)
particle velocity of the wave velocity is:
(4) (1 / 2) ( m/K ) 3
(1) 2π (2)
2
42. Which of the following statements about (3) 3π (4) 2/3 π
kinetic theory of gases is wrong?
(1) The molecules of a gas are in continuous 48. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a
random motion. glass tube. The length of the air column in this
(2) The molecules continuously undergo tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room
inelastic collisions. temperature of 27ºC two successive resonances
(3) The molecules do not interact with each other are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column
except during collisions. length.
(4) The collisions amongst the molecules are of If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the
short duration. velocity of sound in air at 27ºC is:
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s
43. At a certain temperature, the r.m.s. velocity for O2 (3) 300 m/s (4) 350 m/s
is 400 m/sec. At the same temperature, the r.m.s.
velocity for H2 molecules will be: 49. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one
(1) 100 m/sec (2) 25 m/sec end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
(3) 1600 m/sec (4) 6400 m/sec What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
(1) 10 Hz (2) 20 Hz
44. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is (3) 30 Hz (4) 40 Hz

represented by: y(x, t) = 8 sin (0.5πx – 4πt – ) 50. Equation of a transverse wave pulse is
4
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed 9
y , (where x and y are in metre and
of the wave is: 3 ( x 10t )2
(1) 4π m/s (2) 0.5π m/s t is in second). The speed of the wave pulse is:
(1) 3 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) m/s (4) 8 m/s
4 (3) 10 m/s (4) 100 m/s
 [Practice Test-11 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 27/11/2024]
Redox Reaction Electrochemistry Hydrocarbon Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Coordination Compound

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 57. Match List-I with List-II.
51. In the balanced reaction List-I List-II
(Type of reaction) (Example)
4O2x  2H 2O  4OH   3O 2 (A) Combination (I) P4 (s)  3OH  (aq)  3H 2O 
(1) x = –4 and species is oxide reactions PH3 (g)  3H 2 PO2 (aq)
(2) x = –2 and species is superoxide (B) 
Decomposition (II) C(s)  O2 (g)   CO 2 (g)
(3) x = 0 and species is oxygen reactions
(4) x = –1 and species is superoxide (C) Non-metal (III) 
2NaH(s)   2Na(s)
displacement
52. Equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change: H2 (g)
reactions
FeC2 O 4  Fe3  CO 2 is: (D) Disproportionat (IV) 2Na(s)  2H O(l) 
2
(Where molecular mass of FeC2O4 is M) ion reactions 2NaOH(aq)  H2 (g)
(1) M/3 Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) M/6 below:
(3) M/2 (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) M/1 (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
53. What is the oxidation state of S in Na2S2? (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) +1 (2) –2
(3) –1 (4) 0 58. According to crystal field theory, the M–L
interaction in a complex is:
54. The reaction, H2S  H2O2  S  2H 2O manifests: (1) Purely ionic
(2) Purely coordinate
(1) oxidising action of H2O2
(3) Purely covalent
(2) reducing nature of H2O2
(4) Partially covalent
(3) acidic nature of H2O2
(4) alkaline nature of H2O2 59. Molar conductance of a complex of cobalt is zero.
Then its structure would be:
55. Which of the following is correct? (1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(A) Oxidation = addition of oxygen (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(B) Oxidation = addition of electronegative (3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
element (4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(C) Oxidation = removal of hydrogen
(D) Oxidation = removal of electronegative
60. Which of the following is incorrect for [CoF6]3− ?
element
(1) It has two unpaired electrons.
(1) A, B, C (2) It is paramagnetic.
(2) B, C, D (3) Co in [CoF6]3− is sp3d2 hybridised.
(3) A, C, D (4) It has octahedral geometry.
(4) A, B, C, D
61. When two half-cells of electrode potential of E1
56. Consider the following reaction: and E2 are combined to form a cell of electrode
xMnO4  yC2O24  zH   xMn 2 potential E3, then (Where n1, n2 and n3 are no. of
electrons exchanged in first, second and combined
z
2yCO2  H 2O half-cells) give an expression for E3 using above
2 informations:
The value of x, y and z in the reaction are (1) E3  E2  E1
respectively
E1n1  E2 n 2
(1) 5, 2 and 6 (2) E3 
n3
(2) 2, 5 and 8
(3) 2, 5 and 16 (3) E3  E1n1  E2n 2
(4) 5, 2 and 8 (4) E3  E1  E2
62. During electrolysis of an aqueous solution of 67. The tetrahedral crystal field splitting is only
sodium sulphate if 2.4 L of oxygen at STP was _______ of the octahedral splitting.
liberated at anode. The volume of hydrogen at (1) 1/9 (2) 2/9
STP, liberated at cathode would be: (3) 4/9 (4) 5/9
(1) 1.2 L
(2) 2.4 L 68. Which of the following is a hexadentate ligand?
(3) 2.6 L (1) NH3
(4) 4.8 L (2) Cl–
(3) EDTA
63.  ºm value cannot be determined by extraploting, (4) dien

the plot between m verses C1/2 for the compound

69. Which of the following does not belongs to
(1) KCl
double salt?
(2) K2SO4
(1) K4 [Fe(CN)6]
(3) NH4OH
(2) KCl ⋅ MgCl2 ⋅ 6H2O
(4) NaNO3
(3) FeSO4 ⋅ (NH4)2 SO4 ⋅ 6H2O
(4) KAl(SO4)2 ⋅12H2O
64. The standard reduction potentials of Cu 2 | Cu

and Cu 2 | Cu  are 0.337 and 0.153 V 70. In [Ni(NH3)4]SO4, the primary valency and
respectively. The standard electrode potential of coordination number of Ni will be respectively
(1) 3 and 6
Cu  | Cu half cell is:
(2) 4 and 4
(1) 0.184 V
(3) 4 and 2
(2) 0.827 V
(4) 2 and 4
(3) 0.521 V
(4) 0.490 V
71. When an alkene on ozonolysis gives
formaldehyde and acetaldehyde, the alkene is:
65. Voltage of the cell where distance between the
(1) Ethene (2) Propene
electrodes is unity is known as
(3) But-1-ene (4) But-2-ene
(1) Cell emf
(2) Equivalent conductivity
72. The major product formed in the given reaction is:
(3) Potential gradient Conc.H SO
(4) Ionic mobility CH3  CH2  CH  CH3 

2 4
|
OH
66. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (1) CH3  CH2  CH  CH2
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R (2) CH3  CH  CH  CH3
Assertion A: Molar conductivity increases with (3)
decrease in concentration.
Reason R: On decreasing the concentration, the
(4) CH3  CH 2  C  CH3
total volume (V), of solution containing one mole ||
of electrolyte also decreases. O
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 73. When 2-butyne reacts with sodamide in an inert
(1) A is true but R is false. solvent in the presence of dilute HCl, the product
(2) A is false but R is true. formed is:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) n-Butane
explanation of A. (2) 2-Butene
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (3) 1-Butyne
correct explanation of A. (4) 1-Propyne
74. Identify A in the given chemical reaction. 78. 2, 2- dichlorobutane on boiling with aqueous
KOH gives
(1) Butanal
(2) 2-Butanone
(3) 2- Butanol
(1) (2) (4) Butanoic acid

(3) (4) 79. Cyclopentene on treatment with alkaline KMnO4

gives
(1) cis-cyclopentane-1,2-diol
75. A gaseous hydrocarbon X on reaction with
bromine in light forms a mixture of two (2) trans-cyclopentane-1,2-diol
monobromo alkanes and HBr. The hydrocarbon X (3) Cyclopentanol
is: (4) 1:1 mixture of cis and trans 1, 2 -
(1) C6H6 (2) C3H6 cyclopentanediol
(3) C3H8 (4) C5H12

80. Which of the following has minimum boiling

Br
| point?
KOH(alc)
76. CH3  CH CH CH3  
  (A)  (B)
| (major) (minor) (1) Isobutene
Ph
(2) n-Butane
Major product will be:
(3) 1-Butyne
(1) CH3  C  CH  CH3
| (4) 1-Butene
Ph
(2) CH3 CH CH  CH 2
| dryether H /H O
Ph 81. CH3CH2 Br  Mg 
 A 
2 B

(3) CH 2  C CH 2  CH3 The product B in the above reaction sequence is:
|
Ph (1) CH3CH3
(4) CH 2  C CH 2  Ph (2) CH2 = CH2
|
Ph (3) CH ≡ CH
(4) CH3CH2OH
77. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tertiary alkyl halides undergo faster
SN1 reactions than primary alkyl halides. 82. IUPAC name of (CH3)3 CCl is:
Statement II: The stability of the carbocation (1) 3-Chlorobutane
intermediate is a major factor in the rate of SN1 (2) 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane
reactions. (3) t-Butyl chloride
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) n-Butyl chloride
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 83. The Friedel-Crafts reaction of n-propyl bromide
incorrect. with benzene in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is gives:
correct.
(1) n-Propyl benzene
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) 1,4-Dipropyl benzene
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) Isopropyl benzene
incorrect. (4) 1,2 -Dipropyl benzene
84. CHCl3 (Chloroform) is stored in closed dark (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
coloured bottles and completely filled....... (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(1) As it is decomposed to give CH2Cl2 and Cl2 (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
in presence of light and Cl2 is poisonous. (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) As it is decomposed to give (CCl4 and HCl)
in presence of light and HCl is poisonous and 88. Isopropyl bromide on Wurtz reaction gives
(1) Hexane
acidic as well.
(2) Propane
(3) As it slowly oxidized by air in presence of
(3) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane
light to an extremely poisonous gas, COCl2
(4) Neo-hexane
(Phosgene).
(4) As it is slowly oxidized to give CO and HCl,
which are poisonous.
89.
85. Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesised in the
laboratory: In the given reaction, identify A.
(1) By heating phenol with HF and KF.
(2) From aniline by diazotisation followed by
heating the diazonium salt with HBF4. (1)
(3) By direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas.
(4) By reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution.
(2)
SECTION - B
86. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Boiling points of isomeric
(3)
dichlorobenzene are very nearly the same.
Statement II: The boiling points of isomeric
haloalkanes increases with increase in branching.
In the light of above statements, choose the (4)
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 90. Which of the following alkyl halide is iso-butyl
incorrect. bromide?
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) CH3CH 2CHCH3
correct. |
Br
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are CH3
|
incorrect. (3) CH3  C  Br
|
CH3
87. With respect to the starting material,
CH2 = CH – CH3, match the List-I with List-II (4) CH3  CH  CH2Br
|
List-I List-II CH3
(Reagents) (Reaction)
91. Which of the following arrangements represents
(A) KMnO4/H2O (I) Anti-Markovnikov
correct order of increasing oxidation number of
addition
the central atom?
(B) Br2 (II) Oxidative cleavage
(1) CO32  ClO3  CrO42  MnO 4
(C) HBr/R2O2 (III) Syn addition
(2) ClO3  CrO42  MnO 4  CO32
+
(D) Hot KMnO4/H (IV) Anti-addition
(3) CO32  ClO3  MnO 4  CrO 42
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: (4) CrO24  MnO 4  CO32  ClO3
92. Oxidation state of carbon in HCOOH will be: (1) 0.26 V
(1) +1 (2) 0.31 V
(2) +2
(3) 0.62 V
(3) –4
(4) 0 (4) 0.72 V

93. Which of the following is a redox reaction? 97. During electrolysis of fused sodium chloride:
(1) NaCl + KNO3  NaNO3 + KCl (1) Chloride ions are oxidised at cathode
(2) CaC2O4 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2C2O4 (2) Chloride ions are oxidised at anode
(3) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl  MgCl2 + 2NH4OH (3) Sodium ions are oxidised at cathode
(4) Zn + 2AgCN  2 Ag + Zn(CN)2
(4) Sodium ions are oxidised at anode

94. Using the standard potential values given below,

98. If Δ0 < P (pairing energy), the correct electron
decide which of the statements A, B, C, D are
configuration for d4 system in octahedral crystal
correct:
will be:
Fe 2  2e  Fe, Eº  0.44V
(1) t 42g, eg0
Cu 2  2e  Cu, Eº  0.34V
(2) t 32g, e1g
Ag   e   Ag, Eº  0.80V
(3) t 02g, eg4
A. Copper can displace iron from FeSO4
solution. (4) t 02g, eg2
B. Iron can displace copper from CuSO4
solution. 99. The correct structures of trans- [NiBr2(PPh3)2]
C. Silver can displace Cu from CuSO4 solution. and meridonial [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3], respectively,
D. Iron can displace silver from AgNO3 are:
solution.
(1) A and B (1)
(2) B and C
(3) B and D
(4) A and D
(2)
95. An electrochemical cell stops working after some
times because:
(1) Electrode potential of both the electrodes
(3)
becomes zero.
(2) Electrode potential of both electrodes
becomes equal.
(3) One of the electrode is eaten away. (4)
(4) The reaction starts proceeding in opposite
directions.

100. Which of the following complexes is used to be as

96. If a half-cell X/X2+ (0.1 M) is connected to
an anticancer agent?
another half-cell Y/Y2+ (1.0 M) By means of a salt
(1) Cis- [PtCl2 (NH3)2]
bridge and an external circuit at 25ºC, the cell
(2) Cis– K2[PtCl2Br2]
voltage would be:
(3) Na2[CoCl4]
(Given: Eº  0.34V, Eº  0.25V)
Y2 /Y X2 /X (4) Mer- [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
 [Practice Test-11 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 27/11/2024]
Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Respiration in Plants, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Plant Growth and Development

SECTION-(III) BOTANY
SECTION - A 107. Match List-I with List-II:
101. The cells of xylem parenchyma: List-I List-II
(1) are dead and thin walled. (A) Dicot stem (I) Pith is small
(2) are living and thick walled. (B) Monocot root (II) Mesophyll
(3) do not store food in any form. (C) Leaves (III) Hypodermis
(4) are living and thin walled. present
(D) Dicot root (IV) Pith is well
102. Which of the below feature(s) belong(s) to developed
monocot leaves?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
A. Stomata are present on both the surfaces of the
below:
epidermis.
B. Presence of cuticle. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
C. Bulliform cells. (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
spongy parenchyma. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: 108. Read the following statement and select the
(1) D only (2) A and D only correct option.
(3) A, B and C only (4) A, B, C and D A. From the region of elongation, some of the
epidermal cells form root hairs.
103. Palisade parenchyma is present: B. Adventitious roots are seen in banyan trees.
(1) below the abaxial epidermis in monocot C. Maize and sugarcane have prop roots.
leaves.
D. The root is covered at the apex by a thimble-
(2) below the adaxial epidermis in monocot
like structure called the root cap.
leaves.
(3) around the vascular bundles in dicot leaves Choose the most appropriate answer from the
and monocot leaves. options given below:
(4) below the adaxial epidermis in dicot leaves. (1) B only
(2) B and D only
104. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having: (3) A, B and C only
(1) endodermis that gives rise to lateral roots. (4) A, B, C and D
(2) more than 6 vascular bundles.
(3) small and inconspicuous pith.
109. Match List-I with List-II:
(4) casparian strips in the endodermis.
List-I List-II
105. Among the following anatomical features: (A) Calotropis (I) Alternate
A. enclose stomatal pore. phyllotaxy
B. are dumb bell shaped in dicots. (B) Sunflower (II) Pinnately
C. do not have chloroplast. compound leaf
D. regulate opening and closing of stomata. (C) Alstonia (III) Opposite
How many are correct for guard cells? phyllotaxy
(1) Four (2) Three
(D) Rachis (IV) Whorled
(3) Two (4) One phyllotaxy
Choose the correct answer from the options given
106. Pericycle forms semi lunar patches of
sclerenchyma cells in: below:
(1) dicot roots. (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) monocots stems. (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) dicot stems. (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) monocot roots. (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
110. Given figure of root is of: 114. Identify the family with the following characters:
A. Leaves having alternate phyllotaxy.
B. Bisexual and actinomorphic flowers.
C. Five epipetalous stamens.
D. Fruits are berry or capsule.
E. Seeds are endospermic.
(1) adventitious roots of maize. (1) Solanaceae
(2) tap root of wheat. (2) Liliaceae
(3) fibrous roots of wheat. (3) Fabaceae
(4) adventitious roots of grasses. (4) Brassicaceae

111. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 115. In glycolysis, during conversion of 2-
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate:
(1) a molecule of ATP is synthesised.
Assertion A: Plants growing in swampy areas
possess pneumatophores. (2) a water molecule is released.
(3) decarboxylation reaction occurs.
Reason R: Pneumatophores help the plant to get
oxygen for respiration. (4) a molecule of NADH + H+ is released.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 116. How does alcohol fermentation differ from lactic
(1) A is true but R is false. acid fermentation?
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) Is hazardous.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) Produces 2 ATP as net gain.
explanation of A. (3) Is involved with reoxidation of NADH + H+ to
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct NAD+.
explanation of A. (4) Releases CO2 along with ethanol.

112. Given below are two statements: 117. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Androecium and gynoecium are Statement I: Krebs’ cycle takes place in the matrix
reproductive organs of flower. of mitochondria.
Statement II: When a flower either has only Statement II: Pyruvate is transported from the
stamens or only carpels it is said to be unisexual. cytoplasm into the mitochondria.
In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given most appropriate answer from the options given
below: below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. incorrect.

113. Read the following statements:

A. A flower may be trimerous, tetramerous or 118. Which of the following molecules directly enter(s)
pentamerous when the floral appendages are the glycolytic pathway?
in multiples of 3, 4 or 5. A. Sucrose
B. Flowers with bracts-reduced leaf found at the B. Glucose
base of the pedicel. C. Cellulose
C. The stalk of flower is called pedicel. D. Fructose
D. Petals are usually brightly coloured to attract Choose the most appropriate answer from the
insects for pollination. options given below:
How many of the above statement(s) is/are (1) B only
correct? (2) A, B and D only
(1) Three (2) Two (3) B and D only
(3) One (4) Four (4) A and C only
119. is the small protein to outer surface of inner 124. Match List-I with List-II:
mitochondrial membrane and acts as mobile carrier List-I List-II
for transfer of electrons between complex III and (A) Lag phase (I) Growth is rapid
IV. and maximum
(1) Cytochrome a (2) Cytochrome c (B) Exponential (II) Growth slows
(3) Cytochrome a3 (4) Ubiquinone phase down and become
steady
(C) Stationary (III) Initial phase of
120. Which of the following diagram represents the phase growth
synthesis of ATP in mitochondria? (D) Relative (IV) Efficiency index
I.M = Inner membrane growth
M = Matrix Choose the correct answer from the options given
O.C = Outer Chamber below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1) (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

125. Select the incorrect match.

(2) (1) Skoog and Miller – Identified a substance
that is adenine
derivatives.
(2) Cousins – Confirmed the release of
(3) volatile substance that
hastens the ripening of
fruits.
(3) F.W. Went – He observed symptoms
of disease caused by
(4)
Gibberella fujikuroi in
rice seedlings.
(4) Charles Darwin – Observed response of
canary grass coleoptile
121. What is true about glycolysis? to unilateral illumination
of light.
(1) In this process, glucose undergoes partial
oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic 126. Abscission of leaves, fruits and flowers is
acid. promoted by:
(2) In this process, glucose undergoes complete A. cytokinin. B. ethylene.
oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic C. gibberellins. D. abscisic acid.
acid. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(3) In this process, glucose undergoes partial
(1) D only
oxidation to form two molecules of carbon
(2) B and C only
dioxide.
(3) A, B and C only
(4) In this process, glucose undergoes complete (4) B and D only
oxidation to form two molecules of carbon
dioxide. 127. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) Auxin (I) Increases size of
122. How many ATP are directly synthesised in apple
glycolysis from one glucose molecule? (B) Abscisic (II) Control xylem
(1) Two (2) Three acid differentiation
(3) One (4) Four (C) Gibberellin (III) Closure of stomata
(D) Ethylene (IV) Fruit ripening
123. The foolish seedling disease in rice plant: Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) occurred due to high concentration of auxin.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) occurred due to high concentration of ABA. (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) caused by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) induced by a hormone cytokinin. (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
128. ABA helps seeds to withstand desiccation by: 134. Select the incorrect one w.r.t ATP synthase
(1) acting as antagonist to cytokinin. enzyme present in chloroplast.
(2) stimulating stomatal closure. (1) CF1 head has catalytic activity.
(2) CF0 protrude on the outer surface of thylakoid
(3) inducing seed dormancy.
membrane.
(4) playing important role in seed development. (3) The proton gradient is broken down due to the
movement of protons across ATP synthase.
129. The plant growth hormone which is a purine (4) CF0 has the proton channel for proton
derivative helps? movement.
(1) To elongate and improve the shape of fruits.
(2) To prepare weed free lawns. 135. During ETS of photosynthesis, H+ ions are:
(1) pumped out from thylakoid lumen always.
(3) In adventitious shoot formation. (2) high in concentration inside the thylakoid
(4) In promoting flowering. lumen.
(3) not required to form ATP.
130. If the apical bud is removed from a plant then what (4) always in high concentration in stroma.
will happen to it?
(1) It will show yellowing of leaves. SECTION - B
(2) Its growth will stop. 136. Bulliform cells are concerned with:
(3) It will stop flowering and becomes deficient in (1) conversion of glucose into starch.
zinc. (2) rolling of leaves during water stress.
(4) It will show more lateral shoot growth. (3) storage of food material.
(4) synthesis of resins and tannins.
131. Read the statements carefully and choose the 137. Read the following statements:
correct option. A. Conjoint type of vascular bundles is common
A. C3 plant is well adapted to tolerate high in stems and leaves.
temperature. B. The monocots and dicots are seen to be
B. Bundle sheath cells of maize leaves are larger, anatomically different.
thick walled, and without intercellular spaces. C. Epidermis is usually multilayered.
C. Breakdown of C4-acid of C4-pathway occurs D. The cells of epidermis bear a number of hairs.
in bundle sheath cells. How many is/are incorrect?
D. C4-plants shows double fixation of CO2. (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
138. Exarch and endarch condition is defined on the
(1) Only A, B and D are correct basis of the respective position of:
(2) Only B, C and D are correct
(3) Only A and D are incorrect
(4) Only B and C are incorrect

132. In photosynthetic pathway of sorghum plant (1) I and II (2) II and III
C4-acids are decarboxylated in A to start (3) III and IV (4) IV and I
enzyme activity is B . Choose the correct
options that fills A and B. 139. In roots of flowering plants:
A B (1) the protoxylem lies towards the pith.
(1) mesophyll PEPcase (2) arrangement of primary xylem is called exarch
(2) bundle sheath cell RuBisCO type.
(3) the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of
(3) mesophyll RuBisCO
the organ.
(4) bundle sheath cell PEPcase (4) only metaxylem is present and no protoxylem
is found.
133. To fix 24 molecules of carbon dioxide into sugar in
tomato plant, the number of NADPH and ATP 140. Which of the given function is not under influence
required are respectively. of gibberellins?
(1) Bolting in rosette plants.
(1) 48 and 48
(2) Induction of root hair development on stem
(2) 48 and 72 cutting.
(3) 48 and 24 (3) Promotes flowering in pineapples.
(4) 72 and 48 (4) Both (2) and (3)
141. Select the correct statement. 146. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(1) NAA is a synthetic auxin. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(2) Auxins promote fruit and leaf drop at an early Assertion A: Chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and
stage. carotenoids are called as accessory pigments.
(3) Auxins prevent the abscission of older mature Reason R: They absorb light and transfer the
leaves and fruits. energy to chlorophyll a and protect from photo-
oxidation.
(4) 2,4-D is a natural auxin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
142. Which of the following phytohormones is both a (1) A is true but R is false.
growth promoter and growth inhibitor? (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) Ethylene (2) Gibberellin (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Cytokinin (4) ABA explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
143. Choose correct set of labels for given diagram explanation of A.
showing a seedling development.
147. RuBisCO enzyme is:
I
II (1) found only in mesophyll cell of C4 plants.
(2) present in the both C3 and C4 plants.
III (3) having greater affinity for oxygen when CO2
concentration is more than O2.
(4) the least abundant enzyme on earth.

148. Match List-I with List-II:

I II III List-I List-II
(1) Epicotyl Hypocotyl Radicle (Aestivation) (Example)
(2) Hypocotyl Hypocotyl Radicle (A) Imbricate (I) Calotropis
(B) Valvate (II) Gulmohur
(3) Epicotyl Cotyledons Hypocotyl
(C) Vexillary (III) Cotton
hook
(D) Twisted (IV) Bean
(4) Epicotyl Cotyledons Epicotyl Choose the correct answer from the options given
hook below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
144. Given below are two statements: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Statement I: There can be a net gain of 38 ATP (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
molecules during aerobic respiration of one
molecule of glucose.
149. Select the correct statement regarding the
Statement II: Pure proteins or fats favoured
Malvaceae family.
substrate for respiration.
(1) Dicotyledonous seeds, non-endospermic, and
In the light of the above statements, choose the leaves with parallel venation.
most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) Flowers are epipetalous, and the ovary is
below:
bicarpellary and syncarpous.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Polypetalous flowers with twisted aestivation.
incorrect.
(4) Flowers are bracteate, zygomorphic and
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is bisexual.
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 150. A flower is a modified shoot wherein
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are the shoot apical meristem changes to X .
incorrect. Y do not elongate and the axis gets
condensed. Choose the correct options that fills X
and Y.
145. How many molecules of CO2 are evolved when
X Y
two molecules of tripalmitin are used as respiratory (1) floral meristem internodes
substrate to measure its RQ value? (2) intercalary meristem internodes
(1) 145 molecules (2) 45 molecules (3) floral meristem nodes
(3) 102 molecules (4) 6 molecules (4) intercalary meristem nodes
 [Practice Test-11 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 27/11/2024]
Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products & their Elimination, Locomotion & Movement, Neural Control & Coordination, Chemical Coordination & Integration

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 155. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
151. Choose the correct statement w.r.t excretory
system. (A) Insects (I) Flame cells
(B) Earthworm (II) Antennal glands
(1) Skin and ovaries assist in excretion.
(C) Planaria (III) Malpighian tubules
(2) Nearly 9.1% of filtrate is reabsorbed through
(D) Crustaceans (IV) Nephridia
different parts of nephron.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) Kidneys are situated close to the dorsal inner below:
wall of the abdominal cavity. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) Nitrogenous wastes like urea are added to (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
dialysing fluid to maintain a concentration
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
gradient.
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

152. The part of renal tubule which is almost 156. The urine formed is a light yellow coloured
impermeable to electrolytes is: watery fluid which is X having Y .
(1) descending limb of loop of Henle. Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly.
(2) ascending limb of loop of Henle. X Y
(1) slightly alkaline pH-8.0
(3) proximal convoluted tubules.
(2) slightly acidic pH-2.0
(4) all of these (3) slightly acidic pH-6.0
(4) slightly alkaline pH-9.0
153. Which of the following is present in cortex 157. Presence of glucose in urine is called:
region? (1) anaemia. (2) ketonuria.
(1) Malpighian corpuscles (3) glycosuria. (4) asthma.
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule 158. Select the correct set of organisms that excrete
(3) Afferent arteriole same type of nitrogenous waste.
(1) Many bony fishes and land snails
(4) All of these
(2) Birds and insects
154. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (3) Marine fishes and many bony fishes
(4) Aquatic amphibians and insects
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Sweat produced by sebaceous 159. Which of the following substances is absorbed by
active transport?
glands is a watery fluid containing NaCl, small
(1) Glucose
amount of urea and lactic acid. (2) Amino acids
Reason R: Sebaceous glands eliminate certain (3) Nitrogenous wastes
(4) Both (1) and (2)
substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
through sebum. 160. Identify the structures which is a fine branch of
renal artery from the diagram given below.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (1) I (2) II
explanation of A. (3) III (4) IV
161. The correct ascending order of percentage 166. Which of the following options is an incorrect
proportion of leucocytes in human blood is: match?
(1) neutrophils  basophils  lymphocytes. Disorders Symptoms
(2) monocytes  neutrophils  lymphocytes. (1) Coronary Lumen of arteries
(3) basophils  lymphocytes  neutrophils. artery disease becomes broader
(4) monocyte  basophils  eosinophils. (2) Angina Insufficient oxygen to
pectoris heart
162. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the formation of
(3) Cardiac arrest Heart stops beating
a blood clot.
(4) Heart failure Heart is not pumping
(1) Thrombins are formed from prothrombin by
blood effectively
the enzyme complex thrombokinase.
enough to meet the
(2) Fibrins are formed by the conversion of
needs of the body
inactive fibrinogens by the enzyme thrombin.
(3) Coagulam is formed mainly of a network of
167. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
threads called fibrin.
(1) Tricupsid valve guards the opening between
(4) Certain factors released by the tissues at the
the left atrium and the left ventricle.
site of injury cannot initiate coagulation.
(2) Inter-atrial septum separates the right and the
163. Open circulatory system is present in: left atria.
A. arthropoda. (3) The valves in the heart prevents the flow of
B. annelida. blood in a backward direction.
C. chordata. (4) Atrio-ventricular node is located close to the
D. mollusca. atrio-ventricular septum.
Choose the correct option:
(1) B & C only 168. The endocrine part of the pancreas is known as:
(2) A & B only (1) acini. (2) islets of langerhans.
(3) B & D only (3) hepatocytes. (4) adipocytes.
(4) A & D only 169. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
164. What would be the heart rate of a person if the
Assertion A: Person with B blood group can
cardiac output is 6 L and stroke volume is 60 ml?
receive blood from any blood group.
(1) 50 beats per minute
Reason R: Person with B blood group has anti-A
(2) 75 beats per minute
antibodies in their plasma.
(3) 100 beats per minute
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) 125 beats per minute
correct answer from the options given below:
165. Given below are two statements. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
Statement I: Pericardium is the single layer
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
covering of heart. explanation of A.
Statement II: Fats are absorbed through lymph in (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
the lacteals present in the intestinal villi.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 170. Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume of an
most appropriate answer from the options given athlete is 800 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What
will be his expiratory capacity if the residual
below.
volume is 1200 mL?
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) 1800 mL (2) 1700 mL
incorrect.
(3) 2200 mL (4) 3000 mL
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are 171. Which of the following is the smallest contractile
correct. unit of skeletal muscle fibre?
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Sarcolemma (2) Sarcoplasm
incorrect. (3) Sarcomere (4) Myosin
172. Refer to the following diagram. 177. Which of the following is true for skeletal
muscles?
(1) They are striated.
(2) They are under voluntary control.
(3) They do not fatigue.
Which of the following represents cross arm? (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV 178. Enlargement of the thyroid gland due to iodine
deficiency is called:
173. In the human body, the type of joint present (1) Cretinism (2) Goitre
between the atlas and axis is a: (3) Myxedema (4) Tetany
(1) hinge joint. (2) ball and socket joint.
(3) pivot joint. (4) gliding joint. 179. The gap between two neurons where
neurotransmitters are released is called:
174. Given below are two statements: (1) synaptic cleft. (2) nodes of Ranvier.
Statement I: The hypothalamus is the basal part of (3) axon terminal. (4) receptor site.
diencephalon.
180. The release of hormones from the posterior
Statement II: The pituitary gland is located in a
bony cavity called sella tursica. pituitary is primarily regulated by:
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) direct neural regulation by hypothalamus.
most appropriate answer from the options given (2) feedback mechanisms from target glands.
below: (3) hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) environmental factors.
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 181. The outermost layer of the cranial meninges is
correct. called:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) arachnoid
correct. (2) pia mater
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) dura mater
incorrect. (4) cerebrospinal fluid

182. The myelin sheath around the axon is produced

175. Read the following statements (A-D). by:
A. The peripheral nervous system consists of the (1) schwann cells. (2) osteocytes.
brain and spinal cord. (3) chondrocytes. (4) neurons.
B. The central nervous system is responsible for
processing information. 183. Read the following statements (A-E).
C. The PNS connects the CNS to limbs and A. The anterior pituitary releases growth
organs through nerves. hormone (GH) in response to growth
D. The brain is divided into three major parts: hormone-releasing hormone.
forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. B. Pelvic girdles meet ventrally to form the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the pubic symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.
options given below: C. The 8th, 9th, and 10th pairs of ribs do not
(1) Only A, C, and D are correct. directly attach to the sternum but connect to
(2) Only A and B are correct. the seventh rib via hyaline cartilage.
(3) Only B, C and D are correct. D. A single U-shaped bone called hyoid is
(4) Only C and D are correct. present at the base of the buccal cavity.
E. The number of mitochondria are few in white
176. Which of the following hormone is the main muscle fibers.
mineralocorticoid in the human body? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Aldosterone (1) One
(2) Cortisol (2) Two
(3) Adrenaline (3) Three
(4) Noradrenaline (4) Five
184. Read the following statements (A-D). 189. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
A. Low GH secretion causes pituitary dwarfism. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
B. Ribs have two articulation surfaces at the Assertion A: The contraction of skeletal muscles
dorsal end, making them bicephalic.
C. Pineal gland helps to regulates menstrual is due to the sliding filament mechanism.
cycle. Reason R: During skeletal muscle contraction,
D. Pars intermedia secretes melanocyte
myosin filaments slide over actin filaments.
stimulating hormone (MSH).
Choose the most appropriate answer from the In the light of the above statements, choose the
options given below: correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Only A, B, and C are correct.
(2) Only B and D are correct. (1) A is true but R is false.
(3) Only A, B, and D are correct. (2) A is false but R is true.
(4) A, B, C and D are correct.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
185. Match List-I with List-II. explanation of A.
List-I List-II (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(A) Amoeboid (I) Euglena
movement explanation of A.
(B) Flagellar (II) Leucocytes
190. Which of the following disorders is caused by
movement
(C) Myoglobin (III) 12 decreased bone mass?
(D) Thoracic (IV) Red muscle fibers (1) Osteoporosis
vertebrae (2) Arthritis
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Gout
below: (4) Muscular dystrophy
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 191. Which of the following nitrogenous waste
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I requires the largest amount of water for its
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I elimination?
(1) Urea
SECTION - B
(2) Uric acid
186. Select the mismatch option w.r.t types of neuron. (3) Ammonia
(1) Multipolar - Cerebral cortex (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Unipolar - Embryonic stage
(3) Bipolar - Retina of eye
192. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Myelinated nerve - Somatic neural
fibres system List-I List-II
(A) Synaptic (I) Hindbrain
187. How many from the following is/are secreted by vesicles
anterior pituitary gland? (B) Cerebellum (II) Midbrain
TSH, GH, PRL, ACTH, GnRH, ADH (C) Corpora (III) Forebrain
(1) One quadrigemina
(2) Two (D) Corpus (IV) Neurotransmitter
(3) Four callosum
(4) Three
Choose the correct answer from the options given
188. All of the following statements are correct except: below:
(1) Impulse transmission across electrical (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
synapses resembles conduction along a single (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
axon. (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) Chemical synapses are rare in our system. (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in
order to provide the additional space for 193. Which of the following is a part of the coxal
many more neurons. bone?
(4) Brain stem forms the connections between (1) Ilium (2) Pubis
the brain and spinal cord. (3) Ischium (4) All of these
194. Read the following statements (A-E). 198. Erythropoietin primarily stimulates the formation of:
A. The thyroid gland is composed of follicles
(1) white blood cells.
and stromal tissues.
B. All neurons have a similar basic structure and (2) platelets.
function.
(3) red blood cells.
C. Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin
sheath where action potentials are (4) plasma cells.
regenerated.
D. Basal metabolic rate increases in Grave’s
disease. 199. Which of the following group of hormones includes
E. Excess growth hormone secretion in adults
estradiol and progesterone?
leads to facial disfigurement called
acromegaly. (1) Peptide hormones
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) Steroid hormones
options given below:
(1) Only A and B are incorrect. (3) Iodothyronines
(2) Only B and C are incorrect. (4) Amino-acid derivatives
(3) Only C and D are incorrect.
(4) Only B is incorrect. 200. Given below are two statements:

195. Which of the following statements about the Statement I: The resting potential of a neuron is
sympathetic nervous system is incorrect? maintained by the sodium-potassium pump.
(1) It increases the heart rate. Statement II: The resting potential is primarily
(2) It is a part of the central nervous system.
(3) It prepares the body for "fight or flight" due to the high concentration of K+ ions inside the
responses. neuron.
(4) It acts on adrenal gland.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
196. Complete the analogy and choose the correct most appropriate answer from the options given
option w.r.t vertebral column.
Cranial bones : 8 :: Facial bones: _____ below:
(1) 14 (2) 22 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) 18 (4) 7
incorrect.
197. Refer to the given below diagram. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
R
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are

P T correct.
Q S
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Which of the following represents depolarisation incorrect.
of the atria?
(1) P (2) Q
(3) T (4) R

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