Viratian Educational Services

Budharaja, Main Road

Sambalpur (Odisha)
Contact No. 8596052000
Mob No.: 7381652000
E-mail: viratfoundation@gmail.com
www.virat.org.in

NEET TEST-SET-02
6. A charge of 10 esu is placed at a distance of 2 cm
PHYSICS from a charge of 40 esu and 4 cm from another
1. Two charges are placed as shown in figure. Where charge of – 20 esu. The potential energy of the
should a third charge be placed so that it remains charge 10 esu is :– (in ergs)
at rest ? (1) 87.5 (2) 112.5 (3) 150 (4) zero
9e 16e
7. A charge q is projected into a uniform electric
70cm
field E; work done when it suffers a displacement
(1) 30 cm from 9e (2) 40 cm from 16e Y along the field direction is :-
(3) 40 cm from 9e (4) (1) or (2)
qY
2. . Two point charges of + 2 mC and + 6 mC repel (1) qEY (2)
E
each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given Y
qE
an additional charge of – 4 mC, then force will (3) (4)
Y qE
become:– 8. Two conductors are of same shape and size. One
(1) 4 N (attractive) (2) 60 N (attractive) of copper and the other of aluminium (less
(3) 4 N (repulsive) (4) 12 N (attractive) conducting) are placed in an uniform electric field.
3. Two small identical spheres, each of mass 1 g and The charge induced in aluminium :-
carrying same charge 10–9 C are suspended by (1) will be less than that in copper
threads of equal lengths. If the distance between (2) will be more than that in copper
(3) will be equal to that in copper
the centres of the spheres is 0.3 cm in equilibrium
(4) cannot be compared with that of copper
then the inclination of the thread with the vertical
will be :– 9. Two concentric conducting spheres are of radii r1
and r2. The outer sphere is given a charge q. The
(1) tan–1 (0.1) (2) tan–1 (2)
charge q’ on the inner sphere will be (inner sphere
(3) tan–1 (1.5) (4) tan–1 (0.6)
is grounded) :-
4. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear (1) q
charge densities l1 and l2 respectively are placed q'
(2) -q r1
at a distance R. The force per unit length on either r2
r1
wire will be :– (3) - q
r2
k2l1 l2 k2 l1l2
(1) (2) (4) Zero
R2 R
10
. Gravitational force between two masses at a distance
kl1l2 kl1l2
(3) (4) 'd' apart is 6N. If these masses are taken to moon
R2 R
and kept at same separation, then the force between
5. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is
them will become :
surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting
1
spherical shell. Let the potential difference (1) 1 N (2) N
6
between the surface of the solid sphere and the
(3) 36 N (4) 6 N
outer surface of the shell be V. If the shell is now
11. The mass of the moon is 1% of mass of the earth.
given a charge -3Q the new potential difference
The ratio of gravitational pull of earth on moon
between the same two surfaces is :- to that of moon on earth will be :
(1) V (2) 2V (3) 4V (4) –2V (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 10 (3) 1 : 100 (4) 2 : 1
12. The gravitational potential energy is maximum at: 22. On increasing the number of electrons striking the
(1) infinity anode of an X-ray tube, which one of the following
(2) the earth's surface
parameters of the resulting X-rays would increase
(3) The centre of the earth
(4) Twice the radius of the earth (1) penetration power (2) frequency
(3) wavelength (4) intensity
13. Gravitational potential difference between surface
of a planet and a point situated at a height of 20m 23. In an X–ray tube accelerating potential is 60 kV.
above its surface is 2 J/kg. If gravitational field is What is the maximum frequency of emitted X-ray ?
uniform, then the work done in taking a 5kg body (1) 1.45 × 1019 Hz (2) 1.45 × 1015 Hz
upto height 4 meter above surface will be : (3) 1.25 × 1015 Hz (4) 1.25 × 1013 Hz
(1) 2 J (2) 20 J (3) 40 J (4) 10 J 24. According to the Bohr theory of Hydrogen atom,
14. Escape velocity of a 1kg body on a planet is 100 the speed of the electron, its energy and the radius
m/s. Potential energy of body at that planet is: of its orbit varies with the principal quantum number
(1) – 5000J (2) –1000J n, respectively, as
15. The average radii of orbits of mercury and earth 1 1 2 1 2 1
around the sun are 6 × 107 km and 1.5 × 108 km (1) , ,n (2) ,n , 2
n n2 n n
respectively. The ratio of their orbital speeds
1 1 1
will be :- (3) n2, , n2 (4) n, ,
n2 n2 n2
(1) 5: 2 (2) 2: 5
25. If the ionization potential of hydrogen atom is
(3) 2.5 : 1 (4) 1 : 25
13.6 eV, its energy in the n = 3 is approximately
16. If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit which (1) – 1.14 eV (2) – 1.51 eV
is at a distance radius of earth from earth's surface
(3) –3.4 eV (4) – 4.53 eV
and allowed to fall freely into the earth. The speed
with which it hits the surface of earth will be :
(1) 7.919 m/s (2) 7.919 km/s CHEMISTRY
(3) 11.2 m/s (4) 11.2 km/s 26. The molarity of a solution of sodium chloride
17. The mean distance of mars from sun is 1.5 times (mol wt. = 58.5) in water containing 5.85 g of
that of earth from sun. What is approximately the sodium chloride in 500 mL of solution is :-
number of years required by mars to make one (1) 0.25 (2) 2.0 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.2
revolution about sun ?
27. For preparing 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 in one
(1) 2.35 years (2) 1.85 years
litre, we need H2SO4 :
(3) 3.65 years (4) 2.75 years
(1) 0.98 g (2) 4.9 g
18. Wh ich of th e following is no t aff ect ed by
(3) 49.0 g (4) 9.8 g
electro-magnetic fields :–
(1) a-rays (2) b-rays 28. If PA0 and PB0 are 108 and 36 torr respectively.
(3) X-rays (4) cathode-rays What will be the mole fraction of A is vapour phase
19. Minimum wavelength of X-ray is 2 Å, then potential if B has mole fraction in solution 0.5.
difference between anode and cathode is:– (1) 0.25 (2) 0.75
(1) 62 kV (2) 6.2 kV (3) 0.60 (4) 0.35
(3) 24.8 kV (4) 2.48 kV 29. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has b.p. lower
20. If potential difference applied to an X-ray tube than either of them when it :-
is V volt, then minimum wavelength of X-rays (1) shows a (+ve) deviation from Raoult's law
produced is about (in Å) :– (2) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(3) shows (+ve) deviation from Henry's law
(1) 1240/V (2) 12400/V
(4) shows (–ve) deviation from Henry's law
(3) 24000/V (4) 12.27/ V
30. The vapour pressure of pure A is 10 torr and at
21. When cathode rays strike a metal target of high the same temperature when 1 g of B is dissolved in
melting point with very high velocity, then :– 20 gm of A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0
(1) X-rays are produced torr. If the molecular mass of A is 200 amu, then
(2) a-rays are produced the molecular mass of B is :
(3) b-rays are produced (1) 100 amu (2) 90 amu
(3) 75 amu (4) 120 amu
(4) ultrasonic waves are produced
31. An aqueous solution freezes at – 0.186 °C 39. K for a zero order reaction is
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 ; Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1). 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the concentration of the
What is the elevation in boiling point ? reactant after 25 s is 0.5 M, the initial concentration
(1) 0.186 (2) 0.512 must have been.
(1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M
0.512 (3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M
(3) (4) 0.0512
1.86
40. The reaction 2A + B ® P, follows the mechanism
32. A solution containing 500 g of a protein per litre is
ˆˆˆ
2A ‡ˆˆ †
ˆ A2 (fast)
isotonic with a solution containing 3.42 g of
sucrose per litre. The molecular mass of protein is A2 + B ® P (slow)
(1) 5 (2) 146 The order of the reaction is :–
(3) 34200 (4) 50000 (1) 1.5 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

33. The substance A when dissolved in solvent B shows 41. The minimum energy for molecules to enter into
the molecular mass corresponding to A3. The vant chemical reaction is called.
Hoff's factor will be - (1) Kinetic energy (2) Potential energy
1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) (3) Threshold energy (4) Activation energy
3
34. 0.1 M solution of K2SO4 is dissolved to the extent 42. . The half life for a reaction is --------of temperature:-
of 90%. What would be its osmotic pressure at (1) Independent
27°C :- (2) Increased with increase
(1) 6.89 atm (2) 0.689 atm (3) Decreased with increase
(3) 0.344 atm (4) 3.4 atm (4) Increased or decreased with increase

35. Rate of formation of SO3 according to the reaction 43. The value of molar conductivity of HCl is greater
2SO2+O2 ® 2SO3 is 1.6 × 10–3 kg min–1 Hence than that of NaCl at a particular temperature
rate at which SO reacts is :– because :
2
(1) 1.6 × 10–3 kg min–1 (1) Molecular mass of HCl is less than that of NaCl.
(2) Velocity of H+ ions is more than that of Na+
(2) 8.0 × 10–4 kg min–1
ions
(3) 3.2 × 10–3 kg min–1 (3) HCl is strongly acidic
(4) 1.28 × 10–3 kg min–1 (4) Ionisation of HCl is larger than that of NaCl

36. 2A(g) + B(g) ˆˆˆ†

‡ˆˆˆ Product is an elementary reaction, 44. The limiting molar conductivities L0 for NaCl,
KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol–1
If pressure is increased three times of the initial
respectively. The L0 for NaBr is :
pressure, the velocity of forward reaction will be (1) 278 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 176 S cm2 mol–1
------ of the previous velocity:- (3) 128 S cm mol
2 –1
(4) 302 S cm2 mol–1
(1) 9 times (2) 27 times 45. E° for the half cell
Zn2+ | Zn is –0.76 V. E.m.f. of the cell
1 1
(3) times (4) times Zn | Zn2+ (1M) || 2H+ (1M) | H2 (1 atm) is :
9 27
(1) –0.76 V (2) +0.76 V
37. A chemical reaction involves two reacting species. (3) –0.38 V (4) + 0.38 V
The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the 46. Which is not true for a standard hydrogen electrode ?
concentration of one of them and inversely (1) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M.
proportional to the concentration of the other. The (2) Temperature is 25°C.
order of reaction is – (3) Pressure of hydrogen is 1 bar.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (4) It contains a metallic conductor which does not
(3) Zero (4) Unpredictable adsorb hydrogen.
47. If a spoon of copper metal is placed in a solution of
38. The chemical reaction 2O3 ® 3O2 proceeds as ferrous sulphate :
follows (1) Cu will precipitate out
ˆˆˆ
† (2) Iron will precipitate
O3 ‡ˆˆˆ O2 + O ............. (fast)
(3) Cu and Fe will precipitate
O + O3 ® 2O2 ............. (slow) (4) No rection will take place
The rate law expression should be – 48. Zn can not displace following ions from their
(1) r = K[O3]2 (2) r = K[O3]2[O2]–1 aqueous solution :
(3) r = K[O3][O2] (4) Unpredictable (1) Ag+ (2) Cu2+
(3) Fe2+ (4) Na+
49. The emf of the cell 58. For a DNA to function as a cloning vector
Tl(s)|Tl+ (0.0001 M) || Cu2+ (0.01M)|Cu(s) is the most essential requirement is :-
0.83 V (1) multiple restriction sites
The emf of this cell will be increased by :– (2) several selectable markers
(1) Increasing the concentration of Cu+2 ions (3) circular nature
(2) Decreasing the concentration of Tl+
(4) 'ori' sequence
(3) Increasing the concentration of both 59. Which of following feature is not necessary
(4) (1) & (2) both for cloning vector–
50. The potential of hydrogen electrode (1) Origin of replication
(PH = 1 atm; CH+ = 0.1 M) at 25°C will be - (2) High copy number
2
(1) 0.00 V (2) –0.059 V (3) Selectable marker
(3) 0.118 V (4) 0.059 V (4) Cloning sites

BIOLOGY 60. Transformation is a procedure through

which –
51. A genetically manipulated organism (1) A piece of DNA is introduced in a host
containing in its genome one or more bacterium
inserted gene of another species is called :- (2) A piece of DNA is introduced in a vector
(1) Transposon (3) A piece of DNA is introduced from
(2) Gene expression protein
(3) Transgenic organism (4) All
(4) Retroposons 61. Important objective of biotechnology in
52. Which vector is commonly used in the agriculture section is
transfer of gene in a crop plant - (1) To produce pest resistant varieties of
(1) Plasmids of B. Subtilis plants
(2) Bacteriophages (2) To increase the nitrogen content
(3) Ti-plasmids of Agrobacterium (3) To decrease the seed number
(4) E. Coli Phages (4) To increase the plant weight
53. Which of the following is the example of 62. Cry-gene which synthesize crystal protein
chemical scissors – isolated from :-
(1) ECo - RI (2) Hind - III (1) Bacillus thuringinsis
(3) Bam - I (4) All the above (2) Rhizobium
54. The Ti plasmid, is often used for making (3) Bacillus polymyxa
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in :- (4) Clostridium
(1) Yeast (2) Azotobacter 63. Genetically engineered human insulin is
(3) Rhizobium (4) Agrobacterium called :-
(1) Humulin (2) Haematin
55.. How many copies of DNA sample are (3) Hybridoma (4) Hybrid
produced in PCR technique after 6–cycle:-
64. The use of bio-resources by multinational
(1) 4 (2) 32 (3) 64 (4) 16
companies & other organisations without
56. Which of the following is used as a best
proper authorisation from the countries &
genetic vector in plants :-
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis people concerned, is known as –
(2) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (1) Biopatent (2) Biopiracy
(3) Pseudomonas putida (3) Biowar (4) Biodiversity
(4) All of these
65. The Indian parliament has recently cleared
57. Which of the following enzyme is used to which amendment of the Indian patents
join DNA fragments :-
bill.
(1) Terminase (2) Endonuclease
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 4th
(3) Ligase (4) DNA polymerase
66. What is true about Bt toxin ? 73. After fertilization the outer integument of
(1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins ovule changes into -
(2) The inactive protoxin gets converted (1) Testa (2) Tegmen
into active form in the insect gut
(3) Fruit (4) Seed
(3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the
Bacillus 74. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to–
(4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries (1) Formation of pollen
of the pest to sterilise it and thus (2) Development of anther
prevent its multiplication (3) Opening of floral bud
67. The genetic defect - adenosine deaminase (4) Reception of pollen by stigma
(ADA) deficiency may be cured 75. The number of haploid nuclei taking part in
permanently by :- double fertilization are
(1) Enzyme replacement therapy (1) Two (2) Three
(2) Periodic infusion of genetically (3) Four (4) Five
engineered lymphocytes having
functional ADA cDNA 76. Neutrophils and monocytes are important
(3) Administering adenosine deaminase cells participating in :-
activators (1) Phagocytosis
(4) Introducing bone marrow cells (2) Perforin production
producing ADA into cells at early (3) Passive immunity
embryonic stages
(4) Antibody production
68. Which one of the following techniques 77. Surgical removal of thymus of a new born
made it possible to genetically engineer shall result in failure to mature -
living organisms? (1) Monocytes (2) B - lymphocytes
(1) Hybridization (3) T – lymphocytes (4) Basophils
(2) Recombinant DNA techniques
78. To which type of barriers under innate
(3) X-ray diffraction
immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and
(4) Heavier isotope labelling the tears from the eyes, belong?
69. Which one of the following is surrounded (1) Physiological barriers
by a callose wall ? (2) Physical barriers
(1) Pollen grain (3) Cytokine barriers
(2) Microspore mother cell (4) Cellular barriers
(3) Male gamete 79. Vaccination is a part of :-
(4) Egg (1) Treatment
70. Which part of the reproductive structure (2) Passive immunisation
produces enzymes (3) Diagnosis
(1) Archesporium (2) Middle layer (4) Prophylaxis (Prevention)
(3) Tapetum (4) Endothecium
80. Autoimmunity against the synovial
71. Science of cultivation, breeding and membrane at joint is called :-
marketing of flower is :- (1) Multiple sclerosis
(1) Apiculture (2) Embryo culture
(2) I.D.D.M.
(3) Tissue culture (4) Floriculture
(3) Hashimoto disease
72. When pollen grains of a flower are (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
transferred to stigma of another flower of a
81. Which disease is caused by Yersinia pestis ?
different plant, the process is called
(1) Plague
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy (2) Black fever
(3) Autogamy (4) Homogamy (3) Xenopsylla cheopsis
(4) All of these
82. Match the columns with regards to Vector 91. Stored food of oocyte is :-
and Disease (1) nucleus (2) cytoplasm
Column-I Column-II (3) corticle granules (4) yolk
p. Culex i. Dengue 92. Central stroma of ovary is made up of :-
q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis (1) fibrous connective tissue
r. Aedes iii. Malaria (2) reticular tissue
(3) adipose connective tissue
(1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i
(4) None of the above
(3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii (4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii
93. A contraceptive pill contains:-
83. Toxin which is responsible for chill and high (1) Progesterone and estrogen
fever during malaria :- (2) Spermicidal salts
(1) Haematin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Chemicals that cause automatic abortion
(3) Haemozoin (4) Heam (4) Chemicals that prevent fertilization of ovum
94. The partner responsible for sex of the child is:-
84. Transmission of HIV infection does not (1) Male
occur by :- (2) Female
(1) Sharing needle with infected person (3) Both
(2) From infected mother to her child (4) At times male & at times female
(3) Touch or physical contact 95. MTP is:-
(4) Sexual contact with infected person (1) Multi trade practices
85. Secondary sex organ in human male is :- (2) Malthusian treatise on population
(3) Multiple temporary frequency
(1) testis (2) ovary
(4) Medical termination of pregnancy
(3) beard (4) vas deferens
96. A contraceptive is:-
86. Fructose is present in the secretion of:-
(1) Condom, cervical cap and diaphragm
(1) seminal vesicle (2) Intrauterine device
(2) perineal gland (3) Pill
(3) Cowper's gland (4) All the above
(4) Bartholin's gland 97. Study of abnormalities by taken out the amniotic
fluid of embryo is called :-
87. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :-
(1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor (1) Endoscopy (2) Amniocentesis
in calcium (3) Laproscopy (4) Natal endoscopy
(2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes 98. Which one is not legitimate for reducing birth rate:-
(3) Fructose and calcium but has no (1) Ban on marriages
enzymes (2) MTP
(4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no (3) Use of contraceptives
calcium (4) Late marriages
99. What is correct about test tube baby:-
88. Degenerative process of follicles or eggs in
ovary is called :- (1) Fertilization inside female genital tract and
growth in test tube
(1) metagenesis
(2) atresia (2) Rearing of prematurely born baby in incubator
(3) regression (3) Fertilization outside and gestation inside womb
(4) None of the above of mother

89. Which part of sperm is called power house ? (4) Both fertilization and development are effected
(2) Neck outside the female genital tract
(1) Head
(3) Middle piece (4) Tail 100. Tubectomy, a method of population control is
performed on :-
90. Parturition canal in female is :- (1) Both males & females (2) Males only
(1) uterus (2) oviduct (3) Females only (4) Only pregnant females
(3) vagina (4) urethra