NPT 01-DPS -JNPM -XI (29-05-24)

Physics

1 Objective Match List - I with List - II

(#128353) List - I List - II (Significant

(Number) figure)

(A) 1001 (I) 3

(B) 010.1 (II) 4

(C) 100.100 (III) 5

(D) 0.0010010 (IV) 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1)(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)- (2)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I),

(II), (D)-(I) (D)-(II)

(3)(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (4)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III),

(D)-(III) (D)-(IV)

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

Theoretical

2 Objective The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a metal

(#128088) wire was measured in the laboratory as

r = (0.35 ± 0.05) cm
R = (100 ± 10) ohm
l = (15 ± 0.2) cm
The percentage error in resistivity of the material of the

wire is :

(1) 25.6% (2) 39.9%

(3) 37.3% (4) 35.6%

 Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
πr 2
ρ=R
ℓ
Δρ ΔR Δr Δℓ
= +2 +
ρ R r ℓ
10 0.05 0.2
= +2× +
100 0.35 15
1 2 1
= + +
10 7 75
Δρ
= 39.9%
ρ

3 Objective 10 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper

(#128084) coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. If each

division on the main scale is of 5 units, the least count of

the instrument is :
1 10
(1) (2)
2 11
50 5
(3) (4)
11 11

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation

10 MSD = 11 VSD
10
1 VSD = MSD
11
LC = 1MSD – 1VSD
10 1MSD 5
= 1MSD − MSD = = units
11 11 11

4 Objective A physical quantity Q is found to depend on quantities a,

a 4b 3
(#127895) b, c by the relation Q = . The percentage error in a, b
c2
and c are 3%, 4% and 5% respectively. Then, the

percentage error in Q is:

(1) 14% (2) 43%

(3) 66% (4) 34%

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation

⇒
dQ
Q
× 100 = 4
()
da
a
× 100 + 3
()
db
b
× 100 + 2
()
dc
c
× 100
 ⇒ % error in Q = (4 3%) +(3 4%) + 2(5%) = 34%

5 Objective If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale division

(#128049) of a travelling microscope and one smallest reading of

main scale is 0.5 mm, the Vernier constant of travelling

microscope is

(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.01 mm

(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.1 cm

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
vernier constant = L.C = 1MSD – 1VSD

= 1−
[ ] 49
50
MSD

1
= × 0.5mm = 0.01mm
50

6 Objective The resistance R = V/l where V = (200 ± 5)V and

(#127759) I = (20 ± 0.2)A. the percentage error in the measurement

of R is:

(1) 5.5 % (2) 3%

(3) 7% (4) 3.5 %

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation

V=RI
V
R=
I
dR dV dI
× 100% = × 100% + × 100%
R V I
5 0.2
= × 100% + × 10%
200 20
= 2.5% + 1% = 3.5%

7 Objective If the percentage errors in measuring the length and the

(#127187) diameter of a wire are 0.1% each. The percentage error

in measuring its resistance will be :

(1) 0.2% (2) 0.144%

 (3) 0.3% (4) 0.1%

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
ℓρ ℓρ Δl 2Δr
R= = = +
A π ( r2 ) l r

= 0.1% + 0.2% = 0.3%

a 2b 3
8 Objective A physical quantity P is given as P = The percentage
c√ d
(#108185)
error in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 3%

and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the

measurement of quantity P will be

(1) 13% (2) 16%

(3) 12% (4) 14%

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

( ) [( ) ( ) ( ) ( )]
ΔP
P
=
2Δa
a
+
3Δb
b
+
Δc
c
+
1 Δd
2 d

( )
ΔP
P
× 100 = 2 × 1 + 3 × 2 + 3 +
1
2
× 4 = 13%

[ ]
9 Objective
a
In Vander Waals equation P + [V − b] = RT; P is
(#77156) V2

pressure, V is volume, R is universal gas constant and T

a
is temperature. The ratio of constants is dimensionally
b
equal to :
P V
(1) (2)
V P

(3) PV (4) PV 3

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

By principle of homogenity

[P] =
[]v2
a
and [b] = [v]
 ⇒
[] a
b
= [PV]

A 2B 3
10 Objective If Z = , then the relative error in Z will be :
C4
(#76820) ΔA ΔB ΔC 2ΔA 3ΔB 4ΔC
(1) + + (2) + −
A B C A B C
2ΔA 3ΔB 4ΔC ΔA ΔB ΔC
(3) + + (4) + −
A B C A B C

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
A 2B 3
Z=
C4
In case of error
dZ 2dA 3dB 4dC
= + +
Z A B C
ΔZ 2ΔA 3Δ 4ΔC
= + +
Z A B C

11 Objective An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and x is

ab 2
(#63383) calculated from x = If the percentage errors in a, b, c
c3
are ± 1%, ± 3% and ± 2% respectively

(1)The percentage error in (2)The percentage error in

x can be ± 13% x can be ± 20%

(3)The percentage error in

(4) None of These
x can be ± 26%

Correct Answer: Option 1

P2
12 Objective There is a physical quantity A = If percentage error in
Q3
(#63373)
the measurement of P is 'x' & in the measurement of Q is

'y' then the maximum possible % error in A will be :

(1) 2x – 3y (2) 3x – 2y

(3) 3x + 2y (4) 2x + 3y

Correct Answer: Option 4

13 Objective In a wire V = 5.0V, I = 2.00A, L = 10.0 cm and diameter d

 Δρ
(#46050) = 5.00 mm. Evaluate × 100
ρ

(1) 3.9% (2) 1.9%

(3) 2.9% (4) 3%

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
Δρ ΔR Δℓ 2Δd
= + +
ρ R ℓ d
Δρ ΔV ΔI Δℓ 2Δd
= + + +
ρ V I ℓ d

Δρ
ρ
%=
( 0.1
5
+
0.01
2
+
0.1
10
+2×
0.01
5 ) × 100

= 2 + 0.5 + 1 + 0.4 = 3.9%

14 Objective If a simple pendulum completes 200 oscillation in 100

(#46020) sec. Least count of watch is 1 sec., length of simple

pendulum is 100 cm and it’s least count is 1 mm then find

max. possible percentage error in measuring acceleration

due to gravity.

(1) 3.2 (2) 5.2

(3) 2.1 (4) 4.1

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
ℓ
T = 2π
√ g

T 2 = 4π 2 () ℓ
g

g = 4π 2

Δg Δℓ
() ℓ
T2

ΔT
= +2
g ℓ T

Δg
g
× 100 =
0.1cm
100cm
× 100% + 2
( ) 1sec
100sec
× 100%

Δg
× 100 = 2.1%
g
15 Objective The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and

(#27077) pitch of 2mm. Find the measured value of thickness of a

thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm (2) 6.41 mm

(3) 3.46 mm (4) 3.51 mm

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
pitch 2
Least count = = = 0.01mm
No . of divisions 200
Undefined control sequence \operatorname

16 Objective A physical quantity z depends on four observables a, b, c

a 2b 2 / 3
(#23397) and d, as z = . The percentage of error in the
3
√cd
measurement of a,b,c and d are 2%, 1.5%, 4% and 2.5%

respectively. The percentage of error in z is :

(1) 13.5% (2) 16.5%

(3) 14.5% (4) 12.25%

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
Δt 2Δa 2 Δb 1 Δc Δd
= + + +3
t a 3 b 2 c d
2 1
=2×2+ × 1.5 + × 4 + 3 × 2.5
3 2
= 4 + 1 + 2 + 7.5

= 14.5% .

17 Objective In the density measurement of a cube, the mass and

(#23104) edge length are measured as (10.00 ± 0.10) kg and

(0.10 ± 0.01) m, respectively. The error in the

measurement of density is
 (1) 0.31 kg / m 3 (2) 0.01 kg / m 3

(3) 0.10 kg / m 3 (4) 0.07 kg / m 3

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
10
ρ = M/V = = 10, 000 kg / m 3
( 0.1 ) 3

dρ
ρ
= [ dM
M
+
dV
V ]
dρ 0.1 0.03
= +
10 , 000 10 0.1
3
dρ = 3100 kg / m

18 Objective If Surface tension (S), Moment of Inertia (I) and Planck’s

(#22642) constant (h), were to be taken as the fundamental units,

the dimensional formula for linear momentum would be:

(1) S 1 / 2I 3 / 2h − 1 (2) S 3 / 2I 1 / 2h 0

(3) S 1 / 2I 1 / 2h − 1 (4) S 1 / 2I 1 / 2h 0

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation

[P] = MLT − 1 = [I xh yS z]

= M xL 2x(ML 2T − 1) y(MT − 2) z
= M x + y + zL 2x + 2yT − y − 2z

x+y+z=1

2(x + y) = 1
1
⇒x+y=
2
1
⇒z=
2
y + 2z = 1

⇒y=0
1
⇒x=
2
[p] = √IS

19 Objective In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of

(#22058) acceleration due to gravity (g), time taken for 20

 oscillations is measured by using a watch of 1 second

least count. The mean value of time taken comes out to

be 30 s. The length of pendulum is measured byusing a

meter scale of least count 1 mm and the value obtained is

55.0 cm. The percentage error in the determination of g is

close to:

(1) 6.8% (2) 0.2%

(3) 3.5% (4) 0.7%

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
I I
T = 2π
√ g
⇒ g = 4π 2
T2

Δg
g
=
ΔI
I
+
2ΔT
T
= ( 0.1
55
+
2×1
30 ) × 100 ≈ 6.8%

20 Objective Using screw gauge of pitch 0.1 cm and 50 divisions on its

(#21729) circular scale, the thickness of an object is measured. it

should correctly be recorded as :

(1) 2.124 cm (2) 2.123 cm

(3) 2.125 cm (4) 2.121 cm

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

Thickness = M.S. Reading + Circular Scale Reading

(L.C.)
0.1
Here, LC = = 0.002 cm per division
50

21 Objective In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of

(#20645) acceleration due to gravity (g), time taken for 20

oscillations is measures by using a watch of 1 second

least count. The mean value of time taken comes out to

be 30 s. The length of least count 1 mm and the value

obtained is 55.0 cm. The percentage error in the

 determination of g is close to

(1) 0.2% (2) 6.8%

(3) 3.5% (4) 0.7%

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
4π 2l
g=
T2
Δg Δl 2ΔT
= +
g l T

0.1
55
+2×
() 1
30

= 0.06848

Percentage error ≈ 6.8%

22 Objective The diagram shows the part of Vernier scale. Which

(#12181) reading is correct?

(1) 3.9 mm (2) 3.93 mm

(3) 3.87 mm (4) 3.97 mm

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation

Reading = Main scale reading +least count × V.S reading

= 3.9 cm + (0.01 × 3) = 3.93 cm

23 Objective The mass M of a cylindrical body depend on density d of

(#12180) material, its diameter D and length L as M ∝ d x D y L z. If

maximum percentage error in measurement of density,

diameter and length are m% , n% and l% respectively,

then maximum percentage error in calculation of mass is

(1) (m + l + n)% (2) (mx + yn + lz)%

 (3)
( m
x
+
n
y
+
l
z ) (4) (mx + ly + nz)%

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation

M = K dx Dy Lz

ΔM
M
× 100 = x ( Δd
d
× 100 + y) ( ΔD
D ) (
× 100 + z
ΔL
L
× 100 )
% M = (mx + ny + Iz)%

24 Objective The least count of the main scale of a screw gauge is 1

(#12088) mm. The minimum number of divisions on its circular

scale required to measure 5μm diameter of a wire is

(1) 200 (2) 50

(3) 500 (4) 100

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

Least court of screw gauge = 5μm

Pitch
L. C. =
no . of div on circular scale
1mm
5μm =
N
N=200

25 Objective If the percentage error in measurements of radius R of

(#11826) sphere is 0.3%.The percentage error in the volume of the

sphere will be

(1) 0.3% (2) 0.4%

(3) 0.9% (4) 0.8%

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
4
v = πR 3
3
Δv ΔR
=3 = 3 × 0.3%
v R
=0.9%
26 Objective The external and internal diameter of a hollow cylinder

(#11544) are measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm and (3.89 ± 0.01)

cm. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is

(1) (0.34 ± 0.02)cm (2) (0.17 ± 0.02)cm

(3) (0.17 ± 0.01)cm (4) (0.34 ± 0.01)cm

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
D−d
t=
2
ΔD + Δd
also Δt =
2

27 Objective The length, breadth and thickness of a strip are (10.0 ±

(#11543) 0.1)cm, (1.00 ± 0.01) cm and (0.100 ± 0.001) cm

respectively. The most probable error in its volume will be

(1) ± 0.03 cm 3 (2) ± 0.0111 cm 3

(3) ± 0.0112 cm 3 (4) none of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
ΔV Δl Δb Δh
= + +
V l b h

⇒ ΔV = V
( Δl
l
+
Δb
b
+
Δh
h )
28 Objective The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre rod

(#11541) having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured with

vernier callipers having least count 0.01 cm. Given the

length is 5.0 cm and diameter is 2.00 cm. The percentage

error in the calculated value of volume will be

(1) 2% (2) 1%

(3) 3% (4) 4%

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

l = 5.0 ± 0.1 cm
 D = 2.00 ± 0.01 cm
πD 2l
V=
4
ΔV ΔD Δl
=2 +
V d l

29 Objective An experiment measures quantities a, b and c, and X is

ab 2
(#11540) calculated from X = . If the percentage error in a, b
c3
and c are ±1%, ±3% and ±2% respectively, the

percentage error in X will be

(1) ±13% (2) ±7%

(3) ±4% (4) ±1%

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
Δx Δa Δb Δc
× 100 = × 100 + 2 × 100 + 3 × 100
x a b c

30 Objective The density of a cube is calculated by measuring its mass

(#11539) and the length of its side. If the maximum errors in the

measurement of mass and length are 4% and 3%

respectively, the maximum error in the calculation of the

density is

(1) 9% (2) 13%

(3) 12% (4) 7%

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
m
ρ=
l3
Δρ Δm Δl
× 100 = × 100 + 3 × 100
ρ m l

31 Objective The following observations were taken for determining

(#11538) surface tension of water by capillary tube method:

Diameter of capillary (D) = 1.25 × 10 − 2 m, Rise of water in

capillary (h) = 1.45 × 10 − 2 m. Taking = 9.80 m / s 2 and

using the relation T = (rhg / 2) × 10 3 N / m, what is the

 possible error in surface tension. T

(1) 0.16% (2) 1.6%

(3) 16% (4) 2.4%

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
rhg Dhg
T= × 10 3 = × 10 3
2 4
ΔT ΔD Δh Δg
⇒ × 100 = × 100 + × 100 + × 100
T D h g
−2
Use ΔD = 0.01 × 10 m

Δh = 0.01 × 10 − 2m
Δg = 0.01m / s 2

32 Objective A rectangular brass bar of mass M has dimensions a, b,

(#10282) c. The following measurements are made:

M = 135.0 ± 0.1g;

a = 80 ± 1mm;

b = 10 ± 1mm;

c = 20.00 ± 0.01mm

If E 1 and E 2 are the percentage errors in the density of

the material and the moment of inertia about an axis in

the centre of the ab face and perpendicular to it

respectively

(1) E1 = 0 (2) E1 < E2

(3) E 2 < E 1 (4) E1 = E2

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
M Δρ Δm Δa Δb Δc
ρ= ⇒ = + + + = 11.4%
abc ρ m a b c

(
M a2 + b2 ) ΔI ΔM 2aΔa + 2bΔb
I= ⇒ = + = 2.8%
12 I M a2 + b2

33 Objective A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c

a 3b 2
(#9970) and d as follows P = . The percentage errors of
√c × d
 measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%,

respectively. What is the maximum percentage error in

the quantity p

(1) 10 % (2) 11 %

(3) 12 % (4) 13 %

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation
ΔP Δa Δb 1 Δc Δd
=3 +2 + +
P a b 2 C d

34 Objective The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 50 divisions

(#8312) which coincides with 49 main scale division. Each main

scale division is 0.5 o. The least count of the instrument is

(1) 0.6' (2) 1'

(3) 6' (4) 30'

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

Least count = 1 −
( ) 49
50
0.5 o =
1o
100
= 0.6 o

35 Objective The length, breadth and thickness of a block are given by

(#7558) l = 12 cm, b = 6 cm and t = 2.45 cm. The volume of the

block according to the idea of significant figures should

be

(1) 1 × 10 2cm 3 (2) 2 × 10 2cm 3

(3) 1.763 × 10 2cm 3 (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation

Volume of the block is given by : V = ℓ × b × t

Substituting l = 12cm, b = 6cm, and t = 2.45cm

we get V = 176.4cm 3 = 1.764 × 10 2cm 3

Since, minimum number of significant figures is 1 in

thickness, therefore volume will contain only one

 significant figure.

⇒ V = 2 × 10 2 cm

√
36 Objective The period of oscillation of simple pendulum is T = 2π .
g
(#7556)
L length of pendulum is about 10 cm and is known to 1

mm accuracy. The period of oscillation is about 0.5

second. The time of 100 oscillations is measured with a

wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in the

determination of g is

(1) 5% (2) 3%

(3) 2.01% (4) 0.02%

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
Δg ΔL ΔT
= +2× In terms of percentage,
g L T
Δg ΔL ΔT
× 100 = × 100 + 2 × × 100
g L T

Percentage error in L = 100 ×

( ΔL
L ) (
= 100 ×
0.1
10 ) = 1%

ΔT 1
Percentage error in T = 100 × = 100 × = 2%
T 50
Δg
Percentage error in g = 100 = 1% + 2 × 2% = 5%
g

37 Objective The number of significant figures in

(#3812) (i) 10.85 metre

(ii) 0.0001234 kg is

(1) (i) 4 (ii) 4 (2) (i) 3 (ii) 7

(3) (i) 4 (ii) 7 (4) (i) 2 (ii) 7

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

(i) zero is significant.

(ii) All zeros are non-significant

38 Objective The pressure on a square plate is measured by

 (#3820) measuring the force on the plate and the length of the
F
sides of the plate by using the formula P = . If the
I2
maximum errors in the measurement of force and length

are 4% and 2% respectively, then the maximum error in

the measurement of pressure is

(1) 1% (2) 2%

(3) 8% (4) 10 %

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
ΔP ΔF Δl
× 100 = × 100 + 2 × 100 = 4% + 2 × 2% = 8%
P F l

39 Objective The initial temperature of liquid is (80.0 ± 0.1) oC. After it

(#3811) has been cooled, its temperature is (10.0 ± 0.1) oC. The fall

in temperature in degree centigrade is

(1) 70.0 (2) 70.0 ± 0.3

(3) 70.0 ± 0.2 (4) 70.0 ± 0.1

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

Errors should be added.

40 Objective IIn an experiment, the value of refractive index of glass

(#3809) was found to be 1.54, 1.53, 1.44, 1.54, 1.56 and 1.45 and

1.45 in successive measurements. The mean absolute

error is , the relative error is

(1) 0.02 (2) 0.025

(3) 0.03 (4) 0.04

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
Δx
Relative error =
x

41 Objective In an experiment, the value of refractive index of glass

 (#3808) was found to be 1.54, 1.53, 1.44, 1.54, 1.56 and 1.45 and

1.45 in successive measurements. The mean absolute

error is

(1) 0.02 (2) 0.025

(3) 0.03 (4) 0.04

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation
x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 + x7
Δx =
7

42 Objective A body is moving from height x = 0.1 m to x = 1.2 m in 1

(#3781) sec under constant acceleration of 0.5 m / s 2. What was

the initial velocity with which it started. (Correct to

significant digits)

(1) 0.85 m/s (2) 0.9 m/s

(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 0.8 m/s

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
1
From, s = ut + at 2
2
1
1.1 = u × 1 + × 0.5 × (1) 2
2
⇒ u = 0.85 m / s = 0.9m / s (Considering significant

figures)

43 Objective When the number 6.03587 is rounded off up to the

(#3780) second place of decimals, it becomes

(1) 6.035 (2) 6.04

(3) 6.03 (4) none of these

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
ΔV ΔR
× 100 = 3 × × 100
V R

44 Objective A physical quantity is represented by X = M aL bT − c. If

 (#3777) percentage error in the measurement of M, L and T are

α%, β% and γ% respectively, then total percentage error

is

(1) (αa − βb + γc)% (2) (αa + βb + γc)%

(3) (αa − βb − γc)% (4) none of the above

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation

use power formula.

45 Objective Which of the following measurements is most accurate ?

(#3771) (1) 0.005 mm (2) 5.00 mm

(3) 50.00 mm (4) 5.0 mm

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

Number of significant figure is more in option (C)

46 Objective A current of (2.5 ± 0.05) A flows through a wire and

(#2083) develops a potential difference of (10 ± 0.1) volt.

Resistance of the wire in ohm, is

(1) 4 ± 0.12 (2) 4 ± 0.04

(3) 4 ± 0.08 (4) 4 ± 0.02

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

V = IR

I
R=
V

Error in resistance ΔR = R ( ΔI
I
+
ΔV
V )
ΔR = 4
( 0.05
2.5
+
0.1
10 ) = 0.12Ω
 V 10
Resistance R = = = 4Ω
I 2.5
Resistance of wire is ohm ( ± 0.12)Ω

V
47 Objective The resistance is R = where V = 100 ± 5 Volts and
I
(#45) I = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R

(1) 5% (2) 7%

(3) 5.2%
(4)
() 5
2
%

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation

V
R=
I

ΔR
R
=
ΔV
V
+
ΔI
I
= ( 5
100
× 100 +
0.2
10 )
× 100 % = 7%

48 Objective The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the

(#44) experiment is recorded as 2.63s, 2.56s, 2.42s, 2.71s and

2.80s respectively. The average absolute error is

(1) 0.1s (2) 0.11s

(3) 0.01s (4) 1.0s

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
2.63 + 2.56 + 2.42 + 2.71 + 2.80
Mean value aˉ =
5

aˉ = 2.624

absolute error in various readings are

Δa 1 = 2.624 − 2.63 = − .006

[Δa 2 = 2.624 − 2.56 = − .064

Δa 3 = 2.624 − 2.42 = .204

Δa 4 = 2.624 − 2.71 = − .086

 Δa 5 = 2.624 − 2.80 = − .176

¯ |Δa1 | + |Δa2 | + |Δa3 | + |Δa4 | + |Δa5 |

Δa = = 0.11 sec
5

49 Objective What is the fractional error in g calculated from

(#42) T = 2π√ℓ / g

Given that fractional errors in T and l are ± x and ± y

respectively.

(1) x+y (2) x-y

(3) 2x + y (4) 2x - y

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

ℓ
T = 2π
√ g

4π 2ℓ
⇒ g=
T2

Δg Δℓ 2ΔT
= + = y + 2x
g ℓ T
50 Objective A quantity is represented by X = M aL bT c. The percentage

(#41) error in measurement of M, L and T are α%, β% and γ%

respectively. The percentage error in X would be

(1) (αa + βb + γc)% (2) (αa − βb + γc)%

(3) (αa − βb − γc)% (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

ΔX ΔM ΔL ΔT
=a +b +c
X M L T

= aα% + bβ% + cγ%

ΔX
= (aα + bβ + cγ)%
X

Chemistry

51 Objective In which case is the number of molecules of water

(#130172) maximum ?

(2)10 − 3 mol of
(1) 18 mL of water
water

(3)0.00224 L of water vapours at 1

(4)0.18 g of water
atm and 273 K

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

(i) 10 − 3 mole water = 6.02 × 10 20 molecule H 2O

(ii) 18 ml H 2O= 18 gram = 1 mole = 6.02 × 10 23 molecule

(iii) At 1 atm & 273 K

0.00224 22.4 × 10 − 4
No. of mole of H 2O = =
22.4 22.4
= 10 − 4 mole = 6.02 × 19
10 molecule.

(iv) 0.18 gram H 2O = 0.1 mole = 6.02 × 10 22 molecule.

52 Objective If 30 ml of H 2 and 20 ml of O 2 react to form water, what is

(#130168) left at the end of the reaction?

 (1) 10 ml of H 2 (2) 5 ml of H 2

(3) 10 ml of O 2 (4) 5 ml of O 2

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation

1ml of H 2 reacts with 0.5 ml of O 2 to form 1 ml of water

When 30 ml of H 2 will react with 15 ml of O 2 to form water

it can be represented in a balanced chemical reaction

So at the end of the reaction,30 ml of water and 5 ml of

O 2 and 10 ml of H 2 will be left.

53 Objective How many atoms are there in 100 amu of He ?

(#130166) (1) 25 (2) 50

(3) 75 (4) 100

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
1
We know that, 1 amu = × weight of one 12C atom
12
12
or weight of one C atom = 12 amu (at. wt. of C = 12

amu).

Similarly, as the atomic weight of He is 4 amu, weight of

one He atom = 4 amu.

100
Thus, the number of atoms in 100 amu of He = = 25.
4

54 Objective Match the following:

(#119632)

(1) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

(3) i- a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b (4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation

(i) → (B)
 88
88g CO 2 = = 2mol
44
(ii) → (C)

6.022 × 10 3 molecules of any compound 1 mol

(iii) → (A)
5.6 1
of O 2 = = = 0.25 mol
22.4 4
(iv) → (D)
96
96g O 2 = = 3 mol
32

55 Objective The number of water molecules is maximum in

(#118717) (1) 1.8 gram of water (2) 18 gram of water

(3) 18 moles of water (4) 18 molecules of water

Correct Answer: Option 3

56 Objective A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of

(#118709) water and 3.08 g of CO 2 The empirical formula of the

hydrocarbon is :

(1) C 3H 4 (2) C 6H 5

(3) C 7H 8 (4) C 2H 4

Correct Answer: Option 3

57 Objective Ammonia is produced in accordance with this equation.

(#118707) N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) → 2NH 3(g). In a particular experiment,

0.25 mol of NH 3 is formed when 0.5 mol of N 2 is reacted

with 0.5 mol of H 2. What is the percent yield ?

(1) 75% (2) 50%

(3) 33% (4) 25%

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

In the reaction we have,

N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH 3
0.5 0.5
 0.25
0.5
× 100 = 75%
×2
3

54 56F 57
58 Objective Given that the abundance of isotopes Fe, and Fe

(#118704) are 5%, 90% and 5%, respectively, the atomic mass of Fe
is :

(1) 55.82 (2) 55.95

(3) 55.75 (4) 56.05

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
54 × 5 + 56 × 90 + 57 × 5
Atomic weight = = 55.95
100

59 Objective Under the same conditions, two gases have the same

(#118695) number of molecules. They must :

(1) be noble gases (2) have equal volumes

(3)have a volume of (4)have an equal number

22.4 dm 3 each of atoms

Correct Answer: Option 2

60 Objective 500 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess

(#89723) of O 2 gave 2.5 litre of CO 2 and 3.0 litre of water vapours

under same conditions. Molecular formula of the

hydrocarbon is :

(1) C 4H 8 (2) C 4H 10

(3) C 5H 10 (4) C 5H 12

Correct Answer: Option 4

61 Objective If 30 ml of H 2 and 20 ml of O 2 react to form water, what is

(#89713) left at the end of the reaction?

(1) 10 ml of H 2 (2) 5 ml of H 2

(3) 10 ml of O 2 (4) 5 ml of O 2

Correct Answer: Option 4

62 Objective How many moles of potassium chlorate need to be

(#89711) heated to produce 11.2 litre oxygen at N.T.P.

1 1
(1) mol (2) mol
2 3
1 2
(3) mol (4) mol
4 3

Correct Answer: Option 2

63 Objective A compound contain C, H and N in the mass ratio 9 : 1 :

(#67493) 35. If its molar mass is 108 g/mol, the molecular formula

of the compound is :

(1) C 2H 6N 2 (2) C 3H 4N

(3) C 6H 8N 2 (4) C 9H 12N 3

Correct Answer: Option 3

64 Objective Number of electrons present in 6mg of CO 3− 2 are :

(#67191) (1) 1.92 × 10 21 (2) 1.92 × 10 20

(3) 1.92 × 10 22 (4) 2 × 10 − 3

Correct Answer: Option 1

65 Objective At STP 11.2 L of a gas weights 20 g. The vapour density

(#66589) of gas is :

(1) 32 (2) 40

(3) 20 (4) 8

Correct Answer: Option 3

66 Objective The percentage of nitrogen in urea is :

(#64251) (1) 38.4 (2) 46.6

(3) 59.1 (4) 61.3

Correct Answer: Option 2

67 Objective In the combustion reaction of alkanes if Ethane is used

(#63968) how many moles of oxygen are required?

 (1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 3.5

Correct Answer: Option 4

68 Objective The number of water molecules present in 0.20 g sample

(#62597) of CuSO 4.5H 2O (Molar mass = 249.7) is

(1) 1.2 × 10 21 (2) 2.14 × 10 21

(3) 2.14 × 10 22 (4) 1.2 × 10 23

Correct Answer: Option 2

69 Objective A hydrocarbon has the following composition by mass :

(#60452) C = 90%, H = 10%. Then, the empirical formula of

hydrocarbon is :

(1) C 3H 4 (2) C 2H 6

(3) C 2H 4 (4) C 3H 6

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
90 10
- C: H = : = 3: 4
12 1
So, empirical formula = C 3H 4

70 Objective 8 litre of H 2 and 6 litre of Cl 2 are allowed to react to

(#41350) maximum possible extent. Find out the final volume of

reaction mixture (P and T remains constant throughout

the course of reaction)-

(1) 7 litre (2) 14 litre

(3) 2 litre (4) 12 litre

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
H2 + Cl 2 → 2HCl
Volume before reaction 8lit 6 lit 0
Volume after reaction 2 0 12
∴ Volume after reaction = Volume of H 2 left + Volume of
 HCl formed = 2 + 12 = 14 lit

71 Objective Calculate the amount of water produced by complete

(#41349) combustion of 8 gm of methane.

(1) 18 g (2) 9g

(3) 36 g (4) 27 g

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2O
1 mole 2 mole
= 16 g = 2 × 18 g
∴ 16 g CH4 gives 2×18g H2O
2 × 18
∴ 8gCH 4 will produce × 8=18gH 2O
16

72 Objective An organic compound contains 40% C, 6.66% H and rest

(#41347) Oxygen. Its vapour density is 30. Molecular formula of the

compound is

(1) C 2H 4O 2 (2) CH 2O

(3) C 4H 4O 2 (4) C 2H 6O

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
Calculation of empirical formula
Element % At mass Relative of atoms Simplest ratio
40 3.33
C 40 12 = 3.33 =1
12 3.33
6.66 6.66
H 6.66 1 = 6.66 =2
1 3.33
53.34 3.33
O 53.34 16 = 3.33 =1
16 3.33
Empirical formula = CH 2O

Empirical formula mass = 12 + 2 + 16 = 30

Molecular mass =2 × VD = 2 × 30 = 60
Molecular Formula Molecular wt
= =n
Emperical Formula Emperical wt
60
n= = 2.
30
Molecular formula = 2 × empirical formula = 2 ×
 (CH2O ) = C2H4O2
73 Objective An element 'X' has three isotopes X 12, X 15 and X 25 with

(#41321) percentage abundance are 20, 30 and 50, the average

atomic mass of 'X' will be

(1) 26 (2) 15

(3) 19.4 (4) 15.5

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
Average atomic mass (AMM) of
a 1x 1 + a 2x 2 + . . . . . + a nx n
X(A x) =
100
Where :

a 1, a 2, a 3 ........... atomic mass of isotopes.

and x 1, x 2, x 3 ........... mole % of isotopes.

12 × 20 + 15 × 30 + 25 × 50
AAM =
100
AAM=19.4

74 Objective The percentage composition of carbon by mole in

(#22692) methane is

(1) 80% (2) 75%

(3) 20% (4) 25%

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

In CH 4 one atom of carbon among 5 atoms (1C + 4H

atoms)
1
∴ Mole%of C = × 100 = 20%
5

75 Objective 100 g of 90% pure sample of CaCO 3 on strong heating

(#16190) produces how many litre of CO 2 at NTP ?

(1) 22.4 L (2) 20.16 L

(3) 19.32 L (4) 21.2 L

 Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
Δ
CaCO 3 ⟶ CaO + CO 2
90
n CO = 1 × mol ≡ 20.16L
2 100

76 Objective An organic compound has % C = 68.85, % H = 4.92 and

(#16185) % O = 26.23 (by mass). Number of carbon atoms present

in the Empirical Formula of it is.........................

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 2

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation
C 68.85 H 4.92 O 26.23
12 1 16
or C 3.5H 3O

⇒ EF is C 7H 6O 2

77 Objective The vapour density of a mixture containing NO 2 and N 2O 4

(#14490) is 38 at 36.7ºC. Then the moles of NO 2 in 100g of

mixture. will be

(1) 0.45 (2) 0.85

(3) 0.25 (4) 0.70

Correct Answer: Option 1

78 Objective When 22.4 litres of H 2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl 2(g)

(#14236) , each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g) (2) 2 mol of HCl(g)

(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
 H2 + Cl 2 → 2HCl
22.4 ltr 11.2 ltr
1
1 mole = mole
2
Limiting reagent is Cl 2. So, 1 mole HCl is formed.

79 Objective The molecular weight of a compound is 180. If its

(#14231) empirical formula is CH 2O then the molecular formula of

compound is

(1) C 2H 4O 2 (2) C 3H 6O 3

(3) C 6H 12O 6 (4) C 12H 24O 12

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

Molecular formula = empirical formula × n

Molecular mass
n=
Empirical mass
Molecular mass = 180

Empirical mass = 1 × 12 + 2 × 1 + 16 × 1 = 12 + 2 + 16 +

30
180
n= =6
30
Molecular formula = (CH 2O) 6 = C 6H 12O 6

80 Objective An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxgyen. Metal

(#14227) M has atomic mass of 24. The empirical formula of the

oxide

(1) M 2O (2) M 2O 3

(3) MO (4) M 2O 4

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

Hence E.F is MO.

81 Objective The total number of protons in 10g of calcium carbonate

 (#14226) is (N 0 = 6.023 × 10 23)

(1) 1.5057 × 10 24 (2) 2.0478 × 10 23

(3) 3.0115 × 10 24 (4) 4.0956 × 10 24

Correct Answer: Option 3

82 Objective The volume occupied by 4.4g of CO 2 at STP is

(#14225) (1) 22.4 L (2) 2.24 L

(3) 0.224 L (4) 0.1 L

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
4.4 vol
=
44 22.4
vol. = 2.24 L.

83 Objective Which of the following contains the greatest number of

(#13113) atoms ?

(1) 1.0 g of butane (C 4H 10) (2) 1.0 g of nitrogen (N 2)

(3) 1.0 g of silver (Ag) (4) 1.0 g of water (H 2O)

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
1
(1) No. of atom of (C 4H 10) = × 14N a
58
1
(2) No. of atom of (N 2) = × 2N a
28
1
(3) No. of atom of (Ag) = × 2N a
108
1
(4) No. of atom of water = × 3N a
18
Hence greatest No. of atom = C 4H 10

84 Objective 14 g of N 2 and 8 gm H 2 are allowed to react for the

(#13084) formation of NH 3. Calculate maximum number of moles of

NH 3 formed.

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 5

Correct Answer: Option 3

 Explanation

Nitrogen is limiting reagent.

N2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2NH 3
0.5 mole 4 mole
0.5 − 0.5 4 − 1.5 2 × 0.5 = 1 mole

85 Objective The hydrogen obtained from 9 kg of water is

(#12258) (1) 8 kg (2) 1 kg

(3) 2 kg (4) 4 kg

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
1
H 2O → H 2 + O2
2
18kg 2kg 16kg

86 Objective What will be the percentage loss in mass when NaHCO 3

(#12141) is heated at 300 oC?

(1) 60% (2) 45.5%

(3) 36.9% (4) 70%

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

2NaHCO 3 → Na 2CO 3 + H 2O + CO 2

2 × 84 → (18 + 44)loss
62
% loss = × 100 = 36.9%
2 × 84

87 Objective A hydrocarbon contains 75% of carbon. Then its

(#11815) molecular formula is

(1) CH 4 (2) C 2H 4

(3) C 2H 6 (4) C 2H 2

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

Hence E.F is CH 4 & M.F is = n × E.F (n =1, 2, 3.....)

 = 1 × CH 4 = CH 4

88 Objective 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 litres of volume at

(#11814) STP, the gas may be

(1) N 2O (2) CO

(3) CO 2 (4) 1 & 3 Both

Correct Answer: Option 4

Explanation
4.4 2.24
= (where x is mol. wt of gas)
x 22.4
x = 4.4 × 10

x = 44 (N 2O and CO 2 both gases may be possible).

89 Objective Number of grams of oxygen in 16.1 g of Na 2SO 4.10H 2O is

(#119604) (1) 20.8 g (2) 22.4 g

(3) 11.2 g (4) 12 g

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

The molecular mass of Na 2SO 4.10H 2O is 322

In 322 g , mass of oxygen is = 16 × (4 + 10) = 224 g

In 16.1 g mass of oxygen will be

224
× 16.1 = 224 × 0.05 = 11.2g
322

90 Objective When x gm carbon is burnt with y gm oxygen in a closed

(#119063) vessel, no residue is left behind. Which of the following

statement is correct regarding the relative amounts of

oxygen and carbon?

(1)y/x must be less than (2)y/x must be equal to

1.33 1.33

(3)y/x must be greater (4)y/x must lie from 1.33

than 2.67 to 2.67

Correct Answer: Option 4

91 Objective Total number of electrons present in 4.4 gm oxalate ion

(#118702)
(C O )is :
2−
2 4

(1) 0.05 N A (2) 2.3 N A

(3) 2.2 N A (4) 2.1 N A

Correct Answer: Option 2

Explanation
4.4
× [6 × 2 + 8 × 4 + 2] × N A
88

92 Objective If Gravity Classes is written by a graphite pencil, it weighs

(#118701) 3.0 × 10 − 10 gm. How many carbon atoms are present in it

? (N a = 6 × 10 23)

(1) 1.5 × 10 13 (2) 5 × 10 12

(3) 2 × 10 33 (4) 1.5 × 10 10

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
3 × 10 − 10
× 6 × 10 23
12

93 Objective Which has maximum number of atoms :

(#118700) (1) 24 g of C (12) (2) 56 g of Fe (56)

(3) 27 g of Al (27) (4) 108 g of Ag (108)

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation
24
(a)
12
56
(b)
56
27
(c)
27
108
(d)
108

94 Objective 1 gm-atom of nitrogen may represent :

(#118697) (1)6.02 × 10 − 32 N 2 (2)22.4 lit of N 2 at 1 atm

molecules and 273 K

 (3)11.2 lit of N 2 at 1 atm
(4) 28 g of nitrogen
and 0 oC

Correct Answer: Option 3

Explanation

Wt. of 1 gm atom of nitrogen = 14 gm

1
Wt. of 11.2 L N2 at 1 atm and 273 K = 28 ×
2
⇒ 14 gm

95 Objective 0.48 g of a sample of a compound containing boron and

(#89724) oxygen contains 0.192 g of boron and 0.288 of oxygen.

What will be the percentage composition of the

compound ?

(1)60% and 40% B and O (2)40% and 60% B and O

respectively respectively

(3)30% and 70% B and O (4)70% and 30% B and O

respectively respectively

Correct Answer: Option 2

96 Objective If 1 dm 3 of a gas weights 2.5 g at STP, its gram-molecular

(#89709) weight is :

(1) 56 g (2) 11.2 g

(3) 22.4 g (4) 224 g

Correct Answer: Option 1

97 Objective Number of molecules of water in a drop of water weighing

(#89702) 0.09 g are :

(1) 3.01 × 10 21 (2) 6.02 × 10 21

(3) 3.01 × 10 22 (4) 3.01 × 10 20

Correct Answer: Option 1

98 Objective Which of the following would contain 1 mole of particles :

(#89701) (1) 0.5 mole of H 2 (2) 2 g of H-atoms

(3) 16 g of O-18 (4) 16 g of methane

Correct Answer: Option 4

99 Objective The largest number of molecules is present in 1 g of

(#89703) (1) CO 2 (2) H 2O

(3) C 2H 5OH (4) C 2H 6

Correct Answer: Option 2

100 Objective The total number of g-molecules of SO 2Cl 2 in 13.5 g of

(#89704) sulphuryl chloride is

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2

(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4

Correct Answer: Option 1

Zoology

101 Objective The branch of biology that deals with the relationships of

(#83121) different groups of organisms and examines their natural

variation and relationships is known as :

(1) Cladistics (2) Systematics

(3) Taxonomy (4) Identification

Correct Answer: Option 2

102 Objective Monkey, gorilla, gibbon, tiger, cat and dog do not belong

(#83120) to the same:

(1) Phylum (2) Order

(3) Class (4) Kingdom

Correct Answer: Option 2

103 Objective The highest category in the taxonomic hierarchy is

 (#83118) (1) Kingdom (2) Phylum

(3) Class (4) Species

Correct Answer: Option 1

104 Objective Both the words in a biological name when handwritten

(#83117) are underlined or printed in italics to indicate:

(1) They are endangered (2) They are living

(3) Their latin origin (4) Now they are extinct

Correct Answer: Option 3

105 Objective The contrasting characteristics generally in a pair used

(#83116) for identification of animals in Taxonomic Key are referred

to as :

(1) Lead (2) Couplet

(3) Doublet (4) Alternate

Correct Answer: Option 2

106 Objective What do A,B and C represent in the given scientific name

(#83115) respectively ?

(C)-Mangifera, (B) – Indica, (A)- Linn

(1)(C)-Generic name, (B)- (2)(C)-Specific name, (B)-

Specific name and (A)- generic name and (A)-

author’s name author’s name

(3)(C)-Author’s name, (B)- (4)(C)-Generic name, (B)-

specific name and (A)- author’s name and (A)-

generic name specific name

Correct Answer: Option 1

107 Objective Which of the following is not the means of recording

(#83111) description?

(1) Flora (2) Manuals

 (3) Keys (4) Catalogues

Correct Answer: Option 3

108 Objective Name of the author is not written in which of the following

(#83107) way?

(1) After the specific epithet (2) In abbreviated form

(3)At the end of Biological

(4) Written in italics
name

Correct Answer: Option 4

109 Objective The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information

(#83098) on

(1) Date of collection (2) name of collector

(3) Local names (4) height of the plant

Correct Answer: Option 4

110 Objective The Indian Botanical Garden and the National Botanical

(#83094) Research institute are located respectively at:

(1) Pune and Howrah (2) Howrah and Lucknow

(3) Darjeeling and Lucknow (4) Shimla and Dehradun

Correct Answer: Option 2

111 Objective An attribute found in plants but not animals is

(#83092) (1) Metabolism (2) sexual reproduction

(3) Autotrophy (4) Asexual reproduct

Correct Answer: Option 3

112 Objective One of the first acts in taxonomy is

(#83091) (1) Identification (2) Description

(3) Naming (4) Classification

Correct Answer: Option 1

113 Objective Which one of the following is the correct sequence of

(#83090) hierarchial categories ?

(1)Order, species, class, (2)Division, class, order,

family, division, genus family, genus, species

(3)Division, family, class, (4)Division, class, family,

order, genus, species Order, genus, species

Correct Answer: Option 2

114 Objective Which is less general in character as compared to

(#83083) genus_______

(1) Family (2) Class

(3) Division (4) Species

Correct Answer: Option 4

115 Objective Which one of the following animals is correctly matched

(#83082) with its particular taxonomic category?

(2)Cuttlefish - Mollusca,
(1) Tiger - tigris, species
class

(3)Humans - primate,
(4) Housefly - Musca, order
family

Correct Answer: Option 1

116 Objective In binomial nomenclature, every organism has________

(#83081) (1)Two names, one (2)Two names, one scientific

latin other common other common

(4)One scientific name With

(3)Two names by two
two words, generic and
scientists
specific

Correct Answer: Option 4

117 Objective In Mangifera Indica Linn, what does Linn stand for?
 (#83074) (1) Latin (2) Lamarck

(3) Linnaeus (4) lower organism

Correct Answer: Option 3

118 Objective Herbarium is a_______

(#83068) (1)A record where dried (2)A garden where

culture of plant species medicinal plants are

are stored grown and stored

(3)A garden where

herbaceous plants are (4) Both a and b

grown. dry garden.

Correct Answer: Option 1

119 Objective The famous botanical garden ‘Kew’ is located

(#83067) in__________

(1) New Zealand (2) Lucknow

(3) Berlin (4) England

Correct Answer: Option 4

120 Objective Which of the following is self conscious?

(#83065) (1) human being (2) salamander

(3) Earthworm (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

121 Objective The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in

(#83063) the body is known as______________

(1) metabolism (2) catabolism

(3) anabolism (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

122 Objective Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of

 (#83050) all forms of life ?

(1) Reproduction (2) Growth

(3) Motility (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 3

123 Objective Fill in the blanks :

(#83047) Organism Class Order

Man A Primata

Housefly Insecta B

A and B are :

(1)Chordata and (2)Mammalia and

Muscidae Muscidae

(3) Mammalia and Diptera (4) Vertebrata and Diptera

Correct Answer: Option 3

124 Objective In taxonomic hierarchy, what is correct ?

(#83044) (1)Related genera

are placed in (2) Smallest taxon is class

same family

(4)Group of individual

(3)Largest taxon is organisms with fundamental

phylum similarities is considered as

genus

Correct Answer: Option 1

125 Objective Family of man (Homo sapiens) is :

(#83042) (1) Hominidae (2) Hominini

(3) Primata (4) Ceboideae

Correct Answer: Option 1

126 Objective Botanical gardens and Zoological parks have :

(#83040) (1)Collection of endemic (2)Collection of exotic

living species only living species only

(3)Collection of endemic
(4)Collection of only local
and exotic living
plants and animals.
species.

Correct Answer: Option 3

127 Objective As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic

(#83034) hierarchy, the number of common characteristics :

(1) Will decrease (2) Will increase

(3) Remain same (4) May increase or decrease

Correct Answer: Option 1

128 Objective The father of taxonomy is

(#83028) (1) Charles Darwin (2) John Ray

(3) Julian Huxley (4) Carolus Linnaeus

Correct Answer: Option 4

129 Objective The science which deals with classification, identification

(#83027) and naming of organisms is known as

(1) Physiology (2) Ecology

(3) Systematics (4) Biology

Correct Answer: Option 3

130 Objective What is true for Musca?

(#83025) (1) It is a family (2) It is an order of Banana

(3)It is Genus of (4)It is second smallest

Housefly Taxonomic category

Correct Answer: Option 3

131 Objective Growth can not be taken as a defining property of living

(#83019) organisms because

(1)It occurs both in living (2)All living organisms do

and non living not exhibit growth

(3)In living organisms,

growth occurs from (4) All

inside

Correct Answer: Option 1

132 Objective ICBN stand for

(#83016) (1)International (2)International class of

classification of biological

biological nomenclature nomenclature

(4)International
(3)International code of
classification of
botanical nomenclature
biological naming

Correct Answer: Option 3

133 Objective Species are considered

(#83015) (1)A basic unit of (2)The highest unit of

classification systematics

(3)Artificial concept of
(4)Real unit of
human mind which
classification devised
cannot be defined in
by taxonomists
absolute terms

Correct Answer: Option 1

134 Objective Although reproduction is one of the basic criterion

(#83008) characterize a living organism but exceptions come from

(1)some hybrids (mule, worker bee,

(2) viruses
pony)
 (3)some sexually reproducing
(4) all of these
organisms

Correct Answer: Option 1

135 Objective True statement regarding living organisms are that

(#83007) i. Share common genetic material but to varying degree.

ii. Respond against stimulus

iii. Self replicating, evolving and self regulating

iv. Power of mutation and evolution

(1) i and iv (2) i, ii, and iii

(3) i, ii, iii and iv (4) ii, ii

Correct Answer: Option 3

136 Objective Information on any one taxon can be taken out by

(#83112) (1) Monographs (2) Catalogues

(3) Flora (4) Manuals

Correct Answer: Option 1

137 Objective What is wrong with respect to Key of a taxanomical aid?

(#83110) (1)Each statement in the (2)A single key works for

key is called a lead. each taxonomic category

(3)Keys are analytical in (4)Used for identification

nature purposes

Correct Answer: Option 2

138 Objective Growth is a characteristic of -------

(#83099) (1) Non-living systems (2) Living systems

(3) Non-living organisms (4) Both b and c

Correct Answer: Option 4

139 Objective Taxa' differs from 'taxon due too________

(#83079) (1)this being a higher (2)this being lower

taxonomic category taxonomic category

than taxon than taxon

(3)this being the plural of (4)this being the singular

taxon of taxon

Correct Answer: Option 3

140 Objective What is the correct sequence?

(#83076) (1)Genus-species-order- (2)Species-order-phylum-

kingdom kingdom

(3)Species-genus-order- (4)Kingdom-phylum-class-

phylum order

Correct Answer: Option 4

141 Objective Which of the following taxonomic aid provides information

(#83072) for the identification of names of species found in an

area?

(1) Monograph (2) Manual

(3) Flora (4) Periodical

Correct Answer: Option 2

142 Objective Triticum aestivum is common name of______________

(#83061) (1) Wheat (2) Mosquito

(3) Snail (4) Ant

Correct Answer: Option 1

143 Objective Binomial nomenclature consists of two names. These

(#83058) are_________

(1) Family and genus (2) Genus and species

(3) Species and variety (4) Order and family

 Correct Answer: Option 2

144 Objective National Botanical Research Institute is located

(#83056) in__________

(1) Shimla (2) Dehradun

(3) Howrah (4) Lucknow

Correct Answer: Option 4

145 Objective The term ‘systematics’ refers to :

(#83036) (2)Identification and
(1)Identification and study
preservation of plants
of organ systems
and animals

(3)Diversity of kinds of (4)Study of habitats of

organisms and their organisms and their

relationship classification.

Correct Answer: Option 4

146 Objective Genus represents :

(#83037) (1)An individual plant or (2)A collection of

animal plants or animals

(3)Group of closely related

(4)A group of plants in
species of plants or
a given area
animals

Correct Answer: Option 3

147 Objective What is true about biodiversity?

(#83030) (1)It is total known and

(2)It ranges between
described species present
1.7 - 1.8 millions
on earth

(3)Biodiversity is continuously
(4) All of the above
increasing

Correct Answer: Option 4

148 Objective Which one of the following organisms have indica as

(#83023) specific epithet, according to binomial nomenclature ?

(1) Mango (2) Crow

(3) Potato (4) None

Correct Answer: Option 1

149 Objective Non exceptional characteristic feature of living beings is

(#83017) (1) metabolism (2) reproduction

(3) growth (4) all of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

150 Objective A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric

(#83080) current is

(1) Trygon (2) Scoliodon

(3) Pristis (4) Torpedo

Correct Answer: Option 4

Botany

151 Objective In the diagram given below, some of the algae have been

(#65760) labelled as 'A', 'B',.'C', 'D' and 'E'. These algae are

respectively identified as:

 (1)Dictyota, Polysiphonia, (2)Porphyra, Dictyota,

Porphyra, Fucus Laminaria, Fucus

Laminaria Polysiphonia

(3)Dictyota, Polysiphonia, (4)Fucus, Porphyra,

Porphyra, Laminaria Dictyota, Polysiphonia

and Fucus and Laminaria

Correct Answer: Option 3

152 Objective Which of the following statements (s) is/are correct about

(#65758) gemmae

(a) They are specialised structures by which asexual

reproduction takes place in mosses

(b) They are green, multicellular, asexual buds

(c) They develop in small receptacles called gemma cups

(d) They detach from parent body and germinate to form

new individuals

(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) All of these

Correct Answer: Option 3

153 Objective If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct

(#28903) groups, which of the following characters you should

choose?

(1)Chemical composition (2)Types of pigments

of the cell wall present in the cell

(3)Nature of stored food (4)Structural organization

materials in the cell of thallus

Correct Answer: Option 2

 Explanation

Types of pigments present in the algal cell is the basis of

algal classification.

154 Objective In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids

(#28899) and eggs mature at different times. As a result:

(1)Self fertilization is (2)There is no change in

prevented success rate of fertilization

(3)There is high (4)One can conclude that the

degree of sterility plant is apomictic

Correct Answer: Option 1

Explanation

Antherozoids and eggs mature at different times

– Self fertilization is prevented

155 Objective Archegoniophore is present in

(#28563) (1) Chara (2) Adiantum

(3) Funaria (4) Marchantia

Correct Answer: Option 4

156 Objective Examine the figure given below and select the correct

(#28560) option giving all the four parts (A, B, C and D) correctly

identified

(1)A:rchegoniophore, B: (2)A: Archegoniophore,

Female thallus, C: B: Female thallus, C:

Gemma cup, D: Bud, D: Food

 Rhizoids

(3)A: Seta, B: Sporophyte, (4)A: Antheridiophore, B:

C: Protonema, D: Male thallus, C:

Rhizoids Globule, D: Roots

Correct Answer: Option 1

157 Objective Algae have cell wall made up of

(#28557) (1)Cellulose, galactans (2)Hemicellulose, pectins

and mannans and proteins

(3)Pectins, cellulose and (4)Cellulose, hemicellulose

proteins and pectins

Correct Answer: Option 1

158 Objective Identify the A, B and C.

(#28553)

(1)A–Salvinia, B–
(2)A–Chlamydomonas, B–
Chlamydomonas, C–
Porphyra, C–Salvinia
Porphyra

(3)A–Porphyra, B–
(4)A–Chlamydomonas, B–
Salvinia, C–
Salvinia, C–Porphyra
Chlamydomonas

Correct Answer: Option 3

159 Objective Identify the A, B and C shown in this figure?

(#28552)
 (1)A–Gametophyte (n), B– (2)A–Zygote (2n), B–

Zygote (2n), C– Gametophyte (n), C–

Gametogenesis Gametogenesis

(3)A–Zygote (2n), B– (4)A–Gametogenesis, B–

Gametogenesis, C– Zygote (2n), C–

Gametophyte (n) Gametophyte (n)

Correct Answer: Option 2

160 Objective Identify the A, B, C and D shown in this figure?

(#28549)

(1)A–Holdfast, B–Air
(2)A–Frond, B–Midrib, C–
bladder, C–Midrib, D–
Air bladder, D–Holdfast
Frond

(3)A–Air bladder, B– (4)A–Frond, B–Holdfast,

Midrib, C–Holdfast, D– C–Midrib, D–Air

Frond bladder

Correct Answer: Option 4

161 Objective Identify a, b, c in diagram:

(#28547)

(1)A–Fucus, B–Laminaria, (2)A–Laminaria, B–

C–Dictyota Dictyota, C–Fucus

(3)A–Laminaria, B–Fucus, (4)A–Dictyota, B–Fucus,

C–Dictyota C–Laminaria

Correct Answer: Option 3

162 Objective Identify a, b, c in diagram:

(#28546)

(1)A– Volvox, B–
(2)A–Chara, B–Volvox,
Chlamydomonas, C–
C–Chlamydomonas
Chara

(4)A–Chara, B–
(3)A–Chlamydomonas, B–
Chlamydomonas, C–
Chara, C–Volvox
Volvox

Correct Answer: Option 1

163 Objective Most of the alga show

(#28538) (1) Haplontic life cycle (2) Diplontic life cycle

(3) Haplodiplontic life cycle (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

164 Objective Sporophyte, dominant, photosynthetic and independent

(#28534) phase of plant represents

(1) Haplontic (2) Diplontic

 (3) Diplohaplontic life cycle (4) Both (b) and (c)

Correct Answer: Option 2

165 Objective Haploid spore divides by _______ to form haploid plant

(#28530) body

(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis

(3) Amitosis (4) Any of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

166 Objective Zygote after multiplication in angiosperm develop in

(#28526) (1) Endosperm (n) (2) Embryo (n)

(3) Endosperm (4) Embryo (2n)

Correct Answer: Option 4

167 Objective The pistil in angiosperm is made up of

(#28520) (1) Ovary (2) Stigma

(3) Style (4) All of these

Correct Answer: Option 4

168 Objective The female sex organ of flower is called

(#28513) (1) Archegonia (2) Nucule

(3) Oogonia (4) Pistil

Correct Answer: Option 4

169 Objective The height of eucalyptus tree is approximately

(#28510) (1) 100 m (2) 1000 m

(3) 10 m (4) 10?20 m

Correct Answer: Option 1

170 Objective Microscopic angiosperm is

(#28508) (1) Sequoia (2) Eucalyptus

 (3) Wolfia (4) Never microscopic

Correct Answer: Option 3

171 Objective Angiosperms include

(#28507) (1)Vascular plants with (2)Vascular plants with

naked seeds covered seeds

(3)Few vascular plants (4)Few vascular plants

with naked seeds with covered seeds

Correct Answer: Option 2

172 Objective Zoospores are formed during asexual reproduction of

(#28380) algae and formed in

(1) Sporangia (2) Zoosporangia

(3) Microsporangia (4) Megasporangia

Correct Answer: Option 2

173 Objective Sexual reproduction is of isogamous, anisogamous and

(#28381) oogamous in

(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Rhodophyceae

(3)Chlorophyceae and (4)Chlorophyceae and

Phaeophyceae Rhodophyceae

Correct Answer: Option 3

174 Objective Filamentous brown algae is

(#28383) (1) Spirogyra (2) Laminaria

(3) Ectocarpus (4) Porphyra

Correct Answer: Option 3

175 Objective Kelps represent the group of

(#28385) (1) Bryophytes (2) Red algae

(3) Green algae (4) Brown algae

 Correct Answer: Option 4

176 Objective Kelps may reach a height up to

(#28386) (1) 120 m (2) 100 m

(3) 1000 m (4) 10 m

Correct Answer: Option 2

177 Objective The algae which possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids

(#28387) and xanthophylls belong to

(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 2

178 Objective The plant body of algae is divided in holdfast, stipe and

(#28390) fronds in

(1) Chara (2) Laminaria

(3) Porphyra (4) All of these

Correct Answer: Option 2

179 Objective Laminaria and mannitol are stored foods of

(#28389) (1) Euglena (2) Green algae

(3) Liverworts (4) Brown algae

Correct Answer: Option 4

180 Objective The plant body attached to substratum in brown algae is

(#28391) by

(1) Rhizoids (2) Multicellular hair

(3) Holdfast (4) Roots

Correct Answer: Option 3

181 Objective The photosynthetic leaf like organ found in some of the

(#28392) algae are called

(1) Sporophyll (2) Fronds

(3) Leaves (4) Scaly leaves

Correct Answer: Option 2

182 Objective The biflagellate pear-shaped zoospores are

(#28395) characteristics of

(1) Red algae (2) Green algae

(3) Brown algae (4) All of these

Correct Answer: Option 3

183 Objective Dictyota belongs to

(#28399) (1) Bryophytes (2) Green algae

(3) Brown algae (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 3

184 Objective Red algae are red due to the presence of pigment

(#28400) (1) Phycoerythrin (2) r-phycocyanin

(3) r-phycoerythrin (4) r-phepocyamin

Correct Answer: Option 3

185 Objective Algae found in areas with abundant light as well as areas

(#28403) of great depths with no light is

(1) Red algae (2) Green algae

(3) Blue algae (4) Brown algae

Correct Answer: Option 1

186 Objective Red algae are mostly

(#28404) (1) Unicellular (2) Multicellular

 (3)May be multicellular and
(4) None of these
unicellular

Correct Answer: Option 2

187 Objective Floridean starch is stored food found in

(#28405) (1) Some protist (2) Some bryophytes

(3) Some algae (4) Prokaryotes

Correct Answer: Option 3

188 Objective Floridean starch is similar to

(#28406) (1) Amylopectin (2) Glycogen

(3) Fructose (4) Both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer: Option 4

189 Objective Fronds are found in which of the following algae?

(#28411) I. Laminaria

II. Fucus

III. Dictyota

IV. Porphyra

(1) I, II, and III (2) I and II

(3) II and III (4) All of these

Correct Answer: Option 4

190 Objective Members of phaeophyceae are

(#28414) (1)Ectocarpus, dictyota, (2)Ectocarpus, dictyota,

fucus and sargassum fucus and porphyra

(3)Chlamydomonas, volvox, (4)Gracilaria and

ulothrix gelidium

Correct Answer: Option 1

191 Objective Organisms referred to as amphibians of plant kingdom

(#28418) are

(1) Pteridophytes (2) Bryophytes

(3) Angiosperms (4) Gymnosperms

Correct Answer: Option 2

192 Objective Bryophytes requires _______ for fertilization

(#28421) (1) Nutrients (2) Water

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 2

193 Objective _______ forms gametophyte of bryophytes.

(#28425) (1) Zygote (2) Sporophyte

(3) Gametes (4) Spores

Correct Answer: Option 4

194 Objective The male sex organ of bryophyte is called

(#28428) (1) Antherozoids (2) Testes

(3) Globule (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 1

195 Objective Female sex organ of bryophyte is called

(#28432) (1) Nucleus (2) Ovary

(3) Oogonia (4) Archegonium

Correct Answer: Option 4

196 Objective Peat which is long used as fuel is a product obtained from

(#28439) (1) Gelidium (2) Species of sphagnum

(3) All mosses (4) All liverworts

Correct Answer: Option 2

197 Objective Liverworts are found in

(#28441) (2)Banks of steams,

(1) Moist shady places
marshy ground

(3)Damp soil, bard of trees

(4) All of the above
and deep in the woods

Correct Answer: Option 4

198 Objective Marchantia is

(#28445) (1) An algae (2) Gymnosperm

(3) Fern (4) Bryophyte

Correct Answer: Option 4

199 Objective Sphagnum belongs to

(#28460) (1) Ferns (2) Liverworts

(3) Mosses (4) None of these

Correct Answer: Option 3

200 Objective The first terrestrial plants to posses vascular tissues are

(#28462) (1) Gymnosperms (2) Bryophyte

(3) Pteridophytes (4) All of these

Correct Answer: Option 3

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