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Exam Questions CISM

Certified Information Security Manager

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A. Determine recovery priorities.

B. Define the recovery point objective (RPO).
C. Confirm control effectiveness.
D. Analyze vulnerabilities.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The primary objective of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to determine recovery priorities. The BIA is used to identify and analyze the potential effects of an
incident on the organization, including the financial impact, operational impact, and reputational impact. The BIA also helps to identify critical resources and
processes, determine recovery objectives and strategies, and develop recovery plans. Reference: Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) Study Manual,
Chapter 4, Business Impact Analysis.

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

A. Intrusion detection log analysis

B. Controls audit
C. Threat analysis
D. Penetration test

Answer: B

Explanation:
A controls audit is the best indicator of an organization’s information security status, as it provides an independent and objective assessment of the design,
implementation, and effectiveness of the information security controls. A controls audit can also identify the strengths and weaknesses of the information security
program, as well as the compliance with the policies, standards, and regulations. A controls audit can cover various aspects of information security, such as
governance, risk management, incident management, business continuity, and technical security. A controls audit can be conducted by internal or external
auditors, depending on the scope, purpose, and frequency of the audit.
The other options are not as good as a controls audit, as they do not provide a comprehensive and holistic view of the information security status. Intrusion
detection log analysis is a technique to monitor and analyze the network or system activities for signs of unauthorized or malicious access or attacks. It can help to
detect and respond to security incidents, but it does not measure the overall performance or maturity of the information security program. Threat analysis is a
process to identify and evaluate the potential sources, methods, and impacts of threats to the information assets. It can help to prioritize and mitigate the risks, but
it does not verify the adequacy or functionality of the information security controls. Penetration test is a simulated attack on the network or system to evaluate the
vulnerability and exploitability of the information security defenses. It can help to validate and improve the technical security, but it does not assess the non-
technical aspects of information security, such as governance, policies, or awareness. References =
? CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2022, pp. 211-212, 215-216, 233-234, 237-238.
? CISM Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, ISACA, 2022, QID 1012.

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 1)
An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST
important to establish:

A. a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B. automated reporting to stakeholders.
C. a monitoring process for the security policy.
D. metrics for each milestone.

Answer: D

Explanation:
= Establishing metrics for each milestone is the best way to communicate the program’s effectiveness to stakeholders, as it provides a clear and measurable way
to track the progress, performance, and outcomes of the information security governance framework. Metrics are quantifiable indicators that can be used to
evaluate the achievement of specific objectives, goals, or standards. Metrics can also help to demonstrate the value, benefits, and return on investment of the
information security program, as well as to identify and address the gaps, issues, or risks. Metrics for each milestone should be aligned with the organization’s
strategy, vision, and mission, as well as with the expectations and needs of the stakeholders. Metrics for each milestone should also be SMART (specific,
measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound), as well as consistent, reliable, and transparent.
The other options are not as important as establishing metrics for each milestone, as they do not provide a comprehensive and holistic way to communicate the
program’s effectiveness to stakeholders. A control self-assessment (CSA) process is a technique to involve the staff in assessing the design, implementation, and
effectiveness of the information security controls. It can help to increase the awareness, ownership, and accountability of the staff, as well as to identify and
mitigate the risks. However, a CSA process alone is not enough to communicate the program’s effectiveness to stakeholders, as it does not measure the overall
performance or maturity of the information security program. Automated reporting to stakeholders is a method to provide timely, accurate, and consistent
information to the stakeholders about the status, results, and issues of the information security program. It can help to facilitate the communication, collaboration,
and decision making among the stakeholders, as well as to ensure the compliance and transparency of the information security program. However, automated
reporting alone is not enough to communicate the program’s effectiveness to stakeholders, as it does not evaluate the achievement or impact of the information
security program. A monitoring process for the security policy is a process to ensure that the security policy is implemented, enforced, and reviewed in accordance
with the organization’s objectives, standards, and regulations. It can help to maintain the relevance, adequacy, and effectiveness of the security policy, as well as
to incorporate the feedback, changes, and improvements. However, a monitoring process alone is not enough to communicate the program’s effectiveness to
stakeholders, as it does not cover the other aspects of the information security program, such as governance, risk management, incident management, or
business continuity. References =
? CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2022, pp. 211-212, 215-216, 233-234, 237-238.
? CISM Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, ISACA, 2022, QID 1018.
? CISM domain 1: Information security governance [Updated 2022], Infosec, 1.

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? Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1, ISACA Journal, Volume 6, 2020, 2.

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

A. Security risk analysis

B. Gap assessment
C. Maturity assessment
D. Vulnerability scan report

Answer: B

Explanation:
A gap assessment is the best way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage, as it compares the current state of the
information security program with the desired state based on the organization’s objectives, policies, standards, and regulations. A gap assessment can identify the
strengths and weaknesses of the information security program, as well as the areas that need improvement or alignment. A gap assessment can also provide
recommendations and action plans to close the gaps and achieve the desired level of information security coverage.
The other options are not as good as a gap assessment, as they do not provide a comprehensive and holistic view of the information security coverage. Security
risk analysis is a process to identify and evaluate the risks to the information assets and the impact of potential threats and vulnerabilities. It can help to prioritize
and mitigate the risks, but it does not measure the compliance or performance of the information security program. Maturity assessment is a process to measure
the level of maturity of the information security program based on a predefined model or framework. It can help to benchmark and improve the information security
program, but it does not account for the specific needs and expectations of the organization. Vulnerability scan report is a document that shows the results of a
scan on the network or system to identify the existing or potential vulnerabilities. It can help to validate and improve the technical security, but it does not assess
the non-technical aspects of information security, such as governance, policies, or awareness. References =
? CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2022, pp. 211-212, 215-216, 233-234,
237-238.
? CISM Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, ISACA, 2022, QID 1015.
? CISM domain 3: Information security program development and management [2022 update], Infosec Certifications, 2.

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

A. Insurance coverage required for assets

B. Level of protection required for assets
C. Priority for asset replacement
D. Replacement cost of assets

Answer: B

Explanation:
Asset classification is the process of assigning a value to information assets based on their importance to the organization and the potential impact of their
compromise, loss or damage1. Asset classification helps to determine the level of protection required for assets, which is proportional to their value and
sensitivity2. Asset classification also facilitates risk assessment and management, as well as compliance with legal, regulatory and contractual requirements3.
Asset classification does not primarily determine the insurance coverage, priority for replacement, or replacement cost of assets, as these factors depend on other
criteria such as risk appetite, business impact, availability and market value4. References = 1: CISM - Information Asset Classification Flashcards | Quizlet 2: CISM
Exam Content Outline | CISM Certification | ISACA 3: CIS Control 1: Inventory and Control of Enterprise Assets 4: CISSP versus the CISM Certification | ISC2

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a forensic investigation?

A. Analyzing system memory

B. Documenting analysis steps
C. Capturing full system images
D. Maintaining a chain of custody

Answer: D

Explanation:
Maintaining a chain of custody is the most important step when conducting a forensic investigation, as this ensures that the evidence is preserved, protected, and
documented from the time of collection to the time of presentation in court. A chain of custody provides a record of who handled the evidence, when, where, why,
and how, and prevents any tampering, alteration, or loss of the evidence. A chain of custody also establishes the authenticity, reliability, and admissibility of the
evidence in legal
proceedings. Analyzing system memory, documenting analysis steps, and capturing full system images are also important, but not as important as maintaining a
chain of custody, as they do not guarantee the integrity and validity of the evidence. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page 1701; CISM Review
Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 332; ISACA CISM - iSecPrep, page 183

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence on the successful adoption of an information security governance program?

A. Security policies
B. Control effectiveness
C. Security management processes
D. Organizational culture

Answer: D

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Explanation:
Organizational culture is the set of shared values, beliefs, and norms that influence the way employees think, feel, and behave in the workplace. It affects how
employees perceive the importance of information security, how they comply with security policies and procedures, and how they support security initiatives and
goals. A strong security culture can foster a sense of ownership, responsibility, and accountability among employees, as well as a positive attitude toward security
awareness and training. A weak security culture can lead to resistance, indifference, or hostility toward security efforts, as well as increased risks of human errors,
negligence, or malicious actions. Therefore, organizational culture has the greatest influence on the successful adoption of an information security governance
program, which requires the commitment and involvement of all levels of the organization. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 30- 31. Learn
more:

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements?

A. Base mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk,

B. Require users to acknowledge the acceptable use policy.
C. Require the steering committee to review exception requests.
D. Base mandatory review and exception approvals on inherent risk.

Answer: A

Explanation:
= Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying security controls. It reflects the actual exposure of the organization to noncompliance issues. Therefore,
basing mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk is the best approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements. It ensures that
the organization is aware of the potential impact and likelihood of noncompliance and can make informed decisions about accepting, mitigating, or transferring the
risk. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 78.

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

A. Strong senior management support

B. Gomputer-based training
C. Arobust incident response program
D. Adequate security funding

Answer: A

Explanation:
= Strong senior management support is the best factor to enable staff acceptance of information security policies, as it demonstrates the commitment and
leadership of the organization’s top executives in promoting and enforcing a security culture. Senior management support can also help ensure that the
information security policies are aligned with the business goals and values, communicated effectively to all levels of the organization, and integrated into the
performance evaluation and reward systems. Senior management support can also help overcome any resistance or challenges from other stakeholders, such as
business units, customers, or regulators123. References =
? 1: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 26-274
? 2: CISM Practice Quiz, question 1102
? 3: Information Security Governance: Guidance for Boards of Directors and Executive Management, 2nd Edition, page 5-6

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

A. Including all business units in testing

B. Simulating realistic test scenarios
C. Reviewing test results quarterly
D. Testing after major business changes

Answer: B

Explanation:
Effective incident response testing is a process of verifying and validating the incident response plan, procedures, roles, and resources that are designed to
respond to and recover from information security incidents. The purpose of testing is to ensure that the incident response team and the organization are prepared,
capable, and confident to handle any potential or actual incidents that could affect the business continuity, reputation, and value. The best way to facilitate effective
testing is to simulate realistic test scenarios that reflect the most likely or critical threats and vulnerabilities that could cause an incident, and the most relevant or
significant impacts and consequences that could result from an incident. Simulating realistic test scenarios can help to evaluate the adequacy, accuracy, and
applicability of the incident response plan, procedures, roles, and resources, as well as to identify and address any gaps, weaknesses, or errors that could hinder
or compromise the incident response process. Simulating realistic test scenarios can also help to enhance the skills, knowledge, and experience of the incident
response team and the organization, as well as to improve the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the stakeholders involved in the incident
response process. Simulating realistic test scenarios
can also help to measure and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process, and to provide feedback and recommendations for
improvement and optimization. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 2401; CISM Practice Quiz, question 1362

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST evidence of alignment between corporate and information security governance?

A. Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

B. Project resource optimization
C. Regular security policy reviews
D. Senior management sponsorship

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Answer: D

Explanation:
Alignment between corporate and information security governance means that the information security program supports the organizational goals and objectives,
and is integrated into the enterprise governance structure. The best evidence of alignment is the senior management sponsorship, which demonstrates the
commitment and support of the top-level executives and board members for the information security program. Senior management sponsorship also ensures that
the information security program has adequate resources, authority, and accountability to achieve its objectives and address the risks and issues that affect the
organization. Senior management sponsorship also helps to establish a culture of security awareness and compliance throughout the organization, and to
communicate the value and benefits of the information security program to the stakeholders.
References =
? CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 1631
? CISM 2020: Information Security & Business Process Alignment, video 22
? Certified Information Security Manager (CISM), page 33

NEW QUESTION 14
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security
program?

A. Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B. Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.
C. Include information security requirements in the change control process.
D. Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program is to collaborate with business
and IT functions in determining controls. Collaboration is a key factor for ensuring that the information security program is aligned with the organization’s business
objectives, risk appetite, and security strategy, and that it supports the business processes and activities. Collaboration also helps to gain the buy-in, involvement,
and ownership of the business and IT functions, who are the primary stakeholders and users of the information security program. Collaboration also facilitates the
communication, coordination, and integration of the information security program across the organization, and enables the information security manager to
understand the needs, expectations, and challenges of the business and IT functions, and to propose the most appropriate and effective security controls and
solutions.
Focusing on addressing conflicts between security and performance (A) is a possible way to improve the effectiveness of an information security program, but not
the best one. Security and performance are often competing or conflicting goals, as security controls may introduce overhead, complexity, or delays that affect the
efficiency, usability, or availability of the systems or processes. Addressing these conflicts may help to optimize the balance and trade-off between security and
performance, and to enhance the user satisfaction and acceptance of the security controls. However, focusing on addressing conflicts between security and
performance does not necessarily improve the alignment, integration, or communication of the information security program with the business and IT functions, nor
does it ensure the involvement or ownership of the stakeholders.
Including information security requirements in the change control process © is also a possible way to improve the effectiveness of an information security program,
but not the best one. The change control process is a process that manages the initiation, approval, implementation, and review of changes to the systems or
processes, such as enhancements, updates, or fixes. Including information security requirements in the change control process may help to ensure that the
changes do not introduce new or increased security risks or impacts, and that they comply with the security policies, standards, and procedures. However,
including information security requirements in the change control process does not necessarily improve the collaboration, communication, or coordination of the
information security program with the business and IT functions, nor does it ensure the buy-in or involvement of the stakeholders.
Obtaining assistance from IT to implement automated security controls (D) is also a possible way to improve the effectiveness of an information security program,
but not the best one. Automated security controls are security controls that are implemented by using software, hardware, or other technologies, such as
encryption, firewalls, or antivirus, to perform security functions or tasks without human intervention. Obtaining assistance from IT to implement automated security
controls may help to improve the efficiency, consistency, or reliability of the security controls, and to reduce the human errors, negligence, or malicious actions.
However, obtaining assistance from IT to implement automated security controls does not necessarily improve the collaboration, communication, or integration of
the information security program with the business and IT functions, nor does it ensure the ownership or involvement of the stakeholders. References = CISM
Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 1: Information Security Governance, Section: Information Security Strategy Development, Subsection: Collaboration, page
24-251

NEW QUESTION 18
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

A. Cost of replacing the asset

B. Cost of additional mitigation
C. Annual loss expectancy (ALE)
D. Annual rate of occurrence

Answer: C

Explanation:
= Annual loss expectancy (ALE) is the most important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk, because it represents the expected monetary loss
for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period. ALE is calculated by multiplying the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) of a risk event by the single loss expectancy
(SLE) of the asset. ARO is the estimated frequency of a risk event occurring within a one-year period, and SLE is the estimated cost of a single occurrence of a
risk event. ALE helps to compare the cost and benefit of different risk responses, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance. Risk acceptance is
appropriate when the ALE is lower than the cost of other risk responses, or when the risk is unavoidable or acceptable within the organization’s risk appetite and
tolerance. ALE also helps to prioritize the risks that need more attention and resources.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 2: Information Risk Management, Section: Risk Assessment, page 831; CISM Review Questions,
Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 22, page 242

NEW QUESTION 19
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST important for building 4 robust information security culture within an organization?

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A. Mature information security awareness training across the organization

B. Strict enforcement of employee compliance with organizational security policies
C. Security controls embedded within the development and operation of the IT environment
D. Senior management approval of information security policies

Answer: A

Explanation:
= Mature information security awareness training across the organization is the most important factor for building a robust information security culture, because it
helps to educate and motivate the employees to understand and adopt the security policies, procedures, and best practices that are aligned with the organizational
goals and values. Information security awareness training should be tailored to the specific roles, responsibilities, and needs of the employees, and should cover
the relevant topics, such as:
? The importance and value of information assets and the potential risks and threats to them
? The legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations and compliance requirements related to information security
? The organizational security policies, standards, and guidelines that define the expected and acceptable behaviors and actions regarding information security
? The security controls and tools that are implemented to protect the information assets and how to use them effectively and efficiently
? The security incidents and breaches that may occur and how to prevent, detect, report, and respond to them
? The security best practices and tips that can help to enhance the security posture and culture of the organization
Information security awareness training should be delivered through various methods and channels, such as:
? Online courses, webinars, videos, podcasts, and quizzes that are accessible and interactive
? Classroom sessions, workshops, seminars, and simulations that are engaging and practical
? Posters, flyers, newsletters, emails, and social media that are informative and catchy
? Games, competitions, rewards, and recognition that are fun and incentivizing Information security awareness training should be conducted regularly and updated
frequently, to ensure that the employees are aware of the latest security trends, challenges, and solutions, and that they can demonstrate their knowledge and
skills in a consistent and effective manner.
Mature information security awareness training can help to create a positive and proactive security culture that fosters trust, collaboration, and innovation among
the employees and the organization, and that supports the achievement of the strategic objectives and the mission and vision of the organization.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2021, pages 144-146, 149-150.

NEW QUESTION 20
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

A. Threat management is enhanced.

B. Compliance status is improved.
C. Security metrics are enhanced.
D. Proactive risk management is facilitated.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A vulnerability assessment process is a systematic and proactive approach to identify, analyze and prioritize the vulnerabilities in an information system. It helps to
reduce the exposure of the system to potential threats and improve the security posture of the organization. By implementing a vulnerability assessment process,
the organization can facilitate proactive risk management, which is the PRIMARY benefit of this process. Proactive risk management is the process of identifying,
assessing and mitigating risks before they become incidents or cause significant impact to the organization. Proactive risk management enables the organization
to align its security strategy with its business objectives, optimize its security resources and investments, and enhance its resilience and compliance.
* A. Threat management is enhanced. This is a secondary benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process. Threat management is the process of
identifying, analyzing and responding to the threats that may exploit the vulnerabilities in an information system. Threat management is enhanced by implementing
a vulnerability assessment process, as it helps to reduce the attack surface and prioritize the most critical threats. However, threat management is not the
PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process, as it is a reactive rather than proactive approach to risk management.
* B. Compliance status is improved. This is a secondary benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process. Compliance status is the degree to which an
organization adheres to the applicable laws, regulations, standards and policies that govern its information security. Compliance status is improved by
implementing a vulnerability assessment process, as it helps to demonstrate the organization’s commitment to security best practices and meet the expectations
of the stakeholders and regulators. However, compliance status is not the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process, as it is a result
rather than a driver of risk management.
* C. Security metrics are enhanced. This is a secondary benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process. Security metrics are the quantitative and
qualitative measures that indicate the effectiveness and efficiency of the information security processes and controls. Security metrics are enhanced by
implementing a vulnerability assessment process, as it helps to provide objective and reliable data for security monitoring and reporting. However, security metrics
are not the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process, as they are a means rather than an end of risk management.
References =
? CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, pages 1-301
? CISM Exam Content Outline2
? Risk Assessment for Technical Vulnerabilities3
? A Step-By-Step Guide to Vulnerability Assessment4

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Topic 1)
In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras.
Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

A. Revise the policy.

B. Perform a root cause analysis.
C. Conduct a risk assessment,
D. Communicate the acceptable use policy.

Answer: C

Explanation:
= The information security manager’s first course of action in this situation should be to conduct a risk assessment, which is a process of identifying, analyzing,
and evaluating the information security risks that arise from the violation of the policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office. The risk assessment can help to
determine the likelihood and impact of the unauthorized or inappropriate use of the cameras on the smartphones and tablet computers, such as capturing,

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transmitting, or disclosing sensitive or confidential information, compromising the privacy or security of the employees, customers, or partners, or violating the legal
or regulatory requirements. The risk assessment can also help to identify and prioritize the appropriate risk treatment options, such as implementing technical,
administrative, or physical controls to disable, restrict, or monitor the camera usage, enforcing the policy compliance and awareness, or revising the policy to
reflect the current business needs and environment. The risk assessment can also help to communicate and report the risk level and status to the senior
management and the relevant stakeholders, and to provide feedback and recommendations for improvement and optimization of the policy and the risk
management process.
Revising the policy, performing a root cause analysis, and communicating the acceptable use policy are all possible courses of action that the information security
manager can take after conducting the risk assessment, but they are not the first ones. Revising the policy is a process of updating and modifying the policy to
align with the business objectives and strategy, to address the changes and challenges in the business and threat environment, and to incorporate the feedback
and suggestions from the risk assessment and the stakeholders. Performing a root cause analysis is a process of investigating and identifying the underlying
causes and factors that led to the violation of the policy, such as the lack of awareness, training, or enforcement, the inconsistency or ambiguity of the policy, or the
conflict or gap between the policy and the business requirements or expectations. Communicating the acceptable use policy is a process of informing and
educating the employees and the other users of the smartphones and tablet computers about the purpose, scope, and content of the policy, the roles and
responsibilities of the users, the benefits and consequences of complying or violating the policy, and the methods and channels of reporting or resolving any policy
issues or incidents. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, pages 51-531; CISM Practice Quiz, question 1482

NEW QUESTION 22
- (Topic 1)
The MOST important reason for having an information security manager serve on the change management committee is to:

A. identify changes to the information security policy.

B. ensure that changes are tested.
C. ensure changes are properly documented.
D. advise on change-related risk.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most important reason for having an information security manager serve on the change management committee is to advise on change-related risk. Change
management is the process of planning, implementing, and controlling changes to the organization’s IT systems, processes, or services, in order to achieve the
desired outcomes and minimize the negative impacts1. Change-related risk is the possibility of adverse consequences or events resulting from the changes, such
as security breaches, system failures, data loss, compliance violations, or customer dissatisfaction2.
The information security manager is responsible for ensuring that the organization’s information assets are protected from internal and external threats, and that
the information security objectives and requirements are aligned with the business goals and strategies3. Therefore, the information security manager should serve
on the change management committee to advise on change-related risk, and to ensure that the changes are consistent with the information security policy,
standards, and best practices. The information security manager can also help to identify and assess the potential security risks and impacts of the changes, and
to recommend and implement appropriate security controls and measures to mitigate them. The information security manager can also help to monitor and
evaluate the effectiveness and performance of the changes, and to identify and resolve any security issues or incidents that may arise from the changes4.
The other options are not as important as advising on change-related risk, because they are either more specific, limited, or dependent on the information security
manager’s role. Identifying changes to the information security policy is a task that the information security manager may perform as part of the change
management process, but it is not the primary reason for serving on the change management committee. The information security policy is the document that
defines the organization’s information security principles, objectives, roles, and responsibilities, and it should be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the
changes in the organization’s environment, needs, and risks5. However, identifying changes to the information security policy is not as important as advising on
change-related risk, because the policy is a high-level document that does not provide specific guidance or details on how to implement or manage the changes.
Ensuring that changes are tested is a quality assurance activity that the change management committee may perform or oversee as part of the change
management process, but it is not the primary reason for having an information security manager on the committee. Testing is the process of verifying and
validating that the changes meet the expected requirements, specifications, and outcomes, and that they do not introduce any errors, defects, or vulnerabilities.
However, ensuring that changes are tested is not as important as advising on change-related risk, because testing is a technical or operational activity that does
not address the strategic or holistic aspects of change-related risk. Ensuring changes are properly documented is a governance activity that the change
management committee may perform or oversee as part of the change management process, but it is not the primary reason for having an information security
manager on the committee. Documentation is the process of recording and maintaining the information and evidence related to the changes, such as the change
requests, approvals, plans, procedures, results, reports, and lessons learned. However, ensuring changes are properly documented is not as important as advising
on change-related risk, because documentation is a procedural or administrative activity that does not provide any analysis or evaluation of change-related risk.
References = 1: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.5 2: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.5 3: CISM Review Manual
15th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1 4: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.5 5: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.3 :
CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.5 : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.5

NEW QUESTION 23
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST accurate indication of the organization's ability to respond to a cyber attack?

A. Walk-through of the incident response plan

B. Black box penetration test
C. Simulated phishing exercise
D. Red team exercise

Answer: D

Explanation:
A red team exercise is a simulated cyber attack conducted by a group of ethical hackers or security experts (the red team) against an organization’s network,
systems, and staff (the blue team) to test the organization’s ability to detect, respond, and recover from a real cyber attack. A red team exercise provides an
information security manager with the most accurate indication of the organization’s ability to respond to a cyber attack, because it mimics the tactics, techniques,
and procedures of real threat actors, and challenges the organization’s security posture, incident response plan, and security awareness in a realistic and
adversarial scenario12. A red team exercise can measure the following aspects of the organization’s cyber attack response capability3:
? The effectiveness and efficiency of the security controls and processes in preventing, detecting, and mitigating cyber attacks
? The readiness and performance of the incident response team and other stakeholders in following the incident response plan and procedures
? The communication and coordination among the internal and external parties involved in the incident response process
? The resilience and recovery of the critical assets and functions affected by the cyber attack
? The lessons learned and improvement opportunities identified from the cyber attack simulation
The other options, such as a walk-through of the incident response plan, a black box penetration test, or a simulated phishing exercise, are not as accurate as a
red team exercise in indicating the organization’s ability to respond to a cyber attack, because they have the following limitations4 :

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? A walk-through of the incident response plan is a theoretical and hypothetical exercise that involves reviewing and discussing the incident response plan and
procedures with the relevant stakeholders, without actually testing them in a live environment. A walk-through can help to familiarize the participants with the
incident response roles and responsibilities, and to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the plan, but it cannot measure the actual performance and effectiveness
of the incident response process under a real cyber attack scenario.
? A black box penetration test is a technical and targeted exercise that involves testing the security of a specific system or application, without any prior knowledge
or access to its internal details or configuration. A black box penetration test can help to identify the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the system or application,
and to simulate the perspective and behavior of an external attacker, but it cannot test the security of the entire network or organization, or the response of the
incident response team and other stakeholders to a cyber attack.
? A simulated phishing exercise is a social engineering and awareness exercise that involves sending fake emails or messages to the organization’s staff, to test
their ability to recognize and report phishing attempts. A simulated phishing exercise can help to measure the level of security awareness and training of the staff,
and to simulate one of the most common cyber attack vectors, but it cannot test the security of the network or systems, or the response of the incident response
team and other stakeholders to a cyber attack.
References = 1: What is a Red Team Exercise? | Redscan 2: Red Team vs Blue Team: How They Differ and Why You Need Both | CISA 3: Red Team Exercises:
What They Are and How to Run Them | Rapid7 4: What is a Walkthrough Test? | Definition and Examples | ISACA : Penetration Testing Types: Black Box, White
Box, and Gray Box | CISA

NEW QUESTION 28
- (Topic 1)
An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first
drill?

A. Red team exercise

B. Black box penetration test
C. Disaster recovery exercise
D. Tabletop exercise

Answer: D

Explanation:
= A tabletop exercise is the best type of exercise for an incident response team at the first drill, as it is a low-cost, low-risk, and high-value method to test and
evaluate the incident response plan, procedures, roles, and capabilities. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a realistic scenario that involves a security incident,
and requires the participation and discussion of the incident response team members and other relevant stakeholders. The tabletop exercise allows the incident
response team to identify and address the gaps, issues, or challenges in the incident response process, and to improve the communication, coordination, and
collaboration among the team members and other parties. The tabletop exercise also helps to enhance the knowledge, skills, and confidence of the incident
response team members, and to prepare them for more complex or advanced exercises or real incidents.
A red team exercise (A) is a type of exercise that involves a group of ethical hackers or security experts who act as adversaries and attempt to compromise the
organization’s security defenses, systems, or processes. A red team exercise is a high-cost, high-risk, and high-value method to test and evaluate the security
posture and resilience of the organization, and to identify and exploit the security weaknesses or vulnerabilities. However, a red team exercise is not the best type
of exercise for an incident response team at the first drill, as it is more suitable for a mature and experienced team that has already tested and validated the
incident response plan, procedures, roles, and capabilities.
A black box penetration test (B) is a type of security testing that simulates a malicious attack on the organization’s systems or processes, without any prior
knowledge or information about them. A black box penetration test is a high-cost, high-risk, and high- value method to test and evaluate the security posture and
resilience of the organization, and to identify and exploit the security weaknesses or vulnerabilities. However, a black box penetration test is not the best type of
exercise for an incident response team at the first drill, as it is more suitable for a mature and experienced team that has already tested and validated the incident
response plan, procedures, roles, and capabilities.
A disaster recovery exercise © is a type of exercise that simulates a catastrophic event that disrupts or destroys the organization’s critical systems or processes,
and requires the activation and execution of the disaster recovery plan, procedures, roles, and capabilities. A disaster recovery exercise is a high-cost, high-risk,
and high-value method to test and evaluate the disaster recovery posture and resilience of the organization, and to identify and address the recovery issues or
challenges. However, a disaster recovery exercise is not the best type of exercise for an incident response team at the first drill, as it is more suitable for a mature
and experienced team that has already tested and validated the incident response plan, procedures, roles, and capabilities.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section: Incident Response Plan, Subsection: Testing
and Maintenance, page 184-1851

NEW QUESTION 29
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

A. Compatibility with legacy systems

B. Application of corporate hardening standards
C. Integration with existing access controls
D. Unknown vulnerabilities

Answer: D

Explanation:
= The primary area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies is unknown vulnerabilities. Emerging technologies are new and
complex, and often involve multiple parties, interdependencies, and uncertainties. Therefore, they may have unknown vulnerabilities that could expose the
organization to threats that are difficult to predict, detect, or prevent1. Unknown vulnerabilities could also result from the lack of experience, knowledge, or best
practices in implementing, operating, or securing emerging technologies2. Unknown vulnerabilities could lead to serious consequences, such as data breaches,
system failures, reputational damage, legal liabilities, or regulatory sanctions3. Therefore, it is important to focus on identifying, assessing, and addressing
unknown vulnerabilities when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies.
The other options are not as important as unknown vulnerabilities, because they are either more predictable, manageable, or specific. Compatibility with legacy
systems is a technical issue that could affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of emerging technologies, but it is not a security risk per se. It could be
resolved by testing, upgrading, or replacing legacy systems4. Application of corporate hardening standards is a security measure that could reduce the attack
surface and improve the resilience of emerging technologies, but it is not a sufficient or comprehensive solution. It could be limited by the availability, applicability,
or effectiveness of the standards. Integration with existing access controls is a security requirement that could prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to
emerging technologies, but it is not a guarantee of security. It could be challenged by the complexity, diversity, or dynamism of the access scenarios. References =
1: Performing Risk Assessments of Emerging Technologies - ISACA 2: Assessing the Risk of Emerging Technology - ISACA 3: Factors Influencing Public Risk
Perception of Emerging Technologies: A … 4: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3 : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 3, Section
3.4 : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.5

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NEW QUESTION 30
- (Topic 1)
When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

A. Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B. Data is subject to regular access log review.
C. The vendor must be able to amend data.
D. The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

Answer: D

Explanation:
When granting remote access to confidential information to a vendor, the most important security consideration is to ensure that the vendor complies with the
organization’s information security policy. The information security policy defines the roles, responsibilities, rules, and standards for accessing, handling, and
protecting the organization’s information assets. The vendor must agree to the policy and sign a contract that specifies the terms and conditions of the access, the
security controls to be implemented, the monitoring and auditing mechanisms, the incident reporting and response procedures, and the penalties for non-
compliance or breach. The policy also establishes the organization’s right to revoke the access at any time if the vendor violates the policy or poses a risk to the
organization.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 1: Information Security Governance, Section: Information Security Policies, page 34; CISM Review
Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 44, page 45.

NEW QUESTION 34
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following would BEST ensure that security is integrated during application development?

A. Employing global security standards during development processes

B. Providing training on secure development practices to programmers
C. Performing application security testing during acceptance testing
D. Introducing security requirements during the initiation phase

Answer: D

Explanation:
Introducing security requirements during the initiation phase would BEST ensure that security is integrated during application development because it would allow
the security objectives and controls to be defined and aligned with the business needs and risk appetite before any design or coding is done. This would also
facilitate the security by design approach, which is the most effective method to enhance the security of applications and application development activities1.
Introducing security requirements early would also enable the collaboration between security professionals and developers, the identification and specification of
security architectures, and the integration and testing of security controls throughout the development life cycle2. Employing global security standards during
development processes (A) would help to ensure the consistency and quality of security practices, but it would not necessarily ensure that security is integrated
during application development. Providing training on secure development practices to programmers (B) would help to raise the awareness and skills of
developers, but it would not ensure that security is integrated during application development. Performing application security testing during acceptance testing ©
would help to verify the security of the application before deployment, but it would not ensure that security is integrated during application development. It would
also be too late to identify and remediate any security issues that could have been prevented or mitigated earlier in the development
process. References = 1: Five Key Components of an Application Security Program - ISACA1; 2: CISM Domain – Information Security Program Development |
Infosec2

NEW QUESTION 39
- (Topic 1)
Due to changes in an organization's environment, security controls may no longer be adequate. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

A. Review the previous risk assessment and countermeasures.

B. Perform a new risk assessment,
C. Evaluate countermeasures to mitigate new risks.
D. Transfer the new risk to a third party.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the CISM Review Manual, the information security manager’s best course of action when security controls may no longer be adequate due to
changes in the organization’s environment is to perform a new risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks
that affect the organization’s information assets and business processes. A risk assessment should be performed periodically or whenever there are significant
changes in the organization’s environment, such as new threats, vulnerabilities, technologies, regulations, or business objectives. A risk assessment helps to
determine the current level of risk exposure and the adequacy of existing security controls. A risk assessment also provides the basis for developing or updating
the risk treatment plan, which defines the appropriate risk responses, such as implementing new or enhanced security controls, transferring the risk to a third party,
accepting the risk, or avoiding the risk.
The other options are not the best course of action in this scenario. Reviewing the previous risk assessment and countermeasures may not reflect the current state
of the organization’s environment and may not identify new or emerging risks. Evaluating countermeasures to mitigate new risks may be premature without
performing a new risk assessment to identify and prioritize the risks. Transferring the new risk to a third party may not be feasible or cost-effective without
performing a new risk assessment to evaluate the risk level and the available risk transfer options.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 1, pages 43-45.

NEW QUESTION 43
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

A. Nonrepudiation
B. Authenticity
C. Availability
D. Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Answer: C

Explanation:
= According to the CISM Review Manual, availability is the degree to which information and systems are accessible to authorized users in a timely and reliable
manner1. Availability ensures that services are delivered to the users as expected and agreed upon. Nonrepudiation is the ability to prove the occurrence of a
claimed event or action and its originating entities1. It ensures that the parties involved in a transaction cannot deny their involvement. Authenticity is the quality or
state of being genuine or original, rather than a reproduction or fabrication1. It ensures that the identity of a subject or resource is valid. Recovery time objective
(RTO) is the maximum acceptable period of time that can elapse before the unavailability of a business function severely impacts the organization1. It is a metric
used to measure the recovery capability of a system or service, not a factor that ensures timely and reliable access to services. References = CISM Review
Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 2, Information Risk Management, pages 66-67.

NEW QUESTION 47
- (Topic 1)
A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

A. The time and location that the breach occurred

B. Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user
C. The underlying reason for the user error
D. Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

Answer: C

Explanation:
The underlying reason for the user error is the most important factor to determine during the post-incident review, as this helps the information security manager to
understand the root cause of the breach, and to implement corrective and preventive actions to avoid similar incidents in the future. The underlying reason for the
user error may be related to the lack of training, awareness, guidance, or motivation of the user, or to the complexity, usability, or design of the system or process
that the user was using. By identifying the underlying reason for the user error, the information security manager can address the human factor of the information
security program, and improve the security culture and behavior of the organization. The time and location that the breach occurred, evidence of previous incidents
caused by the user, and appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error are not the most important factors to determine during the post-incident review, as they
do not provide a comprehensive and holistic understanding of the breach, and may not help to prevent or reduce the likelihood or impact of future incidents.
References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page 1671; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 382; ISACA CISM - iSecPrep, page
233

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

A. Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B. Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.
C. Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.
D. Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

Answer: D

Explanation:
= The best assurance that security policies are applied across business operations is that organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.
Operational procedures are the specific steps and actions that need to be taken to implement and comply with the security policies and standards. They provide
clear and consistent guidance for the staff members who are responsible for performing the security tasks and functions. They also help to ensure that the security
policies and standards are aligned with the business objectives and processes, and that they are measurable and auditable. Documenting the organizational
standards in operational procedures can help to improve the security awareness, accountability, and performance of the staff members, and to reduce the risks of
errors, deviations, and violations. The other options are not the best assurance because they are either too general or too specific. Organizational standards are
included in awareness training (A) is a good practice to educate the staff members about the security policies and standards, but it does not guarantee that they
will follow them or understand how to apply them in their daily operations. Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls (B) is a way to automate and
monitor the compliance with the security policies and standards, but it does not cover all the aspects of security that may require human intervention or judgment.
Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted © is a way to obtain the commitment and support from the staff members for the security policies
and standards, but it does not ensure that they will adhere to them or know how to execute them in their work activities. References = CISM Review Manual 2022,
pages 24-25, 28-29; CISM Item Development Guide 2022, page 9; Policies, Procedures, Standards, Baselines, and Guidelines | CISSP Security-Management
Practices | Pearson IT Certification

NEW QUESTION 52
- (Topic 1)
During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

A. Post-incident review
B. Eradication
C. Containment
D. Identification

Answer: B

Explanation:
The eradication phase of incident response is the stage where the incident response team documents and performs the actions required to remove the threat that
caused the incident1. This phase involves identifying and eliminating the root cause of the incident, such as malware, compromised accounts, unauthorized
access, or misconfigured systems2. The eradication phase also involves restoring the affected systems to a secure state, deleting any malicious files or artifacts,
and verifying that the threat has been completely removed2. The eradication phase is the first step in returning a compromised environment to its proper state2.
The other phases of incident response are:
? Preparation: The phase where the incident response team prepares for potential incidents by defining roles, responsibilities, procedures, tools, and resources1.
? Detection and analysis: The phase where the incident response team identifies and prioritizes the incidents based on their severity, impact, and urgency1.
? Containment: The phase where the incident response team isolates the affected systems or networks to prevent the spread of the incident and minimize the
damage1.

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? Recovery: The phase where the incident response team restores the normal operations of the systems or networks, and implements any necessary changes or
improvements to prevent recurrence1.
? Post-incident review: The phase where the incident response team evaluates the effectiveness of the incident response process, identifies the lessons learned,
and provides recommendations for improvement1. References = 3: Critical Incident Stress Management: CISM Implementation Guidelines 2: What is the
Eradication Phase of Incident Response? - RSI Security 1: Incident Response Models - ISACA

NEW QUESTION 57
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure an organization's risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process?

A. Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

B. Use quantitative risk assessment methods.
C. Provide regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management
D. Require steering committee approval of risk treatment plans.

Answer: D

Explanation:
= Requiring steering committee approval of risk treatment plans is the best way to help ensure an organization’s risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk
treatment process because the steering committee is composed of senior management and key stakeholders who are responsible for defining and communicating
the risk appetite and ensuring that it is aligned with the business objectives and strategy. The steering committee can review and approve the risk treatment plans
proposed by the information security manager and ensure that they are consistent with the risk appetite and the risk tolerance levels. The steering committee can
also monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the risk treatment plans and provide feedback and guidance to the information security manager. Establishing key
risk indicators (KRIs), using quantitative risk assessment methods, and providing regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management are not the best ways
to help ensure an organization’s risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process, although they may be useful tools and techniques to support
the risk management process. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the performance of risk controls. Quantitative risk assessment
methods are techniques that use numerical values and probabilities to estimate the likelihood and impact of risk events. Regular reporting on risk treatment to
senior management is a way to communicate the status and results of the risk treatment process and to obtain feedback and support from senior management.
However, none of these methods can ensure that the risk treatment plans are approved and aligned with the risk appetite, which is the role of the steering
committee. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, Chapter 2, Section 2.4.3, page 76; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month
Subscription, Question ID: 121.

NEW QUESTION 58
- (Topic 1)
A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

A. Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B. Information security plan
C. Incident response plan
D. Business continuity plan (BCP)

Answer: A

Explanation:
A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in a disaster recovery plan (DRP), because it indicates the earliest point in time to which it is acceptable to recover
data after a disaster. It effectively quantifies the permissible amount of data loss in case of interruption. It is determined based on the acceptable data loss in case
of disruption of operations1. A DRP is a document that defines the procedures, resources, and actions to restore the critical IT systems and data in the event of a
disaster that affects the normal operations of the organization2. A DRP should include the RPO for each critical system and data, as well as the backup and
restoration methods, frequency, and location to achieve the RPO3.
A RPO is not required in an information security plan, an incident response plan, or a business continuity plan (BCP), because these plans have different purposes
and scopes. An information security plan is a document that defines the objectives, policies, standards, and guidelines for information security management in the
organization4. An incident response plan is a document that defines the procedures, roles, and responsibilities for identifying, analyzing, responding to, and
learning from security incidents that may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets. A BCP is a document that defines the
procedures, resources, and actions to ensure the continuity of the essential business functions and processes in the event of a disruption that affects the normal
operations of the organization. These plans may include other metrics, such as recovery time objective (RTO), which is the amount of time after a disaster in which
business operation is resumed, or resources are again available for use, but they do not require a RPO.
References = 1: IS Disaster Recovery Objectives – RunModule 2: Information System Contingency Planning Guidance - ISACA 3: CISM Certified Information
Security Manager – Question1411 4: CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2021, page 23. : CISM
Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2021, page 223. : CISM Review Manual, 16th
Edition, ISACA, 2021, page 199. : RTO vs. RPO – What is the difference? - Advisera

NEW QUESTION 62
- (Topic 1)
An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a
high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

A. Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.
B. Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.
C. Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,
D. Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way to proceed when an independent penetration test results show a high-rated vulnerability in a cloud-based application that is close to going live is to
assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization’s risk tolerance levels. This is because the organization should not implement the application without
understanding the potential impact and likelihood of the vulnerability being exploited, and the cost and benefit of fixing or mitigating the vulnerability. The
organization should also consider the contractual and legal obligations, service level agreements, and performance expectations of the cloud service provider and
the application users. By assessing the risk tolerance levels, the organization can make an informed and rational decision on whether to accept, transfer, avoid, or
reduce the risk, and how to allocate the resources and responsibilities for managing the risk.

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Implementing the application and requesting the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability is not the best way to proceed, because it exposes the organization
to unnecessary and unacceptable risk, and it may violate the terms and conditions of the cloud service contract. The organization should not rely on the cloud
service provider to fix the vulnerability, as the provider may not have the same level of urgency, accountability, or capability as the organization. The organization
should also not assume that the vulnerability will not be exploited, as cyberattackers may target the cloud-based application due to its high visibility, accessibility,
and value.
Commissioning further penetration tests to validate initial test results is not the best way to proceed, because it may delay the implementation of the application,
and it may not provide any additional or useful information. The organization should trust the results of the independent penetration test, as it is conducted by a
qualified and objective third party. The organization should also not waste time and resources on conducting redundant or unnecessary tests, as it may affect the
budget, schedule, and quality of the project. Postponing the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed is not the best way to proceed, because it may not
be feasible or desirable for the organization. The organization should consider the business impact and opportunity cost of postponing the implementation, as it
may affect the organization’s reputation, revenue, and customer satisfaction. The organization should also consider the technical feasibility and complexity of
fixing the vulnerability, as it may require significant changes or modifications to the application or the cloud environment. The organization should not adopt a zero-
risk or risk- averse approach, as it may hinder the organization’s innovation and competitiveness. References =
? ISACA, CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, 2020, pages 97-98, 101-102, 105-106, 109-110.
? ISACA, CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12th Edition, 2020, question ID 1025.

NEW QUESTION 65
- (Topic 1)
An organization is increasingly using Software as a Service (SaaS) to replace in-house hosting and support of IT applications. Which of the following would be the
MOST effective way to help ensure procurement decisions consider information security concerns?

A. Integrate information security risk assessments into the procurement process.

B. Provide regular information security training to the procurement team.
C. Invite IT members into regular procurement team meetings to influence best practice.
D. Enforce the right to audit in procurement contracts with SaaS vendors.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best way to ensure that information security concerns are considered during the procurement of SaaS solutions is to integrate information security risk
assessments into the procurement process. This will allow the organization to identify and evaluate the potential security risks and impacts of using a SaaS
provider, and to select the most appropriate solution based on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. Information security risk assessments should be
conducted at the early stages of the procurement process, before selecting a vendor or signing a contract, and should be updated periodically throughout the
contract lifecycle.
Providing regular information security training to the procurement team (B) is a good practice, but it may not be sufficient to address the specific security issues
and challenges of SaaS solutions. The procurement team may not have the expertise or the authority to conduct information security risk assessments or to
negotiate security requirements with the vendors.
Inviting IT members into regular procurement team meetings to influence best practice © is also a good practice, but it may not be effective if the IT members are
not involved in the actual procurement process or decision making. The IT members may not have the opportunity or the influence to conduct information security
risk assessments or to ensure that security concerns are adequately addressed in the procurement contracts.
Enforcing the right to audit in procurement contracts with SaaS vendors (D) is an important control, but it is not the most effective way to ensure that information
security concerns are considered during the procurement process. The right to audit is a post-contractual measure that allows the organization to verify the
security controls and compliance of the SaaS provider, but it does not prevent or mitigate the security risks that may arise from using a SaaS solution. The right to
audit should be complemented by information security risk assessments and other security requirements in the procurement contracts. References = CISM Review
Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section: Information Security Program Management,
Subsection: Procurement and Vendor Management, Page 141-1421

NEW QUESTION 66
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities?

A. Documentation of control procedures

B. Standardization of compliance requirements
C. Automation of controls
D. Integration of assurance efforts

Answer: B

Explanation:
= Standardization of compliance requirements is the best approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities, as it allows for a common
understanding of the objectives and expectations of various stakeholders, such as regulators, auditors, customers, and business partners. Standardization also
facilitates the alignment of compliance activities with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and enables the identification and elimination of redundant or
conflicting controls. References = CISM Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 721; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12th Edition,
question 952 Learn more:

NEW QUESTION 69
- (Topic 1)
An information security manager finds that a soon-to-be deployed online application will increase risk beyond acceptable levels, and necessary controls have not
been included. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager?

A. Instruct IT to deploy controls based on urgent business needs.

B. Present a business case for additional controls to senior management.
C. Solicit bids for compensating control products.
D. Recommend a different application.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The information security manager should present a business case for additional controls to senior management, as this is the most effective way to communicate
the risk and the need for mitigation. The information security manager should not instruct IT to deploy controls based on urgent business needs, as this may not

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align with the business objectives and may cause unnecessary costs and delays. The information security manager should not solicit bids for compensating control
products, as this may not address the root cause of the risk and may not be the best solution. The information security manager should not recommend a different
application, as this may not be feasible or desirable for the business. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page 711; CISM Review Questions, Answers &
Explanations Manual 2023, page 252

NEW QUESTION 72
- (Topic 1)
An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the
outsourcing agreement?

A. Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B. Requirements for regularly testing backups
C. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
D. The disaster recovery communication plan

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most important thing to include in the outsourcing agreement for disaster recovery activities is the recovery time objectives (RTOs). RTOs are the maximum
acceptable time frames within which the critical business processes and information systems must be restored after a disaster or disruption. RTOs are based on
the business impact analysis (BIA) and the risk assessment, and they reflect the business continuity requirements and expectations of the organization. By
including the RTOs in the outsourcing agreement, the organization can ensure that the service provider is aware of and committed to meeting the agreed service
levels and minimizing the downtime and losses in the event of a disaster. The other options are not as important as the RTOs, although they may be relevant and
useful to include in the outsourcing agreement depending on the scope and nature of the disaster recovery services. References = CISM Review Manual 15th
Edition, page 2471; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, Question ID: 1033

NEW QUESTION 73
- (Topic 1)
When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

A. widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B. only with management.
C. only as needed,
D. only with internal audit.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared only as needed, according to the principle of least privilege and the
need-to-know basis. This means that only the authorized and relevant parties who have a legitimate purpose and role in the incident response process should
have access to the incident information, and only to the extent that is necessary for them to perform their duties. Sharing incident details only as needed helps to
protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the incident information, as well as the privacy and reputation of the affected individuals and the organization.
Sharing incident details only as needed also helps to prevent unauthorized disclosure, modification, deletion, or misuse of the incident information, which could
compromise the investigation, evidence, remediation, or legal actions.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section: Incident Response Process, page 2311; CISM
Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 49, page 462.

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

A. Establishing risk metrics

B. Training on risk management procedures
C. Reporting on documented deficiencies
D. Assigning a risk owner

Answer: D

Explanation:
Assigning a risk owner is the best way to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner, because a risk owner is responsible for
monitoring, controlling, and reporting on the risk, as well as implementing the appropriate risk response actions. A risk owner should have the authority,
accountability, and resources to manage the risk effectively. Establishing risk metrics, training on risk management procedures, and reporting on documented
deficiencies are all important aspects of risk management, but they do not guarantee that a risk response plan will be executed promptly and properly. Risk metrics
help to measure and communicate the risk level and performance, but they do not assign any responsibility or action. Training on risk management procedures
helps to increase the awareness and competence of the staff involved in risk management, but it does not ensure that they will follow the procedures or have the
authority to do so. Reporting on documented deficiencies helps to identify and communicate the gaps and weaknesses in the risk management process, but it
does not provide any solutions or corrective actions. References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, ISACA, 2021, pages 125-126, 136-137.

NEW QUESTION 77
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

A. Asset recovery cost

B. Asset classification level
C. Cost of insurance premiums
D. Potential business loss

Answer: D

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Explanation:
Potential business loss is the most important factor to consider when determining asset valuation, as it reflects the impact of losing or compromising the asset on
the organization’s objectives and operations. Asset recovery cost, asset classification level, and cost of insurance premiums are also relevant, but not as important
as potential business loss, as they do not capture the full value of the asset to the organization. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page 461; CISM Review
Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 292

NEW QUESTION 79
- (Topic 1)
An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

A. isolate the affected network segment.

B. report the root cause to the board of directors.
C. assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.
D. shut down the entire network.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The online bank should first isolate the affected network segment, as this is the most effective way to contain the attack and prevent it from spreading to other
parts of the network or compromising more data or systems. Isolating the affected network segment also helps to preserve the evidence and facilitate the
investigation and recovery process. Reporting the root cause to the board of directors, assessing whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised,
and shutting down the entire network are not the first actions that the online bank should take, as they may not be feasible or appropriate at the time of the attack,
and may cause more disruption, confusion, or damage to the business operations and reputation. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page 1641; CISM
Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 362; ISACA CISM - iSecPrep, page 213

NEW QUESTION 80
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

A. Defining information stewardship roles

B. Defining security asset categorization
C. Assigning information asset ownership
D. Developing a records retention schedule

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most important factor to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately is assigning information asset ownership. Information asset
ownership is the process of identifying and assigning the roles and responsibilities of the individuals or groups who have the authority and accountability for the
information assets and their protection. Information asset owners are responsible for defining the business value, classification, and security requirements of the
information assets, as well as granting the access rights and privileges to the information users and custodians. Information asset owners are also responsible for
monitoring and reviewing the security performance and compliance of the information assets, and reporting and resolving any security issues or incidents. By
assigning information asset ownership, the organization can ensure that the information assets are properly identified, categorized, protected, and managed
according to their importance, sensitivity, and regulatory obligations. References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 1: Information Security
Governance, Section: Data Classification, page 331; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 62, page 572.

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of the information security incident response process?

A. Conducting incident triage

B. Communicating with internal and external parties
C. Minimizing negative impact to critical operations
D. Classifying incidents

Answer: C

Explanation:
The primary objective of the information security incident response process is to minimize the negative impact to critical operations. An information security
incident is an event that threatens or compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s information assets or processes. The
information security incident response process is a process that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and tools for detecting, analyzing, containing,
eradicating, recovering, and learning from information security incidents. The main goal of the information security incident response process is to restore the
normal operations as quickly and effectively as possible, and to prevent or reduce the harm or loss caused by the incident to the organization, its stakeholders, or
its environment.
Conducting incident triage (A) is an important activity of the information security incident response process, but not the primary objective. Incident triage is the
process of prioritizing and assigning the incidents based on their severity, urgency, and impact. Incident triage helps to allocate the appropriate resources,
personnel, and time to handle the incidents, and to escalate the incidents to the relevant authorities or parties if needed. However, incident triage is not the ultimate
goal of the information security incident response process, but a means to achieve it.
Communicating with internal and external parties (B) is also an important activity of the information security incident response process, but not the primary
objective. Communicating with internal and external parties is the process of informing and updating the stakeholders, such as management, employees,
customers, partners, regulators, or media, about the incident status, actions, and outcomes. Communicating with internal and external parties helps to maintain the
trust, confidence, and reputation of the organization, and to comply with the legal and contractual obligations, such as notification or reporting requirements.
However, communicating with internal and external parties is not the ultimate goal of the information security incident response process, but a means to achieve it.
Classifying incidents (D) is also an important activity of the information security incident response process, but not the primary objective. Classifying incidents is the
process of categorizing and labeling the incidents based on their type, source, cause, or impact. Classifying incidents helps to identify and understand the nature
and scope of the incidents, and to apply the appropriate response procedures and controls. However, classifying incidents is not the ultimate goal of the
information security incident response process, but a means to achieve it.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section: Incident Response Plan, page 1811

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NEW QUESTION 85
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

A. Conduct a compliance review.

B. Assign accountability.
C. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
D. Create a business case.

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the CISM Review Manual, the first step to establishing an effective information security program is to create a business case that aligns the program
objectives with the organization’s goals and strategies. A business case provides the rationale and justification for the information security program and helps to
secure the necessary resources and support from senior management and other stakeholders. A business case should include the following elements:
? The scope and objectives of the information security program
? The current state of information security in the organization and the gap analysis
? The benefits and value proposition of the information security program
? The risks and challenges of the information security program
? The estimated costs and resources of the information security program
? The expected outcomes and performance indicators of the information security program
? The implementation plan and timeline of the information security program
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 2, pages 97-99.

NEW QUESTION 89
- (Topic 1)
Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

A. Database analyst
B. Database administrator (DBA)
C. Information security analyst
D. Data owner

Answer: D

Explanation:
= Data owner is the best suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified, because data owner is the person who has the authority and
responsibility for the data and its protection. Data owner is accountable for the business value, quality, integrity, and security of the data. Data owner also defines
the data classification criteria and levels based on the data sensitivity, criticality, and regulatory requirements. Data owner assigns the data custodian and grants
the data access rights to the data users. Data owner reviews and approves the data classification policies and procedures, and ensures the compliance with them.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 1: Information Security Governance, Section: Data Classification, page 331

NEW QUESTION 94
- (Topic 1)
When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

A. Categorize each asset.

B. Create an inventor
C. &
D. Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.
E. Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Creating an inventory is the FIRST step in developing an asset classification program because it helps to identify and list all the information systems assets of the
organization that need to be protected and classified. An inventory should include the asset name, description, owner, custodian, location, type, value, and other
relevant attributes. Creating an inventory also enables the establishment of the ownership and custody of the assets, which are essential for defining the roles and
responsibilities for asset protection and classification12. Categorizing each asset (A) is a subsequent step in developing an asset classification program, after
creating an inventory. Categorizing each asset involves assigning a security level or category to each asset based on its value, sensitivity, and criticality to the
organization. The security level or category determines the protection level and controls required for each asset12. Creating a business case for a digital rights
management tool © is not a step in developing an asset classification program, but rather a possible outcome or recommendation based on the asset classification
results. A digital rights management tool is a type of control that can help to enforce the security policies and objectives for the classified assets, such as
preventing unauthorized access, copying, or distribution of the assets3. Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system (D) is also not a step in developing an
asset classification program, but rather a possible outcome or recommendation based on the asset
classification results. A DLP system is a type of control that can help to monitor, detect, and prevent the loss or leakage of the classified assets, such as through
email, web, or removable media4. References = 1: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 77-781; 2: IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control
Implementation Model - ISACA2; 3: What is Digital Rights Management? - Definition from Techopedia3; 4: What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? - Definition from
Techopedia4

NEW QUESTION 97
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

A. Threat management is enhanced.

B. Compliance status is improved.
C. Security metrics are enhanced.
D. Proactive risk management is facilitated.

Answer: D

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Explanation:
The primary benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process is to facilitate proactive risk management. A vulnerability assessment process is a
systematic and periodic evaluation of the security posture of an information system or network, which identifies and measures the weaknesses and exposures that
may be exploited by threats. By implementing a vulnerability assessment process, the organization can proactively identify and prioritize the risks, and implement
appropriate controls and mitigation strategies to reduce the likelihood and impact of potential incidents. The other options are possible benefits of implementing a
vulnerability assessment process, but they are not the primary one. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 1731; CISM Review Questions,
Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, Question ID: 1029

NEW QUESTION 98
- (Topic 1)
The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A. have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B. are more objective than information security management.
C. can see the overall impact to the business.
D. can balance the technical and business risks.

Answer: A

Explanation:
= End users are the primary stakeholders of the business processes and functions that need to be protected and recovered in the event of a disruption. They have
the most knowledge and experience of the specific business needs, requirements, and dependencies that affect the continuity planning. Involving them in the
planning process can help to ensure that the continuity plan is aligned with the business objectives and expectations, and that the critical activities and resources
are prioritized and protected accordingly. End users can also provide valuable feedback and suggestions to improve the plan and its implementation. References =
CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 2291; CISM Practice Quiz, question 1182

NEW QUESTION 100

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST indicates that information security governance and corporate governance are integrated?

A. The information security team is aware of business goals.

B. The board is regularly informed of information security key performance indicators (KPIs),
C. The information security steering committee is composed of business leaders.
D. A cost-benefit analysis is conducted on all information security initiatives.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The information security steering committee is composed of business leaders is the best indicator that information security governance and corporate governance
are integrated, as this shows that the information security program is aligned with the business objectives and strategies, and that the information security manager
has the support and involvement of the senior management. The information security steering committee is responsible for overseeing the information security
program, setting the direction and scope, approving policies and standards, allocating resources, and monitoring performance and compliance. The information
security steering committee also ensures that the information security risks are communicated and addressed at the board level, and that the information security
program is consistent with the corporate governance framework and culture. The information security team is aware of business goals, the board is regularly
informed of information security key performance indicators (KPIs), and a cost- benefit analysis is conducted on all information security initiatives are also
important, but
not as important as the information security steering committee is composed of business leaders, as they do not necessarily imply that the information security
governance and corporate governance are integrated, and that the information security program has the authority and accountability to achieve its goals.
References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page 271; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 342; ISACA CISM - iSecPrep, page
193

NEW QUESTION 105

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

A. To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B. To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders
C. To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk
D. To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process is to obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as
possible. A BIA is a process of identifying and analyzing the potential effects of disruptive events on the organization’s critical business functions, processes, and
resources. A BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for the organization’s continuity planning. Interviews are one of the methods
to collect data and information for the BIA, and they involve direct and interactive communication with the stakeholders who are involved in or affected by the
business functions, processes, and resources. By conducting interviews, the information security manager can obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as
possible, such as business owners, managers, users, customers, suppliers, regulators, and partners. This can help to ensure that the BIA covers the full scope
and complexity of the organization’s business activities, and that the BIA reflects the accurate, current, and comprehensive views and expectations of the
stakeholders. Interviews can also help to validate, clarify, and supplement the data and information obtained from other sources, such as surveys, questionnaires,
documents, or systems. Interviews can also help to build rapport, trust, and collaboration among the stakeholders, and to increase their awareness, involvement,
and commitment to the information security and continuity planning.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section: Business Impact Analysis
(BIA), pages 178-1801; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 65, page 602.

NEW QUESTION 107

- (Topic 1)
An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the

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files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A. Conduct an impact assessment.

B. Isolate the affected systems.
C. Rebuild the affected systems.
D. Initiate incident response.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best course of action when the organization receives complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted and they are receiving demands for
money to decrypt the files is to initiate incident response. This is because the organization is facing a ransomware attack, which is a type of malicious software that
encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Ransomware attacks can cause significant disruption, damage, and loss to the
organization’s operations, assets, and reputation. Therefore, the organization needs to quickly activate its incident response plan and team, which are designed to
handle such security incidents in a coordinated, effective, and efficient manner. The incident response process involves the following steps1:
? Preparation: The incident response team prepares the necessary resources, tools, and procedures to respond to the incident. The team also establishes the
roles, responsibilities, and communication channels among the team members and other stakeholders.
? Identification: The incident response team identifies the scope, source, and severity of the incident. The team also collects and preserves the relevant evidence
and logs for further analysis and investigation.
? Containment: The incident response team isolates the affected systems and networks to prevent the spread of the ransomware and limit the impact of the
incident. The team also implements temporary or alternative solutions to restore the essential functions and services.
? Eradication: The incident response team removes the ransomware and any traces of its infection from the affected systems and networks. The team also verifies
that the systems and networks are clean and secure before restoring them to normal operations.
? Recovery: The incident response team restores the affected systems and networks to normal operations. The team also decrypts or restores the encrypted data
from backups or other sources, if possible. The team also monitors the systems and networks for any signs of recurrence or residual issues.
? Lessons learned: The incident response team conducts a post-incident review to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process and
team. The team also identifies the root causes, lessons learned, and best practices from the incident. The team also recommends and implements the necessary
improvements and corrective actions to prevent or mitigate similar incidents in the future.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 4: Information Security Incident Management, Section: Incident Response Process, pages 229-2331;
CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 45, page 432.

NEW QUESTION 110

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

A. Intrusion detection
B. Log monitoring
C. Patch management
D. Antivirus software

Answer: C

Explanation:
= Patch management is the process of applying updates to software and hardware systems to fix security vulnerabilities and improve functionality. Patch
management is one of the best ways to prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities, as it reduces the attack surface and closes the gaps that attackers can
exploit. Patch management also helps to ensure compliance with security standards and regulations, and maintain the performance and availability of systems.
Intrusion detection is the process of monitoring network or system activities for signs of malicious or unauthorized behavior. Intrusion detection can help to detect
and respond to attacks, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Log monitoring is the process of collecting, analyzing and reviewing log files
generated by various systems and applications. Log monitoring can help to identify anomalies, errors and security incidents, but it does not prevent them from
occurring. Antivirus software is the program that scans files and systems for viruses, malware and other malicious code. Antivirus software can help to protect
systems from infection, but it does not prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities that are not related to malware.
Therefore, patch management is the best security process to prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities, as it addresses the root cause of the problem and
reduces the risk of compromise. References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition eBook | Digital | English1, Chapter 4: Information Security Program
Development and Management, Section 4.3: Information Security Program Resources, Subsection 4.3.1: Information Security Infrastructure and Architecture,
Page 204.

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Topic 1)
Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

A. Parallel test
B. Full interruption test
C. Simulation test
D. Tabletop test

Answer: A

Explanation:
A parallel test is the best method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required. A parallel test involves
processing the same transactions or data at both the primary and the alternate site simultaneously, and comparing the results for accuracy and consistency. A
parallel test can validate the functionality, performance, and reliability of the alternate site without disrupting the normal operations at the primary site. A parallel
test can also identify and resolve any issues or discrepancies between the two sites before a real disaster occurs. A parallel test can provide a high level of
assurance and confidence that the alternate site can support the organization’s continuity requirements.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section: Business Continuity Plan
(BCP) Testing, page 1861; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 56, page 522.
A parallel test is the best method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required because it involves processing
data at both the primary and alternate sites simultaneously without disrupting the normal operations1. A full interruption test would cause downtime and potential
loss of data or revenue2. A simulation test would not provide a realistic assessment of the alternate site’s capabilities3. A tabletop test would only involve a
discussion of the procedures and scenarios without actually testing the site4.
1: CISM Exam Content Outline | CISM Certification | ISACA 2: CISM - ISACA Certified Information Security Manager Exam Prep - NICCS 3: Prepare for the
ISACA Certified Information Security Manager Exam: CISM … 4: CISM: Certified Information Systems Manager | Official ISACA … - NICCS

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NEW QUESTION 116

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Post-incident review
C. Chain of custody
D. Incident logging

Answer: B

Explanation:
A post-incident review (PIR) is the process of evaluating the effectiveness of the incident response after the incident has been resolved. A PIR aims to identify the
strengths and weaknesses of the response process, the root causes and impacts of the incident, the lessons learned and best practices, and the
recommendations and action plans for improvement1. A PIR can help an organization enhance its incident response capabilities, reduce the likelihood and severity
of future incidents, and increase its resilience and maturity2.
A PIR is the best process to support the evaluation of incident response effectiveness, because it provides a systematic and comprehensive way to assess the
performance and outcomes of the response process, and to identify and implement the necessary changes and improvements. A PIR involves collecting and
analyzing relevant data and feedback from various sources, such as incident logs, reports, evidence, metrics, surveys, interviews, and observations. A PIR also
involves comparing the actual response with the expected or planned response, and measuring the achievement of the response objectives and the satisfaction of
the stakeholders3. A PIR also involves documenting and communicating the findings, conclusions, and recommendations of the evaluation, and ensuring that they
are followed up and implemented.
The other options are not as good as a PIR in supporting the evaluation of incident response effectiveness, because they are either more specific, limited, or
dependent on a PIR. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a technique to identify the underlying factors or reasons that caused the incident, and to prevent or mitigate
their recurrence. An RCA can help an organization understand the nature and origin of the incident, and to address the problem at its source, rather than its
symptoms. However, an RCA is not sufficient to evaluate the effectiveness of the response process, because it does not cover other aspects, such as the
response performance, outcomes, impacts, lessons, and best practices. An RCA is usually a part of a PIR, rather than a separate process. A chain of custody
(CoC) is a process of maintaining and documenting the integrity and security of the evidence collected during the incident response. A CoC can help an
organization ensure that the evidence is reliable, authentic, and admissible in legal or regulatory proceedings. However, a CoC is not a process to evaluate the
effectiveness of the response process, but rather a requirement or a standard to follow during the response process. A CoC does not provide any feedback or
analysis on the response performance, outcomes, impacts, lessons, or best practices. An incident logging is a process of recording and tracking the details and
activities of the incident response. An incident logging can help an organization monitor and manage the response process, and to provide an audit trail and a
source of information for the evaluation. However, an incident logging is not a process to evaluate the effectiveness of the response process, but rather an input or
a tool for the evaluation. An incident logging does not provide any assessment or measurement on the response performance, outcomes, impacts, lessons, or best
practices. References = 1: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.5 2: Post-Incident Review: A Guide to Effective Incident Response 3: Post-
Incident Review: A Guide to Effective Incident Response : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.5 : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter
5, Section 5.5 : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4 : CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3

NEW QUESTION 121

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

A. Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B. The contact list is regularly updated.
C. Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.
D. Senior management approval has been documented.

Answer: B

Explanation:
= The contact list is the most important element of the escalation procedures for an incident response plan, as it ensures that the appropriate stakeholders are
notified and involved in the incident management process. A contact list should include the names, roles, responsibilities, phone numbers, email addresses, and
backup contacts of the key personnel involved in the incident response, such as the incident response team, senior management, legal counsel, public relations,
law enforcement, and external service providers. The contact list should be regularly updated and tested to ensure its accuracy and availability123. References =
? 1: Information Security Incident Response Escalation Guideline2, page 4
? 2: A Practical Approach to Incident Management Escalation1, section “Step 2: Log the escalation and record the related incident problems that occurred”
? 3: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide4, page 18

NEW QUESTION 122

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

A. To alert on unacceptable risk

B. To identify residual risk
C. To reassess risk appetite
D. To benchmark control performance

Answer: A

Explanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the likelihood of occurrence of potential adverse events that can affect the
organization’s objectives and performance. KRIs are used to monitor changes in the risk environment and to provide early warning signals for potential issues that
may require management attention or intervention. KRIs are also used to communicate the risk status and trends to the relevant stakeholders and to support risk-
based decision making12.
The primary reason to monitor KRIs related to information security is to alert on unacceptable risk. Unacceptable risk is the level of risk that exceeds the
organization’s risk appetite, tolerance, or threshold, and that poses a significant threat to the organization’s assets, operations, reputation, or compliance.
Unacceptable risk can result from internal or external factors, such as cyberattacks, data breaches, system failures, human errors, fraud, natural disasters, or
regulatory changes. Unacceptable risk can have severe consequences for the organization, such as financial losses, legal liabilities, operational disruptions,
customer dissatisfaction, or reputational damage12.
By monitoring KRIs related to information security, the organization can identify and assess the sources, causes, and impacts of unacceptable risk, and take timely

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and appropriate actions to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept the risk. Monitoring KRIs can also help the organization to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency
of the existing information security controls, policies, and procedures, and to identify and implement any necessary improvements or enhancements. Monitoring
KRIs can also help the organization to align its information security strategy and objectives with its business strategy and objectives, and
to ensure compliance with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and best practices12. While monitoring KRIs related to information security can also serve
other purposes, such as identifying residual risk, reassessing risk appetite, or benchmarking control performance, these are not the primary reason for monitoring
KRIs. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after applying the risk treatment options, and it should be within the organization’s risk appetite, tolerance, or
threshold. Reassessing risk appetite is the process of reviewing and adjusting the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to take in pursuit of its
objectives, and it should be done periodically or when there are significant changes in the internal or external environment. Benchmarking control performance is
the process of comparing the organization’s information security controls with those of other organizations or industry standards, and it should be done to identify
and adopt the best practices or to demonstrate compliance12. References = Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management, The Power of
KRIs in Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) - Metricstream, What Is a Key Risk Indicator? With Characteristics and Tips, KRI Framework for Operational Risk
Management | Workiva, Key risk indicator - Wikipedia

NEW QUESTION 127

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a desired outcome of information security governance?

A. Penetration test
B. Improved risk management
C. Business agility
D. A maturity model

Answer: C

Explanation:
Business agility is a desired outcome of information security governance, as it enables the organization to respond quickly and effectively to changing business
needs and opportunities, while maintaining a high level of security and risk management. Information security governance provides the strategic direction, policies,
standards, and oversight for the information security program, ensuring that it aligns with the organization’s business objectives and stakeholder expectations.
Information security governance also facilitates the integration of security into the business processes and systems, enhancing the organization’s ability to adapt
to the dynamic and complex environment. By implementing information security governance, the organization can achieve business agility, as well as other
benefits such as improved risk management, compliance, reputation, and value creation. References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 25.

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

A. Publish adopted information security standards.

B. Perform annual information security compliance reviews.
C. Implement an information security governance framework.
D. Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way to ensure the organization’s security objectives are embedded in business operations is to implement an information security governance
framework. An information security governance framework is a set of policies, procedures, standards, guidelines, roles, and responsibilities that define and direct
how the organization manages and measures its information security activities. An information security governance framework helps to align the information
security strategy with the business strategy and the organizational culture, and to ensure that the information security objectives are consistent with the business
objectives and the stakeholder expectations. An information security governance framework also helps to establish the authority, accountability, and
communication channels for the information security function, and to provide the necessary resources, tools, and controls to implement and monitor the information
security program. By implementing an information security governance framework, the organization can embed the information security objectives in business
operations, and ensure that the information security function supports and enables the business processes and functions, rather than hinders or restricts them.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 1: Information Security Governance, Section: Information Security Governance Framework, page 181;
CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 75, page 702.

NEW QUESTION 134

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

A. Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B. Incident response plan
C. Business continuity plan (BCP)
D. Business contingency plan

Answer: C

Explanation:
= A business continuity plan (BCP) is the plan that should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster. A disaster is a
sudden, unexpected, or disruptive event that causes significant damage, loss, or interruption to the organization’s normal operations, assets, or resources.
Examples of disasters are natural disasters, such as earthquakes, floods, or fires, or human-made disasters, such as cyberattacks, sabotage, or terrorism. A BCP
is a document that describes the procedures, strategies, and actions that the organization will take to ensure the continuity of its critical business functions,
processes, and services in the event of a disaster. A BCP also defines the roles and responsibilities of the staff, management, and other stakeholders involved in
the business continuity management, and the resources, tools, and systems that will support the business continuity activities. A BCP helps the organization to:
? Minimize the impact and duration of the disaster on the organization’s operations, assets, and reputation.
? Restore the essential functions and services as quickly and efficiently as possible.
? Protect the health, safety, and welfare of the staff, customers, and partners.
? Meet the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations of the organization.
? Learn from the disaster and improve the business continuity capabilities and readiness of the organization.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 3: Information Security Program Development and Management, Section: Business Continuity Plan
(BCP), page 1771; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 10th Edition, Question 83, page 772.

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NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 1)
An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.
Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

A. Moving to a zero trust access model

B. Enabling network-level authentication
C. Enhancing cyber response capability
D. Strengthening endpoint security

Answer: D

Explanation:
Strengthening endpoint security is the most immediate focus when shifting to a work-from- home model with an increased need for remote access security, as this
reduces the risk of unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, and other threats that may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of
the organization’s information assets. Moving to a zero trust access model, enabling network-level authentication, and enhancing cyber response capability are
also important, but not as urgent as strengthening endpoint security, as they require more time, resources, and planning to implement effectively. References =
CISM Review Manual 2023, page 1561; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 302; ISACA CISM - iSecPrep, page 153

NEW QUESTION 142

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when one of the organization's critical third-party providers experiences
a data breach?

A. Inform the public relations officer.

B. Monitor the third party's response.
C. Invoke the incident response plan.
D. Inform customers of the breach.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first course of action when one of the organization’s critical third-party providers experiences a data breach is to invoke the incident response plan, which
means activating the incident response team and following the predefined procedures and protocols to respond to the breach. Invoking the incident response plan
helps to coordinate the communication and collaboration with the third-party provider, assess the scope and impact of the breach, contain and eradicate the threat,
recover the affected systems and data, and report and disclose the incident to the relevant stakeholders and authorities.
References = Cybersecurity Incident Response Exercise Guidance - ISACA, Plan for third- party cybersecurity incident management

NEW QUESTION 144

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?

A. Information security program charter

B. Business impact analysis (BIA)
C. Service level agreements (SLAs)
D. Business continuity plan (BCP)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The document that should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors is the business continuity plan (BCP) because it
provides the guidance and procedures for restoring the organization’s critical business functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster, and may
require contacting external parties such as vendors for assistance or support. Information security program charter is not a good document for this purpose
because it does not provide any guidance or procedures for business continuity or disaster recovery. Business impact analysis (BIA) is not a good document for
this purpose because it does not provide any guidance or procedures for business continuity or disaster recovery. Service level agreements (SLAs) are not good
documents for this purpose because they do not provide any guidance or procedures for business continuity or disaster recovery. References:
https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2017/volume-2/business-continuity- management-lifecycle https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-
journal/issues/2016/volume-4/business-impact-analysis

NEW QUESTION 147

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the security of services and solutions delivered by third-party vendors?

A. Integrate risk management into the vendor management process.

B. Conduct security reviews on the services and solutions delivered.
C. Review third-party contracts as part of the vendor management process.
D. Perform an audit on vendors' security controls and practices.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Integrating risk management into the vendor management process is the most effective way to ensure the security of services and solutions delivered by third-
party vendors, as it enables the organization to identify, assess, treat, and monitor the risks associated with outsourcing. Risk management should be applied
throughout the vendor life cycle, from selection, contracting, onboarding, monitoring, to termination. Risk management also helps the organization to define the
security requirements, expectations, and responsibilities for the vendors, and to evaluate their performance and compliance. (From CISM Review Manual 15th
Edition)
References: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 184, section 4.3.3.2; Preparing Your First Supplier Audit Plan1.

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NEW QUESTION 148

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls?

A. Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments

B. Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results
C. Establishing effective stakeholder relationships
D. Defining the organization's risk management framework

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls is to establish effective stakeholder relationships. Stakeholders are the
individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the organization’s information security objectives, activities, and outcomes. They may include senior
management, business owners, users, customers, regulators, auditors, vendors, and others. By establishing effective stakeholder relationships, the information
security manager can communicate the value and benefits of security controls to the organization’s performance, reputation, and competitiveness. The information
security manager can also solicit feedback and input from stakeholders to ensure that the security controls are aligned with the organization’s needs and
expectations. The information security manager can also foster collaboration and cooperation among stakeholders to facilitate the implementation and operation of
security controls. The other options are not the best way to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls, although they may be some
steps or outcomes of the process. Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments is a technical activity that can help identify and prioritize the security weaknesses
and gaps in the organization’s information assets and systems. However, it does not necessarily obtain organizational support for the implementation of security
controls unless the results are communicated and justified to the stakeholders. Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results is a reporting activity that
can help demonstrate the potential consequences of disruptions or incidents on the organization’s critical business processes and functions. However, it does not
necessarily obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls unless the results are linked to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
Defining the organization’s risk management framework is a strategic activity that can help establish the policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities for
managing information security risks in a consistent and effective manner. However, it does not necessarily obtain organizational support for the implementation of
security controls unless the framework is endorsed and enforced by the stakeholders

NEW QUESTION 152

......

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