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ISC2
Exam Questions CSSLP
Certified Information Systems Security Professional

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NEW QUESTION 1
You and your project team have identified the project risks and now are analyzing the probability and impact of the risks. What type of analysis of the risks provides
a quick and high-level review of each identified risk event?

A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Seven risk responses
D. A risk probability-impact matrix

Answer: B

Explanation:
Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for additional analysis.

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. Editor
B. Custodian
C. Owner
D. User
E. Security auditor

Answer: BCDE

Explanation:
The following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program: Owner Custodian User Security auditor The following are the
responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires.
Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data
protection duties to the custodian. The following are the responsibilities of the custodian with regard to data in an information classification program: Running
regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary Controlling access, adding and
removing privileges for individual users The users must comply with the requirements laid out in policies and procedures. They must also exercise due care. A
security auditor examines an organization's security procedures and mechanisms.

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS) ?

A. RealSecure
B. StealthWatch
C. Tripwire
D. Snort

Answer: D

Explanation:
Snort is a signature-based intrusion detection system. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network
sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet
Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in
which Snort can be configured are as follows: Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet
logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze
network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer B is incorrect. StealthWatch is a behavior-based intrusion detection system. Answer A is
incorrect. RealSecure is a network-based IDS that monitors TCP, UDP and ICMP traffic and is configured to look for attack patterns. Answer C is incorrect.
Tripwire is a file integrity checker for UNIX/Linux that can be used for host-based intrusion detection.

NEW QUESTION 4
In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned
checklist?

A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test

Answer: D

Explanation:
A checklist test is a test in which the disaster recovery checklists are distributed to the members of the disaster recovery team. All members are asked to review
the assigned checklist. The checklist test is a simple test and it is easy to conduct this test. It allows to accomplish the following three goals: It ensures that the
employees are aware of their responsibilities and they have the refreshed knowledge. It provides an individual with an opportunity to review the checklists for
obsolete information and update any items that require modification during the changes in the organization. It ensures that the assigned members of disaster
recovery team are still working for the organization. Answer B is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just
like a structured walk- through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on
appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined
carefully for avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities. Answer A is incorrect. A parallel test includes the next level in the testing procedure, and
relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery
responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization's business. Answer
C is incorrect. A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster

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recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of
operations if the test fails.

NEW QUESTION 5
You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact
matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?

A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.

B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.
C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.
D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer D is incorrect. This
is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis datAnswer A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis datAnswer B is
incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data.

NEW QUESTION 6
In which of the following cryptographic attacking techniques does an attacker obtain encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption
algorithm?

A. Chosen plaintext attack

B. Chosen ciphertext attack
C. Ciphertext only attack
D. Known plaintext attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a ciphertext only attack, an attacker obtains encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm.

NEW QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollar ($) that is assigned to a single event. The SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value
($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE). The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of
Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence
(ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring
and the number of employees that could make that event occur.

NEW QUESTION 8
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and
authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.

Answer: AC

Explanation:
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and
authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include
FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an
information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and
producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a
senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or
reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls.

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NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following governance bodies directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program?

A. Chief Information Security Officer

B. Information Security Steering Committee
C. Business Unit Manager
D. Senior Management

Answer: A

Explanation:
Chief Information Security Officer directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program. The governance roles and responsibilities are
mentioned below in the table:

NEW QUESTION 10
What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?

A. Project Management Information System

B. Integrated Change Control
C. Configuration Management System
D. Scope Verification

Answer: C

Explanation:
The change management system is comprised of several components that guide the change request through the process. When a change request is made that
will affect the project scope. The Configuration Management System evaluates the change request and documents the features and functions of the change on the
project scope.

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following phases of DITSCAP includes the activities that are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing
environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle?

A. Phase 3, Validation
B. Phase 1, Definition
C. Phase 2, Verification
D. Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase

Answer: D

Explanation:
Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase of the DITSCAP includes the activities, which are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its
computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle. Answer B is incorrect. Phase 1, Definition, focuses on
understanding the mission, the environment, and the architecture in order to determine the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve
accreditation. Answer C is incorrect. Phase 2, Verification, verifies the evolving or modified system's compliance with the information agreed on in the System
Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA). Answer A is incorrect. Phase 3 validates the compliance of a fully integrated system with the information stated in the
SSAA.

NEW QUESTION 12
An asset with a value of $600,000 is subject to a successful malicious attack threat twice a year. The asset has an exposure of 30 percent to the threat. What will
be the annualized
loss expectancy?

A. $360,000
B. $180,000
C. $280,000
D. $540,000

Answer: A

Explanation:
The annualized loss expectancy will be $360,000. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The
annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as
follows:
ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Here, it is as follows:

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SLE = Asset value * EF (Exposure factor)

= 600,000 * (30/100)
= 600,000 * 0.30
= 180,000
ALE = SLE * ARO
= 180,000 * 2
= 360,000
Answer C, B, and D are incorrect. These are not valid answers.

NEW QUESTION 16
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that conceives the risks even if all theoretically
possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants to know that what is a
residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?

A. It is a risk that remains because no risk response is taken.

B. It is a risk that can not be addressed by a risk response.
C. It is a risk that will remain no matter what type of risk response is offered.
D. It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an
event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to
calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about
residual risks. Answer C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks.

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Administrative
D. Automatic

Answer: ABC

Explanation:
Security guards, locks on the gates, and alarms come under physical access control. Policies and procedures implemented by an organization come under
administrative access control. IDS systems, encryption, network segmentation, and antivirus controls come under technical access control. Answer D is incorrect.
There is no such type of access control as automatic control.

NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable
consequences associated with a break in business continuity?

A. RTO
B. RTA
C. RPO
D. RCO

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the duration of time and a service
level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster or disruption in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity. It includes the time for trying to fix the problem without a recovery, the recovery itself, tests and the communication to the users. Decision time
for user representative is not included. The business continuity timeline usually runs parallel with an incident management timeline and may start at the same, or
different, points. In accepted business continuity planning methodology, the RTO is established during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) by the owner of a
process (usually in conjunction with the Business Continuity planner). The RTOs are then presented to senior management for acceptance. The RTO attaches to
the business process and not the resources required to support the process. Answer B is incorrect. The Recovery Time Actual (RTA) is established during an
exercise, actual event, or predetermined based on recovery methodology the technology support team develops. This is the time frame the technology support
takes to deliver the recovered infrastructure to the business. Answer D is incorrect. The Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO) is used in Business Continuity
Planning in addition to Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO). It applies data consistency objectives to Continuous Data Protection
services. Answer C is incorrect. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in time to
which data must be recovered as defined by the organization. The RPO is generally a definition of what an organization determines is an "acceptable loss" in a
disaster situation. If the RPO of a company is 2 hours and the time it takes to get the data back into production is 5 hours, the RPO is still 2 hours. Based on this
RPO the data must be restored to within 2 hours of the disaster.

NEW QUESTION 29
In which of the following alternative processing sites is the backup facility maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and
communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility?

A. Cold Site
B. Hot Site
C. Warm Site
D. Mobile Site

Answer: B

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Explanation:
A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. It provides the backup
facility, which is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers,
workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility.
A hot site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. A hot site is located off site and provides the best protection. It is an exact replica of
the current data center. In case a disaster struck to the data center, administrators just need to take the backup of recent data in hot site and the data center is
back online in a very short time. It is very expensive to create and maintain the hot site. There are lots of third party companies that provide disaster recovery
solutions by maintaining hot sites at their end. Answer A is incorrect. A cold site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. This is the least
expensive disaster recovery solution, usually having only a single room with no equipment. All equipment is brought to the site after the disaster. It can be on site
or off site. Answer D is incorrect. Mobile sites are self-reliant, portable shells custom-fitted with definite telecommunications and IT equipment essential to meet
system requirements. These are presented for lease through commercial vendors. Answer C is incorrect. A warm site is, quite logically, a compromise between hot
and cold sites. Warm sites will have hardware and connectivity already established, though on a smaller scale than the original production site or even a hot site.
These sites will have backups on hand, but they may not be complete and may be between several days and a week old. An example would be backup tapes sent
to the warm site by courier.

NEW QUESTION 34
You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You
feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is
repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased?

A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Risk identification
C. Risk response implementation
D. Qualitative risk analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
The quantitative risk analysis process is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased. Answer D
is incorrect. Qualitative risk analysis is not repeated after the plan risk response process. Answer B is incorrect. Risk identification is an ongoing process that
happens throughout the project. Answer C is incorrect. Risk response implementation is not a project management process.

NEW QUESTION 38
The IAM/CA makes certification accreditation recommendations to the DAA. The DAA issues accreditation determinations. Which of the following are the
accreditation determinations issued by the DAA? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. IATT
B. IATO
C. DATO
D. ATO
E. ATT

Answer: ABCD

Explanation:
The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process,
store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of
the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation
status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an
inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.

NEW QUESTION 43
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of
the following statements are true about ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
B. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system change
E. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
An Information System Security Officer (ISSO) plays the role of a supporter. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Officer (ISSO) are as follows:
Manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A). Insures the information systems configuration with the
agency's information security policy. Supports the information system owner/information owner for the completion of security-related responsibilities. Takes part in
the formal configuration management process. Prepares Certification & Accreditation (C&A) packages. An Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) plays the
role of an advisor. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Engineer are as follows:
Provides view on the continuous monitoring of the information system. Provides advice on the impacts of system changes. Takes part in the configuration
management process. Takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
Follows approved system changes.

NEW QUESTION 46
DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following
MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability?

A. MAC III
B. MAC IV

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C. MAC I
D. MAC II

Answer: D

Explanation:
The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high
integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.

NEW QUESTION 51
Which of the following software review processes increases the software security by removing the common vulnerabilities, such as format string exploits, race
conditions, memory leaks, and buffer overflows?

A. Management review
B. Code review
C. Peer review
D. Software audit review

Answer: B

Explanation:
A code review is a systematic examination of computer source code, which searches and resolves issues occurred in the initial development phase. It increases
the software security by removing common vulnerabilities, such as format string exploits, race conditions, memory leaks, and buffer overflows. A code review is
performed in the following forms: Pair programming Informal walkthrough Formal inspection Answer C is incorrect. A peer review is an examination process in
which author and one or more colleagues examine a work product, such as document, code, etc., and evaluate technical content and quality. According to the
Capability Maturity Model, peer review offers a systematic engineering practice in order to detect and resolve issues occurring in the software artifacts, and stops
the leakage into field operations. Answer A is incorrect. Management review is a management study into a project's status and allocation of resources. Answer D is
incorrect. In software audit review one or more auditors, who are not members of the software development organization, perform an independent examination of a
software product, software process, or a set of software processes for assessing compliance with specifications, standards, contractual agreements, or other
specifications.

NEW QUESTION 53
Which of the following is a variant with regard to Configuration Management?

A. A CI that has the same name as another CI but shares no relationship.

B. A CI that particularly refers to a software version.
C. A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner.
D. A CI that particularly refers to a hardware specification.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner, and therefore, might be required to be analyzed along with its
generic group. A Configuration item (CI) is an IT asset or a combination of IT assets that may depend and have relationships with other IT processes. A CI will
have attributes which may be hierarchical and relationships that will be assigned by the configuration manager in the CM database. The Configuration Item (CI)
attributes are as follows:
* 1.Technical: It is data that describes the CI's capabilities which include software version and model numbers, hardware and manufacturer specifications, and
other technical details like networking speeds, and data storage size. Keyboards, mice and cables are considered consumables.
* 2.Ownership: It is part of financial asset management, ownership attributes, warranty, location, and responsible person for the CI.
* 3.Relationship: It is the relationship among hardware items, software, and users. Answer B, D, and A are incorrect. These are incorrect definitions of a variant
with regard to Configuration Management.

NEW QUESTION 58
Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user's authentication credentials be verified by the database before
providing access to that user's data?

A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout

Answer: C

Explanation:
Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user's authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that
user's datAnswer D is incorrect. Account lockout implements a limit on the incorrect password attempts to protect an account from automated password-guessing
attacks. Answer B is incorrect. Authenticated session allows a user to access more than one access-restricted Web page without re-authenticating every page. It
also integrates user authentication into the basic session model. Answer A is incorrect. Secure assertion distributes application-specific sanity checks throughout
the system.

NEW QUESTION 59
Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that a subject can take from another subject?

A. Take-Grant Protection Model

B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix

Answer: A

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Explanation:
The take-grant protection model is a formal model used in the field of computer security to establish or disprove the safety of a given computer system that follows
specific rules. It shows that for specific systems the question of safety is decidable in linear time, which is in general undecidable. The model represents a system
as directed graph, where vertices are either subjects or objects. The edges between them are labeled and the label indicates the rights that the source of the edge
has over the destination. Two rights occur in every instance of the model: take and grant. They play a special role in the graph rewriting rules describing admissible
changes of the graph. Answer D is incorrect. The access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to subjects for objects. Answer C is
incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model deals only with the confidentiality of classified material. It does not address integrity or availability. Answer B is incorrect. The
integrity model was developed as an analog to the Bell-LaPadula confidentiality model and then became more sophisticated to address additional integrity
requirements.

NEW QUESTION 61
Which of the following attacks causes software to fail and prevents the intended users from accessing software?

A. Enabling attack
B. Reconnaissance attack
C. Sabotage attack
D. Disclosure attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
A sabotage attack is an attack that causes software to fail. It also prevents the intended users from accessing software. A sabotage attack is referred to as a
denial of service (DoS) or compromise of availability. Answer B is incorrect. The reconnaissance attack enables an attacker to collect information about software
and operating environment. Answer D is incorrect. The disclosure attack exposes the revealed data to an attacker. Answer A is incorrect. The enabling attack
delivers an easy path for other attacks.

NEW QUESTION 64
You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company's network, you are facing problems
in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?

A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when
material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously
rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using
procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an
action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible
safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk
is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means "the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder". Answer D is incorrect. Inherent risk,
in auditing, is the risk that the account or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment
of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer B
is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the
original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.

NEW QUESTION 66
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA
controls. Which of the following are among the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management

B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment

Answer: ACD

Explanation:
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA
controls. Following are the various U.S. Department of Defense information security standards: DC Security Design & Configuration IA Identification and
Authentication EC Enclave and Computing Environment EB Enclave Boundary Defense PE Physical and Environmental PR Personnel CO Continuity VI
Vulnerability and Incident Management Answer B is incorrect. Business continuity management is an International information security standard.

NEW QUESTION 67
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?

A. Trademark
B. Copyright
C. Trade secret
D. Patent

Answer: A

Explanation:
A trademark is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified. Its uniqueness makes the product noticeable among the same type of products. For

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example, Pentium and Athlon are brand names of the CPUs that are manufactured by Intel and AMD, respectively. The trademark law protects a company's
trademark by making it illegal for other companies to use it without taking prior permission of the trademark owner. A trademark is registered so that others cannot
use identical or similar marks. Answer C is incorrect. A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which
is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to
as confidential information or classified information. Answer B is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive
right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie,
musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover
ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer D is incorrect. A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted to
anyone who invents any new and useful machine, process, composition of matter, etc. A patent enables the inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others
from using his invention.

NEW QUESTION 71
You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will you use as a guide for the security certification and accreditation of
Federal Information Systems?

A. NIST Special Publication 800-60

B. NIST Special Publication 800-53
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37
D. NIST Special Publication 800-59

Answer: C

Explanation:
NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37:
This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems.
NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A.
This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication
800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a
guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.

NEW QUESTION 76
Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the
network?

A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving

Answer: A

Explanation:
The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about
these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets
that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer D is incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is used for
searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most commonly used
technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.

NEW QUESTION 79
You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that
the project may not complete on time, as required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You have elected to
hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event. What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?

A. Transference
B. Exploiting
C. Avoidance
D. Sharing

Answer: A

Explanation:
This is an example of transference as you have transferred the risk to a third party. Transference almost always is done with a negative risk event and it usually
requires a contractual relationship.

NEW QUESTION 81
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could
exploit. Which of the following areas can be exploited in a penetration test? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Kernel flaws
B. Information system architectures
C. Race conditions
D. File and directory permissions
E. Buffer overflows
F. Trojan horses
G. Social engineering

Answer: ACDEFG

Explanation:

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Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could
exploit. Following are the areas that can be exploited in a penetration test: Kernel flaws: Kernel flaws refer to the exploitation of kernel code flaws in the operating
system. Buffer overflows: Buffer overflows refer to the exploitation of a software failure to properly check for the length of input data. This overflow can cause
malicious behavior on the system. Race conditions: A race condition is a situation in which an attacker can gain access to a system as a privileged user. File and
directory permissions: In this area, an attacker exploits weak permissions restrictions to gain unauthorized access of documents. Trojan horses: These are
malicious programs that can exploit an information system by attaching themselves in valid programs and files. Social engineering: In this technique, an attacker
uses his social skills and persuasion to acquire valuable information that can be used to conduct an attack against a system.

NEW QUESTION 82
Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. File and object access

B. Data downloading from the Internet
C. Printer access
D. Network logons and logoffs

Answer: ACD

Explanation:
The following types of activities can be audited: Network logons and logoffs File access Printer access Remote access service Application usage Network
services Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown, etc. This enhances the security of the network.
Before enabling security auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the audit policy. Auditing is an essential component to maintain the security
of deployed systems. Security auditing depends on the criticality of the environment and on the company's security policy. The security system should be reviewed
periodically. Answer B is incorrect. Data downloading from the Internet cannot be audited.

NEW QUESTION 87
The Project Risk Management knowledge area focuses on which of the following processes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that
apply.

A. Risk Monitoring and Control

B. Risk Management Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Potential Risk Monitoring

Answer: ABC

Explanation:
The Project Risk Management knowledge area focuses on the following processes: Risk Management Planning Risk Identification Qualitative Risk Analysis
Quantitative Risk Analysis Risk Response Planning Risk Monitoring and Control Answer D is incorrect. There is no such process in the Project Risk Management
knowledge area.

NEW QUESTION 89
The DoD 8500 policy series represents the Department's information assurance strategy. Which of the following objectives are defined by the DoD 8500 series?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Defending systems
B. Providing IA Certification and Accreditation
C. Providing command and control and situational awareness
D. Protecting information

Answer: ACD

Explanation:
The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational
awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD's workforce

NEW QUESTION 90
Which of the following activities are performed by the 'Do' cycle component of PDCA (plan- do-check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.

B. It determines controls and their objectives.
C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.
D. It performs security awareness training.
E. It operates the selected controls.

Answer: ACDE

Explanation:
The 'Do' cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs security
awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the 'Plan' cycle component of
PDCA.

NEW QUESTION 94
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit
objectives defined below: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.

A. Evaluation and acceptance

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B. Programming and training

C. Definition
D. Initiation

Answer: A

Explanation:
It is the evaluation and acceptance phase of the SDLC, which meets the following audit objectives: System and data are validated. System meets all user
requirements. System meets all control requirements Answer D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the
system is documented. Answer C is incorrect. During the definition phase, users' needs are defined and the needs are translated into requirements statements that
incorporate appropriate controls. Answer B is incorrect. During the programming and training phase, the software and other components of the system are faithfully
incorporated into the design specifications. Proper documentation and training are provided in this phase.

NEW QUESTION 95
The build environment of secure coding consists of some tools that actively support secure specification, design, and implementation. Which of the following
features do these tools have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses.

B. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that have occurred by insecure software behavior.
C. They decrease the attack surface.
D. They employ software security constraints, protections, and service
E. They decrease the level of type checking and program analysis.

Answer: ABCD

Explanation:
The tools that produce secure software have the following features: They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses. They decrease the attack surface. They
employ software security constraints, protections, and services. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that are caused by the behavior of
insecure software. Answer E is incorrect. This feature is not required for these tools.

NEW QUESTION 100

Which of the following is an open source network intrusion detection system?

A. NETSH
B. Macof
C. Sourcefire
D. Snort

Answer: D

Explanation:
Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with
the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User
Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows:
Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk.
Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-
defined rule set. Answer B is incorrect. Macof is a tool of the dsniff tool set and used to flood the local network with random MAC addresses. It causes some
switches to fail open in repeating mode, and facilitates sniffing. Answer C is incorrect. Sourcefire is the company that owns and maintains Snort. Answer A is
incorrect. NETSH is not a network intrusion detection system. NETSH is a command line tool to configure TCP/IP settings such as the IP address, Subnet Mask,
Default Gateway, DNS, WINS addresses, etc.

NEW QUESTION 104

You are advising a school district on disaster recovery plans. In case a disaster affects the main IT centers for the district they will need to be able to work from an
alternate location. However, budget is an issue. Which of the following is most appropriate for this client?

A. Cold site
B. Off site
C. Warm site
D. Hot site

Answer: A

Explanation:
A cold site provides an office space, and in some cases basic equipment. However, you will need to restore your data to that equipment in order to use it. This is a
much less expensive solution than the hot site. Answer D is incorrect. A hot site has equipment installed, configured and ready to use. This may make disaster
recovery much faster, but will also be more expensive. And a school district can afford to be down for several hours before resuming IT operations, so the less
expensive option is more
appropriate. Answer C is incorrect. A warm site is between a hot and cold site. It has some equipment ready and connectivity ready. However, it is still significantly
more expensive than a cold site, and not necessary for this scenario. Answer B is incorrect. Off site is not any type of backup site terminology.

NEW QUESTION 109

Fill in the blank with the appropriate security mechanism. is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct which handles the occurrence of
exceptional events.

A. Exception handling

Answer: A

Explanation:

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Exception handling is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct that handles the occurrence of events. These events occur during the
software execution process and interrupt the instruction flow. Exception handling performs the specific activities for managing the exceptional events.

NEW QUESTION 110

Which of the following security issues does the Bell-La Padula model focus on?

A. Authorization
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Bell-La Padula model is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in large organizations. It focuses on data confidentiality and access to
classified information, in contrast to the Biba Integrity model, which describes rules for the protection of data integrity. In the Bell-La Padula model, the entities in
an information system are divided into subjects and objects. The Bell-La Padula model is built on the concept of a state machine with a set of allowable states in a
computer network system. The transition from one state to another state is defined by transition functions. The model defines two mandatory access control (MAC)
rules and one discretionary access control (DAC) rule with three security properties: 1.The Simple Security Property: A subject at a given security level may not
read an object at a higher security level (no read-up). 2.The *- property (star-property): A subject at a given security level must not write to any object at a lower
security level (no write-down). The *-property is also known as the Confinement property. 3.The Discretionary Security Property: It uses an access matrix to specify
the discretionary access control.

NEW QUESTION 115

Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing
information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. AU audit and accountability

B. Human resources security
C. Organization of information security
D. Risk assessment and treatment

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
Following are the various international information security standards: Risk assessment and treatment: Analysis of the organization's information security risks
Security policy: Management direction Organization of information security: Governance of information security Asset management: Inventory and classification of
information assets Human resources security: Security aspects for employees joining, moving, and leaving an organization Physical and environmental security:
Protection of the computer facilities Communications and operations management: Management of technical security controls in systems and networks Access
control: Restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance:
Building security into applications Information security incident management: Anticipating and responding appropriately to information security breaches Business
continuity management: Protecting, maintaining, and recovering business-critical processes and systems Compliance: Ensuring conformance with information
security policies, standards, laws, and regulations Answer A is incorrect. AU audit and accountability is a U.S. Federal Government information security standard.

NEW QUESTION 117

Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security?

A. Classic information security model

B. Five Pillars model
C. Certification and Accreditation (C&A)
D. Information Assurance (IA)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and
authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include
FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an
information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and
producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a
senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or
reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer D is incorrect. Information Assurance
(IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for
those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form.
Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computer security.
Answer A is incorrect. The classic information security model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. The classic
information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to
remember, and when properly understood, can prompt systems designers and users to address the most pressing aspects of assurance. Answer B is incorrect.
The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of
Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction
CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: "Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability,
integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection,
detection, and reaction capabilities." The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or
systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.

NEW QUESTION 120

The Software Configuration Management (SCM) process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the

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planned enhancements that are supposed to be included in the release. What are the procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a
sound SCM process is implemented? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Configuration status accounting

B. Configuration change control
C. Configuration identification
D. Configuration audits
E. Configuration implementation
F. Configuration deployment

Answer: ABCD

Explanation:
The SCM process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the planned enhancements that are
supposed to be included in the release. It identifies four procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a sound SCM process is
implemented. They are as follows:
* 1.Configuration identification: Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A
configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and
baselined. * 2.Configuration change control: Configuration change control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's
attributes and to re-baseline them.
* 3.Configuration status accounting: Configuration status accounting is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each
configuration item at any moment of time.
* 4.Configuration audits: Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of
effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical
configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.

NEW QUESTION 125

Which of the following plans is designed to protect critical business processes from natural or man-made failures or disasters and the resultant loss of capital due
to the unavailability of normal business processes?

A. Contingency plan
B. Business continuity plan
C. Crisis communication plan
D. Disaster recovery plan

Answer: B

Explanation:
The business continuity plan is designed to protect critical business processes from natural or man-made failures or disasters and the resultant loss of capital due
to the unavailability of normal business processes. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an
organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended
disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer C is incorrect. The crisis communication plan can be broadly defined as the plan for the
exchange of information before, during, or after a crisis event. It is considered as a sub-specialty of the public relations profession that is designed to protect and
defend an individual, company, or organization facing a public challenge to its reputation. The aim of crisis communication plan is to assist organizations to achieve
continuity of critical business processes and information flows under crisis, disaster or event driven circumstances. Answer A is incorrect. A contingency plan is a
plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for
anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular
problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments,
businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer D is incorrect. A disaster recovery plan
should contain data, hardware, and software that can be critical for a business. It should also include the plan for sudden loss such as hard disc crash. The
business should use backup and data recovery utilities to limit the loss of data.

NEW QUESTION 129

Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively
cover the affected changes?

A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Acceptance testing
D. Regression testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that
have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions
occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression
testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes.
Answer A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes
the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed
before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are
programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its
implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which
it was made. Answer B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design.
Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface
issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components
(modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the
software works as a system.

NEW QUESTION 132

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Which of the following scanning techniques helps to ensure that the standard software configuration is currently with the latest security patches and software, and
helps to locate uncontrolled or unauthorized software?

A. Port Scanning
B. Discovery Scanning
C. Server Scanning
D. Workstation Scanning

Answer: D

Explanation:
Workstation scanning provides help to ensure that the standard software configuration exists with the most recent security patches and software. It helps to locate
uncontrolled or unauthorized software. A full workstation vulnerability scan of the standard corporate desktop configuration must be implemented on a regularly
basis. Answer B is incorrect. The discovery scanning technique is used to gather adequate information regarding each network device to identify what type of
device it is, its operating system, and if it is running any externally vulnerable services, like Web services, FTP, or email.
Answer C is incorrect. A full server vulnerability scan helps to determine if the server OS has been configured to the corporate standards and identify if applications
have been updated with the latest security patches and software versions. Answer A is incorrect. Port scanning technique describes the process of sending a data
packet to a port to gather information about the state of the port.

NEW QUESTION 136

Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the
software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to
test the software?

A. Perform integration testing

B. Perform regression testing
C. Perform unit testing
D. Perform acceptance testing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit
testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no
existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before its
implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which
it was made. Answer A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more
units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the
interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down
approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer B is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application
is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to
determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit
testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

NEW QUESTION 139

What are the subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Conduct validation activities.

B. Execute and update IA implementation plan.
C. Combine validation results in DIACAP scorecard.
D. Conduct activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects.

Answer: ABC

Explanation:
The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of
Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the DIACAP process are as follows: Execute
and update IA implementation plan. Conduct validation activities. Combine validation results in the DIACAP scorecard. Answer D is incorrect. The activities related
to the disposition of the system data and objects are conducted in the fifth phase of the DIACAP process. The fifth phase of the DIACAP process is known as
Decommission System.

NEW QUESTION 144

Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through applications?

A. Biba model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba-Clark model

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Clark-Wilson security model dictates that subjects can only access objects through applications. Answer A is incorrect. The Biba model does not let subjects
write to objects at a higher integrity level. Answer B is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model has a simple security rule, which means a subject cannot read data from
a higher level. Answer D is incorrect. There is no such model as Biba-Clark model.

NEW QUESTION 148

Which of the following access control models uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of a system?

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A. Role-Based Access Control

B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Policy Access Control
D. Mandatory Access Control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the
basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives
a copy of an object that is marked as "secret", he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer B
is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the datAnswer A is incorrect. Role-based
access control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup
administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users
with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer B is incorrect. There is no such access
control model as Policy Access Control.

NEW QUESTION 151

The Web resource collection is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. Which of the following elements does it include?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. HTTP methods
B. Role names
C. Transport guarantees
D. URL patterns

Answer: AD

Explanation:
Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element
summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer B is
incorrect. An authorization constraint includes role names. Answer B is incorrect. A user data constraint includes transport guarantees.

NEW QUESTION 152

Which of the following authentication methods is used to access public areas of a Web site?

A. Anonymous authentication
B. Biometrics authentication
C. Mutual authentication
D. Multi-factor authentication

Answer: A

Explanation:
Anonymous authentication is an authentication method used for Internet communication. It provides limited access to specific public folders and directory
information or public areas of a Web site. It is supported by all clients and is used to access unsecured content in public folders. An administrator must create a
user account in IIS to enable the user to connect anonymously. Answer D is incorrect. Multi-factor authentication involves a combination of multiple methods of
authentication. For example, an authentication method that uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords can be referred to as multi-factor
authentication. Answer B is incorrect. Mutual authentication is a process in which a client process and server are required to prove their identities to each other
before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be verified through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of
Kerberos v5.
The MS-CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. Answer B is incorrect. Biometrics authentication uses physical
characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user.

NEW QUESTION 155

Which of the following is the process of finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms and obtaining the plaintext or key from the ciphertext?

A. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography
C. Kerberos
D. Cryptanalysis

Answer: D

Explanation:
Cryptanalysis is the process of analyzing cipher text and finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms. These weaknesses can be used to decipher the cipher
text without knowing the secret key. Answer B is incorrect. Kerberos is an industry standard authentication protocol used to verify user or host identity. Kerberos v5
authentication protocol is the default authentication service for Windows 2000. It is integrated into the administrative and security model, and provides secure
communication between Windows 2000 Server domains and clients. Answer A is incorrect. A cryptographer is a person who is involved in cryptography.
Answer B is incorrect. Cryptography is a branch of computer science and mathematics. It is used for protecting information by encoding it into an unreadable
format known as cipher text.

NEW QUESTION 156

Which of the following are the levels of public or commercial data classification system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that
apply.

A. Sensitive
B. Private
C. Unclassified

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D. Confidential
E. Secret
F. Public

Answer: ABDF

Explanation:
The public or commercial data classification is also built upon a four-level model, which are as follows: Public Sensitive Private Confidential Each level (top to
bottom) represents an increasing level of sensitivity. The public level is similar to unclassified level military classification system. This level of data should not cause
any damage if disclosed. Sensitive is a higher level of classification than public level data. This level of data requires a greater level of protection to maintain
confidentiality. The Private level of data is intended for company use only. Disclosure of this level of data can damage the company. The Confidential level of data
is considered very sensitive and is intended for internal use only. Disclosure of this level of data can cause serious damage to the company. Answer C and E are
incorrect. Unclassified and secret are the levels of military data classification.

NEW QUESTION 158

You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows based network. It is required to determine compatibility of the systems with
custom applications. Which of the following techniques will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Safe software storage

B. Antivirus management
C. Backup control
D. Software testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the software testing technique. By using this technique you can determine compatibility of systems with custom
applications or you can identify other unforeseen interactions. You can also use the software testing technique while you are upgrading software. Answer B is
incorrect. You can use the antivirus management to save the systems from viruses, unexpected software interactions, and the subversion of security controls.
Answer A is incorrect. You can use the safe software storage technique to ensure that the software and backup copies have not been modified without
authorization. Answer B is incorrect. You can use the backup control to perform back up of software and data.

NEW QUESTION 159

System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization
Process. What are the different phases of System Authorization Plan? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Post-certification
B. Post-Authorization
C. Authorization
D. Pre-certification
E. Certification

Answer: BCDE

Explanation:
The creation of System Authorization Plan (SAP) is mandated by System Authorization. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a comprehensive and uniform
approach to the System Authorization Process. It consists of four phases: Phase 1 - Pre-certification Phase 2 - Certification Phase 3 - Authorization Phase 4 - Post-
Authorization

NEW QUESTION 162

Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?

A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA

Answer: C

Explanation:
Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for
assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being
considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria
international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the
DoD Rainbow Series publications. Answer D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United
States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology
Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP
and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD 8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional
details. Answer A is incorrect. FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security
of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main
advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National
Institute of Standards and Technology (NIsT). Answer B is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards
developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are
modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For
instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3)
and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing
System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area
(such as a county) affected by the emergency.

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NEW QUESTION 163

Which of the following phases of the DITSCAP C&A process is used to define the C&A level of effort, to identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and to
create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements?

A. Phase 1
B. Phase 4
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Phase 1 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles
and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer B is incorrect. The Phase 2 of the DITSCAP C&A
process is known as Verification. Answer D is incorrect. The Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Validation. Answer B is incorrect. The Phase 4 of
the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Post Accreditation.

NEW QUESTION 166

Which of the following policies can explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in
different situations?

A. Informative
B. Advisory
C. Selective
D. Regulatory

Answer: A

Explanation:
An informative policy informs employees about certain topics. It is not an enforceable policy, but rather one to teach individuals about specific issues relevant to
the company. The informative policy can explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in
different situations. Answer D is incorrect. A regulatory policy ensures that an organization follows the standards set by specific industry regulations. This type of
policy is very detailed and specific to a type of industry. The regulatory policy is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, public utilities, and other
government-regulated industries, e.g., TRAI. Answer B is incorrect. An advisory policy strongly advises employees regarding which types of behaviors and
activities should and should not take place within the organization. It also outlines possible ramifications if employees do not comply with the established behaviors
and activities. The advisory policy can be used to describe how to handle medical information, handle financial transactions, and process confidential information.
Answer B is incorrect. It is not a valid type of policy.

NEW QUESTION 170

Which of the following is an example of penetration testing?

A. Implementing NIDS on a network

B. Implementing HIDS on a computer
C. Simulating an actual attack on a network
D. Configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic

Answer: C

Explanation:
Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source, known as a Black Hat
Hacker, or Cracker. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system
configuration, known and/or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out
from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the
system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration testing is to
determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer A, B,
and D are incorrect. Implementing NIDS and HIDS and configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic are not examples of penetration testing.

NEW QUESTION 175

Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often
the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?

A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.

B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
C. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
D. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting. Answer A is incorrect. Milestones are good times to
do reviews, but risk management should happen frequently. Answer B is incorrect. This answer would only be correct if the project has a status meeting just once
per month in the project. Answer B is incorrect. Risk management happens throughout the project as does project planning.

NEW QUESTION 180

Which of the following tiers addresses risks from an information system perspective?

A. Tier 0
B. Tier 3
C. Tier 2

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D. Tier 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The information system level is the tier 3. It addresses risks from an information system perspective, and is guided by the risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2. Risk
decisions at tiers 1 and 2 impact the ultimate selection and deployment of requisite safeguards. This also has an impact on the countermeasures at the information
system level. The RMF primarily operates at tier3 but it can also have interactions at tiers 1 and 2. Answer A is incorrect. It is an invalid Tier description. Answer D
is incorrect. The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. Answer B is incorrect. The mission and business
process level is the Tier 2, and it addresses risks from the mission and business process perspective.

NEW QUESTION 182

Digital rights management (DRM) consists of compliance and robustness rules. Which of the following features does the robustness rule have? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security.
B. It specifies minimum techniques for asset security.
C. It specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and applications accessing the implementation.
D. It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling data.

Answer: ABD

Explanation:
The DRM (digital rights management) technology includes the following rules: 1.Compliance rule: This rule specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation,
and applications that are accessing the implementation. The compliance rule specifies the following elements: Definition of specific license rights Device
requirements Revocation of license path or penalties when the implementation is not robust enough or noncompliant 2.Robustness rule: This rule has the following
features: It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security. It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling
data. It specifies minimum techniques for asset security.

NEW QUESTION 187

Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?

A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

B. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
C. Safeguard
D. Exposure Factor (EF)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon
the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Answer D is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents
the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE).
Answer A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF)
Answer B is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.

NEW QUESTION 188

Which of the following persons in an organization is responsible for rejecting or accepting the residual risk for a system?

A. Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)

B. Designated Approving Authority (DAA)
C. System Owner
D. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The authorizing official is the senior manager responsible for approving the working of the information system. He is responsible for the risks of operating the
information system within a known environment through the security accreditation phase. In many organizations, the authorizing official is also referred as
approving/accrediting authority (DAA) or the Principal Approving Authority (PAA). Answer B is incorrect. The system owner has the responsibility of informing the
key officials within the organization of the requirements for a security C&A of the information system. He makes the resources available, and provides the relevant
documents to support the process. Answer A is incorrect. An Information System Security Officer (ISSO) plays the role of a supporter. The responsibilities of an
Information System Security Officer (ISSO) are as follows: Manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
Insures the information systems configuration with the agency's information security policy. Supports the information system owner/information owner for the
completion of security- related responsibilities. Takes part in the formal configuration management process. Prepares Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
packages. Answer D is incorrect. The CISO has the responsibility of carrying out the CIO's FISMA responsibilities. He manages the information security program
functions.

NEW QUESTION 189

Which of the following are the principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power- on-self-test)? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. It provides a user interface for system's configuration.

B. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices.
C. It delegates control to other BIOS, if it is required.
D. It discovers size and verifies system memory.
E. It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself.
F. It interrupts the execution of all running programs.

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Answer: ABCDE

Explanation:
The principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on-self- test) are as follows: It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself. It discovers size and
verifies system memory. It discovers, initializes, and catalogs all system hardware. It delegates control to other BIOS if it is required. It provides a user interface for
system's configuration. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices. It executes the bootstrap program. Answer F is incorrect. The BIOS does not interrupt the
execution of all running programs.

NEW QUESTION 192

Which of the following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose three.

A. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change.
B. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data.
C. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to a custodian.
D. Determining what level of classification the information requires.

Answer: ACD

Explanation:
The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the
information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the
responsibility of the data protection duties to a custodian. An information owner can be an executive or a manager of an organization. He will be responsible for the
asset of information that must be protected. Answer B is incorrect. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data is the responsibility
of a custodian.

NEW QUESTION 193

Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. A is defined as any activity that has an effect on defining, designing, building, or executing a task, requirement, or
procedure.

A. technical effort

Answer: A

Explanation:
A technical effort is described as any activity, which has an effect on defining, designing, building, or implementing a task, requirement, or procedure. The
technical effort is an element of technical management that is required to progress efficiently and effectively from a business need to the deployment and operation
of the system.

NEW QUESTION 194

Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation
package?

A. Security Accreditation
B. Initiation
C. Continuous Monitoring
D. Security Certification

Answer: A

Explanation:
The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It
performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and
documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security
accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and
status reporting and documentation.

NEW QUESTION 197

Which of the following processes identifies the threats that can impact the business continuity of operations?

A. Function analysis
B. Risk analysis
C. Business impact analysis
D. Requirement analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a crisis management and business impact analysis technique that identifies those threats that can impact the business
continuity of operations. Such threats can be either natural or man-made. The BIA team should have a clear understanding of the organization, key business
processes, and IT resources for assessing the risks associated with continuity. In the BIA team, there should be senior management, IT personnel, and end users
to identify all resources that are to be used during normal operations. Answer B is incorrect. Risk analysis is the science of risks and their probability and
evaluation in a business or a process. It is an important factor in security enhancement and prevention in a system. Risk analysis should be performed as part of
the risk management process for each project. The outcome of the risk analysis would be the creation or review of the risk register to identify and quantify risk
elements to the project and their potential impact. Answer A is incorrect. The functional analysis process is used for converting system requirements into a
comprehensive function standard. Verification is the result of the functional analysis process, in which the fundamentals of a system level functional architecture
are defined adequately to allow for synthesis in the design phase. The functional analysis breaks down the higher-level functions into the lower level functions.
Answer D is incorrect. Requirements analysis encompasses the tasks that go into determining the needs or conditions to meet for a new or altered product, taking

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account of the possibly conflicting requirements of the various stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION 200

You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project using configuration management and has completed 70% of
it. You need to ensure that the network infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this
project are installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you employ to
accomplish the task?

A. Configuration identification
B. Configuration control
C. Functional configuration audit
D. Physical configuration audit

Answer: D

Explanation:
Physical Configuration Audit (PCA) is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. The purpose of the
software PCA is to ensure that the design and reference documentation is consistent with the as-built software product. PCA checks and matches the really
implemented layout with the documented layout. Answer B is incorrect. Functional Configuration Audit or FCA is one of the practices used in Software
Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. FCA occurs either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A Functional Configuration
Audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved. Answer B is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the
Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline
them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the
identified attributes. Answer A is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A
configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and
baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.

NEW QUESTION 202

Which of the following ISO standards is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques - Information security management - Measurement"?

A. ISO 27003
B. ISO 27005
C. ISO 27004
D. ISO 27006

Answer: C

Explanation:
ISO 27004 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical
Commission (IEC). It is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques - Information security management - Measurement". The ISO 27004 standard
provides guidelines on specifications and use of measurement techniques for the assessment of the effectiveness of an implemented information security
management system and controls. It also helps an organization in establishing the effectiveness of ISMS implementation, embracing benchmarking, and
performance targeting within the PDCA (plan-do-check-act) cycle. Answer A is incorrect. ISO 27003 is entitled as "Information Technology - Security techniques -
Information security management system implementation guidance". Answer B is incorrect. ISO 27005 is entitled as "ISO/IEC 27005:2008 Information technology
-- Security techniques -- Information security risk management". Answer D is incorrect. ISO 27006 is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques -
Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems".

NEW QUESTION 206

Fill in the blank with an appropriate security type. applies the internal security policies of the software applications when they are deployed.

A. Programmatic security

Answer: A

Explanation:
Programmatic security applies the internal security policies of the software applications when they are deployed. In this type of security, the code of the software
application controls the security behavior, and authentication decisions are made based on the business logic, such as the user role or the task performed by the
user in a specific security context.

NEW QUESTION 209

Henry is the project manager of the QBG Project for his company. This project has a budget of $4,576,900 and is expected to last 18 months to complete. The
CIO, a stakeholder in the project, has introduced a scope change request for additional deliverables as part of the project work. What component of the change
control system would review the proposed changes' impact on the features and functions of the project's product?

A. Configuration management system

B. Scope change control system
C. Cost change control system
D. Integrated change control

Answer: A

Explanation:
The configuration management system ensures that proposed changes to the project's scope are reviewed and evaluated for their affect on the project's product.
Configuration Management System is a subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures used to identify
and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or component of the project. It also controls any changes to such
characteristics, and records and reports each change and its implementation status. It includes the documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval levels
necessary for authorizing and controlling changes. Audits are performed as part of configuration management to determine if the requirements have been met.
Answer B is incorrect. The scope change control system focuses on reviewing the actual changes to the project scope. When a change to the project's scope is
proposed, the configuration management system is also invoked. Answer B is incorrect. The cost change control system is responsible for reviewing and

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controlling changes to the project costs. Answer D is incorrect. Integrated change control examines the affect of a proposed change on the project as a whole.

NEW QUESTION 211

Which of the following approaches can be used to build a security program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Right-Up Approach
B. Left-Up Approach
C. Top-Down Approach
D. Bottom-Up Approach

Answer: CD

Explanation:
Top-Down Approach is an approach to build a security program. The initiation, support, and direction come from the top management and work their way through
middle management and then to staff members. It is treated as the best approach. This approach ensures that the senior management, who is ultimately
responsible for protecting the company assets, is driving the program. Bottom-Up Approach is an approach to build a security program. The lower-end team comes
up with a security control or a program without proper management support and direction. It is less effective and doomed to fail. Answer A and B are incorrect. No
such types of approaches exist

NEW QUESTION 213

Which of the following is the most secure method of authentication?

A. Biometrics
B. Username and password
C. Anonymous
D. Smart card

Answer: A

Explanation:
Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to
identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. It
is the most secure method of authentication. Answer B is incorrect. Username and password is the least secure method of authentication in comparison of smart
card and biometrics authentication. Username and password can be intercepted. Answer D is incorrect. Smart card authentication is not as reliable as biometrics
authentication. Answer B is incorrect. Anonymous authentication does not provide security as a user can log on to the system anonymously and he is not
prompted for credentials.

NEW QUESTION 216

The DARPA paper defines various procedural patterns to perform secure system development practices. Which of the following patterns does it include? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Hidden implementation
B. Document the server configuration
C. Patch proactively
D. Red team the design
E. Password propagation

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
The following procedural patterns are defined by the DARPA paper in order to perform secure software development practices: Build the server from the ground
up: It includes the following features: Build the server from the ground up. Identify the default installation of the operating system and applications. Support
hardening procedures to remove unnecessary services. Identify a vulnerable service for ongoing risk management. Choose the right stuff: It defines guidelines to
select right commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components and decide whether to use and build custom components. Document the server configuration: It supports
the creation of an initial configuration baseline and tracks all modifications made to servers and application configurations.
Patch proactively: It supports in applying patches as soon as they are available rather than waiting until the systems cooperate. Red team the design: It supports
an independent security assessment from the perspective of an attacker in the quality assurance or testing stage. An independent security assessment is helpful in
addressing a security issue before it occurs. Answer A is incorrect. Hidden implementation pattern is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to
software assurance in general. Hidden implementation limits the ability of an attacker to distinguish the internal workings of an application. Answer E is incorrect.
Password propagation is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to aspects of authentication in a Web application. Password propagation
provides an alternative by requiring that a user's authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data.

NEW QUESTION 220

DRAG DROPSecurity code review identifies the unvalidated input calls made by an attacker and avoids those calls to be processed by the server. It performs
various review checks on the stained
calls of servlet for identifying unvalidated input from the attacker. Choose the appropriate review checks and drop them in front of their respective functions.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
The various security code review checks performed on the stained calls of servlet are as follows: getParameter(): It is used to check the unvalidated sources of
input from URL parameters in javax.servlet.HttpServletRequest class. getQueryString(): It is used to check the unvalidated sources of input from Form fields in
javax.servlet.HttpServletRequest class. getCookies(): It is used to check the unvalidated sources of input from Cookies javax.servlet.HttpServletRequest class.
getHeaders(): It is used to check the unvalidated sources of input from HTTP headers javax.servlet.HttpServletRequest class.

NEW QUESTION 224

The NIST ITL Cloud Research Team defines some primary and secondary technologies as the fundamental elements of cloud computing in its "Effectively and
Securely Using the Cloud Computing Paradigm" presentation. Which of the following technologies are included in the primary technologies? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Web application framework

B. Free and open source software
C. SOA
D. Virtualization

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
The primary technologies defined by the NIST ITL Cloud Research Team in its "Effectively and Securely Using the Cloud Computing Paradigm" presentation are
as follows: Virtualization Grid technology SOA (Service Oriented Architecture) Distributed computing Broadband network Browser as a platform Free and open
source software Answer A is incorrect. It is defined as the secondary technology.

NEW QUESTION 225

You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You want to save all the data from the SQL injection attack, which can read sensitive data from the database
and modify database data using some commands, such as Insert, Update, and Delete. Which of the following tasks will you perform? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Apply maximum number of database permissions.

B. Use an encapsulated library for accessing databases.
C. Create parameterized stored procedures.
D. Create parameterized queries by using bound and typed parameters.

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
The methods of mitigating SQL injection attacks are as follows: 1.Create parameterized queries by using bound and typed parameters. 2.Create parameterized
stored procedures. 3.Use a encapsulated library in order to access databases. 4.Minimize database permissions. Answer A is incorrect. In order to save all the
data from the SQL injection attack, you should minimize database permissions.

NEW QUESTION 230

Which of the following NIST documents provides a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System?

A. NIST SP 800-37
B. NIST SP 800-59
C. NIST SP 800-53
D. NIST SP 800-60
E. NIST SP 800-53A

Answer: B

Explanation:
NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37:
This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides
a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for
verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an
information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information

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systems to security objectives and risk levels.

NEW QUESTION 235

According to the NIST SAMATE, dynamic analysis tools operate by generating runtime vulnerability scenario using some functions. Which of the following are
functions that are used by the dynamic analysis tools and are summarized in the NIST SAMATE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.

A. Implementation attack
B. Source code security
C. File corruption
D. Network fault injection

Answer: ACD

Explanation:
According to the NIST SAMATE, dynamic analysis tools operate by generating runtime vulnerability scenario using the following functions: Resource fault injection
Network fault injection System fault injection User interface fault injection Design attack Implementation attack File corruption Answer B is incorrect. This function is
summarized for static analysis tools.

NEW QUESTION 240

Which of the following steps of the LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method determines the necessary compliance offered by risk management
practices and assessment of risk levels?

A. Assessment, monitoring, and assurance

B. Vulnerability management
C. Risk assessment
D. Adherence to security standards and policies for development and deployment

Answer: A

Explanation:
Assessment, monitoring, and assurance determines the necessary compliance that are offered by risk management practices and assessment of risk levels.

NEW QUESTION 245

Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a particular message?

A. Confidentiality
B. Non-repudiation
C. Authentication
D. Integrity

Answer: B

Explanation:
Non-repudiation is a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a message. It provides an evidence of the identity of the senderand message integrity. It
also prevents a person from denying the submission or delivery of the message and the integrity of its contents. Answer B is incorrect. Authentication is a process
of verifying the identity of a person or network host. Answer A is incorrect. Confidentiality ensures that no one can read a message except the intended receiver.
Answer D is incorrect. Integrity assures the receiver that the received message has not been altered in any way from the original.

NEW QUESTION 250

Which of the following allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer?

A. Emulator
B. Hypervisor
C. Grid computing
D. CP/CMS

Answer: B

Explanation:
A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual
machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides
isolation to the host's resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer A is incorrect. Emulator duplicates the functions of one system using a
different system, so that the second system behaves like the first system. Answer D is incorrect. CP/CMS is a time-sharing operating system of the late 60s and
early 70s, and it is known for its excellent performance and advanced features. Answer B is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer
resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

NEW QUESTION 252

Which of the following disaster recovery tests includes the operations that shut down at the primary site, and are shifted to the recovery site according to the
disaster recovery plan?

A. Structured walk-through test

B. Full-interruption test
C. Parallel test
D. Simulation test

Answer: B

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Explanation:
A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. It
operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test
fails. Answer A is incorrect. The structured walk-through test is also known as the table-top exercise. In structured walk-through test, the team members
walkthrough the plan to identify and correct weaknesses and how they will respond to the emergency scenarios by stepping in the course of the plan. It is the most
effective and competent way to identify the areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more challenging training exercises. Answer B is incorrect. A parallel test
includes the next level in the testing procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These
employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct
the day-to-day organization's business. Answer D is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just like a
structured walk- through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate
responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined carefully for
avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities.

NEW QUESTION 256

The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are
the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials

B. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) plays the role of a leader. The responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer are as follows: Establishes effective continuous
monitoring program for the organization. Facilitates continuous monitoring process for the organizations. Preserves high-level communications and working group
relationships in an organization.
Confirms that information systems are covered by a permitted security plan and monitored throughout the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). Manages and
delegates decisions to employees in large enterprises. Proposes the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then works within a
budget to implement the plan. Answer A is incorrect. A Risk Executive facilitates the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials.

NEW QUESTION 257

Which of the following security objectives are defined for information and information systems by the FISMA? Each correct answer represents a part of the
solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Authenticity
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality

Answer: BCD

Explanation:
FISMA defines the following three security objectives for information and information systems: Confidentiality: It means that the data should only be accessible to
authorized users. Access includes printing, displaying, and other such forms of disclosure, including simply revealing the existence of an object. Integrity: It means
that only authorized users are able to modify data. Modification admits changing, changing the status, deleting, and creating. Availability: It means that the data
should only be available to authorized users. Answer A is incorrect. Authenticity is not defined by the FISMA as one of the security objectives for information and
information systems.

NEW QUESTION 259

Which of the following DoD policies establishes policies and assigns responsibilities to achieve DoD IA through a defense-in-depth approach that integrates the
capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network-centric warfare?

A. DoDI 5200.40
B. DoD 8500.1 Information Assurance (IA)
C. DoD 8510.1-M DITSCAP
D. DoD 8500.2 Information Assurance Implementation

Answer: B

Explanation:
DoD 8500.1 Information Assurance (IA) sets up policies and allots responsibilities to achieve DoD IA through a defense-in-depth approach that integrates the
capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network-centric warfare. DoD 8500.1 also summarizes the roles and
responsibilities for the persons responsible for carrying out the IA policies. Answer D is incorrect. The DoD 8500.2 Information Assurance Implementation pursues
8500.1. It provides assistance on how to implement policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures for applying integrated, layered protection of the
DoD information systems and networks. DoD Instruction 8500.2 allots tasks and sets procedures for applying integrated layered protection of the DOD information
systems and networks in accordance with the DoD 8500.1 policy. It also provides some important guidelines on how to implement an IA program. Answer A is
incorrect. DoDI 5200.40 executes the policy, assigns responsibilities, and recommends procedures under reference for Certification and Accreditation(C&A) of
information technology (IT). Answer B is incorrect. DoD 8510.1-M DITSCAP provides standardized activities leading to accreditation, and establishes a process
and management baseline.

NEW QUESTION 264

Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?

A. Password guessing attack

B. Teardrop attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Smurf attack

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Answer: B

Explanation:
Teardrop is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled. In this attack, corrupt packets are sent to the victim's computer by using IP's packet
fragmentation algorithm. As a result of this attack, the victim's computer might hang. Answer D is incorrect. Smurf is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and
flooding. Answer B is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the
password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available
on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks. Answer A is incorrect. A password guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on
repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on
the Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack

NEW QUESTION 269

DRAG DROPDrag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
The various SSE-CMM levels are described in the table below:

NEW QUESTION 273

Which of the following acts is used to recognize the importance of information security to the economic and national security interests of the United States?

A. Computer Misuse Act

B. Lanham Act
C. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
D. FISMA

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 is a United States federal law enacted in 2002 as Title III of the E-Government Act of 2002. The act
recognized the importance of information security to the economic and national security interests of the United States. The act requires each federal agency to
develop, document, and implement an agency-wide program to provide information security for the information and information systems that support the
operations and assets of the agency, including those provided or managed by another agency, contractor, or other source. FISMA has brought attention within the
federal government to cybersecurity and explicitly emphasized a 'risk-based policy for cost-effective security'. FISMA requires agency program officials, chief
information officers, and Inspectors Generals (IGs) to conduct annual reviews of the agency's information security program and report the results to Office of
Management and Budget (OMB). OMB uses this data to assist in its oversight responsibilities and to prepare this annual report to Congress on agency compliance
with the act. Answer B is incorrect. The Lanham Act is a piece of legislation that contains the federal statutes of trademark law
in the United States. The Act prohibits a number of activities, including trademark infringement, trademark dilution, and false advertising. It is also called Lanham

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Trademark Act. Answer A is incorrect. The Computer Misuse Act 1990 is an act of the UK Parliament which states the following statement: Unauthorized access to
the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine "not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale" (currently 5000). Unauthorized access with
the intent to commit or facilitate commission of further offences is punishable by 6 months/maximum fine on summary conviction or 5 years/fine on indictment.
Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2 offences. Answer B is incorrect. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
is a law passed by the United States Congress in 1984 intended to reduce cracking of computer systems and to address federal computer-related offenses. The
Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (codified as 18
U.S.C. 1030) governs cases with a compelling federal interest, where computers of the federal government or certain financial institutions are involved, where the
crime itself is interstate in nature, or computers used in interstate and foreign commerce. It was amended in 1986, 1994, 1996, in 2001 by the USA PATRIOT Act,
and in 2008 by the Identity Theft Enforcement and Restitution Act. Section (b) of the act punishes anyone who not just commits or attempts to commit an offense
under the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act but also those who conspire to do so.

NEW QUESTION 275

......

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