Certified Fire Protection

m
Total Question: 230

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2. When evaluating dipping and coating processes, flammable liquid vapors are usually.

A. denser than air, therefore, flow to high points.

B. lighter than air, therefore, flow to low points.
C. denser than air, therefore, flow to low points.
D. lighter than air, therefore, flow to high points.

3. Pre-incident planning for industrial and municipal emergency response includes all of the
following data components. EXCEPT

A. Interior finishes
B. Building construction
C. Site considerations
D. occupancy

4. Temporary storage of more than 60 gal (227 L) of Class I and Class II liquids should be low for
from buildings under construction?

A. At least 30 ft (9 m)
B. At least 40 ft (12 m)
C. At least 50 ft (15 m)
D. At least 60 ft (18 m)

5. NFPA 220 identifies which of the following as a construction type in which the structural elements
are entirely of noncombustible or limited combustible materials permitted by the code and
protected to have some degree of fire resistance for one hour?

A. Type II (222)
B. Type II (111)
C. Type III (211)
D. Type III (200)

6. The means of escape in lodging or rooming houses is defines as:

A. A way out of a building that does not conform to the definition of means of egress, but does
provide a safe way out
B. A clear path of travel, which can be both vertical and/or horizontal, to means of egress leading
to a public way or street
C. An unusual archaic pathway that allows occupants to reach a protected, fire-rated
stairwell, smoke tower, or exit door
D. A convoluted or confusing pathway in a building designed and built before the adoption of
building codes

7. When designing deflectors, the minimum water flow pressure needed to develop a
reasonable spray pattern is:

A. 4 psi (28 kPa)

B. 5 psi (34 kPa)
C. 6 psi (41 kPa)
D. 7 psi(48kPa)

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8. What is the maximum size for solid particles capable of passing through a U.S. 40 standard
sieve to be classified as dust?

A. 0.0.16 in. (390 µm)

B. 0.0.17 in. (420 µm)
C. 0.0.18 in. (450 µm)
D. 0.0.19 in. (480 µm)

9. Heat flow from the flame to the burning fuel of a small pool fire is mostly due to:

A. Convective heat transfer

B. Conduction heat rise
C. Conduction heat transfer
D. Convective heat loss

10. Fire alarm wire failure can be classified as:

I. Conductor breakage
II. Short circuits
III. Insulation loss
IV. Trouble signals

A. I
B. II
C. I and III
D. II and IV

11. What special storage precautions are required for zirconium castings?

A. Store in containers with 25 percent water by volume

B. Store in fire-resistant construction with explosion vents
C. Store in vessels with an inert atmosphere
D. There are no special storage requirements

12. Which of the following was the greatest means of awareness of a fire incident by people in the
United States?

A. Saw smoke
B. Smelled smoke
C. Saw fire
D. Flt heat

13. The three categories of potentially dangerous crowd situations for crowd management are:

A. Critical occupancy, flight response, and craze

B. Agitated, combative, and excessive occupancy
C. Combative, reluctant, and leaderless group
D. Critical flow, restricted flow, and directed flow

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14. Central heating appliances are divided into four broad categories; central furnaces, floor furnaces,
and:

A. Boilers
B. Stoves
C. Radiator
D. Salamanders

15. In compliance enforcement procedures, a permit authorizes the performance of a specify

activity, while which of the following grants permission to conduct or engage in any operation or
act for which a level of approval is required?

A. Authorization
B. Certificate
C. Warrant
D. License

16. What dry chemical agent is called multipurpose because it can be effective on Class A, B, C fires?

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate
C. Potassium chloride
D. Monoammonium phosphate

17. Rate-of-rise detectors should NOT be used where temperatures might rise faster than a minimum
of:

A. 8-11° F per minute

B. 12-15° F per minute
C. 16-19° F per minute
D. 20-23° F per minute

18. Irritant effects from exposure to fire atmospheres are normally considered by
combustion as being of which two types?

A. Sensory and Pulmonary

B. Major and Minor
C. Toxic and Non-Toxic
D. Dangerous and Non Dangerous

19. Dangerous and Not Dangerous In a hotel that has up to and including four stories, the sprinkler
system may be installed according to:

A. NFPA 13
B. NFPA 13D
C. NFPA 13R
D. NFPA 13E

20. Which spacing multiplier is used for heat detectors installed in a building with a ceiling that is 15

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 ft (5 m) high?

A. 0.77
B. 0.71
C. 0.64
D. 0.58

21. Picker trunk automatic sprinklers are used:

A. To reduce collections of lint and fiber on the head

B. In areas subject to freezing
C. For limited area sprinkler operations
D. When fed by the domestic system

22. Combustible waste materials stored outdoors to await subsequent disposal as rubbish should be
placed at least how many feet from public roadways?

A. 50 ft (15 m)
B. 75 ft (22.86 m)
C. 100 ft (30.48 m)
D. 150 ft (45.72 m)

23. What type of standpipe system has piping that is normally filled with air but does NOT have a
preconnected water supply?

A. Semiautomatic-dry system
B. Manual-dry system
C. Automatic-dry system
D. Manual-wet system

24. The NBS smoke chamber was developed specifically to measure.

A. Color of smoke
B. Temperature of smoke
C. Density of smoke layer
D. Obscuration by smoke particulates

25. Which of the following are secondary braking systems for fire apparatus?

I. Drive line
II. Exhaust brake
III. Hydraulic retarder
IV. Pneumatic in-line

A. I and IV
B. III and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. I, II and III

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26. Radiative energy released during a fire that is the visible range is transmitted in which of the
following wavelengths?

A. 0.10-0.35 µm
B. 0.35-0.75 µm
C. 0.75-22.0 µm
D. 22.0-25.0 µm

27. What type of smoke management method has been used extensively to manage smoke from
fires in subway, railroad, and highway tunnels?

A. Dilution
B. Compartmentation
C. Airflow
D. Pressurization

28. Which of the following is a device constructed of a pair of wire of different metals or alloys
welded together at a point to form a junction and calibrated to give the temperature in
degrees?

A. Pyrometer
B. Resistance thermometer
C. Thermocouple
D. Liquid expansion thermometer
29. Fire alarm audibility for public operating mode fire alarm systems must be a minimum of how
many dB above ambient noise that lasts 60 seconds or more?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

30. When there is no audience present, what class of occupancy is given to a soundstage?

A. Industrial
B. Warehouse
C. Business
D. Mercantile

31. Which dry powder agent is suitable for extinguishing fires involving aluminum (AI)?

A. Foundry flux
B. Lith-X
C. Pyrene G-1
D. Soda ash

32. Which NFPA standard addresses industrial fire brigades fire-fighting capabilities?

A. 600

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 B. 601
C. 1001
D. 1035

33. Four-way automatic sprinkler bracing prevents both lateral and:

A. Vertical movement
B. Horizontal movement
C. Longitudinal movement
D. Diagonal movement

34. Requirements for the installation, operation, and maintenance of electrical emergency system
circuits and equipment are given in the National Electrical Code (NEC).

A. Article 500
B. Article 600
C. Article 700
D. Article 800

35. The most common method of measuring flow in an open steam discharging from an orifice is by
direct measurement of the velocity head using a:

A. Flow meter

B. Bernoulli dial

C. Pitot tube

D. Flow valve

36. What NFPA document address carbon monoxide warning equipment?

A. NFPA 72

B. NFPA 610

C. NFPA 720
D. NFPA 1620

37. What is the required cranking cycle time established by NFPA for a diesel engine controller on a
fire pump?

A. 10 seconds cranking 10 seconds resting

B. 15 seconds cranking 15 seconds resting

C. 20 seconds cranking 20 seconds resting

D. 25 seconds cranking 25 seconds resting

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38. What oven class utilizes a special processing atmosphere to prevent the oxidation of the metal
during the heating process?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Cass D

39. The fuel storage tank for a diesel driven fire pump should be sized to contain a supply for at least:

A. 6 hours of operations

B. 8 hours of operations

C. 12 hours of operations

D. 24 hours of operations

40. The minimum residual pressure for a municipal water supply, according to the American Water
Works Association (AWWA), defines the required fire flow at:

A. 10 psi (69 kPa).

B. 15 psi (103 kPa).

C. 20 psi (138 kPA).

D. 25 psi (172 kPa).

41. Fire pump overload point is defined as:

A. 100 percent rated flow capacity at 100 percent rate total head.

B. 150 percent rated flow capacity at 100 percent rate total head.

C. 150 percent rated flow capacity at 65 percent rate total head.

D. 100 percent rated flow capacity at 65 percent rate total head.

42. The travel distance limit for a new hotel protected by an automatic fire sprinkler system is:

A. 175 ft (53 m)
B. 200 ft (61 m)
C. 250 ft (76 m)
D. 325 ft (99 m)

43. A building with sleeping rooms rented to 16 or fewer people on either a transient or permanent
basis, with or without meals, but without separate cooking facilities for individual occupants is what
type of occupancy?

A. Apartment

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 B. Lodging and rooming

C. Hotel

D. Dormitory

44. Fixed temperature heat detectors operate on all of the following principles EXCEPT:

A. bimetallic

B. continuous line

C. fusible-element

D. rate compensating

45. Components in an exhaust system for commercial cooking installation include the
ductwork, the exhaust fan, and the:

A. cooking appliances

B. grease filtration devices

C. air intake valve

D. gas supply valve

46. The five electric sources for emergency power supplies that NFPA 70 recognize are storage
batteries, generator set, uninterruptable power supplies, a separate service, and

A. motor starters
B. transfer equipment

C. electrical transformer
D. unit equipment

47. NFPA 10 specifies that an extinguisher with a gross weight not exceeding 40 lb (18 kg) should
be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than;

A. 3 ft (1 m) above the floor

B. 3 ½ ft (1.1 m) above the floor

C. 4 ft (1.3 m) above the floor

D. 5 ft (1.5 m) above the floor

48. What three items are considered when determining the domestic supply requirements on public
water systems?

A. Weekly demand, peak demand, and average daily demand

B. Peak hourly demand, maximum water flow, and Largent single user demand

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 C. Average daily demand, peak weekly demand, and reservoir maximum capacity

D. Average daily demand, maximum daily demand, and peak hourly demand

49. The way in which an individual is alerted to the presence of a fire

A. may delay the appropriate response mechanism

B. may determine the degree of threat perceived

C. triggers a fight or flight attitude

D. has no effect on awareness cues

50. Which Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulation addresses dip tanks
containing flammable or combustible liquids?

A. 1910.107
B. 1910.108
C. 1910.110
D. 1910.120

51. How often must a smoke detector connected to a fire alarm panel be visually inspected?
A. Monthly

B. Quarterly

C. Semiannually

D. Annually

52. For either a grain dust fire or explosion to occur and be sustained, which of the following
elements must be present?

A. Fuel, ignition source, oxygen, and combustible dust

B. Dust, heat, and ignition source

C. Fuel, ignition source, and oxygen

D. Fuel, oxygen, confinement, and ignition source

53. Which of the following heat transfer values is relevant to fire protection because it defines the
quantity of heat must be removed to cool a burning solid below its firepoint?

A. British thermal unit

B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Heat density

54. The tenability limit for exposure of skin to radiant heat is approximately.
A. .75 kW/ m2

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 B. 1.5 kW/ m2

C. 2.5 kW/ m2

D. 3.5 kW/ m2

55. Which of the following best describes the reason many issues in building codes and other for the
built environment have historically been addresses?

A. Number of fires
B. Rate of Fires
C. Major incidents
D. Risk values

56. What is the minimum width requirement for a window used as a second means of egress from a
one- or two-family dwelling?

A. 20 inches (510 mm)

B. 24 inches (610mm)
C. 32.4 inches (823 mm)
D. 34.2 inches (869 mm)

57. Nylon is considered to be what type of polymer?

A. Thermoset
B. Thermoplastic
C. Elastomer
D. Plasticizer

58. Evaluating fire for probability as a sequence of outcome is accomplished through which of the
following?

A. Event tree
B. After action review
C. Pre-event analysis
D. Action matrix

59. What condition can occur when a pressure tank and a gravity tank are connected to a
sprinkler system through a common riser?

A. Air lock
B. Pressure lock

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 C. Vapor lock
D. Gravity lock

60. The most versatile oxygen consumption method for measuring heat release rate is:

A. an OSU Apparatus
B. a Cone Colorimeter
C. a Steiner Tunnel
D. a Fire propagation apparatus

61. What is the essential first requirement of an initial postfire evaluation?

A. Salvage and overhaul

B. Cause and origin determination
C. Recovery and stabilization
D. Board up and secure

62. Cast iron, cement-lined underground piping is estimated to have a Hazen-Williams C value of:
A. 110
B. 120
C. 130
D. 140

63. Which of the following is the correct UL classification of roof covering that include criteria for
resistance to ignition?

Class A Coverings Class B Coverings Class C Coverings

A. Effective against light fire Effective against Effective against severe fire
exposures moderate fire exposures exposures
B. Effective against light fire Effective against normal Effective against severe fire
exposures fire exposures exposures
C. Effective against severe Effective against Effective against light fire
fire exposures moderate fire exposures exposures
D. Effective against normal Effective against Effective against severe fire
fire exposures moderate fire exposures exposures

64. Manufactured homes must be constructed in accordance with which of the following codes?

A. Mobile Home Safety Code

B. Manufactured Home Building Code
C. Federal HUD Code
D. Life Safety Code

65. Which of the following detectors are required to initiate recall of elevators?

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 A. Elevator lobby smoke detectors
B. Corridor smoke detectors
C. Machine room heat detectors
D. Elevator shaft heat detectors

66. Compressed gas cylinders for breathing air are regulated in the United States by:

A. NIOSH
B. ANSI
C. OSHA
D. DOT

67. For fire and life safety educators, the learning process includes all of the following EXCEPT.

A. motivation
B. transfer to short-term memory
C. application
D. observe and study

68. Combustibles should be moved away from cutting and welding operations a minimum distance
of .

A. 30 ft (9.1 m)

B. 35 ft (10.6 m)

C. 40 ft (12.2 m)

D. 45 ft (13.7 m)

69. Semiconductor manufacturing plants have several potential hazards that are not widely
encountered in other industries including toxic materials, radio frequency fields, ionizing radiation,
and:

A. pyrophoric gases
B. hot work
C. flammable liquids
D. electrical

70. Air atomizing nozzles which combine compressed gas with a water stream are also known as:

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 A. impingement nozzles
B. pressure jet nozzles
C. twin-fluid nozzles
D. impinging jet nozzles

71. When conducting a needs assessment for a fire department, what term describes the level of
harm associated with exposure to a fire or its effluent?

A. Hazard
B. Risk
C. Hazard Analysis
D. Strategic Plan

72. A stoichiometric mixture results in the consumption of all:

A. fuel and oxygen

B. energy and heat
C. gas and radiation
D. smoke and flame

73. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a residential fire protection plan?

A. Minimization of fire hazards

B. Development of escape plan
C. Installation of carbon monoxide alarms
D. Installation of some alarms

74. Factors influencing the explosibility of dusts include moisture, inert material, particle size, and:

A. container pressure
B. concentration
C. temperature
D. viscosity

75. The thermal inertia of a material is defined as the:

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 A. minimum combustion rate a solid material must attain in order to ignite under test
conditions
B. ignition energy of a material based on the quantity of heat energy per unit
C. direct product of thermal conductivity, density, and heat capacity
D. direct onset of self-sustained combustion

76. The use of multiple agencies for the delivery of EMS is commonly referred to as a:

A. mass response
B. multiple response
C. tiered response
D. combined response.

77. The minimum cover requirements for the direct burial of cable or conductors under one- and
two-family dwelling driveways is:

A. 12 in
B. 18 in
C. 24 in
D. 30 in

78. The minimum area of sprinkler operation for hydraulically designed Extra Hazard Group 1
occupancy should be:

A. 1500 ft2 (139 m2)

B. 2000 ft2 (186 m2)
C. 2500 ft2 (232 m2)
D. 3000 ft2 (279 m2)

79. Which of the following is an unstable agent that can be easily broken down by physical or
mechanical forces?

A. Dry chemical
B. Dry powder
C. Foam
D. Carbon dioxide

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80. Heat transfer through a solid is referred to as:

A. conduction
B. advection
C. radiation
D. convection

81. A fire reconstruction and failure process includes:

A. identifying the location of fire origin

B. conduction field testing of materials
C. documenting only certain specific data
D. completing reports within 72 hours

82. During 1999 and 2002, fires originating in mattresses and bedding accounted for what percent
of fire deaths in the U.S.?

A. 8
B. 14
C. 22
D. 31
83. Liquid carbon dioxide can exist at elevated pressure above 5.2 atmospheres when the
temperature is a minimum of:

A. -110° F (-79° C)

B. -83° F (-64° C)

C. -79° F (-62° C)

D. -71° F (-57° C)

84. Combustion explosions of conventional structure typically occur with less than what percent
of the enclosure occupied by a flammable mixture?

A. 55
B. 45
C. 35
D. 25

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85. Between 1982-1998, the largest number of church structure fires in the U.S. was caused by which of
the following?

A. Smoking materials
B. Cooking equipment
C. Heating and HVAC equipment
D. Incendiary or suspicious

86. John Freeman developed a rule for fire hydrant spacing in compact mercantile and
manufacturing districts of:

A. 250 ft (76 m) B.
300 ft (91 m) C.
350 ft (107 m) D.
400 ft (122 m)

87. Foundations for water tanks and towers should be built of concrete with compressive strength
of NOT less than how many psi?

A. 5,000
B. 4,000
C. 3,000
D. 2,000

88. For the purpose of measuring standard temperature and pressure, the standard
temperature value is:

A. 65° F
B. 77° F
C. 85° F
D. 93° F

89. In what year between 1980 and 2002, did the worst civilian injuries in industrial and
manufacturing property structural fires occur?

A. 1981
B. 1983
C. 1990
D. 1998

90. Clean agents should be designed in accordance with which one of the following NFPA codes?

A. NFPA 2000
B. NFPA 2001

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 C. NFPA 2002
D. NFPA 2003

91. The minimum water supply requirements for a pipe schedule sprinkler system protecting an
ordinary hazard occupancy is:

A. 15 psi (1.03 bar)

B. 20 psi (1.38 bar)
C. 25 psi (1.72 bar)
D. 30 psi (2.07 bar)

92. The type of smoke detector that operates with a small radioactive source is

A. beam
B. ionization
C. photoelectric
D. line

93. When storing Class IB flammable liquids outdoors in portable containers, what is the maximum
quantity and height allowed for composite Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBCs) per pile?

A. 8,800 gallons and 12 ft

B. Not permitted for composite IBCs
C. 22,000 gallons and 18 ft
D. 4,400 gallons and 14 ft

94. In designing a duct system for commercial cooking equipment, what is the minimum air
velocity required to minimize grease accumulation?

A. 1,200 ft/min (366 m/min)

B. 1,500 ft/min (458 m/min)
C. 1,900 ft/min (580 m/min)
D. 2,000 ft/min (610 m/min)

95. Existing Board and Care Facilities classify the residents based on all of the following
evacuation capabilities EXCEPT.

A. impractical
B. normal
C. prompt
D. Slow

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96. Which two methods are used to determine the necessary exit width?

A. Volume and flow

B. Egress and volume
C. Capacity and egress
D. Flow and capacity

97. The hazards of the storage and handling of coal includes all the following EXCEPT.

A. fires
B. chemical conversion
C. flash fires
D. dust explosions

98. Which classification would indicate that a refrigerant has a low toxicity, but is highly
flammable?

A. A3
B. A1
C. B3
D. B1

99. What percent CO2 by volume is the minimum concentration used in total flooding systems?

A. 34 percent
B. 36 percent
C. 38 percent
D. 40 percent

100. Which of the following conditions may exist within the ductwork during sanding operations
in woodworking facilities when the dust concentration in the duct exceeds the minimum explosive
concentration (MEC) levels?

A. Flashover
B. Conflagration
C. Deflagration
D. Implosion

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101. What type of electrically powered industrial truck can be used in Class 1, Division 1, Group D
locations?

A. Type EX
B. Type ES
C. Type EE
D. Type E

102. What is the minimum acceptable flow at the base of a riser including hose streams, ordinarily
acceptable for pipe schedule sprinkler systems required for ordinary hazard (Group I) classified
occupancies?

A. 100 GPM
B. 850 GPM
C. 700 GPM
D. 500 GPM

103. The pressure produced by a column of water 1 foot high is:

A. 0.433 psi
B. 2.31 psi
C.14.7 psi
D. 29.9 psi

104. The total head of a fire pump is:

A. the energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the pump

B. psi rating as the liquid passes through the pipe
C. the energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the orifice
D. the static pressure of water at the intake of the pump

105. Proper exit design permits everyone to leave the fire endangered are:

A. without fear of loss of life

B. prior to an untenable atmosphere
C. in the shortest travel distance
D. in the shortest possible time

106. The life safety code included the term "Exit" in an overall definition of means of egress. A means
of egress is a continuous path of travel from any point in a building or structure to the open air outside
at ground level. Egress consists of which three separate and distinct parts?

A. Access to the exit, lighting, signage

B. Access to the exit, floor construction, door swing
C. Access to the exit, the exit, and area outside the building
D. Access to the exit, the exit, and the exit discharge

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107. In Type II, (111) construction, columns supporting more than one floor are required to have a
fire resistance rating of:

A. 0 hour
B. 3/4 hour
C. 1 hour
D. 3 hours

108. The intensity of the illumination of means of egress should be not less than?

A. 1 foot candle measured at the floor

B. 1 foot candle measured 3' above the floor
C. 3 foot candles measured at the floor
D. 3 foot candles measured 3' above the floor

109. An oxygen enriched atmosphere is defined as any atmosphere in which the concentration of
oxygen exceeds 21% by volume or the partial pressure of the oxygen exceeds what pressure?

A. 1.6 psi
B. 16 KpA
C. 16 Atmospheres
D. 160 TORR

110. Water is most effective and most commonly used for which of the following type of fire?

A. Class A-ordinary combustibles

B. Class B-flammable and combustible liquids
C. Class C-electrical
D. Class D-combustible metals

111. Which of the following is NOT a basic method for heating gravity tank water?

A. Direct discharge of steam into water

B. Gravity circulation of hot water
C. Steam coils inside tanks
D. Warm air in internal jacket

112. An important limitation to consider when using pressure tanks in automatic sprinkler
protection is the:

A. small volume of water stored

B. dependence upon outside power sources to maintain pressure
C. lack of training of fire department personnel
D. inadequate pipe sizing

113. Which one of the following principles is used to determine the necessary exit width?

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A. Design and application
B. Flow and capacity
C. Width and movement
D. Construction and design

114. As a type of automatic fire detection device, heat detectors are the:

A. oldest
B. newest
C. most reliable
D. least reliable

115. The first principle of good storage practice for chemicals is:

A. limiting quantity
B. segregation
C. containment
D. Concentration

116. Between 1980-1998, the largest number of church structure fires in the U.S. was caused by which
of the following?

A. Smoking materials
B. Cooking equipment
C. Heating and HVAC equipment
D. Incendiary or suspicious

117. Part of the definition of terrorism requires that such activity:

A. be in furtherance of political or social objectives.

B. be preceded by a threat, warning, or previous similar event.
C. originate with an organized, recognized group.
D. result in actual loss of life, injury, or property damage.

118. What has been the largest terrorist event in the history of the United States?

A. The Alfred P. Murrah Building bombing in Oklahoma City

B. The Kobar Towers military housing bombing in Daharan
C. The World Trade Center attack in New York
D. The bombing of Pan Am flight 103 over Lockerbie

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119. Which is an example of a symbolic terrorist target?

A. Urban highway
B. Foreign embassy
C. Water treatment facility
D. Hydrocarbon fuel refinery

120. Terrorists have used explosive devices in thousands of attacks, but in recent years there has been
a new trend in their use. What is this trend?

A. Biological cores
B. Suicide bombings
C. Radioactive cladding
D. Implosion devices

121. What is the term for terrorism that electronically targets computers or the Internet?

A. Computerrorism
B. Cyberterrorism
C. Data terrorism
D. Electronic terrorism

123. How can pipe bombs be modified to enhance their injurious effect?

A. Set them to explode at dusk.

B. Coat them with powdered neon.
C. Pack them with nails.
D. Use PVC piping.

124. When should fire fighters handle a potentially explosive device?

A. When doing so will eliminate a threat to life

B. Only when the building cannot be evacuated easily
C. At no time
D. Only when the timer is visible and the bomb squad clearly will not arrive in time

125. When responding to a terrorist event, you should be particularly alert for the possibility of:

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A. secondary events designed to harm or hamper emergency responders.
B. the use of sets and accelerants.
C. the occurrence of backdrafts, BLEVEs, or other unusual events.
D. signs and symptoms of critical incident stress.

126. What is one potential means for dispersing a chemical agent over a wide area?

A. Crop-dusting aircraft
B. Steam radiators
C. Railway tank cars
D. 55-gallon drums

127. Under what circumstances is it sufficient to rely on odor to detect a chemical agent?

A. Under no circumstances
B. Only when the agent is known to be larger than 2 microns
C. For known, familiar substances
D. For odorized gases, such as natural gas

128. How do the pupils present in victims of nerve agent exposure?

A. Widely dilated
B. Normal
C. Unequal
D. Pinpoint

129. What acronym is used to remember the symptoms of nerve agent exposure?

A. CRAMPS NH
B. SLUDGE
C. BARKSEAL
D. NEWS

130. Which chemical is classified as a pulmonary agent?

A. Phosgene
B. Toluene
C. Naptha

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D. Anthracite

131. Which is a sign of exposure to cyanide gas?

A. Gasping for air

B. Collapsing suddenly
C. Sweating profusely
D. Vomiting with great force

132. What kind of agent is anthrax?

A. Blood agent
B. Infectious disease
C. Chemical asphyxiant
D. Neurotransmitter

133. How many anthrax spores are needed to cause an anthrax infection?

A. 1 to 10

B. 100 to 1000

C. 2000 to 4000
D. 8000 to 10,000

134. How infectious is smallpox?

A. It is not at all infectious.

B. It is highly infectious.
C. It can be infectious, but only in warm, moist environments.
D. It can be infectious, but only to people with compromised immune systems.

135. If smallpox was eradicated from the world in 1980, why is it a threat today?

A. It was premature to declare eradication in 1980.

B. It has a spore form that can lie dormant for a decade or more.
C. It was not eradicated; rather everyone was either immune or vaccinated.
D. Some countries kept samples of it alive.

136. Where is the bacterium that causes plague commonly found?

A. On rodents

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B. In rotting wood
C. In decomposing animals
D. In animal stool

137. What part of the body does bubonic plague attack?

A. The liver and kidneys

B. The lymph nodes
C. The immune system
D. The brain

138. What is the term for the time period between infection and when a person first begins to show
symptoms?

A. Latent period
B. Dormancy period
C. Metastatic period
D. Incubation period

139. Under what circumstances are alpha particles the most harmful to the human body?

A. When the skin is wet

B. When they are ingested or inhaled
C. When the victim has no shielding other than clothing
D. When the emanating source is wet

140. Which type of radiation is the most harmful to the human body?

A. Gamma
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Omega

141. What are two symptoms of low-level exposure to radiation?

A. Nausea and vomiting

B. Sweating and itching
C. Skin tingling and warm feeling

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D. Abdominal cramping and pressure

142. Of the following actions, what is the best way to limit exposure to radioactivity?

A. Stay at distances from the source that are between the radioactive nodes (every 1.3 meters).
B. Stay in continual motion during exposure.
C. Stay as far away from the source of the radiation as possible.
D. Have a fine fog fire stream keep the radioactive source moist.

143. If radioactive contamination is suspected, everyone who enters the area should be
equipped with a:

A. type III PASS device.

B. personal dosimeter.
C. litmus strip.
D. lead shield.

144. Which is the best reason for establishing a perimeter around a known or suspected terrorist
incident scene?

A. To demarcate the C and D zones for limited-access purposes

B. To form a ring mobile command post structure to manage the incident
C. To deny exit to those who may be contaminated, prior to their decontamination
D. To afford a 360-degree reconnaissance platform from which to monitor events inside the
perimeter

145. If fire fighters notice dead or dying animals as they approach the scene of a known or
suspected terrorist incident, what should they suspect?

A. Possible chemical release

B. Possible biological release
C. Possible radiation release
D. Nerve agent dispersal

146. What is the lead agency for crisis management during a terrorist incident?

A. FEMA
B. Local law enforcement
C. Local fire/EMS

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D. The FBI

147. One of the FBI classifications for terrorism is:

A. domestic.
B. political.
C. state-sponsored.
D. individual.

148. Water supply, power distribution, and transportation are examples of targets.

A. ecoterrorism
B. infrastructure
C. symbolic
D. civilian

149. Shopping malls, schools, and stadiums are examples of _ targets.

A. infrastructure
B. symbolic
C. civilian
D. ecoterrorism

150. Spiking trees and vandalizing research laboratories are examples of:

A. agroterrorism.
B. cyberterrorism .
C. international terrorism.
D. ecoterrorism.

151. Attacks on agriculture or the food supply are examples of:

A. agroterrorism.
B. cyberterrorism.
C. ecoterrorism.
D. international terrorism.

152. On the Homeland Security color-code system, what is the color code for the lowest risk?

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A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

153. Which of the following can be used to create explosives?

A. ARGO
B. PATP
C. ANFO
D. TADP

154. What is another term for a joint command structure?

A. Combined command
B. Combined operating system
C. Shared authority command
D. Unified command

155. What is the first priority following an explosion?

A. Rescuer safety
B. Scene safety
C. Victim rescue
D. Establishing incident command

156. Which of the following is classified as a choking agent?

A. Sarin
B. Chlorine
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Carbon dioxide

157. What is the most common method of dispersing chemical agents?

A. Water streams
B. Catalysts

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C. Air flow
D. Dessicants

158. To be effective, liquid nerve agents must be in _ _ form.

A. dried
B. liquid
C. solid
D. aerosol

159. An agent that takes weeks to evaporate is said to be:

A. persistent.
B. stable.
C. volatile.
D. hydrogenated.

160. What kit did the U.S. military develop as an antidote to nerve agent exposure?

A. Pam-2
B. Mark 1
C. P-tab
D. Physostygmine

161. Which blister agent causes immediate pain upon contact with skin?

A. VX
B. Phosgene
C. Lewisite
D. Sulfur mustard

162. The highest potential for infection by biological agents is by:

A. absorption.
B. injection.
C. ingestion.
D. inhalation.

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163. Which of the following is contagious?

A. Smallpox
B. Anthrax
C. Bubonic plague
D. Bacillus

164. What term refers to the use of gloves, masks, gowns, and eye protection to prevent
exposure to a biological agent?

A. Shielding
B. Universal precautions
C. Universal protections
D. Protective measures

165. Packing radioactive material around an explosive device creates what is known as a
bomb.

A. rad
B. truck
C. dirty
D. neutron

166. When can the presence of chemical, biological, or radiological agents be ruled out?

A. No spilled materials
B. No signs or symptoms present
C. Property owner confirms none on property
D. Confirmation is provided by detection equipment.

167. What type of team conducts a quick evaluation of the area to identify the number of people
involved?

A. Recon
B. Rescue
C. Survey
D. Search

168. Notifying will ensure a quick response by state and federal resources to a major

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incident.

A. FEMA
B. state emergency management officials
C. DHS
D. FBI

169. Domestic terrorism involves those acts that are:

A. intended to influence government domestic policy.

B. directed toward the government of the nation in which they occur.
C. performed by groups in the United States with no influence by foreign interests.
D. intended to influence the outcome of an election.

170. Which is the lead federal agency for consequence management during a terrorist incident?

A. DOT
B. DHS
C. FBI
D. FEMA

171. Which system is designed to guide protective measures?

A. Homeland Security Advisory System

B. Homeland Security Threat Advisories
C. Homeland Security Information Bulletins
D. Color-coded threat-level system

172. Which system contains actionable information about an incident involving, or a threat
targeting, critical national networks or infrastructures?

A. Homeland Security Advisory System

B. Homeland Security Threat Advisories
C. Homeland Security Information Bulletins
D. Color-coded threat-level system

173. Which system communicates information of interest to U.S. critical infrastructures that does
not meet the timeliness, specificity, or significance thresholds?

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A. Homeland Security Advisory System
B. Homeland Security Threat Advisories
C. Homeland Security Information Bulletins
D. Color-coded threat-level system

174. Which system is used to communicate with public officials and the public so protective
measures can be implemented?

A. Homeland Security Advisory System

B. Homeland Security Threat Advisories
C. Homeland Security Information Bulletins
D. Color-coded threat-level system

175. On the Homeland Security color-coded threat-level system, what color code represents the
most severe risk?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

176. The maximum discharge time permitted for halocarbon clean agent systems is:

A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

177. The walls dividing mall building stores from each other should extend to the extent
practicable from the floor.

A. to the underside of the suspended ceiling

B. through the roof deck
C. to the underside of the roof deck or floor above
D. to a minimum height of 10 ft (3.05 m)

178. The three categories of potentially dangerous crowd situations for management are:

A. critical occupancy, flight response, and craze

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B. agitated, combative, and excessive occupancy
C. combative, reluctant, and leaderless group
D. critical flow, restricted flow, and directed flow

179. Preconnected hoses on Class II and Class III standpipes are generally limited to what
length?

A. 50 ft. (15 m)

B. 100 ft. (30.5 m)

C. 150 ft. (45 m)

D. 200 ft. (61 m)

180. The principal component of an oil or gas fired finance system is the:

A. igniter
B. burner
C. chamber
D. diffuser

181. The vented gas appliance defined as an appliance that operates with a nonpositive vent
pressure and a vent static pressure and a vent gas temperature that may cause excessive
condensation in the vent is a:

A. Category I
B. Category II
C. Category III
D. Category IV

182. Which of the following is least important when considering the test plan for the inspection, testing,
and maintenance regimen for a fire alarm system?

A. How it is to be performed
B. How frequently the specific procedure is to be performed
C. Who is to be notified of the procedure
D. What procedure is to be performed

183. As a liquid leaves a pipe, conduit, or container through an orifice and discharges to the
atmosphere, the normal pressure is converted to:

A. head pressure

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B. velocity pressure
C. elevation pressure
D. pneumatic pressure

184. How long after the completion of a welding or cutting operation should a final area check be
conducted?

A. At the end of the shift

B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes

185. While oxygen is the most common oxidizing agent, which of the following is also an
oxidizing agent?

A. Ammonia
B. Sodium chloride
C. Nitrogen
D. Potassium chlorate

186. For curtain will construction, an inherent fire problem exists because of the space between the
outer end of the floor slab and the inside face off the curtain wall, which, unless adequately firestopped,
may act as a:

A. route for vertical fire spread

B. route for horizontal fire spread
C. barrier for suppression efforts
D. barrier for forcible entry

187. The purpose of the fire suppression rating schedule published by ISO Commercial Risk
Services is to:

A. aid in the calculation of fire insurance rates

B. determine water supply needs for protection
C. provide a guideline for the location of fire stations
D. determine the number of engine companies required for community protection

188. What class designation is given to a standpipe system consisting of a 2 ½ inch (6.35 cm) hose
valve specifically for fire department use and a 1 ½ inch (3.81 cm) hose valve complete with hose

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and nozzles for building occupant use?

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

189. The minimum cover requirements for the direct burial of cable or conductors under one- and
two-family dwelling driveways is:

A. 6 in. (150 mm)

B. 12 in. (300 mm)
C. 18 in. (450 mm)
D. 24 in. (600 mm)

190. Which of the following types of codes are based on a broad spectrum of accepted fire
prevention experience?

A. Nationally-developed consensus codes

B. Locally-developed specific codes
C. Experience-based codes
D. Spectrum-based codes

191. Which of the following is a device constructed of a pair of wires of different metals or alloys
welded together at a point to form a junction and calibrated to give the temperature in degree?

A. Pyrometer
B. Resistance thermometer
C. Thermocouple
D. Liquid expansion thermometer

192. Which of the following is produced by pyrolysis and/or incomplete combustion of organic
materials and is referred to as an organic irritant?

A. Hydrogen
B. Argon
C. Cyanide
D. Formaldehyde

193. Pressure readings at the inlet flange of a pump operating under lift are:

A. negligible with respect to the gauge and equal when referred to absolute pressure

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B. positive with respect to the gauge and negative when referred to absolute pressure
C. negative with respect to the gauge and positive when referred to absolute pressure
D. equal with respect to the gauge and negative when referred to absolute pressure

194. In an area used for sleeping, the minimum Sound Pressure Level (SPL) required of the fire alarm
system is:

A. 65 dBA
B. 70 dBA
C. 75 dBA
D. 80 dBA

195. Foundations for water tanks and towers should be built of concrete with compressive strength
of NOT less than how many psi (MPa)?

A. 5,000 (34.47 MPa)

B. 4,000 (27.58 MPa)
C. 3,000 (20.69 MPa)
D. 2,000 (13.79 MPa)

196. The systems approach to fire safety:

A. details specification codes and standards

B. methodically studies an entity as a whole
C. requires fire protection devices by interconnected
D. is based upon the use of the building

197. In order to design the appropriate exit system for an industrial occupancy, the life safety hazard
classification per the NFPA Life Safety Code establishes three basic classifications. Occupancies
involving low- and ordinary-hazard manufacturing operations occurring in any type of building and
normally having a higher density of employees than the other classfications are classified as:

A. general purpose
B. ordinary purpose
C. common purpose
D. basic purpose

198. Non-fire alarm interface signals connected to a fire alarm system are:

A. connected to air handling units

B. used for monitoring fire sprinklers

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C. required to automatically notify the fire department
D. considered supervisory for other than life safety equipment

199. Which of the following is the correct UL classification of roof covering that include criteria for
resistance to ignition?

200. What size dipping operation requires an automatic fire extinguishing system?

A. 150 gal (570 L)

B. 175 gal (662 L)
C. 200 gal (757 L)
D. 225 gal (852 L)
201. Pressurized stairwell designs are intended to keep the interior of the stairwell.

A. smoke free
B. a tenable environment
C. sufficiently ventilated for personnel flow
D. from having a smoke obscuration of greater than 0.5 OD

202. What are the extinguishing properties of a Wet Chemical Extinguishing system?

A. smothering and cooling action

B. Chain breaking reaction and cooling action
C. Radiation shielding and chain breaking reaction
D. Cooling action and radiation shielding

203. In a detention or correctional facility, the following would be what type of restraint or locking
system?
Free movement is restricted from a occupied space. Remote control release is provided to permit
movement from all sleeping rooms, activity spaces, and other occupied area within the smoke
compartment to other smoke compartments.

A. Use Condition II – Zoned Egress

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B. Use Condition III – Zone Impeded Egress
C. Use Condition IV – Impeded Egress
D. Use Condition V – Contained

204. At a industrial or commercial facility, preincident (prefire) planning involves at least which three
components?

A. Building construction, protection, site considerations

B. Building construction, response time, occupancy
C. Protection, site considerations, time of day
D. Systems, response time, site considerations

205. From the following summaries for current door applications, select the correct fire door
classifications:

A. 1 ½ - hour fire doors 1-hour fire doors 1 ½ - hour fire doors

B. 2-hour fire doors 1-hour fire doors 2-hour fire doors

C. 2-hour fire doors ¾ - hour fire doors 1 ½ - hour fire doors

D. 1 ½ - hour fire doors 1-hour fire doors 2-hour fire doors

206. A building containing three or more dwelling units, with separate cooking facilities for
individual occupants is what type of occupancy?

A. Apartment
B. Lodging and rooming
C. Hotel

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 D. Dormitory

207. A building containing 16 or more persons who are not related to each other, with sleeping facility
for individual occupants is what type of occupancy?

A. Apartment
B. Lodging and rooming
C. Hotel
D. Dormitory

208. A building provides sleeping facility, with no cooking facility for individual or occupants is what
type of occupancy?

A. Apartment
B. Lodging and rooming
C. Hotel
D. Dormitory

208. The simplest device for extinguishing a fire in a process or dip tank is:

A. an aqueous film-forming foam system

B. a dry chemical extinguishing system

C. a self-closing cover with fusible link

D. an automatic, rapid drain opener

209. A public supply system with a required fire flow of 4,500 gpm (17,033 lpm) should be able to
maintain that flow for a duration of:

A. two hours

B. three hours

C. four hours

D. five hours

210. Which of the following noble gases is suitable for fighting a magnesium fire?

A. Neon

B. Helium

C. Krypton

D. Xenon

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211. Which of the following is defined as a measurement of a fluid’s resistance to flow and is usually
measured in lb sec/ft2 N sec/ m2?

A. Friction loss
B. Density
C. Viscosity
D. Velocity

212. Which of the following is a classification of gases from NFPA 55?

A. Low vapor

B. Colorless

C. High vapor

D. Oxidizing

213. When designing water spray nozzles and piping, what must be determined before selecting a nozzle
for the system?

A. Proper piping material

B. Proper piping size

C. Proper nozzle angle

D. Proper water density for extinguishment

214. What much conducted when new emission standards are imposed on an operational plan for a
boiler system, and they exceed the operating limits of the existing system?

A. A thorough inspection of the boiler plant

B. A Federal Clean Air Act Waiver

C. An engineering analysis

D. A review of the as-built drawings

215. while not the only factor used to evaluate the hazard, which of the following is commonly accepted
as the most important criterion of the relative hazard of flammable and combustible liquids?

A. Flash point

B. Ignition temperature

C. Flammable range

D. Rate of evaporation

216. Rate-of-rise detectors should NOT be used where temperatures might rise faster than a
minimum of:

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A. 8-11° F (4-6° C) per minute
B. 12-15° F (7-8° C) per minute
C. 16-19° F (9-11° C) per minute
D. 20-23° F (11-13° C) per minute

217. The Chezy Formula used in hydraulic analysis requires all of the following information:

A. Diameter of pipe, roughness of pipe, and hydraulic radius

B. Diameter of pipe, roughness of pipe and hydraulic slope

C. Diameter of pipe, hydraulic radius and hydraulic slope

D. Roughness of pipe, length of pipe, and hydraulic slope

218. You are investigating a fire in a church, historically speaking, from the data available in the Fire
Protection Handbook, what is the leading cause of church structure fires in the U.S.?

A. Smoking materials
B. Cooking equipment
C. Heating and HVAC equipment
D. Incendiary or suspicious

219. Which dry agent is considered twice as effective as ordinary sodium bicarbonate-based dry
chemical?

A. Potassium sulfide

B. Potassium bicarbonate

C. Monoammonium phosphate

D. Lithium chloride

220. Which of the following is the highest level of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) for hazardous
materials response?

A. Level A

B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

221. What is the travel distance limit for an unsprinklered new educational occupancy?

A. 75 ft. (23 m)

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B. 150 ft. (45 m)

C. 175 ft. (53 m)

D. 200 ft. (61 m)

222. In reviewing a submittal for a new horizontal centrifugal fire pump, which of the following
conditions would conditions would warrant rejection of the submittal?

A. The head discharge curve of the pump passes above the point of capacity and head

B. With the pump operating rated speed and no flow, the total head will be at 110% of rated head at
100% flow
C. With the pump operating at rated speed and no flow, the total head will be at 130% of rated head at
100% flow
D. At 150% of rated capacity, total head pressure is 50% of rated total head

223. Which of the following fire stages is characterized by a decreasing heat-release rate due to the
consumption of fuel during a fuel-controlled fire?

A. Steady state

B. Fire extinguishment
C. Incipient fire

D. Fire decay

224. The dynamics of compartment fire growth are characterized by type of combustion process, growth
rate, ventilation, and:

A. flame pattern

B. heat content

C. fire stage

D. fuel type

225. Which of the following is a characteristic of pyrophoric gases?

A. They have high ignition temperatures

B. They have abnormally low flame temperature

C. They do not need oxygen as a reducing agent

D. They do not need a source of ignition to burn

226. How often should an electric fire pump be inspected and tested, and for how long should it run
during testing?

A. Inspected and tested monthly, run for 10 minutes

B. Inspected and tested weekly, run for 30 minutes

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C. Inspected and testes monthly, run for 30 minutes

D. Inspected and tested weekly, run for 10 minutes

227. The shape of the standard head discharge curve of a fire pump is determined by which of the
following three limiting points?

A. Shutoff point, rated capacity, overload point

B. Pressure, speed rated capacity

C. Volume, rated capacity, discharge

D. Overload point, pressure, rated capacity

228. The three primary mechanisms for conducting legally valid scene investigations are exigent
circumstances, a search warrant, or:

A. investigator qualifications

B. reasonable time frame

C. statutory authorization

D. permission of the owner

229. Which concept can be described as a strategy used when fire control is achieved before it becomes
necessary to order evacuation from spaces that are remote from a fire incident within a building?

A. Defend in place
B. Partial evacuation

C. Zoned evacuation

D. Phased evacuation

230. Which spacing multiplier is used for heat detectors installed in a building with a ceiling that is 15 ft
(4.6 m) high?
A. 0.58

B. 0.64

C. 0.71

D. 0.77

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