CFPS MOCK TEST 02

1. All fire hose must meet a proof-test pressure, a service-test pressure, a burst-
test pressure, and a
a. hydrant-test pressure
b. pumper-test pressure
c. kink-test pressure
d. bend-test pressure

2. What is the occupancy factor used by the Insurance Services Office (ISO) for
computing required fire flow for C-2 (limited combustible)?
a. 0.75
b. 0.85
c. 1.00
d. 1.15

3. Critical radiant flux is used to classify:

a. Exterior materials
b. Interior wall finishes
c. Roofing materials
d. Interior floor finishes

4. Heat flow from the flame to the burning fuel of a small pool fire is mostly due
to:
a. conduction heat rise
b. convective heat transfer
c. convective heat loss
d. conduction heat transfer

5. Which of the following is required on the pump discharge line when the
operation of the pump can result in excess pressure that would exceed the

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pressure rating of the fire protection system?
a. relief valve
b. hose valve
c. air release valve
d. circulation valve

6. Which of the following fire stages represents a stage where a fuel-controlled

fire has a constant heat release rate?
a. fire decay
b. fire growth
c. incipient fire
d. steady state

7. The process of simultaneous phase and chemical species change

caused by heat is:
a. Combustion
b. temperature rise
c. pyrolysis
d. fire point

I
8. In addition to excessive fines and a source of air, which of the following
conditions can cause coal stored for use in a boiler to go from moderate
self-heating to uncontrolled combustion?
a. storage for an extended period
b. introduction of an inerting medium
c. decreased ambient temperatures
d. lack of air infiltration

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9. The flame spread index for white (sugar) maple is

a. 100
b. 104
c. 130
d. 142

10. OSHA requires fire fighter training in hazardous materials, respiratory

protection, and
a. Emergency Communication
b. Emergency medical services.
c. Communicable diseases.
d. Live fire training.

11. What is the limit for dead end corridor in a new sprinklered buisness
occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 300 ft

12. What type of fire pump has a pressure range that can exceed 300 psi
a. Split Case
b. Horizontal End suction
c. Suction in line
d. Vertical Turbine

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13. Which pure metal in solid form has the highest boiling point ?
a. Iron
b. Hafnium
c. Uranium
d. Zirconium

14. When assessing life safety in buildings, an examination of how

materials, products, components, and assemblies in a building work
together as a system to meet fire safety objectives refers to a:
a. relational-based evaluation
b. processed-based evaluation
c. scenario-based evaluation
d. performance-based evaluation

15. In spray finishing processes, quantities of flammable and combustible

liquids kept in or near process areas should be limited to the amount
needed for
a. one working shift at a time
b. two working shifts at a time
c. a period of two weeks.
d. a period of four weeks

16. The two life safety options for new high-rise buildings recognized by
the Americans with Disabilities Act are fire sprinklers and

a. Full automatic detection systems.

b. Automatic smoke control systems
c. Protected elevator shafts.
d. Areas of refuge

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17. Which of the following describes the fire hazard when piles of wooden
pallets are found at storage occupancies?
a. 1 ft
b. 2 ft
c. 3 ft
d. 4 ft

18. A multistage centrifugal fire pump is defined as,

a. being able to operate with a diesel, steam, or electric driver
b. a pump installed on more than one floor or one building.
c. requiring more than one input location connection.
d. having two or more impellers on one shaft as a single unit.

19. Household smoke alarms should be discarded if they fail during an

operational test or after,
a. 5 Years
b. 10 Years
c. 15 Years
d. 20 Years

20. In multistory buildings, the exit capacity for each floor is calculated,
a. on the total number of exits at street level
b. by adding to the floor below
c. separately.
d. based on stair width.

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21. In multistory buildings, the exit capacity for each floor is calculate
a. On the total number of exits at street level
b. By adding to the floor below
c. Separately
d. Based on stair width

22. An enforcement procedure that grants a person or business permission

to conduct or engage in any operation or act for which a level of approval
is required is called:
a. A certificate
b. An authorization
c. A warrant
d. A sanction

23. In designing cooking equipment, what is the minimum air velocity

required to minimize grease accumulation?
a. 1200 ft/min (366 m)
b. 1500 ft/min (458 m)
c. 1900 ft/min (579 m)
d. 2000 ft/min (610 m)

24. What are the two classes of fire models?

a. Open and closed
b. behavioral and theoretical
c. physical and mathematical
d. field and laboratory

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25. Which smoke detector type contains a small amount of radioactive

material and functions by sensing a decrease in conductance of the air
when smoke particles enter the chamber?
a. cloud chamber air sampling
b. ionization
c. photoelectric
d. light scattering

26. Bunkers, silos, bins, and outside piles used for the storage of
uncompacted coal should be designed so that
a. air cannot mix readily with the coal.
b. air movement is not permitted.
c. the coal will move through the system.
d. the container is watertight

27. Which of the following best describes the reason many issues in building
codes and other codes for the built environment have historically been
addressed?
a. Number of fires
b. Rate of fires
c. Major incidents
d. Risk values

28. Which of the following is considered passive fire protection?

a. Fire wall
b. Sprinkler system
c. Smoke control system
d. Portable fire extinguisher

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29. Which of the following are the three basic interests building owners have
in relation to building performance?
a. safety, capital, and function
b. aesthetics, capital, and function
c. aesthetics, low first-cost, and function
d. safety, creature comfort, and function

30. Paints and coatings that are used to increase the fire endurance of wood
and that swell when heated, thus forming an insulating layer around the
wood, are known as:
a. efflorescing
b. phosphorescent
c. flurocarbon
d. intumescent

31. If normal building lighting fails, emergency lighting should provide

necessary exit floor illumination automatically for what minimum
duration?
a. 10 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 1 ½ hours

32. The type of proportioner for foam systems that operates on the venturi
action from a container or tank is:
a. pressure proportioning tank
b. balanced pressure proportioner
c. in-line eductor
d. around the pump proportioner

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33. The minimally acceptable duration requirement for a pipe schedule

sprinkler system protecting a light hazard occupancy is
a. 30-60 minutes
b. 60-90 minutes
c. 90-120 minutes
d. 120-150 minutes

34. The NFPA 704 designation for liquefied petroleum gases (LP-Gas) is
a. 0-3-0
b. 0-4-2
c. 0-2-1
d. 0-4-0

35. In addition to a heater, a load cell, and a sample holder, what other device
does a cone calorimeter consist of?
a. Closed cup
b. Spark igniter
c. Wood crib
d. Specimen holder

36. The two major elements of a centrifugal pump are:

a. impeller and casing
b. casing and stuffing glands
c. motor and power source
d. discharge check valve and suction equipment

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37. According to the Environmental Protection Agency toxicity categories,
which signal word must be on the front panel of the package label for a
Category 3 pesticide?
a. Poison
b. Warning
c. Danger
d. Caution

38. In high rise buildings, how many remotely located fire department
connections are required for each standpipe system zone?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

39. The pre-incident planning process for a warehouse begins with

a. an evaluation of the sprinkler system.
b. a tour of the warehouse.
c. an understanding of the insurance policy.
d. a detailed floor plan.

40. Picker trunk automatic sprinklers are used

a. in areas subject to freezing.
b. to reduce collections of lint and fiber on the head.
c. for limited area sprinkler operations.
d. when fed by the domestic system.

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41. The term that describes the distance between the top edge of the pool
boundary and the liquid surface of a pool fire is known as the:
a. Fireboard
b. Freeboard
c. Freebase
d. Firebase

42. In an automatic sprinkler system pipe flowing 29 gpm, what is the

friction loss per lineal foot of pipe if the piping diameter is 2 in. (50.8
mm)?
a. 0.0083
b. 0.0089
c. 0.0095
d. 0.0101

43. The chemical name for the dry extinguishing agent called Purple K is:
a. Potassium bicarbonate
b. Sodium chloride
c. Potassium chloride
d. Sodium bicarbonate

44. A portable fire extinguisher with a Class A rating of 2-A in an ordinary

hazard occupancy will protect what maximum area per extinguisher?
a. 3,000 ft2 (279 m2) per person
b. 6,000 ft2 (557 m2) per person
c. 9,000 ft2 (836 m2) per person
d. 12,000 ft2 (1115 m2) per person

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45. What type of foam agent works best with polar solvent flammable liquid
fires?
a. aqueous film-forming foam agents
b. alcohol-type foaming agents
c. protein foaming agents
d. film-forming fluoroprotein agents

46. The most difficult component of life safety to evaluate is

a. the population at risk.
b. potential fire hazards.
c. the suppression systems.
d. fire growth potential.

47. The removal of flammable vapors by displacement for cleaning a storage

tank can be accomplished by displacement with air, inert gas, and:
a. Earth
b. Water
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Absorbant

48. The ideal configuration for architects to consider when planning for
exterior accessibility by the fire department is access to
a. at least the front of the building.
b. all four sides of the building.
c. a minimum of two sides of the building.
d. at least the front and rear of the building.

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49. Which signals indicates a fault in a monitored circuit or component in a

fire alarm system?
a. Alarm
b. Auxiliary
c. Supervisory
d. Trouble

50. A wall of two parallel wythes with an air space between them is known
as a:
a. Parapet wall
b. Curtain wall
c. Shaft wall
d. Cavity wall

51. In building demolition operations, the last fire protection system to be

removed is the:
a. Standby power system
b. Fire detection system
c. Standpipe system
d. Fire alarm system

52. The process of designing a standpipe system begins with determining

the:
a. Seismic protection needs
b. Intended use
c. Available water
d. Occupant load

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53. What are the two operating modes of fire alarm notification appliances?
a. sensing mode and alarm mode
b. on mode and off mode
c. in-service mode and out of service mode
d. public operating mode and private operating mode

54. In cooling flame gases with water mist as a method of extinguishment

the percent of water mist by weight in air must be at least
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 15 percent

55. What is the essential first requirement of an initial postfire evaluation?

a. board up and secure
b. recovery and stabilization
c. point of origin determination
d. salvage and overhaul

56. A fire reconstruction and failure analysis process includes

a. conducting field testing of materials.
b. identifying the location of fire origin.
c. documenting only certain specific data.
d. completing reports within 72 hours

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57. Thermal inertia of a material is the direct product of what three

properties?
a. thermal conductivity, ignition energy, and heat release rate
b. density, critical heat flux, and ignition temperature
c. thermal conductivity, density, and heat capacity
d. density, ignition energy, and heat capacity

58. Radiative energy released during a fire that is in the visible range is
transmitted in which of the following wavelengths?
a. 0.10–0.35 µm
b. 0.35–0.75 µm
c. 0.75–22.00 µm
d. 22.00–25.00 µm

59. Service tests of pumping engines should be conducted

a. semi-annually.
b. annually.
c. every 3 years.
d. every 5 years.

60. Which of the following is the recommended width for paved surfaces
around a building requiring access by aerial fire-fighting apparatus?
a. 16 ft (4.9 m)
b. 18 ft (5.5 m)
c. 26 ft (7.9 m)
d. 32 ft (9.6 m)

61. The fire alarm system electronic component that is known as a “passive”
component is a:

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a. Relay
b. Fuse
c. Switch
d. Inductor

62. Automatic fire pumps used in conjunction with a sprinkler system

a. must of the negative displacement type
b. should have their suction under a positive head.
c. must be of the positive displacement type.
d. should have their suction under a negative head.

63. An orifice with a sharp entrance edge is known as a:

a. Deficient orifice
b. Standard orifice
c. Universal orifice
d. Basic orifice

64. A purple glass bulb in an automatic sprinkler identifies what temperature

classification?
a. Intermidate
b. High
c. Extra high
d. Very extra high

65. To ensure business occupant evacuation, the means of egress is required

by the Life Safety Code to be illuminated to what intensity measured at
the floor?
a. 0.5 footcandle (5 lux)
b. 1 footcandle (10 lux)
c. 2 footcandle (20 lux)
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d. 10 footcandle (100 lux)

66. The essential parts of a batch reactor are a heat transfer system, a stirrer
or agitator, a relief system, and a:
a. Vessel
b. Mixing valve
c. Jet air applicator
d. Distillation unit

67. A fire pump used for fire apparatus must be capable of delivering 50
percent of its rated capacity at what net pump pressure?
a. 100 psi (690 kPa)
b. 150 psi (1035 kPa)
c. 200 psi (1380 kPa)
d. 250 psi (1725 kPa)

68. Door control circuits interconnected to the fire alarm system should
a. allow release of the door in the case of circuit failure.
b. notify the fire department of door closure.
c. initiate a fire alarm upon door closure.
d. lock the door in the closed position.

69. Wax and asphalt coatings on automatic sprinklers

a. alter the pattern of water distribution.
b. are required in high ambient temperature atomspheres
c. serve as protection from corrosive conditions.
d. may be applied by the installer

70. Which type of signal in a protective signaling system indicates a fault in

a monitored circuit or component of the fire alarm system?
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a. trouble signal
b. multiplex signal
c. supervisory signal
d. alarm signal

71. The minimum design concentration for a total flooding carbon dioxide
system designed to protect acetone is
a. 12 percent
b. 18 percent
c. 24 percent
d. 34 percent

72. The smoke developed index (SDI) is based on a test duration of

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes

73. A private fire service main should be flow tested at least every
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 10 years

74. A stoichiometric mixture results in the consumption of all

a. fuel and oxygen.
b. smoke and flame
c. energy and heat.
d. gas and radiation

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75. The minimum cover requirements for the direct burial of cable or
conductors under streets, highways, and roads is
a. 6 in. (150 mm).
b. 12 in. (300 mm)
c. 18 in. (450 mm)
d. 24 in. (600 mm)

76. Highly protected risk (HPR) property insurance carriers generally

recommend that each tour of a fireguard service should not be longer
than
a. 45 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 75 minutes
d. 90 minutes

77. Inorganic acids and halogens are members of what chemical group?
a. corrosive chemicals
b. oxidizing chemicals
c. water reactive chemicals
d. unstable chemicals

78. The travel distance for an open parking structure is

a. 150 ft
b. 200 ft
c. 250 ft
d. 400 ft

79. Irritant effects produced from exposure to fire atmospheres are normally
considered by combustion toxicologists as being of which two types?
a. sensory and pulmonary

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b. dangerous and not dangerous

c. toxic and non-toxic
d. major and minor

80. Electical sparks from most commercial electrical supply installations are
a. below flame temperatures and will usually ignite flammable liquid
vapor-air mixtures.
b. above flame temperatures and will usually ignite flammable liquid
vapor-air mixtures.
c. below flame temperatures and will not ignite flammable liquid vapor-
air mixtures
d. above flame temperatures and will not ignite flammable liquid vapor-
air mixture

81. A substantially infusible or insoluble plastic is known as a:

a. Thermoset
b. reinforced plastic
c. blowing agent
d. thermoplastic

82. According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, what is the occupant load
for street floor area and basement sales areas of shopping malls?
a. 30 ft2 (2.8 m2) per person
b. 50 ft2 (4.6 m2) per person
c. 60 ft2 (5.6 m2) per person
d. 90 ft2 (8.4 m2) per person

83. The way in which an individual is alerted to the presence of a fire

a. has no effect on awareness cues
b. triggers a fight or flight attitude.

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c. may determine the degree of threat perceived

d. may delay the appropriate response mechanism

84. Compared to other automatic fire detectors, heat detectors are:

a. expensive; highest maintenance
b. unreliable; highest false alarm rate
c. cost-effective; lowest maintenance
d. reliable; lowest false alarm rate

85. When employing open-floor spraying techniques, which of the

following is the recommended buffer zone radius surrounding the spray
area in order to separate spray operations from potential ignition
sources?
a. 5 ft (1.5 m)
b. 10 ft (3.0 m)
c. 15 ft (4.6 m)
d. 20 ft (6.1 m)

86. When a fire and life safety educator considers audience needs, which
domain takes into account the realm of values and opinions the audience
holds?
a. Affective
b. Pyschomotor
c. Didactic
d. Cognitive

87. Which of the following situational clues consists of mechanisms an

individual uses to initiate behavioral activity required to fulfill defense
plans conceptualized in the evaluation process?
a. Commitment
b. Validation
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c. Reassessment
d. Recognition

88. Inerting is the process of reducing the concentration of:

a. an oxidant
b. the reducing agent
c. a radioactive material
d. the LFL

89. Following completion of the installation of torch-applied roofing, a fire-

watch is recommended for
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours

90. Microbiologically influenced corrosion (MIC) is a form of what type of

corrosion?
a. Localized
b. Variable
c. Uniform
d. General

91. An additive used to aid water in fire suppression that increases its surface
tension is referred to as a:
a. Friction agent
b. Viscosity agent
c. Reducing agent
d. Wetting agent

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92. Which spacing multiplier is used for heat detectors installed in a building
with a ceiling that is 22 ft (6.71 m) high?
a. 0.34
b. 0.58
c. 0.77
d. 1.00

93. The smoke barriers between floors in a health care occupancy must carry
a fire resistance rating of
a. ½ hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour
d. 2 hours

94. Which of the following is classified as an oxidizing agent?

a. Sodium chloride
b. Nitrogen
c. Sodium nitrate
d. Ammonia

95. The start-to-discharge pressure setting of overpressure-relief-devices on

compressed and liquefied gas containers is determined by the
a. volume of the container.
b. vapor pressure of the gas.
c. specific gravity of the gas.
d. strength of the container.

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96. The most important form of heat transfer for the activation of automatic
sprinklers is:
a. Expansion
b. Covection
c. Conduction
d. Radiation

97. What is the name of the process where molten plastic is passed through
a die under pressure to form a continuous profile?
a. Extrusion
b. Polymerization
c. Lamination
d. Molding

98. The three general concepts in most performance-based design

frameworks include establishing fire safety goals, specifying design
parameters, and
a. making value judgments.
b. identifying safety factors.
c. verifying proposed solutions.
d. reviewing regulations.

99. Which of the following is not one of the four major components or
subassemblies of HUD homes?
a. Chassis system
b. Floor system
c. Wall system
d. Bracing system

100. Which of the following types of fire prevention inspections is

conducted to ensure that the occupancy, fire protection systems, and
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hazards protection are intact?
a. re-inspection
b. new construction inspection
c. compliance inspection
d. installation inspection

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Q1. You are inspecting the installation of a single-wall metal pipe vent. Which of
these statements is a requirement of installation?

a. Vent connectors must be no more than 14 in.(55cm) in diameter

b. The pipe should only be made of galvanized steel
c. They must be in compliance with laboratory listings and manufacturer
instructions.
d. The pipe should not pass through a floor or ceiling

Q2. Who is ultimately responsible for ITM of fire protection systems?

a. Sprinkler contractor
b. Fire department
c. Insurance company
d. Building owner

Q3. According to a table in FPH on ignition sources in dust explosions, which of

these caused the highest percentage of dust explosions in Germany?

a. Mechanical Sparks
b. Electrical Equipment
c. Smoldering nests
d. Electrostatic discharges

Q4. Air Sampling-type smoke detection systems use what detection principle?

a. Infrared absorption
b. Photoelectric light-obscuration
c. Photoelectric light-scattering
d. Video-based

Q5. When gathering data for pre-incident planning, which of these is important to
establish incident priorities and tactical operations?

a. Building construction
b. Type of occupancy
c. Site considerations
 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

d. Availability of onsite support

Q6. The assignments of appropriate levels of safety for buildings is based on

minimum design loads, by occupancy type, from the American Society of Civil
Engineers. Which occupancy type involves building that are deemed to be
essential to the public welfare such as hospitals; fire, rescue, and police stations;
essential communication, transportation, and water storage facilities?

a. Occupancy Type I
b. Occupancy Type II
c. Occupancy Type III
d. Occupancy Type IV

Q7. Major life safety strategies include fire prevention, fire management and
which of these?

a. Occupancy management
b. Property management
c. Incident management
d. Operations management

Q8. In multistory building, each floor is generally separated by what level of fire-
rated construction?

a. 0.5 to 1 hour
b. 1 to 2 hour
c. 1.5 to 2.5 hour
d. 2 to 3 hour

Q9. Public safety telecommunicators should be temperamentally suited to the

position. Which of the following ability is needed for this role?

a. Speak clearly, with proper annunciation

b. Wake quickly to take action
c. Be familiar with inspection, testing and maintainence
d. Work harmoniously with other people
 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

Q10. According to the FPH, which of the following is the most obvious example of
the effect fire investigations can have?

a. Support for prosecution of arson

b. Changes to public education about fire
c. Input into insurance loss adjustment
d. Changes to codes and standards

Q11. Which of these is a practice or approach for providing all hazard protection
to a population or municipality?

a. Mutual aid
b. Combined response
c. Coomunity risk reduction
d. Risk analysis

Q12. Cellular ceiling fires, near a 12° transition from horizontal, do what?

a. Detach and thicken

b. Increase flame spread rate
c. Decrease flame spread rate
d. Increase heat transfer rate

Q13. Water mist suppression system uses which of the following spray
characteristics?

a. Deluge
b. Spray momentum
c. Proportioning
d. Spiral cone

Q14. Which of the following will spell out in detail what materials can be used, the
building geometry and how the various building components should be
assembled?

a. Prescriptive codes
b. Condition codes
 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

c. Allowable codes
d. LRFD codes

Q15. Which type of fire alarm system indicates that action is needed with
operation of other fire protection system and/or that guards need to make a fire
patrol tour?

a. Supervisory
b. Alarm
c. Trouble
d. Control

Q16. Which of the following portable fire extinguishers classifications is listed to

address fires that involve animal or vegetable oils or cooking fats?

a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class K

Q17. Which type of sprinkler is easiest to design and install, simplest to maintain
and most reliable?

a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Deluge
d. Dry pipe

Q18. Which of the following is true about exhaust ducts found in semicoductor
cleanrooms?

a. They reduce dust accumulation

b. They are made of fiberglass reinforced plastic
c. They release finish treatment particulates
d. They are made of welded, stainless steel
 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

Q19. Which of these may be considered to be the root of modern building codes?

a. Byzantine law
b. Oath of Hippocrates
c. Code of Hammurabi
d. Tang code

Q20. In general, the test regimen for all batteries includes a battery charger test,
and which of these?

a. Closed circuit test

b. Release test
c. Deterioration test
d. Load voltage test

Q21. Which of these are predominant hazards of combustion products to life

safety?

a. Light Obscuration
b. Increased breathing
c. Peripheral nervous system deterioration
d. Thermal effects

Q22. The fire hazards to a building may relate to its type of construction. In
United States, construction is classfied according to the subtypes derived from
how many fundamental construction types?

a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

Q23. Which of the following means emergency treatment beyond first aid,
performed by fire service personnel under supervision of a physician?

a. Resuscitation
b. Paramedical services
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c. Medical triage
d. Physiotherapy

Q24. An adequate water supply with the necessary pressure is important to

control a fire. Inadequate attention is frequently given to the number and
location of hydrants in housing projects, apartment buildings, and which other
location?

a. Educational settings
b. Hospitals
c. Shopping centers
d. Construction sites

Q25. Configuration of materials burning, ventilation air supply and stage of the
fire all influence the rate of which of these?

a. Heat release
b. Smoke production
c. Heat flux
d. Combustion

Q26. Manufacturers of matteresses and uphoistered furniture for institutional

occupancies creates products that only resists ignition from small flames but
approximately low______if presented with a large flame ignition source.

a. Flame spread
b. Heat release rate values
c. Smoke development
d. Pool burning tendency

Q27. Tank vehicle and tank car loading and unloading stations for Class I liquids
should be located at what minimum distance from storage tanks and other plant
buildings?

a. 15 ft (4.6m)
b. 20 ft (6m)
c. 25 ft (8m)
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d. 30 ft (9.1m)

Q28. In terms of fire loss trends in U.S., when did civilian fire injuries begin to
consistently decline?

a. The late of 1970s

b. The early of 1980s
c. The mid of 1990s
d. The early of 2000s

Q29. The goal of ____ is for the operator to determine the necessary discharge
pressure setting on the fire pump.

a. Coupling inspection
b. Fire house testing
c. Hydraulics calculation
d. Nozzle selection

Q30. The particulates and aerosols produce from combustion and pyrolysis can be
hazrdous to occupants. In well ventilated flaming fires, nearly all the carbon lost
from the combustibles is converted into which of these gas?

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Halogen acids
c. Organic irritants
d. Carbon dioxide

Q31. Which of these is not one of the three operating principles used in gas-
sensing fire detectors or multisensory detectors?

a. Catalytic element principle

b. Infrared absorption principle
c. Pneumatic principle
d. Semiconductor principle

Q32. Classification of fire by combustion process includes which of these?

a. Steady state
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b. Ignition
c. Smoldering
d. Decay

Q33. Which of the following is considered as a safe storage practice for wood
fuels?

a. Wood should be stored in large, circular piles

b. Heat release rate values
c. Wood piles should be 50 ft (15.24 m) from the building
d. Logs should be stored in ranked parallel piles

Q34. Special apparatus and equipment may be required to deliver a wide variety
of response services. Special apparatus for spills of chemicals and petroleum
should be considered for which of these?

a. Medical facilities
b. Automobile dealerships
c. Marinas
d. Pharmaceutical distributors

Q35. For either a grain dust fire or explosion to occur and be sustained, which of
the following elements must be present?

a. Fuel, ignition source, oxygen and combustible dust

b. Dust, heat and ignition source
c. Fuel, ignition source and oxygen
d. Fuel, oxygen, confinement and ignition source

Q36. NFPA 550 has identified which of the following as overarching strategies to
mitigate risks to life safety?

a. Protect mission operations

b. Protect property
c. Manage materials
d. Manage occupant exposure
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Q37. NFPA 10 specifies that an extinguisher with a gross weight not exceeding
40 lb(18 kg) should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more
than

a. 3 ft (1 m)above the floor

b. 3 ½ (1.1 m) ft above the floor
c. 4 ft (1.3 m) above the floor
d. 5 ft (1.5 m) above the floor

Q38. Gas-tight containers used for storage of gases must address temperature,
pressure conditions and which of these?

a. Transportation conditions
b. Indoor storage conditions
c. Dispensing conditions
d. Maintainence conditions

Q39. In order to properly protect furnishings as well as life, water from residential
sprinkler must be delivered:

a. Above eye level

b. At 8 ft (2.4 m) or higher
c. At least 12 in.(0.5 m) from the wall
d. Close to ceiling

Q40. The fire hazards of a given materil stem from the material iteself. Regardless
of form, a material can be evaluated in terms of which of these?

a. Combustion type
b. Heat releate rate
c. Smoke development
d. Ignition potential

Q41. What is third category of fire growth rate?

a. Incipient
b. Decay
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c. Steady state
d. Growing fire

Q42. High rise buildings, where smoke management systems are integrated
with______, require special design considerations including; fail safe devices and
adequate controls, acceptance testing, and ongoing maintainence.

a. Exhaust systems
b. Fire alarm systems
c. Automatic sprinkler systems
d. HVAC systems

Q43. Which of the following is the type of evacuation model?

a. Behaviour restriction model

b. Single imitation model
c. Movement model
d. Naturalistic model

Q44. Under normal conditions, which of these accounts for a major part of
natural air movement in buildings, while during a fire it is often responsible for
wide distribution of smoke and toxic gases?

a. Ventilation
b. Stack effect
c. Air flow
d. Wind effect

Q45. All operating devices associated with carbon dioxide extinguishing systems
should be tested at what minimum interval?

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually
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Q46. Single and multiple-station smoke alarms may be which of these types?

a. AC battery backup type

b. Deionization type
c. Photoelectric type
d. Direct-wired type

Q47. There are eight elements of central station fire alarm service. Which four are
the protected premises?

a. Installation, monitoring of signals, retransmission of signals and runner

service
b. Installation, testing, maintainence and running service
c. System management, monitoring of signals, retransmission of signals and
record keeping
d. System management, testing, maintainence and record keeping

Q48. Water mist system is used to extinguish which type of fire classification?

a. Class A fires only

b. Class A and B fires
c. Class A, B and C fires
d. Class A, B and D fires

Q49. Extinguishing mechanisms of which agents include smothering, cooling,

radiation, shielding and a chain-breaking reaction?

a. Wet chemical
b. Halon replacement
c. Dry chemical
d. Carbon dioxide

Q50. The maximum travel distance to an exit in a sprinkled warehouse, with high-
hazard contents is:

a. 75 ft (23 m)
b. 100 ft (30 m)
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c. 150 ft (41 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

Q51. Prior to conducting a risk asssesment and analysis at a local community

center building, you consult which of these to guide you in your evaluation?

a. NFPA 99
b. NFPA 550
c. NFPA 551
d. NFPA 1300

Q52. Which suppression systems are typically used in machinery compartments

with diesel engines, environment with low- and high-flashpoint carbon fuels, or
where diesel or gas-driven turbines are standard equipment, such as in offshore
drilling platforms?

a. Water spray
b. Deluge
c. Water foam
d. Water-mist

Q53. Which of the following is widely used for state and local fire investigation
training programs in the U.S. and serves as the basis for the performance criteria
in NFPA 1033?

a. NFPA 902
b. NFPA 907M
c. NFPA 921
d. NFPA 1730

Q54. The development of smoke and hot gases in tall spaces that may result in
delayed operation of sprinklers or detectors is known as:

a. Ceiling jet
b. Flashover
c. Stratification
d. Ventilation
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Q55. In terms of fuel loads in typical health care facilities, the total average
combustible contents per square foot (square numbers) in a laundary and clothes
storage area is:

a. 5.0 ft2 (0.46 m2)

b. 6.5 ft2 (0.60 m2)
c. 12.5 ft2 (1.16 m2)
d. 13.1 ft2 (1.20 m2)

Q56. Owners of foam extinguishing systems must carefully observe all air-foam
concentrates for constitution and characteristics. At what minimum interval
should foam concentrates be tested?

a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

Q57. Specially sized windows for fire department rescue are required for
educational occupancies, where classrooms are:

a. Over 200 ft2 (18.6 m2)

b. Over 250 ft2 (23.2 m2)
c. Over 300 ft2 (27.9 m2)
d. In buildings protected by a supervised sprinkler system

Q58. Coal storage and handling practices needs to be properly implemented and
maintained. These include which of the following?

a. Immersion of water
b. Storage in air-tight drums
c. Explosion venting
d. Prefire planning
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Q59. When installing visual fire notificaiton appliances, the mounting height
should be_____to ensure the device is not blocked by common furnishings.

a. 5.5 to 7 ft (1.67 to 2.28 m)

b. 6.5 to 8 ft (2.03 to 2.44 m)
c. 8 to 10 ft (2.44 to 3.04 m)
d. 8 to 12 ft (2.44 to 3.6 m)

Q60. Which of the following are specialized operations that can include the
operations of rescue, fire suppression and properly conservation at incidents
involving fires producing very high levels of radiant heat, as well as conductive
and connective heat?

a. Approach fire fighting operations

b. Wild-land fire fighting operations
c. Proximity fire-fighting operations
d. Entry fire-fighting operations

Q61. There are two important consideration in designing structural integrity of a

building during fire. Which of these is one of them?

a. The ability of fire fighters to access the premises

b. The ability to reduce smoke development
c. The ability of the structure to avoid collapse
d. The ability to protect occupants from fire effects

Q62. Several factors can result in variations in delay times for evacuation. Select
which factor apply to delay.

a. Timeliness of training
b. Path of egress
c. Type of occupancy
d. Time of day and weather
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Q63. Well systems are used as alternate fire water supply system for fire-fighting
at farmhouses and in which other locations?

a. Educational buildings
b. Industrial properties
c. High rise buildings
d. Airports

Q64. At what minimum frequency should piping, fittings, hangers, nozzles and
flexible tubing be inspected?

a. Quarterly
b. Monthly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Q65. Carbon dioxide should not be used as a fire extinguishing agent on fires
involving which of these?

a. Chemicals with their own oxygen supply

b. Flammable gases
c. Combustible liquids
d. Electrically energized fires

Q66. A fire pump (when present) is a significant component of the system water
supply. How frequently should be fire pumps be inspected and tested?

a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. In the Spring and Fall

Q67. At what frequency are water flow alarm and supervisory devices inspected
for a water mist system?

a. Weekly
b. Monthly
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c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

Q68. In indoor and outdoor warehouses and storage locations, containing

materials of ordinary fire hazard, which diesel fuel vehicles are approved?

a. Type D
b. Type DS
c. Type DX
d. Type DY

Q69. There are two primary fire hazard concerns relative to commercial cooking
exhaust fans. Which of these is one of them?

a. The fan must attract grease and trap it within itself

b. The fan must not discharge effluent toward a door or window
c. The fan must have a smoke damper
d. The fan must not recirculate indoor air

Q70. Which of these is an important function of ductile design?

a. Assuring elements are stronger than connections

b. Configuring firm structures
c. Providing redundancy systems
d. Shaping methods of damage

Q71. In analyzing the behaviour of an individual involved in decision making

during a fire, it must be remebered that these are dynamic processess. They are
constantly being modified in relation to which of these?

a. Force
b. Definition
c. Consequence
d. Velocity

Q72. How does good housekeeping assist in fire prevention and protection?

a. Preserves business operations

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b. Prevents fire ignition

c. Minimizes fire spread
d. Provides uniformity

Q73. Which of the following is the principle hazard associated with flame spread,
and affects the class in interior finish material based on location in a building?

a. Mass transfer
b. Burning rate
c. Heat release rate
d. Heat transfer

Q74. One descriptor of a hazard is the maximum amount of energy produced as

heat per unit weight of material burned. This quantity is known as:

a. Heat release rate

b. Heat of combustion
c. Heat flux
d. Heat of gasification

Q75. A sprinkler with a red color code and a purple glass bulb would have which
temperature classification?

a. Very extra high

b. Ordinary
c. Extra high
d. Ultra high

Q76. Which of the following involves transfer of heat by a circulating fluid, such as
a gas or a liquid?

a. Covection
b. Fuel loading
c. Heat of gasification
d. Combustion
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Q77. A public supply system with a required fire flow of 4500 gpm (17,033 lpm)
should be able to maintain that flow for a duration of

a. Two hours
b. Three hours
c. Four hours
d. Five hours

Q78. Which phase of emergency preparedness management can be defined as a

balance between public sector, private sector, and the general populace?

a. Response
b. Recovery
c. Preparedness
d. Mitigation

Q79. Of the six decision processes relevant for a fire, which can be described as
cognitive and psychological activities required for the individual to respond to the
threat?

a. Evaluation
b. Commitment
c. Validation
d. Confusion

Q80. Points in an exit system where the character or dimension of a route

changes or where route merge is known as:

a. Egress flow passages

b. Transitions
c. Route transfers
d. Conversions

Q81. Which of the following questions are asked in the Flammable Liquid Event
Tree in the FPH?

a. Does the pool dissipate?

 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

b. Is the release instantaneous?

c. Does the pool spread or evaporate?
d. Is a suppression system present?

Q82. In a detention or correctional facility, the following will be what type of

restraint or locking system:

Free movement is restricted from an occupied space. Remote control release is

provided to permit movement from all sleeping rooms, activity spaces and other
occupied areas within the smoke compartment to other smoke compartments.

a. Use Condition II – Zoned Egress

b. Use Condition III – Zone Impeded Egress
c. Use Condition IV – Impeded Egress
d. Use Condition V – Contained

Q83. The FPH states that automatic sprinkler protection is required for bars,
nightclubs, and assemblies with festive seating. It also indicates that all other new
assembly occupancies are required to be protected by automatic sprinkler system
where the occupant load is______, or where necessary based on the building’s
construction type.

a. 100 or greater
b. 300 or greater
c. 300 or greater
d. 500 or greater

Q84. The incident commander (IC) of an aircraft rescue and fire fighting (ARFF)
unit at a small airport, where there is only one truck and only one person
responding, must create an incident action plan for an aircraft accident. Which of
the following is his/her operational priority?

a. Control the fire

b. Communication with the pilot
c. Seek additional support
d. Contact NTSB
 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

Q85. A diffusion flame is one in which:

a. Fuel and air are intially separate and in the region in which they mix
b. Chemical oxidation occurs
c. Fuel and air are intimately mixed before ignition
d. Air diffuses in the pores of the materials and reacts with interior surfaces

Q86. While investigating leading causes for U.S. structure fires in homes in
between 1999 and 2002, you discover that international fires made up what
percentage?

a. 4%
b. 9%
c. 14%
d. 28%

Q87. A sprinkler with a green color code and black glass bulb would have which
temperature classification?

a. Intermediate
b. Ordinary
c. Ultra high
d. Very extra high

Q88. In a typical year, over one-quarter of all on-duty fire fighter deaths occur in
which of the following?

a. Responding to or returning from an incident

b. On standby at the fire station
c. Providing paramedical services
d. Performing search and rescue operations

Q89. Which type of sprinkler system may be used to protect spaces exposed to
cold temperatures such as outside loading docks or freezers with ESFR sprinkler?

a. Antifreeze
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b. Dry pipe
c. Preaction
d. Wet pipe

Q90. Safe long-term storage of flammable and combustible liquids involves which
of these?

a. Proper ventilation
b. Specilized carts
c. Liquid-tight containers
d. Storage inside tank container

Q91. When Testing interfaced equipment which of the following must be

documented to assure appropriate ongoing testing and system reliability?

a. Test methodology
b. System Installation date
c. Personnel performing test
d. Required sequence of operation

Q92. Which initiating device requires visual inspection on quarterly basis ?

a. Duct Detector
b. Fire Alarm Boxes
c. Heat Detector
d. Supervisory Signal devices

Q93. Which of these flame configuration is applicable to gaseous and liquid fuel ?

a. Flammable shower
b. Pool fire
c. Flammable jet
d. Wall fire

Q94. It is most convenient to think of hazard control in terms of three things. Which
of these is one of them ?

a. Managing material utilized

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b. Controlling smoke development

c. Managing suppression
d. Containing fire spread

Q95. The process of preventing the vertical spread of interior fire through
structural and architectural decisions is known as :

a. Containment
b. Compartmentation
c. Suppression
d. Partioning

Q96. The Major hazard with the storage of gases in container is :

a. LEVEE
b. BLIVE
c. BLEVE
d. LOVOS

Q97. Supervisory initiating devices must not be on the same initiating device circuit
as :

a. Alarm initiating devices

b. Troubel initiating devices
c. Waterflow initiating devices
d. Other fire Control devices

Q98. Which of these address the issue of how long a fire burn until the fuel is
consumed.

a. Stratification
b. HRR
c. Pyrolysis
d. Fuel loading

Q99. Which type of flame has ability to create a flammable gas-air mixture that can
be stoichiometric or near stoichiometric
 CFPS MOCK TEST 04

a. Endothermic flame
b. Premixed flame
c. Exothermic flame
d. Diffusion flame

Q100. On Construction site which of these should be installed as quickly as possible

to assist in fire fighting effort ?

a. Standpipe and hose system

b. Scaffolding and ladders
c. Ground wells
d. Electrical system