CFPS MOCK TEST 01

1. Many Commercial cooking establishements have grease extraction or

control devices downstream of the hood to remove grease and odors from
the effulient stream. Where are most of these devices installed ?
a. On the roof top immediately before the fan.
b. In ceiling space
c. In mezzanines
d. Just above the cooktop

2. What is the typical fire load of content in typcial nursing home patient room
?
a. 2.6
b. 3.2
c. 3.9
d. 4.3

3. When responding to fire, there are generally two types of tactice or stratagies
for extinguishment. Which of these is one of them.
a. Aggressive
b. Automated
c. Defensive
d. Manual

4. A Surface with the aborbitivity with maximum value of 1 is known as

a. Visual radiation
b. A Black body
c. A white body
d. A Black surface

5. The FPH indicates that a high rise is defined as buidling where floor of an
occupiable story is greater than _____ above the lowest level of fire
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department access.
a. 40 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 ft

6. Which of the following is a practice or approach for providing all hazards or

all risk protection to a community ?
a. Combined response
b. Mutual aid
c. Community risk reduction
d. Risk Analysis

7. Which of these are thermosensitive devices designed to react at

predetermined temprature by automatically releasing the a stream of water
and distributing it in specified pattern and quantities over designated areas ?
a. Aerosol suppression systems
b. Water Spray system
c. Water mist system
d. Automatic sprinkler system

8. A fire Protection Engineer should develop a detailed fire alarm system

design, based on combination of three primary goals, life safery, Property
safety and which of these ?
a. Cutural or historic value
b. Structual safety
c. Mission Protection
d. Environment safety

9. The assignment of appropriate level of safety to buildings is based on

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minimum design loads, by occupacy type, from the ASCE what occupancy
type involves sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally unoccupied ?
a. Occupancy Type 1
b. Occupancy Type 2
c. Occupancy Type 3
d. Occupancy Type 4

10. The Practice of Fire protection revolves around how to best meet a code
requirement or client objective. The principle tools of this decision making
process include which of these ?
a. Consideration
b. Treatment
c. Analysis
d. Project Management

11. What minimum Pressure should be maintained at hydrant delivering the

required fire flow ?
a. 20 Psi
b. 5 psi
c. 30 psi
d. 50 psi

12. According to FPH, What NFIRS occupancy classifications are convents,

bunkhouses, workers barracks and nursing quarters ?
a. Board and care facility
b. Apartment building
c. Lodging and rooming houses
d. Dormitories houses

13. You are investigating a lead causes of US structure fire between 1992-2002

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according to the table annual averages. Which of the following created the
greatest direct property damages
a. Identified cooking equipments
b. Electrical distribution or lighting equipment
c. Lightening
d. Identified heating equipment.

14. Some fuel gases are used in hot work Process such as oxyfule gas welding
which of the following has lowest neutral flame temprature ?
a. MAP
b. Hydrogen
c. Propylene
d. Acetylene

15. The means by which an occupant is alerted to a fire ?

a. Lead to non adaptive fire behavior
b. Trigger dangerous fire behavior
c. Determine the degrees of threat perceived
d. Elicit an avoidance of action

16. Fire Protection Safeguard for gas storage revolve around which of these ?
a. Ignition by static electricity
b. The container/gas combination
c. Indoor or outdoor storage
d. Transportation

17. Which of these refrigerants would be the least concern in terms of both
flammability and toxicity ?
a. R-134a

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b. R-143a
c. R-290
d. R-717

18. When an officer must determine the relative importance of size up which of
the following is considered to be an operational priority ?
a. Time of the day
b. Building construction type
c. Extinguishment
d. Presence of sprinkler

19. The Reliability of Fire alarm system and components has shown that, for
most physical systems when the failure rate is plotted verses time a curve of
familiar shape result that is known as
a. Guassian curve
b. Bathtub Curve
c. Life time curve
d. Turn on Curve

20. Which of the require general structural integrity that spread of the local
damage beyond an area dispropotionate to the original local area ?
a. Engineering Processes
b. Material guidelines
c. Building codes
d. Installation Procedure

21. Generally, what type of fires are associated with lowest rate of flame
spread, highest heat flux and highest burn rate?
a. Wall or vertical surface fires
b. Ceiling, horizontal or downward surface fires
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c. Upward facing surface fires

d. Both upward facing and downward facing surface fires

22. When investigating major fire situations, ______ procedures are developed
to address complex events and timelines.
a. STEP
b. STAIR
c. STAGE
d. STAR

23. Which law is expressed in this formula?

q = εσT4 kW/m2
a. Stefan-Boltzmann’s
b. Planck’s
c. Kirchoff’s
d. Local Thermodynamics

24. The three approaches to structural frame and barrier design for fire
resistance include : standard fire resistance testing and building code
requirements; analytical calculations to determine fire resistance; and which
of these?
a. Analytical models for fire exposure characteristics
b. Standard load and force resistance design
c. Analytical structural methods based on real fire exposure characteristics
d. Critical investigation of materials and products

25. In addition to regularly scheduled inspections, sprinkler systems may also

undergo which of these?
a. Spring and Fall inspections
b. Summer and Fall inspections

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c. Fall and Winter inspections

d. Winter and Spring inspections

26. Where extremely fast response is required, the sprinkler pipe is prefilled
with water up to the open sprinklers, which are equipped with blow off plugs
or caps. This is a special variety of which type of system?
a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Water mist
d. Deluge

27. In addition to including fire alarm and suppression systems, a fire protection
system safeguarding equipment must take into account which of these?
a. System and data redundancy
b. Physical storage of equipment
c. Facility security
d. Emergency plans and procedures

28. Hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers by halogenated agent should be

performed at what minimum interval?
a. Annually
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 12 years

29. According to a table in FPH, what is the minimum installation clearance for
steam pipes carrying steam at pressure above 15 psig (103 kPa), but not over
500 psig(3450 kPa)?
a. ½ in (13 mm)
b. 1 in (25 mm)

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c. 3 in (76 mm)
d. 6 in (152 mm)

30. At what minimum frequency shouls the amount of expellent gases be

checked on a chemical suppression system, to ensure there is sufficient gas
to provide effective discharge?
a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

31. Which of these provides requirements for installation of sprinkler system in

the one and two-family dwelling environment?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 13A
c. NFPA 13D
d. NFPA 13R

32. According to FPH, what is the minimum frequency that waterflow and
supervisory devices should be inspected for a water mist system?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

33. Which type of suppression system is accepted by International Maritime

Organization (IMO) as replacement for halon or CO2 in marine machinery
spaces?
a. Foam water
b. Water mist

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c. Water spray
d. Wet chemical

34. Fire hazard can be quantified as they relate to physical and chemical
characteristics of the ______ with which they are associated.
a. Products
b. Construction
c. Materials
d. Occupancies

35. The typical priorities in fire risk management involves which of these?
a. Evaluating facilities and properties
b. Developing programs and assigning responsibilities to manage risk
c. Providing cost/benefit analysis for loss control alternatives
d. Establishing incident commanders

36. Application of water mist system include offshore drilling and which of
these?
a. Industrial kitchens
b. Environment with carbon fuels
c. IT server rooms
d. Flammable liquids

37. You are charged with travel time for a crowd of occupants. Which of these
is a fundamental characteristic of crowd movement to consider in your
calculation?
a. Occupancy classification
b. Flow
c. Fire size
d. Smoke density
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38. The inspection of which detectors must verify the optical clarity of lenses as
well as a clear, unobstructed line of sight of the fire?
a. Radiant-energy sensing detectors
b. Flashover detectors
c. Smoke detectors
d. Flashpoint detectors

39. Which occupancy type has an additional requirement for smoke barriers to
separate floors, that must carry a 1-hour fire resistance rating?
a. Educational building
b. Health care facilities
c. Single family homes
d. Assembly halls

40. Which of the following does FPH indicate must be viewed as a living
document?
a. Building design
b. Pre-incident plans
c. Site plans
d. Mutual and pacts

41. Which extinguishing agents utilize the extinguishing mechanism of

saponificaiton?
a. Water
b. Wet and dry chemicals
c. Clean agents
d. Carbon dioxide

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42. The FPH indicates that smoke alarms in one-and two family dwellings are
to be replaced when they fail to respond to the operability test (i.e. pushing
the test button) or after_____from the date of manufacture
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 11 years

43. Four categories of occupant characterstics influence the ability to survive in

the fire. Which of the following is one of those categories?
a. Age
b. Staff
c. Return
d. Setting

44. Which of the following ensures the responding emergency personnel known
as much as they can about a facility’s construction, occupancy and fire
protection systems before an incident occurs?
a. Pre incident planning
b. Disaster preparedness
c. Management of free operations
d. Organization for fire loss prevention

45. Which supervisory service system involves both active security patrol tour
and passive security patrol tour initiating devices?
a. Non compulsory tour
b. Elective tour
c. Demand tour
d. Compulsory tour

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46. When assessing life safety in buildings, the qualified evaluator must have a
good understanding of a range of concepts, including which of these?
a. Ignition potential and fire hazards
b. Fire growth stages
c. Emergency medical services
d. Incident management

47. Which type of smoke detectors is used to protect large spaces, such as
atriums, auditoriums and manufacturing areas?
a. Spot type aspirating
b. Video based
c. Photoelectric light scattering type
d. Photoelectric light obstruction type

48. In a computer room that also contains paper and other ordinary
combustibles, which of these extinguisher should be provided?
a. Class D extinguisher
b. Dry chemical extinguisher
c. CO2 extinguisher
d. Foam extinguisher

49. At a petrochemical plant, what is the storage tank spacing requirement

between Class II cone tanks and floating roof tanks (> 10,000 < 3,00,000
barrels)?
a. 0.5 × D
b. 1 × D
c. 1 × D 50′ minimum
d. 1.5 × D 100′ minimum

50. Boiler rooms, incinerator rooms, storage rooms above 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) paint

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shops, and maintainence shops are generally separated by what rated of fire
rated construction?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1.5 hour
d. 2 hour

51. The hazard of a building may relate to its type of construction. Building
construction can be classified based on _____ of the construction material
used
a. Degree of fire resistance
b. Rate of pyrolysis
c. Maximum heat energy
d. Heat of gasification

52. The process following flashover when smoke recirculates towards the fire
causing reduced oxygen for combustion and a reduced heat release rate is :
a. Ventilation
b. Post-flashover
c. Vitiation
d. Smoke discharge

53. Which of the following is probably the most important measure used to
characterize the flammability hazard of a given material?
a. Heat release rate
b. Ignition temperature
c. Flame ignition transfer
d. Flame propagation propensity

54. Which of the following is included in the four phases of emergency

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preparedness management?
a. Response
b. Readiness
c. Salvage
d. Intensification

55. Uniform building code requires new hotels with______sleeping rooms,

regardless of height, to be protected with automatic sprinklers and active fire
protection system.
a. 16 or more
b. 20 or more
c. 30 or more
d. 50 or more

56. In addition to a primary power supply, emergency voice/alarm

communication systems must have 24 hours of standby power, followed
by___of operation.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

57. Smoke is a threat to life safety. The nature and concentration of generated
smoke depend on which of the following factors?
a. The temperature of the air
b. Number of the exits in the area
c. Whether the product is flamming or pyrolizing
d. The location of the product

58. At what minimum frequency should hydrants be flushed, by allowing full

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flow at least for one minute?

a. Semiannually
b. Annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

59. The factor of safety generally varies from ______ depending upon the
reliability or variability of data on which the value of strength and
consequences of failure are determined.
a. 1.0 to 2.5
b. 1.5 to 3.0
c. 2.0 to 4.0
d. 2.5 to 4.5

60. With materials raw cotton, grains, powder and coal caution should be taken
to avoid______with special handling equipments such as conveyors.
a. Heat of friction
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Electrostatic discharge
d. Heat of gasification

61. Which decision making model is evolved from studies of decision makers
(such as fire officers) in complex, time critical situation?
a. Conceptual model
b. Naturalistic model
c. Recognition primed model
d. Stress model

62. In chemical processing plants, which of these is the primary method to

control spills?

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a. Preventing spills
b. Wet benches
c. Special carts
d. Use the hazard ranking approach

63. Which electrically operated waterflow alarm initiating device is inserted

into the riser just above the point at which the water supply piping enters the
building from underground?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Vane type switch
c. Mechanical guard
d. Pressure operated switch

64. A connection from a reliable public waterworks system of

adequate_______is the prefered or primary supply for automatic sprinkler
system.
a. Volume and Flow
b. Density and Strength
c. Capacity and Pressure
d. Force and Stream

65. Refrigerants are identified by ______ as specified in ANSI/ASHRAE 34

a. A Color Coded label
b. Their Chemical name
c. A numerical Designation
d. Their Trade Name

66. A key element in the residential fire protection is the development and
practice of a family escape paln. NFPA provides information on how to
formulate this plan and its ____

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a. EDITH
b. FEITH
c. FEP
d. PTE

67. Which of these is defined as a contineuous membrance or membrance with

discontiuities created by protected openings with a specified fire protection
rating. Where such membrance are designed and constructed with a
specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire.
a. Fire Barriers
b. Fire Doors
c. Fire Partitions
d. Fire Walls

68. Which of these container guidelines for proper location of automatic

sprinkler heads near ducts to avoid obstruction of water distribution ?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 16
d. NFPA 18

69. Which of these sprinkler been found to be effective means of suppressing

fire involves fires ?
a. Mist sprinkler
b. Pre- actions sprinkler
c. ESFR Sprinkler
d. Small Drop Sprinkler

70. During Fire loss investigation, which of these statements is true about
exigent circumstances ?

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a. The fire department has determined that there is no further risk

b. The insurance assessor has revoked scene investigation
c. Duration of the fire department presence depends on ownver
d. The Fire department needs to assess continuing risk.

71. Which of the followings is a terms used to describe the size range of water
molecules contained in a representative sample of spray or mist?
a. Propotioning
b. Drop size distribution
c. Flux density
d. Spray momentum.

72. You are performing risk assessment and analysis of a facility, which of
these describe the first step in the risk assessment process ?
a. Hazard identification
b. Setting goals and objectives
c. Conducting Probablity analysis
d. Severity analysis

73. Based upon a table in FPH, what are the egress distance limitations for an
unsprinklered general purpose industrial occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft

74. Which foaming agent is capable of forming water solution films on the
surface of flammalbe hydrocarbon liquids ?
a. AFFF
b. AR
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c. FFFP
d. P agent

75. Which of the following ignition test uses a 100 mm circular horizontal
specimen which is exposed to known heat flux from the tungten quartz
heater and time to ignition is measured ?
a. Cone calorimeter
b. ICAL
c. FPA
d. LIFT

76. The appropriate selection of a design fire’s growth is important to obtaining

a realistic prediction of which of these?
a. Time to start of evacuation
b. Likelihood of occurrence
c. Number of occupants
d. Probability of flashover

77. Which of the following describes clean fire suppression agents?

a. Electricity conductive
b. Form a blanket on the fuel surface
c. Vapourize readily
d. Listed for use on combustible metals

78. Mutual and plans, pacts or aggrements, are created among fire and rescue
services and other emergency responderes:
a. To lend assistance across jurisdictional boundaries
b. To provide joint dispatch, and combine training
c. To offer assistance following a disaster in community
d. To grant financial aid to purchase speciality fire fighting equipment
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79. Which sprinkler system should be used when system components are
exposed to temperatures below 40°F (4°C)?
a. Wet pipe systems
b. Preaction systems
c. Dry pipe systems
d. Deluge systems

80. In modern, high rise apartment buildings, the introduction of required areas
of refuge serves three purposes. Which one of the following is one of them?
a. Limiting the number of occupants that need to use stairways
b. Limiting the spread of fire and fire produced conatainments
c. Limiting the hazard events to a single fire
d. Limiting construction costs by providing a tenable space on the same
level

81. The thermal effect of a material is the direct product of thermal

conductivity, heat capacity and which of these?
a. Heat emission
b. Self-sustained combustion
c. Volume
d. Density

82. Fire alarm systems may provide three type of signals. Which of the type
provides the warning of fire danger which requires immediate action?
a. Alarm
b. Supervisory
c. Trouble
d. Control

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83. The assignment of appropriate levels of safety to buildings is based on

minimum design loads from the American Society of Civil Engineers. What
does Occupancy type II include?
a. Buildings that are deemed to be essential to the public welfare,
communication and transportation
b. Important facilities such as schools, detention facilities and those of
home utilities
c. Most commercial, residential and instituional structures
d. Structures such as sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally
unoccupied

84. Fire pumps used in healthcare occupancies must be electrically supervised

in accordance with:
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 20
c. NFPA 101*
d. NFPA 5000*

85. In a ceiling jet that is not caused by direct flame impingement, maximum
temperature and velocity______ steadily as the radial distance from the
plume centerline_____due to a combination of air entrainment from below
the jet and heat loss to the ceiling above the jet.
a. Decrease; decreases
b. Increase; decreases
c. Increase; increases
d. Decrease; increases

86. Which of these focuses on quality instruction for fire, rescue and emergency
response staff and states that “the quality of an educational is as good as its
instructional staff”?

a. NFPA 1001
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b. NFPA 1041
c. NFPA 1403
d. NFPA 1500

87. Which of these is true about an explosion (deflagration) vent?

a. It is a flammable liquid protectiion technique
b. It requires calculation of lowest burning velocity
c. It is only effective in open environments
d. It protect an enclosure from damaging pressures

88. Resonable requirements to protect semiconductor facilities from a fire or

related hazards include which of these?
a. The proper use of cleanrooms
b. Survillence system requirements
c. Manufacturing equipment design requirements
d. Production and support equipment

89. Which of the following is true about storing metal particles and fines from
grinding operations?
a. If stored in drums, metal particles will not ignite
b. Fines can be submerged in animal or vegetabel oil
c. Metal particles immersed in water cannot ignite
d. Fines generate flammable methane

90. Based on the average walking speeds for various categories of users in
shopping centers, which of these user category has the fastest walking
speed?
a. Pregnant women
b. Able bodied adult walking with another person
c. Adult with a child and a baby/toddler
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d. Older adult walking alone

91. Tanks larger than 660 gal(2500L) can be installed in buildings, provided
they are located in an enclosure constructed of walls, floor and ceiling that
provide a what minimum fire resistance rating?
a. Not less than 3 hours
b. Not less than 2 hours
c. Not less than 4 hours
d. Not less than 1.5 hours

92. Of the three basic mechanism of heat transfer, which two are similar in that
their rate of heat transfer can be determined T = T1 – T2 , a simple
temperature difference?
a. Conduction and Radiation
b. Conduction and Convection
c. Convection and Radiation
d. Only the heat of convection can be determined this way

93. With special handling equipments such as conveyors, the heat of friction
can cause fires when used for materials like raw cotton, grains and which of
these?
a. Cardboard boxes
b. Coal
c. Residues
d. Sandpaper

94. Carbon-dioxide is a widely used fire extinguishing agents that is especially

effective on flammable liquid fires, gas fires and fires involving:
a. Flammable metals
b. Vegetable oil or cooking fat

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c. Wood, paper or cloth

d. Electrically energized equipment

95. Which of the following is a comprehensive standard for pre-incident

planning for emergency response?
a. NFPA 1201
b. NFPA 1250
c. NFPA 1600
d. NFPA 1620

96. Which of following provides a statistically derived method to define the

vertical loads and lateral forces to which buildings may be subjected, as well
as uniform margins of safety in design?
a. Engineering processes
b. Material design standards
c. Building codes
d. Design load standards

97. Fires established on vertical combustible surfaces are especially dangerous

because:
a. Flames transition from turbulent to steady laminar flow
b. Of the potential for rapid upward fire spread
c. Of the air induced by the flames themselves
d. Convective heating is lower above the active burn region

98. The movement of speed of an evacuating crowd is a function of:

a. Density
b. A constant (based on feet or meters)
c. Denseness
d. Specific Flow
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99. The five E’s of Community Risk Reduction include:

a. Encouragement, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and
economic incentives
b. Education, enforcement, encouragement, emergency response and
economic incentives
c. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economic
incentives
d. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economy

100. In a low hazard storage occupancy (whether sprinkled or unsprinkled)

the maximum travel distance to an exit is:
a. No limit requirement
b. 150 ft (45 m)
c. 175 ft (53 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

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1. Many Commercial cooking establishements have grease extraction or

control devices downstream of the hood to remove grease and odors from
the effulient stream. Where are most of these devices installed ?
a. On the roof top immediately before the fan.
b. In ceiling space
c. In mezzanines
d. Just above the cooktop

2. What is the typical fire load of content in typcial nursing home patient room
?
a. 2.6
b. 3.2
c. 3.9
d. 4.3

3. When responding to fire, there are generally two types of tactice or stratagies
for extinguishment. Which of these is one of them.
a. Aggressive
b. Automated
c. Defensive
d. Manual

4. A Surface with the aborbitivity with maximum value of 1 is known as

a. Visual radiation
b. A Black body
c. A white body
d. A Black surface

5. The FPH indicates that a high rise is defined as buidling where floor of an
occupiable story is greater than _____ above the lowest level of fire
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department access.
a. 40 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 ft

6. Which of the following is a practice or approach for providing all hazards or

all risk protection to a community ?
a. Combined response
b. Mutual aid
c. Community risk reduction
d. Risk Analysis

7. Which of these are thermosensitive devices designed to react at

predetermined temprature by automatically releasing the a stream of water
and distributing it in specified pattern and quantities over designated areas ?
a. Aerosol suppression systems
b. Water Spray system
c. Water mist system
d. Automatic sprinkler system

8. A fire Protection Engineer should develop a detailed fire alarm system

design, based on combination of three primary goals, life safery, Property
safety and which of these ?
a. Cutural or historic value
b. Structual safety
c. Mission Protection
d. Environment safety

9. The assignment of appropriate level of safety to buildings is based on

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minimum design loads, by occupacy type, from the ASCE what occupancy
type involves sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally unoccupied ?
a. Occupancy Type 1
b. Occupancy Type 2
c. Occupancy Type 3
d. Occupancy Type 4

10. The Practice of Fire protection revolves around how to best meet a code
requirement or client objective. The principle tools of this decision making
process include which of these ?
a. Consideration
b. Treatment
c. Analysis
d. Project Management

11. What minimum Pressure should be maintained at hydrant delivering the

required fire flow ?
a. 20 Psi
b. 5 psi
c. 30 psi
d. 50 psi

12. According to FPH, What NFIRS occupancy classifications are convents,

bunkhouses, workers barracks and nursing quarters ?
a. Board and care facility
b. Apartment building
c. Lodging and rooming houses
d. Dormitories houses

13. You are investigating a lead causes of US structure fire between 1992-2002

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according to the table annual averages. Which of the following created the
greatest direct property damages
a. Identified cooking equipments
b. Electrical distribution or lighting equipment
c. Lightening
d. Identified heating equipment.

14. Some fuel gases are used in hot work Process such as oxyfule gas welding
which of the following has lowest neutral flame temprature ?
a. MAP
b. Hydrogen
c. Propylene
d. Acetylene

15. The means by which an occupant is alerted to a fire ?

a. Lead to non adaptive fire behavior
b. Trigger dangerous fire behavior
c. Determine the degrees of threat perceived
d. Elicit an avoidance of action

16. Fire Protection Safeguard for gas storage revolve around which of these ?
a. Ignition by static electricity
b. The container/gas combination
c. Indoor or outdoor storage
d. Transportation

17. Which of these refrigerants would be the least concern in terms of both
flammability and toxicity ?
a. R-134a

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b. R-143a
c. R-290
d. R-717

18. When an officer must determine the relative importance of size up which of
the following is considered to be an operational priority ?
a. Time of the day
b. Building construction type
c. Extinguishment
d. Presence of sprinkler

19. The Reliability of Fire alarm system and components has shown that, for
most physical systems when the failure rate is plotted verses time a curve of
familiar shape result that is known as
a. Guassian curve
b. Bathtub Curve
c. Life time curve
d. Turn on Curve

20. Which of the require general structural integrity that spread of the local
damage beyond an area dispropotionate to the original local area ?
a. Engineering Processes
b. Material guidelines
c. Building codes
d. Installation Procedure

21. Generally, what type of fires are associated with lowest rate of flame
spread, highest heat flux and highest burn rate?
a. Wall or vertical surface fires
b. Ceiling, horizontal or downward surface fires
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c. Upward facing surface fires

d. Both upward facing and downward facing surface fires

22. When investigating major fire situations, ______ procedures are developed
to address complex events and timelines.
a. STEP
b. STAIR
c. STAGE
d. STAR

23. Which law is expressed in this formula?

q = εσT4 kW/m2
a. Stefan-Boltzmann’s
b. Planck’s
c. Kirchoff’s
d. Local Thermodynamics

24. The three approaches to structural frame and barrier design for fire
resistance include : standard fire resistance testing and building code
requirements; analytical calculations to determine fire resistance; and which
of these?
a. Analytical models for fire exposure characteristics
b. Standard load and force resistance design
c. Analytical structural methods based on real fire exposure characteristics
d. Critical investigation of materials and products

25. In addition to regularly scheduled inspections, sprinkler systems may also

undergo which of these?
a. Spring and Fall inspections
b. Summer and Fall inspections

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c. Fall and Winter inspections

d. Winter and Spring inspections

26. Where extremely fast response is required, the sprinkler pipe is prefilled
with water up to the open sprinklers, which are equipped with blow off plugs
or caps. This is a special variety of which type of system?
a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Water mist
d. Deluge

27. In addition to including fire alarm and suppression systems, a fire protection
system safeguarding equipment must take into account which of these?
a. System and data redundancy
b. Physical storage of equipment
c. Facility security
d. Emergency plans and procedures

28. Hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers by halogenated agent should be

performed at what minimum interval?
a. Annually
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 12 years

29. According to a table in FPH, what is the minimum installation clearance for
steam pipes carrying steam at pressure above 15 psig (103 kPa), but not over
500 psig(3450 kPa)?
a. ½ in (13 mm)
b. 1 in (25 mm)

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c. 3 in (76 mm)
d. 6 in (152 mm)

30. At what minimum frequency shouls the amount of expellent gases be

checked on a chemical suppression system, to ensure there is sufficient gas
to provide effective discharge?
a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

31. Which of these provides requirements for installation of sprinkler system in

the one and two-family dwelling environment?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 13A
c. NFPA 13D
d. NFPA 13R

32. According to FPH, what is the minimum frequency that waterflow and
supervisory devices should be inspected for a water mist system?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

33. Which type of suppression system is accepted by International Maritime

Organization (IMO) as replacement for halon or CO2 in marine machinery
spaces?
a. Foam water
b. Water mist

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c. Water spray
d. Wet chemical

34. Fire hazard can be quantified as they relate to physical and chemical
characteristics of the ______ with which they are associated.
a. Products
b. Construction
c. Materials
d. Occupancies

35. The typical priorities in fire risk management involves which of these?
a. Evaluating facilities and properties
b. Developing programs and assigning responsibilities to manage risk
c. Providing cost/benefit analysis for loss control alternatives
d. Establishing incident commanders

36. Application of water mist system include offshore drilling and which of
these?
a. Industrial kitchens
b. Environment with carbon fuels
c. IT server rooms
d. Flammable liquids

37. You are charged with travel time for a crowd of occupants. Which of these
is a fundamental characteristic of crowd movement to consider in your
calculation?
a. Occupancy classification
b. Flow
c. Fire size
d. Smoke density
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38. The inspection of which detectors must verify the optical clarity of lenses as
well as a clear, unobstructed line of sight of the fire?
a. Radiant-energy sensing detectors
b. Flashover detectors
c. Smoke detectors
d. Flashpoint detectors

39. Which occupancy type has an additional requirement for smoke barriers to
separate floors, that must carry a 1-hour fire resistance rating?
a. Educational building
b. Health care facilities
c. Single family homes
d. Assembly halls

40. Which of the following does FPH indicate must be viewed as a living
document?
a. Building design
b. Pre-incident plans
c. Site plans
d. Mutual and pacts

41. Which extinguishing agents utilize the extinguishing mechanism of

saponificaiton?
a. Water
b. Wet and dry chemicals
c. Clean agents
d. Carbon dioxide

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42. The FPH indicates that smoke alarms in one-and two family dwellings are
to be replaced when they fail to respond to the operability test (i.e. pushing
the test button) or after_____from the date of manufacture
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 11 years

43. Four categories of occupant characterstics influence the ability to survive in

the fire. Which of the following is one of those categories?
a. Age
b. Staff
c. Return
d. Setting

44. Which of the following ensures the responding emergency personnel known
as much as they can about a facility’s construction, occupancy and fire
protection systems before an incident occurs?
a. Pre incident planning
b. Disaster preparedness
c. Management of free operations
d. Organization for fire loss prevention

45. Which supervisory service system involves both active security patrol tour
and passive security patrol tour initiating devices?
a. Non compulsory tour
b. Elective tour
c. Demand tour
d. Compulsory tour

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46. When assessing life safety in buildings, the qualified evaluator must have a
good understanding of a range of concepts, including which of these?
a. Ignition potential and fire hazards
b. Fire growth stages
c. Emergency medical services
d. Incident management

47. Which type of smoke detectors is used to protect large spaces, such as
atriums, auditoriums and manufacturing areas?
a. Spot type aspirating
b. Video based
c. Photoelectric light scattering type
d. Photoelectric light obstruction type

48. In a computer room that also contains paper and other ordinary
combustibles, which of these extinguisher should be provided?
a. Class D extinguisher
b. Dry chemical extinguisher
c. CO2 extinguisher
d. Foam extinguisher

49. At a petrochemical plant, what is the storage tank spacing requirement

between Class II cone tanks and floating roof tanks (> 10,000 < 3,00,000
barrels)?
a. 0.5 × D
b. 1 × D
c. 1 × D 50′ minimum
d. 1.5 × D 100′ minimum

50. Boiler rooms, incinerator rooms, storage rooms above 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) paint

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shops, and maintainence shops are generally separated by what rated of fire
rated construction?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1.5 hour
d. 2 hour

51. The hazard of a building may relate to its type of construction. Building
construction can be classified based on _____ of the construction material
used
a. Degree of fire resistance
b. Rate of pyrolysis
c. Maximum heat energy
d. Heat of gasification

52. The process following flashover when smoke recirculates towards the fire
causing reduced oxygen for combustion and a reduced heat release rate is :
a. Ventilation
b. Post-flashover
c. Vitiation
d. Smoke discharge

53. Which of the following is probably the most important measure used to
characterize the flammability hazard of a given material?
a. Heat release rate
b. Ignition temperature
c. Flame ignition transfer
d. Flame propagation propensity

54. Which of the following is included in the four phases of emergency

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preparedness management?
a. Response
b. Readiness
c. Salvage
d. Intensification

55. Uniform building code requires new hotels with______sleeping rooms,

regardless of height, to be protected with automatic sprinklers and active fire
protection system.
a. 16 or more
b. 20 or more
c. 30 or more
d. 50 or more

56. In addition to a primary power supply, emergency voice/alarm

communication systems must have 24 hours of standby power, followed
by___of operation.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

57. Smoke is a threat to life safety. The nature and concentration of generated
smoke depend on which of the following factors?
a. The temperature of the air
b. Number of the exits in the area
c. Whether the product is flamming or pyrolizing
d. The location of the product

58. At what minimum frequency should hydrants be flushed, by allowing full

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flow at least for one minute?

a. Semiannually
b. Annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

59. The factor of safety generally varies from ______ depending upon the
reliability or variability of data on which the value of strength and
consequences of failure are determined.
a. 1.0 to 2.5
b. 1.5 to 3.0
c. 2.0 to 4.0
d. 2.5 to 4.5

60. With materials raw cotton, grains, powder and coal caution should be taken
to avoid______with special handling equipments such as conveyors.
a. Heat of friction
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Electrostatic discharge
d. Heat of gasification

61. Which decision making model is evolved from studies of decision makers
(such as fire officers) in complex, time critical situation?
a. Conceptual model
b. Naturalistic model
c. Recognition primed model
d. Stress model

62. In chemical processing plants, which of these is the primary method to

control spills?

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a. Preventing spills
b. Wet benches
c. Special carts
d. Use the hazard ranking approach

63. Which electrically operated waterflow alarm initiating device is inserted

into the riser just above the point at which the water supply piping enters the
building from underground?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Vane type switch
c. Mechanical guard
d. Pressure operated switch

64. A connection from a reliable public waterworks system of

adequate_______is the prefered or primary supply for automatic sprinkler
system.
a. Volume and Flow
b. Density and Strength
c. Capacity and Pressure
d. Force and Stream

65. Refrigerants are identified by ______ as specified in ANSI/ASHRAE 34

a. A Color Coded label
b. Their Chemical name
c. A numerical Designation
d. Their Trade Name

66. A key element in the residential fire protection is the development and
practice of a family escape paln. NFPA provides information on how to
formulate this plan and its ____

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a. EDITH
b. FEITH
c. FEP
d. PTE

67. Which of these is defined as a contineuous membrance or membrance with

discontiuities created by protected openings with a specified fire protection
rating. Where such membrance are designed and constructed with a
specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire.
a. Fire Barriers
b. Fire Doors
c. Fire Partitions
d. Fire Walls

68. Which of these container guidelines for proper location of automatic

sprinkler heads near ducts to avoid obstruction of water distribution ?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 16
d. NFPA 18

69. Which of these sprinkler been found to be effective means of suppressing

fire involves fires ?
a. Mist sprinkler
b. Pre- actions sprinkler
c. ESFR Sprinkler
d. Small Drop Sprinkler

70. During Fire loss investigation, which of these statements is true about
exigent circumstances ?

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a. The fire department has determined that there is no further risk

b. The insurance assessor has revoked scene investigation
c. Duration of the fire department presence depends on ownver
d. The Fire department needs to assess continuing risk.

71. Which of the followings is a terms used to describe the size range of water
molecules contained in a representative sample of spray or mist?
a. Propotioning
b. Drop size distribution
c. Flux density
d. Spray momentum.

72. You are performing risk assessment and analysis of a facility, which of
these describe the first step in the risk assessment process ?
a. Hazard identification
b. Setting goals and objectives
c. Conducting Probablity analysis
d. Severity analysis

73. Based upon a table in FPH, what are the egress distance limitations for an
unsprinklered general purpose industrial occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft

74. Which foaming agent is capable of forming water solution films on the
surface of flammalbe hydrocarbon liquids ?
a. AFFF
b. AR
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c. FFFP
d. P agent

75. Which of the following ignition test uses a 100 mm circular horizontal
specimen which is exposed to known heat flux from the tungten quartz
heater and time to ignition is measured ?
a. Cone calorimeter
b. ICAL
c. FPA
d. LIFT

76. The appropriate selection of a design fire’s growth is important to obtaining

a realistic prediction of which of these?
a. Time to start of evacuation
b. Likelihood of occurrence
c. Number of occupants
d. Probability of flashover

77. Which of the following describes clean fire suppression agents?

a. Electricity conductive
b. Form a blanket on the fuel surface
c. Vapourize readily
d. Listed for use on combustible metals

78. Mutual and plans, pacts or aggrements, are created among fire and rescue
services and other emergency responderes:
a. To lend assistance across jurisdictional boundaries
b. To provide joint dispatch, and combine training
c. To offer assistance following a disaster in community
d. To grant financial aid to purchase speciality fire fighting equipment
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79. Which sprinkler system should be used when system components are
exposed to temperatures below 40°F (4°C)?
a. Wet pipe systems
b. Preaction systems
c. Dry pipe systems
d. Deluge systems

80. In modern, high rise apartment buildings, the introduction of required areas
of refuge serves three purposes. Which one of the following is one of them?
a. Limiting the number of occupants that need to use stairways
b. Limiting the spread of fire and fire produced conatainments
c. Limiting the hazard events to a single fire
d. Limiting construction costs by providing a tenable space on the same
level

81. The thermal effect of a material is the direct product of thermal

conductivity, heat capacity and which of these?
a. Heat emission
b. Self-sustained combustion
c. Volume
d. Density

82. Fire alarm systems may provide three type of signals. Which of the type
provides the warning of fire danger which requires immediate action?
a. Alarm
b. Supervisory
c. Trouble
d. Control

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83. The assignment of appropriate levels of safety to buildings is based on

minimum design loads from the American Society of Civil Engineers. What
does Occupancy type II include?
a. Buildings that are deemed to be essential to the public welfare,
communication and transportation
b. Important facilities such as schools, detention facilities and those of
home utilities
c. Most commercial, residential and instituional structures
d. Structures such as sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally
unoccupied

84. Fire pumps used in healthcare occupancies must be electrically supervised

in accordance with:
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 20
c. NFPA 101*
d. NFPA 5000*

85. In a ceiling jet that is not caused by direct flame impingement, maximum
temperature and velocity______ steadily as the radial distance from the
plume centerline_____due to a combination of air entrainment from below
the jet and heat loss to the ceiling above the jet.
a. Decrease; decreases
b. Increase; decreases
c. Increase; increases
d. Decrease; increases

86. Which of these focuses on quality instruction for fire, rescue and emergency
response staff and states that “the quality of an educational is as good as its
instructional staff”?

a. NFPA 1001
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b. NFPA 1041
c. NFPA 1403
d. NFPA 1500

87. Which of these is true about an explosion (deflagration) vent?

a. It is a flammable liquid protectiion technique
b. It requires calculation of lowest burning velocity
c. It is only effective in open environments
d. It protect an enclosure from damaging pressures

88. Resonable requirements to protect semiconductor facilities from a fire or

related hazards include which of these?
a. The proper use of cleanrooms
b. Survillence system requirements
c. Manufacturing equipment design requirements
d. Production and support equipment

89. Which of the following is true about storing metal particles and fines from
grinding operations?
a. If stored in drums, metal particles will not ignite
b. Fines can be submerged in animal or vegetabel oil
c. Metal particles immersed in water cannot ignite
d. Fines generate flammable methane

90. Based on the average walking speeds for various categories of users in
shopping centers, which of these user category has the fastest walking
speed?
a. Pregnant women
b. Able bodied adult walking with another person
c. Adult with a child and a baby/toddler
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d. Older adult walking alone

91. Tanks larger than 660 gal(2500L) can be installed in buildings, provided
they are located in an enclosure constructed of walls, floor and ceiling that
provide a what minimum fire resistance rating?
a. Not less than 3 hours
b. Not less than 2 hours
c. Not less than 4 hours
d. Not less than 1.5 hours

92. Of the three basic mechanism of heat transfer, which two are similar in that
their rate of heat transfer can be determined T = T1 – T2 , a simple
temperature difference?
a. Conduction and Radiation
b. Conduction and Convection
c. Convection and Radiation
d. Only the heat of convection can be determined this way

93. With special handling equipments such as conveyors, the heat of friction
can cause fires when used for materials like raw cotton, grains and which of
these?
a. Cardboard boxes
b. Coal
c. Residues
d. Sandpaper

94. Carbon-dioxide is a widely used fire extinguishing agents that is especially

effective on flammable liquid fires, gas fires and fires involving:
a. Flammable metals
b. Vegetable oil or cooking fat

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c. Wood, paper or cloth

d. Electrically energized equipment

95. Which of the following is a comprehensive standard for pre-incident

planning for emergency response?
a. NFPA 1201
b. NFPA 1250
c. NFPA 1600
d. NFPA 1620

96. Which of following provides a statistically derived method to define the

vertical loads and lateral forces to which buildings may be subjected, as well
as uniform margins of safety in design?
a. Engineering processes
b. Material design standards
c. Building codes
d. Design load standards

97. Fires established on vertical combustible surfaces are especially dangerous

because:
a. Flames transition from turbulent to steady laminar flow
b. Of the potential for rapid upward fire spread
c. Of the air induced by the flames themselves
d. Convective heating is lower above the active burn region

98. The movement of speed of an evacuating crowd is a function of:

a. Density
b. A constant (based on feet or meters)
c. Denseness
d. Specific Flow
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99. The five E’s of Community Risk Reduction include:

a. Encouragement, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and
economic incentives
b. Education, enforcement, encouragement, emergency response and
economic incentives
c. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economic
incentives
d. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economy

100. In a low hazard storage occupancy (whether sprinkled or unsprinkled)

the maximum travel distance to an exit is:
a. No limit requirement
b. 150 ft (45 m)
c. 175 ft (53 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

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1. Which spacing multiplier is used for heat detector installed in building with the
ceiling that is 15ft high.
a. 0.58
b. 0.64
c. 0.71
d. 0.77

2. Which concept can be described as a strategy used when fire control is achieved
before it becomes necessary to order evacuation from spaces that are remote from a
fire incident within a building?
a. Partial Evacuation
b. Zoned Evacuation
c. Phased Evacuation
d. Defend in place

3. The three primary mechanisms for conducting legally valid scene investigations are
exigent circumstances, a search warrant, or:
a. Investigator qualification
b. Reasnable time frame
c. Statutory authority
d. Permission from owner

4. The shape of the Standard head discharge curve of a pump is determined by which
of the following three points?
a. Shutoff point, rated capacity, overload point
b. Pressure, speed rated capacity
c. Volume, rated capacity, discharge
d. Overload point, pressure, rated capacity

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of pyrophoric gases?

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a. They have high ignition temperatures
b. They have abnormally low flame temperature
c. They do not need oxygen as a reducing agent
d. They do not need a source of ignition to burn

6. The dynamics of compartment fire growth are characterized by type of combustion

process, growth rate, ventilation, and:
a. flame pattern
b. heat content
c. fire stage
d. fuel type

7. Which of the following fire stages is characterized by a decreasing heat-release rate

due to the consumption of fuel during a fuel-controlled fire?
a. Steady state
b. Fire extinguishment
c. Incipient fire
d. Fire decay

8. In reviewing a submittal for a new horizontal centrifugal fire pump, which of the
following conditions would conditions would warrant rejection of the submittal?
a. The head discharge curve of the pump passes above the point of capacity and
head
b. With the pump operating rated speed and no flow, the total head will be at 110%
of rated head at 100% flow
c. With the pump operating at rated speed and no flow, the total head will be at
130% of rated head at 100% flow.
d. At 150% of rated capacity, total head pressure is 50% of rated total head

9. Which of the following is the highest level of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
for hazardous materials response?

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a. Level A
b. Level B
c. Level C
d. Level D

10. You are investigating a fire in a church, historically speaking, from the data available
in the Fire Protection Handbook, what is the leading cause of church structure fires
in the U.S.?
a. Smoking materials
b. Cooking equipment
c. Heating and HVAC equipment
d. Incendiary or suspicious

11. The Chezy Formula used in hydraulic analysis requires all of the following
information:
a. Diameter of pipe, roughness of pipe, and hydraulic radius
b. Diameter of pipe, roughness of pipe and hydraulic slope
c. Diameter of pipe, hydraulic radius and hydraulic slope
d. Roughness of pipe, length of pipe, and hydraulic slope

12. Rate-of-rise detectors should NOT be used where temperatures might rise faster than
a minimum of:
a. 8-11° F (4-6° C) per minute
b. 12-15° F (7-8° C) per minute
c. 16-19° F (9-11° C) per minute
d. 12-23° F (11-13° C) per minute

13. while not the only factor used to evaluate the hazard, which of the following is
commonly accepted as the most important criterion of the relative hazard of
flammable and combustible liquids?
a. Flash point

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b. Ignition temperature
c. Flammable range
d. Rate of evaporation

14. When designing water spray nozzles and piping, what must be determined before
selecting a nozzle for the system?
a. Proper piping material
b. Proper piping size
c. Proper nozzle angle
d. Proper water density for extinguishment

15. Which of the following is a classification of gases from NFPA 55?

a. Low vapor
b. Colorless
c. High vapor
d. Oxidizing

16. Which of the following is defined as a measurement of a fluid’s resistance to flow

and is usually measured in lb sec/ft2 N sec/ m2?
a. Friction loss
b. Density
c. Viscosity
d. Velocity

17. Which of the following noble gases is suitable for fighting a magnesium fire?
a. Neon
b. Helium
c. Krypton
d. Xenon

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18. A public supply system with a required fire flow of 4,500 gpm (17,033 lpm) should
be able to maintain that flow for a duration of:
a. 2 Hour
b. 3 Hour
c. 4 Hour
d. 5 Hour

19. The simplest device for extinguishing a fire in a process or dip tank is:
a. an aqueous film-forming foam system
b. a dry chemical extinguishing system
c. a self-closing cover with fusible link
d. an automatic, rapid drain opener

20. From the following summaries for current door applications, select the correct fire
door classifications:

a. 1 ½ - hour fire doors 1 -hour fire doors 1 ½ - hour fire doors

b. 2-hour fire doors 1-hour fire doors 2-hour fire doors
c. 2-hour fire doors ¾ - hour fire doors 1 ½ - hour fire doors
d. 1 ½ - hour fire doors 1-hour fire doors 2-hour fire doors

21. At a industrial or commercial facility, preincident (prefire) planning involves at least

which three components?
a. Building construction, protection, site considerations

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b. Building construction, response time, occupancy
c. Protection, site considerations, time of day
d. Systems, response time, site considerations

22. Pressurized stairwell designs are intended to keep the interior of the stairwell.
a. smoke free
b. a tenable environment
c. sufficiently ventilated for personnel flow
d. from having a smoke obscuration of greater than 0.5 OD

23. Non-fire alarm interface signals connected to a fire alarm system are:
a. connected to air handling units
b. used for monitoring fire sprinklers
c. required to automatically notify the fire department
d. considered supervisory for other than life safety equipment

24. In order to design the appropriate exit system for an industrial occupancy, the life
safety hazard classification per the NFPA Life Safety Code establishes three basic
classifications.Occupancies involving low- and ordinary-hazard manufacturing
operations occurring in any type of building and normally having a higher density
of employees than the other classfications are classified as:
a. general purpose
b. ordinary purpose
c. common purpose
d. basic purpose

25. In an area used for sleeping, the minimum Sound Pressure Level (SPL) required of
the fire alarm system is:
a. 65 dbA
b. 70 dbA

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c. 75 dbA
d. 80 dbA

26. Which of the following is produced by pyrolysis and/or incomplete combustion of

organic materials and is referred to as an organic irritant?
a. Hydrogen
b. Argon
c. Cyanide
d. Formaldehyde

27. Which of the following types of codes are based on a broad spectrum of accepted
fire prevention experience?
a. Nationally-developed consensus codes
b. Locally-developed specific codes
c. Experience-based codes
d. Spectrum-based codes

28. The minimum cover requirements for the direct burial of cable or conductors under
one and two-family dwelling driveways is:
a. 6 Inch
b. 12 Inch
c. 18 Inch
d. 24 Inch

29. The purpose of the fire suppression rating schedule published by ISO Commercial
Risk Services is to:
a. aid in the calculation of fire insurance rates
b. determine water supply needs for protection
c. provide a guideline for the location of fire stations
d. determine the number of engine companies required for community protection

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30. For curtain will construction, an inherent fire problem exists because of the space
between the outer end of the floor slab and the inside face off the curtain wall, which,
unless adequately firestopped, may act as a:
a. route for vertical fire spread
b. route for horizontal fire spread
c. barrier for suppression efforts
d. barrier for forcible entry

31. The walls dividing mall building stores from each other should extend to the extent
practicable from the floor.
a. to the underside of the suspended ceiling
b. through the roof deck
c. to the underside of the roof deck or floor above
d. to a minimum height of 10 ft (3.05 m)

32. On the Homeland Security color-coded threat-level system, what color code
represents the most severe risk?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Orange

33. Which system is used to communicate with public officials and the public so
protective measures can be implemented?
a. Homeland Security Advisory System
b. Homeland Security Threat Advisories
c. Homeland Security Information Bulletins
d. Color-coded threat-level system

34. Which is the lead federal agency for consequence management during a terrorist
incident?
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a. DOT
b. DHS
c. FBI
d. FEMA

35. What is the first priority following an explosion?

a. Rescuer safety
b. Scene safety
c. Victim rescue
d. Establishing incident command

36. The first principle of good storage practice for chemicals is:
a. limiting quantity
b. segregation
c. containment
d. concentration

37. An important limitation to consider when using pressure tanks in automatic sprinkler
protection is the:
a. small volume of water stored
b. dependence upon outside power sources to maintain pressure
c. lack of training of fire department personnel
d. inadequate pipe sizing

38. Which of the following is NOT a basic method for heating gravity tank water?
a. Direct discharge of steam into water
b. Gravity circulation of hot water
c. Steam coils inside tanks
d. Warm air in internal jacket

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39. What type of electrically powered industrial truck can be used in Class 1, Division
1, Group D locations?
a. TYPE Ex
b. TYPE ES
c. TYPE EE
d. TYPE E

40. Which of the following conditions may exist within the ductwork during sanding
operations in woodworking facilities when the dust concentration in the duct exceeds
the minimum explosive concentration (MEC) levels?
a. Flashover
b. Conflagration
c. Deflagration
d. Implosion

41. The hazards of the storage and handling of coal includes all the following EXCEPT.
a. Fires
b. Chemical Conversion
c. Flash Fires
d. Dust explosion

42. When storing Class IB flammable liquids outdoors in portable containers, what is
the maximum quantity and height allowed for composite Intermediate Bulk
Containers (IBCs) per pile?
a. 8,800 gallons and 12 ft
b. Not permitted for composite IBCs
c. 22,000 gallons and 18 ft
d. 4,400 gallons and 14 ft

43. In what year between 1980 and 2002, did the worst civilian injuries in industrial and
manufacturing property structural fires occur?
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a. 1981
b. 1983
c. 1990
d. 1998

44. For the purpose of measuring standard temperature and pressure, the standard
temperature value is:
a. 65 C
b. 77 C
c. 85 C
d. 93 C

45. John Freeman developed a rule for fire hydrant spacing in compact mercantile and
manufacturing districts of:
a. 250ft
b. 300ft
c. 350ft
d. 400ft

46. Combustion explosions of conventional structure typically occur with less than what
percent of the enclosure occupied by a flammable mixture?
a. 55
b. 45
c. 35
d. 25

47. The use of multiple agencies for the delivery of EMS is commonly referred to as a:
a. Mass Response
b. Multiple Response
c. Tiered response

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d. Combined Response

48. Factors influencing the explosibility of dusts include moisture, inert material,
particle size,and:
a. Container Pressure
b. Concentration
c. Temprature
d. Viscocity

49. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a residential fire protection
plan?
a. Minimization of fire hazards
b. Development of escape plan
c. Installation of carbon monoxide alarms
d. Installation of some alarms

50. When conducting a needs assessment for a fire department, what term describes the
level of harm associated with exposure to a fire or its effluent?
a. Hazard
b. Risk
c. Hazard analysis
d. Stretagic Plan

51. Semiconductor manufacturing plants have several potential hazards that are not
widely encountered in other industries including toxic materials, radio frequency
fields, ionizing radiation, and:
a. pyrophoric gases
b. hot work
c. flammable liquids
d. electrical

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52. For fire and life safety educators, the learning process includes all of the following
EXCEPT.
a. Motivation
b. transfer to short-term memory
c. application
d. observe and study

53. Which of the following is the correct UL classification of roof covering that include
criteria for resistance to ignition?

54. Cast iron, cement-lined underground piping is estimated to have a Hazen-Williams

C value of:
a. 110
b. 120
c. 130
d. 140

55. Evaluating fire for probability as a sequence of outcome is accomplished through

which of the following?
a. Event Tree
b. After Action Review
c. Pre-action analysis
d. Action Matrix

56. The tenability limit for exposure of skin to radiant heat is approximately.
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a. 0.75 KW/ sq m
b. 1.5 KW/ sq m
c. 2.5 KW/ sq m
d. 3.5 KW/ sq m

57. For either a grain dust fire or explosion to occur and be sustained, which of the
following elements must be present?
a. Fuel, ignition source, oxygen, and combustible dust
b. Dust, heat, and ignition source
c. Fuel, ignition source, and oxygen
d. Fuel, oxygen, confinement, and ignition source

58. How often must a smoke detector connected to a fire alarm panel be visually
inspected?
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

59. NFPA 10 specifies that an extinguisher with a gross weight not exceeding 40 lb (18
kg) should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than;
a. 3ft above the floor
b. 3.5ft above the Floor
c. 4ft above the floor
d. 5 ft above the floor

60. Components in an exhaust system for commercial cooking installation include the
ductwork, the exhaust fan, and the:
a. cooking appliances
b. grease filtration devices

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c. air intake valve
d. gas supply valve

61. The minimum residual pressure for a municipal water supply, according to the
American Water Works Association (AWWA), defines the required fire flow at:
a. 10 psi
b. 15 psi
c. 20 psi
d. 25 psi

62. Requirements for the installation, operation, and maintenance of electrical

emergency system circuits and equipment are given in the National Electrical Code
(NEC).
a. Article 500
b. Article 600
c. Article 700
d. Article 800

63. Four-way automatic sprinkler bracing prevents both lateral and:

a. Vertical Movement
b. Horizontal Movement
c. Longitudinal Movement
d. Diagonal Movement

64. Which NFPA standard addresses industrial fire brigades fire-fighting capabilities?
a. 600
b. 601
c. 1001
d. 1035

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65. Which dry powder agent is suitable for extinguishing fires involving aluminum
(AI)?
a. Foundary flux
b. Lith-X
c. Pyrene G-1
d. Soda Ash

66. Which of the following are secondary braking systems for fire apparatus?
a. Drive Line
b. Exhaust line
c. Hydraulic Retarder
d. Pneumatic in line

67. Combustible waste materials stored outdoors to await subsequent disposal as

rubbish should be placed at least how many feet from public roadways?
a. 50 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 dt

68. Irritant effects from exposure to fire atmospheres are normally considered by
combustion as being of which two types?
a. Sensory and Pulmonary
b. Major and Minor
c. Toxic and Non-Toxic
d. Dangerous and Not Dangerous

69. Which of the following was the greatest means of awareness of a fire incident by
people in the United States?
a. Saw Smoke

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b. Smelled smoke
c. Saw Fire
d. Felt heat

70. When evaluating dipping and coating processes, flammable liquid vapors are
usually.
a. denser than air, therefore, flow to high points.
b. lighter than air, therefore, flow to low points.
c. denser than air, therefore, flow to low points.
d. lighter than air, therefore, flow to high points.

71. Regarding specially designed cabinets for storage of flammable liquids which
statement is true ?
a. Wooden cabinets are permitted
b. Maximum quantity of class two liquid is 100 gallons
c. Door should have six point latch
d. There should be no sill on the bottom

72. Which of the following is the correct temprature reading as per standard time
temparture curve ?
a. 843 C @ 30 Minutes
b. 927 C @ 1 Hour
c. 1010 C @ 2 Hour
d. 1260 C @ 4 Hour

73. The Five Step planning process for message development can be used to develop
appropriate fire and life safety message or to revise existing fire and life safety
message to enhance the effectivness of the message. Which of the following is the
FIRST STEP in the process. ?
a. Define the injury problem
b. Implements and test intervention
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c. Set goals and objectives
d. Conduct and community assessment survey

74. There are principle measures to home fire loss. Which of the following is one of the
four. ?
a. Cooking fire
b. Fire caused by careless smoking
c. Deaths
d. Candles

75. _______ any condition with the potential to create ( fire related) harm
a. Fire condition
b. Fire Risk Analysis
c. Fire Analysis
d. Fire hazard

76. If a laboratory work area within a class “ C” labs using chemicals exceeds ____
square feet, NFPA 45 requires a second means of access from the unit to a means of
egress
a. 350
b. 500
c. 750
d. 1000

77. At hazardous material incident, the _____ zone is the area where personnel and
equipments decontamination( Contamination Reduction) takes place.
a. Cold
b. Warm
c. Immersion
d. Hot

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78. Susceptiblity to Burnig is the basis for assigning degrees in the NFPA 704
diamond flammablity hazard category. In this category the number 1 indicates
a. Very flammable gas
b. Materials which can be ignited under almost in normal condition temprature
condition
c. Material that must be heated
d. Material which must be moderately heated

79. Location in which combustible dust is in the air under normal operating condition
in sufficient quantities to produce explosive or ignitable mixture is called ?
a. Class 1, division 2
b. Class 2, division 1
c. Class 2, division 2
d. Class 3, division 1

80. Complete records of all signals received by a supervising station shall be kept for a
period of ________________.
a. 2 years
b. 1 Year
c. 3 Years
d. 5 Years
81. Which type of fire alarm system indicates that action is needed with operation of
other fire protection system and/or the guards needs to make a fire patrol tour ?
a. Supervisory
b. Alarm
c. Trouble
d. Control

82. Which of the following is the number of different type designations of industrial

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trucks and tractors listed in NFPA 505, Fire Safety Standard for Powered Industrial
Trucks?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 18
d. 21

83. Which class of Computer Aided Dispatch system requires manual entry from the
operator and is used primarily to keep track of fire apparatus unit status and related
information but does not require computer redundancy?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

84. Class I, Division 2 locations are:

a. Locations in which volatile flammable liquids or flammable gases are handled,
processed etc. but in which the liquids or gases will normally be confined
within closed containers or systems.
b. Locations where flammable liquids are mixed or transferred in open containers
c. Locations where combustible fibers are used, processed, etc.
d. Locations where combustible fibers are stored but not normally present in the
atmosphere

85. Lead azide, mercury fulminate, black powder, blasting caps and dynamite are
classified as:
a. Class A explosives
b. Class B Explosives
c. Class C Explosives
d. Blasting Agent

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86. The required clearance distance between an inhabited building and an
unbarricaded storage site of 901 pounds of explosives is:
a. 800 ft
b. 600 ft
c. 400 ft
d. 100 ft

87. Under fire conditions, it may be necessary to empty the contents of a quench tank
in not more than 5 minutes. For this reason, adequately sized, fully trapped
drainpipes should be provided to drain to a safe location. What would be the
minimum size of pipe for an 800-gallon quench tank?
a. 4 Inch
b. 5 Inch
c. 6 Inch
d. 8 Inch

88. When storing Class IB flammable liquids outdoors in portable containers, what is
the maximum quantity and height allowed for composite Intermediate Bulk
Containers (IBCs) per pile?
a. 8800 gallons and 12 ft
b. Not permitted for composite IBCs
c. 22,000 Gallons and 18 ft
d. 4,400 gallons per 14 ft

89. Foundation for water tank and towers should be built on the concrete with
compressive strength of NOT less than how many psi ?
a. 5000
b. 4000
c. 3000
d. 2000

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90. The Symbol Ag refers to what chemical agent ?
a. Argon
b. Actinium
c. Silver
d. Arsenic

91. Mathematical procedure developed to estimate the change in the environment of

space or building caused by the existence of fire in that space varies in intensity
and/or area of envolvment with time is called :
a. Fire Hazard analysis
b. Ignition initiation Model
c. Fire Models
d. Fire Risk Analysis

92. Tank used in dipping and coating processes having a capacity of more than 150
gallons or liquid surface area of 10 square feet or more should be equipped with
the trapped overflow pipes with a recommanded diameter not less than :
a. 3 inch
b. 4 inch
c. 6 inch
d. 8 inch

93. Three types of deflagration detection devices used in the conjuction with
suppression system are static detectors, rate of pressure rise detectors and :
a. Ionization detectors
b. Optical Detectors
c. Products of combustion detectors
d. Rate of rise detectors

94. All Liquids with the flahs point at or above 100 F

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a. Flammable liquids
b. Combustible liquids
c. Latent heat of vaporization
d. Stored in spheroid vessels.

95. In Health care occupancy, all shafts should be provided with the fire rated
constuction. Vertical opening connections not more than three floors be enclosed
with fire barriers having minimum ______ hour fire resistence rating
a. 2
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2 if provided with mechanical stops

96. NFPA Storage standards are based on,

a. Fire modeling analysis
b. Full Scale fire tests and past loss experiencess
c. Prescriptive requirements
d. Risk Analysis

97. The fire load of an occupancy if it exceeds an average of 100,000 per square feet of
net floor area of any compartment but does not exeed an average of 200,000 btus
per square foor, nor an average of 400,000 btus per square foot in limited isolated
areas, provided that storage of combustible materials necessary to the occupancy
may be allowed to a limited extent, if separated from the remainder and enclosed
by the fire resistive construction of an appropriate grade is describe as :
a. Low fire load
b. Moderate fire load
c. High fire load
d. Severe Fire load

98. What is the maximum length of tubing allowed on each circuit with a line type rate

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of rise heat detection systems ?
a. 15ft
b. 24 ft
c. 36 ft
d. 1000 ft

99. Smoke detector must be installed in all air conditioning or ventilating systems
over ____ cubic feet per minute capacity ?
a. 10000
b. 15000
c. 20000
d. 25000

100. The solvent used in oil seed extraction is;

a. Acetone
b. Xylene
c. Hexane
d. Dimethylibutane

101. Although very low, what property use has the highest recorded instances
where sprinkler systems has failed to operate during fire ?
a. Public assembly
b. Educational
c. Storage
d. Residential

102. According to NFPA 101, life safety code, what are the required colors of
exit signs ?
a. Red letters with a white background
b. Green letters with a white background

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c. White letters with either a red or green background
d. Signs should be of a distintive color
103. What is the hazard classification of an aerosol product whose total chemical
heat of combustion more than 8600 btu/lb
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Low

104. Paper and Pulp mils are found to have which occupancy hazards
classification
a. OHC4
b. OHC 5
c. OHC 6
d. OHC 7
105. NFPA 101 life safety code , treated flame spread classification of interior
finishes in the range of 76-200 and smoke developed index in the range of 0-450 as
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class 1

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