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Test No. 50 NEET 2025 Total Marks 720

Physics Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

1. The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large
distance (r) from center of dipole on the equatorial plane Assertion Λ : Photodiodes are preferably operated in reverse
varies with distance as : bias condition for light intensity measurement.
1
(a) r (b)
r Reason R : The current in the forward bias is more than the
1 1 current in the reverse bias for a p−n junction diode.
(c) 3 (d) 2
r r
2. The ratio of the mass densities of nuclei of 40 Ca and 16 O In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer
is close to : from the options given below :
(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c) 5 (d) 2 (a) A is false but R is true
3. A stone is dropped from the top of a building. When it (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation
crosses a point 5 m below the top, another stone starts to of A
fall from a point 25 m below the top. Both stones reach (c) A is true but R is false
the bottom of building simultaneously. The height of the (d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
building is 9. A small bar magnet placed with its axis at 30∘ with an
(a) 35 m (b) 45 m
external field of 0.06 T experiences a torque of
(c) 25 m (d) 50 m
0.018 Nm. The minimum work required to rotate it from
4. A porter lifts a heavy suitcase of mass 80 kg and at the
its stable to unstable equilibrium position is :
destination lowers it down by a distance of 80 cm with a
(a) 6.4 × 10−2 J (b) 9.2 ×10−3 J
constant velocity. Calculate the work done by the porter
(c) 7.2 ×10−2 J (d) 11.7× 10−3 J
in lowering the suitcase. (take g=9.8 ms−2 )
2π
(a) −62720.0 J (b) −627.2 J 10. In the wave equation y=0.5 sin ⁡ (400 t−x)m the
(c) +627.2 J (d) 784.0 J λ
velocity of the wave will be :
5. q q
If two charges 1 and 2 are separated with distance ' d '
(a) 200 m/ s (b) 200 √ 2 m/s
and placed in a medium of dielectric constant K . What
(c) 400 m/s (d) 400 √ 2 m/ s
will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for
11. The critical angle of a medium for a specific wavelength, if
the same electrostatic force?
the medium has relative permittivity 3 and relative
(a) d √ K (b) K √ d
4
(c) 1.5 d √ K (d) 2 d √ K permeability for this wavelength, will be:
3
6. Two identical particles each of mass ' m ' go round a
(a) 15∘ (b) 30∘
circle of radius a under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The angular speed of each (c) 45 ∘ (d) 60∘
particle will be: 12. A steel rod of diameter 1.0 cm is clamped firmly at each

√ √
Gm Gm end when its temperature is 25∘ C so that it cannot
(a) (b)
2 a3 8 a3 contract on cooling. The tension in the rod at 0∘ C is

√ √
Gm Gm ( α=1 ×10−5 / ∘ C , Y =2× 1011 N /m2 ):
(c). (d) (a) 3925 N (b) 7000 N
4 a3 a3
(c) 7400 N (d) 4700 N
7. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm 2 and
13. An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards
plates separation mm. The space between the plates is
from the ground. The air resistance produces a constant
filled with a dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and retarding force of 10 N throughout the motion. The
dielectric constant 5 . The capacitance of the system is : ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent will be equal
3 to : [Use g=10 ms−2 ]
(a) 24 ε 0 5 (b) ε F
10 0 (a) 1 :1 (b) √ 2: √ 3
10 (c) √ 3 : √ 2 (d) 2 :3
(c) ε F (d) 10 ε 0 F
3 0 14. When a longitudinal wave propagates through a medium,
8. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as the particles of the medium execute simple harmonic

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 oscillations about their mean positions. These oscillations (b) simple harmonic with period π /ω
of a particle are characterised by an invariant (c) periodic but not simple harmonic
(d) non-periodic
(a) Kinetic energy 21. A monochromatic neon lamp with wavelength of
(b) Potential energy 670.5 nm illuminates a photo-sensitive material which
(c) Sum of kinetic energy and potential energy has a stopping voltage of .48 V . What will be the
(d) Difference between kinetic energy and potential energy stopping voltage if the source light is changed with
15. A vessel contains a mixture of 1 mole of oxygen and two
another source of wavelength of 474.6 nm ?
moles of nitrogen at 00 K . The ratio of the average
(a) 0.96 V (b) 1.25 V
rotational kinetic energy per O 2 molecule to that per N 2
(c) 0.24 V (d) 1.5 V
molecule is 22. A stone of mass m tied to a spring of length l is rotating
(a) 1 :1 along a circular path with constant speed v . The torque
on the stone is
(b) 1 :2
(a) mv 2 l (b) zero
(c) 2 :1
(c) m l v (d) mv 2 /l
(d) depends on the moment of inertia of the two molecules 23. An ideal spring with spring-constant k is hung from the
16. An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The ceiling and a block of mass M is attached to its lower end.
speed of sound in air is 60 ms−1. The frequency of the The mass is released with the spring initially unstretched.
second harmonic is. Then the maximum extension in the spring is
(a) 800 Hz (b) 900 Hz (a) 4 Mg /k (b) 2 Mg /k
(c) 1200 Hz (d) 1300 Hz (c) Mg /k (d) Mg /2 k
17. Match the Column-I and Column-II. 24. If E , L , M and G denote the quantities as energy,
angular momentum, mass and constant of gravitation
respectively, then the dimensions of P in the formula
2 −5 −2
P=EL M G are:-

(a) [ M 0 L1 T 0 ] (b) [ M −1 L−1 T 2 ]

(c) [ M 1 L1 T −2 ] (d) [ M 0 L0 T 0 ]

25. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The

magnitude of the ratio of their powers is 2/3. Their
equivalent focal length is 0 cm. What are their individual
focal lengths (in m )?
(a) −15 , 10 (b) −10 , 15
(c) 75,50 (d) −75 , 50
(a) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iv); (D) - (iii) 26. A capillary is dipped in water vessel kept in a lift going up
(b) (A) - (i); (B) - (iii); (C) - (iv); (D) - (ii) with acceleration g . Then :
(c) (A) - (iv); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv)
(d) (A) - (iii); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iv) (a) The water will rise in the tube to the height observed under
18. In Young's double slit experiment intensity at a point is normal condition
(1/4) of the maximum intensity. Angular position of this (b) Water will rise to the maximum available height of the tube
point is (c) Water will rise to the height one third of the height of normal
(a) sin −1 ⁡(λ /d) (b) sin−1 ⁡(λ /2 d) condition
(d) Water will rise to the height double the height of normal
(c) sin−1 ⁡( λ /3 d) (d) sin−1 ⁡( λ / 4 d )
condition
19. The ranges and heights for two projectiles projected with 27. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an
the same initial velocity at angles 42∘ and 48 ∘ with the equilateral prism P . Additional prisms Q and R of
horizontal are R1 , R 2 and H 1 , H 2 respectively. Choose identical shape and of same material as that of P are now
the correct option combined as shown in figure.

(a) R1 > R2 and H 1=H 2 (b) R1=R 2 and H 1 < H 2

(c) R1 < R2 and H 1 < H 2 (d) R1=R 2 and H 1=H 2

20. The displacement of a particle is represented by the

equation y=3 cos ⁡( π4 −2 ωt ) . The motion of the particle

The ray will now suffer
is
(a) greater deviation (b) no deviation
(a) simple harmonic with period 2 π /ω
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(c) same deviation as before (d) total internal reflection about an axis passing through C.G. and perpendicular to
28. An insect is at the bottom of a hemispherical ditch of its plane, of A is
radius m. It crawls up the ditch but starts slipping after (a) same as that of B (b) twice that of B
it is at height h from the bottom. If the coefficient of (c) four times that of B (d) 1/4 that of B
friction between the ground and the insect is 0.75 , then h 33. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P , Q and R
is : ( g=10 ms−2 ) connected in the three arms and the fourth arm is formed
(a) 0.20 m (b) 0.45 m by two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The
(c) 0.60 m (d) 0.80 m condition for the bridge to be balanced will be
29. A ball of mass M strikes another ball of mass m at rest. If P
=
2R P R ( S1 + S2 )
(a) (b) =
they separate in mutually perpendicular directions, then Q S1 + S2 Q S 1 S2
the coefficient of impact (e ) is :
P R ( S1 + S2 ) P R
M m (c) = (d) =
(a) (b) Q 2 S1 S 2 Q S1 + S2
m M
m 34. Three point particles of masses 1.0 kg ,1.5 kg and
(c) (d) zero 2.5 kg are placed at three corners of a right angle
2M
triangle of sides 4.0 cm ,3.0 cm and 5.0 cm as shown
30. A gas can be taken from A to B via two different
in the figure. The center of mass of the system is at a
processes ACB and ADB.
point:
When path ACB is used 60 J of heat flows into the system
and 30 J of work is done by the system. If path ADB is used
work done by the system is 10 J . The heat Flow into the
system in path

(a) 0.6 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass

(b) 1.5 cm right and 1.2 cm above 1 kg mass
(c) 2.0 cm right and 0.9 cm above 1 kg mass
(d) 0.9 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass
ADB is : 35. The potential energy of a satellite, having mass m and
(a) 40 J (b) 80 J rotating at a height of 6.4 × 106 m from the earth
(c) 100 J (d) 20 J surface, is
31. A two point charges 4 q and −q are fixed on the x -axis at
(a) −mgR e (b)−0.67 mgR e
−d d
x= and x= , respectively. If a third point charge '
2 2 (c) −0.5 mgR e (d) −0.33 mgR e
q ' is taken from the origin to x=d along the semicircle 36. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a
as shown in the figure, the energy of the charge will : spiral with inner and outer radii ' a ' and ' b '
respectively. Find the magnetic field at centre, when a
current I passes through coil :

(a)
μ0 N
2(b−a)
log e ⁡()
b
a
(b)
μ0 I
8 [ ]
a+b
a−b
(c)
μ0 I
[ ]
1 1
4 (a−b) a b
− (d)
μ0 I
8 ( )
a−b
a+b
37. The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at the
3q
2
2q
2 centre of a current carrying circular loop is x . When both
(a) increase by (b) increase by the current and radius is doubled then the ratio will be
4 π ε0 d 3 π ε 0d
x x
q
2
4q
2 (a) (b)
(c) decrease by (d) decrease by 8 4
4 π ε0 d 3 π ε 0d x
(c) (d) 2 x
2
32. If two circular rings A and B are of same mass but of 38. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform
radii r and 2 r respectively, then the moment of inertia magnetic field B directed along positive z axis. The

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 direction of induced current as seen from the z axis will Chemistry
be
46. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
(a) clockwise of the +ve z axis. Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
(b) anticlockwise of the + ve z axis.
(c) zero emf. Assertion (A) BF 3 is weaker Lewis acid than BCl3.
(d) along the magnetic field. Reason (R) pπ− pπ back bonding is stronger in BF 3
39. An expression for oscillating electric field in a plane
electromagnetic wave is given as than in BCl3.
In the light of the above statements choose the most
E z=300 sin ⁡( 5 π ×103 x−3 π × 1011 t ) Vm−1 Then, the
appropriate answer from the options given below.
value of magnetic field amplitude will be: (Given: speed of
light in Vacuum c=3 × 108 ms−1 ) (a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
(a) 1 ×10−6 T (b) 5 ×10−6 T of ( A).
(c) 18 ×10 T9
(d) 21 ×10 T9 (b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) (A) is false but (R) are true.
40. The magnetic flux linked with a vector area ⃗A in a (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
uniform magnetic field ⃗ B is ( A).
(a) ⃗
B× ⃗ A (b) AB 47. Match the List-I with List-II.
B
(c) ⃗
B⋅ ⃗
A (d) List-I List-II
A
41. An LCR circuit contains resistance of 110 Ω and a supply A. Bromine (i) Transition element
of 220 V at 300 rad / s angular frequency. If only
capacitance is removed from the circuit, current lags B. Germanium (ii) Chalcogens
behind the voltage by 45 ∘. If on the other hand, only
C. Oxygen (iii) Metalloid
inductor is removed the current leads by 45 ∘ with the
applied voltage. The rms current flowing in the circuit will D. Copper (iv) Non-metal
be
(a) 1.5 A (b) 1 A Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(c) 2 A (d) 2.5 A
42. Two spheres of the same material, but of radii R and 3 R (a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (b) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
are allowed to fall vertically downwards through a liquid
of density σ . The ratio of their terminal velocities is (c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) (d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(a) 1 :3 (b) 1 :6
(c) 1 :9 (d) 1 :1 48. The IUPAC name of α -methoxy propionaldehyde is
43. A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω gives a full (a) 2-methyl propanal (b) 2-methoxy propanal
scale deflection when a current of 1 mA is passed (c) 3-methoxy propanal (d) 3-methyl propanal
through it. It is to be converted into an ammeter reading 49. An election has a speed of 50 m/ s with uncertainty of
20 A on full scale deflection. If shunt wire of 0.005 Ω 0.02 %. The uncertainty in locating its position is
only is available then what resistance should be connected (a) 1.1 ×10−1 m (b) 3.2 ×10−7 m
in series with the galvanometer coil. (c) 1.2 ×10−5 m (d) 5.8 ×10−3 m
(a) 99.955 Ω (b) 79.995 Ω 50. Predict the effect of increased pressure on the following
(c) 59.295 Ω (d) 19.955 Ω reaction equilibrium.

If λ 1 and λ 2 are the wavelengths of the third member of N 2 (g)+3 H 2 (g)⇌ 2 NH 3 (g)
Lyman and first member of the Paschen series respectively,
then the value of λ 1 : λ 2 is (a) Equilibrium will shift to left side.
(a) 1 :3 (b) 7 :108 (b) Equilibrium will shift to right side.
(c) 7 :135 (d) 1 :9 (c) No effect on equilibrium.
45. The logic performed by the circuit shown in figure is (d) Reaction will stop.
51. Match List-I with List-II.

List-
List-II
I

A. SF 4 I. sp

(a) AND (b) NAND

B. IF 5 II. sp d
3

(c) ¿ (d) NOR

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 +¿¿ (a) the pattern in which the polypeptide chains are arranged.
C. NO 2 III. sp d
3 2
+¿¿ −¿ ¿
(b) bonding between NH 3 and COO of two peptides.
+¿¿ (c) bonds between alternate polypeptide chains.
D. NH 4 IV. sp
3
(d) folding patterns of polypeptide chains
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 59. The decreasing order of stability of carbocation is
+ ¿¿
+¿ H >C H ¿
6 5
+¿ H2 > ( CH3 )2 C ¿

(a) +¿ H > Ph C ¿
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III Ph2 C
+ ¿H¿

52. Major products obtained when n -hexane is heated in the

+¿ H >Ph C ¿
2 2
+ ¿H > Ph C ¿
(b) +¿> ( CH 3 )2 C ¿
presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and HCl gas are C6 H5
+¿ H ¿
+¿ >( CH ) C ¿
32
+ ¿H > C H ¿
2 6 5
+¿ C ¿
(c) +¿ H > Ph ¿
Ph2 C
+¿ H ¿
+¿ H >Ph C ¿
+ ¿>Ph 2 2
¿
(a) + ¿H >C 6 H 5 ¿
(d)
( CH 3 )2 C
60. Relative stability of +1 oxidation state of group 13
elements may be given as
+¿ ¿
+¿ >Tl +¿ >¿ ¿¿
+¿> Ga ¿

(b) (a) Al+¿> B ¿

+¿ ¿
+ ¿> Al+¿ >B ¿¿
+ ¿>Ga ¿
(b) Tl +¿>¿ ¿
+ ¿¿
+¿ >¿+ ¿>Tl ¿¿
+¿> Ga ¿
(c) B+¿> Al ¿
+¿ ¿
+¿ >¿ +¿ >B ¿¿
+ ¿>Tl ¿
(d) Al+¿>Ga ¿
(c)
61. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(d)
A. Sulphanilic acid (i) Lewis base
53. Which of the following carboxylic acids is highly insoluble
in water? Colourless
(a) Butanoic acid (b) Propanoic acid B. Aniline (ii)
(c) Decanoic acid (d) Pentanoic acid crystalline solid
54. The reagents ' X ' and ' Y ' respectively for the given
conversion is C. N-methyl amine (iii) Zwitter ion

D. Benzene diazonium (iv) Secondary amine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

(b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(a) CrO 3 and CO 2
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(b) Pd /BaSO 4 and dil. NaOH 62. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
+¿¿
(c) I 2 /NaOH and H 3 O −3 −1
9 ×10 s . How long will 4.0 g of this reactant take
(d) NaOH and LiAlH 4 to reduce to 2.0 g ? [Given : log ⁡2=0.301 ]
55. Which of the following hydrocarbon is solid at room (a) 72.97 s (b) 8.45 s
temperature? (c) 36.48 s (d) 48.50 s
(a) Ethane (b) Octadecane 63. Consider the following reaction
(c) Pentane (d) Octane
56. Hybridisation of ¿ (II) in K 2 [ NiBr 4 ] is
(a) s p3 d 2 (b) ds p 2
(c) s p3 (d) s p3 d
57. Which of the following is not a characteristic of alcohol?

(a) Lower alcohols are colourless liquids with pleasant smell.

(b) The boiling points of alcohols increases with increase in the
number of carbon atoms. The compounds C and D respectively are
(c) Solubility of alcohols increases with increase in branching.
(d) They are non-flammable and produce light yellow flame.
58. Secondary structure of protein refers to
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 66. An organic compound gave 0.4895 g of CO 2 on
complete combustion. If the mass of the compound taken
(a) was 0.2429 g , then the percentage of C in it will be
(a) 15.84 % (b) 11.45%
(c) 26.67 % (d) 54.96 %
67. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
(b) Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) Cr 6+¿ ¿ is colourless in nature.

Reason (R) The electronic configuration of chromium is

(c)
5 1
[ Ar ]3 d 4 s .

In the light of the above statements choose the most

appropriate answer from the options given below
(d)
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a correct explanation of
64. Match the List-I with List-II.
( A).
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of
List-I List-II ( A).
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
A 68. Given below are two statements
Δ S (Total) (i) Non-spontaneous process
. Statement I Ethene's molecular mass is half its empirical mass.

B. dU =0 (ii) −RT ln ⁡K Statement II The empirical formula represents the simplest

C whole-number ratio of the various atoms present in a
∘
.
ΔG (iii) Cyclic process compound.

D V2 In the light of the above statements, choose the most

∘
Δ G >0 (iv) nR ln ⁡ appropriate answer from the options given below
. V1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and statement II are false.
(a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) 69. Which of the following reaction represents Dow's process?
(d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) (a)
65. Study the given graph and choose the correct option.

(b)

The best suitable c.:ample for the given graph is

(a) phenol and aniline (b) chloroform and benzene

(c) water and HNO3 (d) carbon disulphide and acetone
(c)

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9890876380 / 9272188068
 (a) The coefficients of H ⊕ and CO 2 in the given balanced
equation are, respectively 14 and 6 .
(b) The coefficients of H ⊕ and CO 2 in the given balanced
equation are, respectively 7 and 2 .
(c) The number of electrons involved in the conversion of
2−¿¿
(d) Cr 2 O4 to Cr 3+¿ ¿ is 4 .
(d) The coefficients of H ⊕ and H 2 O in the given balanced
70. Given below are two statements equation are, respectively 7 and 6 .
Statement I Methane cannot be obtained by Wurtz reaction. 76. Given below are two statements.
Statement I In the reaction,
Statement II Wurtz, reaction leads to the formation of
symmetrical alkanes having an even number of carbon atoms. MnO2 ( s)+4 HCl(aq)⟶ MnCl 2( aq)+Cl2 ( g)
+2 H 2 O(l)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below.
MnO2 acts as a reducing agent.
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
(b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. Statement II An oxidising agent is that substance which itself
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. undergoes reduction in a chemical reaction.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
71. The structure of white phosphorus is In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
(a) octahedral (b) trigonal bipyramidal
from the options given below.
(c) linear (d) tetrahedral
72. The dipole moment of HBr is 0.8 ×10−30 cm and
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
interatomic spacing is 1 Å . The % ionic character of HBr (b) Both Statement I and statement II are false.
is (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(a) 7 % (b) 5 % (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(c) 20 % (d) 10 % 77. Given below are two statements.
73. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl orange as
Statement I ¿ ¿ has d 2 s p3 type hybridisation.
indicator, which of the following is a correct combination?

Statement II ¿ ¿ ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to

Base Acid End point
two unpaired electrons. In the light of the above statements,
A choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Weak Strong Pink to yellowish brown
.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
B. Strong Strong Pinkish red to yellow (b) Statement I is true; but Statement II is false.
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
C. Weak Strong Yellow to pinkish red (d) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
D DDT?
Strong Strong Pink to colourless
. (a) It is a powerful insecticide.
(b) It is not metabolised very rapidly by animals.
(c) It is chemically stable and fat soluble.
74. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
(d) In consists of two benzene rings and a central methane
resonance? molecule with chlorine atoms attached.
(a) Resonance gives rise to identical bond lengths and extra 79. In S N 2 mechanism the sequence of bond breaking and
stability to molecules. bond formation follows the trend.
(b) The type of hybridisation changes between the resonance
structures. (a) Bond breaking and bond formation takes place simultaneously.
(c) Resonating structures should have equal energy. (b) Bond breaking is followed by bond formation.
(d) The stability of a molecule is directly proportional to the (c) Bond formation is followed by bond breaking.
resonance energy. (d) Bond breaking and bond formation takes place
75. In the reaction, randomly.
80. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
⊕ 2−¿+C 2 O2−¿⟶ Cr
3+¿ +CO +H O ¿
2 2
¿
¿ transition metals?
H +Cr 2 O7 4

(a) They do not form alloys.

(b) Generally, they are coloured in aqueous state
Which of the following statements is correct? (c) They form interstitial compounds.
(d) Their enthalpy of atomisation is high.

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81. Which of the following order of arrangement agree with (C) Ethers are widely used as an extraction solvents.
the variation of property indicated against it. (D) An ethereal oxygen can act as Lewis acid.
2+ ¿< Na
+¿ <F
−¿ ¿
¿
¿
(E) Ethers are insoluble in water.
(I) Al3 +¿<Mg ¿
(Increasing ionic size) Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(II) B<C< N <O (Increasing st ionisation enthalpy) (a) A, B and C only (b) C, D and E only
(III) I ¿ Br< Cl< F (Increasing electron gain enthalpy) (c) B, C and D only (d) A, D and E only
(IV) Li< Na< K < Rb (Increasing metallic radius)
(V) O< N <C < B (Increasing I st ionisation enthalpy) 87. In a zero order reaction, for every 10∘ C rise of
Choose the correct answer from the following option. temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is
(a) I and IV (b) I, III and V increased from 10∘ C to 60∘ C , the rate of the reaction
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and III becomes.
(a) 32 times (b) 16 times
82. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO 5 is (c) 64 times (d) 128 times
(a) +3 (b) +5 88. When KMnO 4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution,

(c) +6 (d) +4 the decolourisation is slow in the begining but becomes

❑ instantaneous after sometime because
83. CH 3−CH =CH 2 → ( X ) The product (X ) in the given
❑ +¿¿
reaction is (a) H catalyses the reaction.
2−¿¿
(b) C 2 O 4 acts as auto catalyst.
(c) Mn 2+¿¿ acts as auto catalyst.
−¿¿
(d) MnO 4 catalyses the reaction.
(a) (b) 89. The correct order of increasing basic nature of the
following amines is

(a) C 6 H 5 NH 2<C 6 H 5 NH 2 CH 3 <C 6 H 5 NH 2 NO 2

(b) C 6 H 5 NH 2 NO 2<C 6 H 5 NH 2 <C 6 H 5 NH 2 CH 3
(c) (d)
(c) C 6 H 5 NH 2 CH 3< C6 H 5 NH 2 <C 6 H 5 NH 2 NO 2
(d) C 6 H 5 NH 2 CH 3 ≈ C 6 H 5 NH 2< C6 H 5 NH 2 NO 2
84. Consider the reaction,
90. If 9.08 g of BaCl2 is present in 105 g of solution, then
2 NO(g)+O2 (g)⟶ 2 NO2 (g) the concentration of solution will be
(a) 0.908 ppm (b) 90.8 ppm
−d [ O 2 ] d [ NO 2 ] (c) 908 ppm (d) 0.0908 ppm
If =0.026 M / s, then will be
dt dt Botany
(a) 0.016 M / sq (b) 0.052 M /s
91. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories in
(c) 0.114 M /s (d) 0.084 M / s descending order is:
(a) Class-phylum -order-family-genus-species
85. Match the List-I with List-II. (b) Division- class- family-order-genus-species
List-I List-II (c) Division-class-order-family-genus-species
(d) Phylum-order-class-family- genus-species
92. Identify the correct option w.r.t. the double helix structure
(i) of DNA:
A. Conductance 2 −1
S cm mol (a) It is made of two polynucleotide chains where the back bone is
constituted by sugar - phosphate and the bases project inside
B. Molar conductivity (ii) Siemens
(b) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
(c) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine
C. Equivalent
(iii) S m−1 (d) All of the above
conductivity 93. Action spectrum of photosynthesis resembles roughly the

D. Conductivity (iv) S cm 2 eq−1 (a) absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a

(b) absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (c) absorption spectrum of chlorophyll c
(d) both (a) and (b)
(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (b) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) 94. In C 4 plants, plasmodesmata are used for transport of:
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
86. Which of the following statement is correct about ethers? (A) C 4 acid from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells.
(A) Ethers form peroxides by free radical oxidation.
(B) Ethers are flammable. (B) C 4 acid from bundle sheath to mesophyll cells.

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(C) C 3 acid from mesophyll to bundle sheath cells.

(D) C 3 acid from bundle sheath cells to mesophyll cells.

(a) A and D (b) A and C
(c) B and D (d) B and C (a) Splicing (b) Capping
(c) Tailing (d) Both (a) and (b)
95. The plant body of bryophytes is thallus like because it 103.Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in
does not contain. a cell?
(a) true stem, root, or leaves (b) flower, fruit (a) Intracellular transport
(c) fruit, seed (d) all of the above (b) Maintenance of cell shape and structure
96. Which of the following is responsible for biodiversity loss? (c) Mechanical support
(d) Cell motility
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
104.Cell in G 0 phase
(b) Alien species invasions
(c) Coextinctions (a) terminate the cell cycle (b) do not divide
(d) All of the above (c) are metabolically inactive (d) perform meiosis
97. Which of the following wall layers of microsporangium 105.Biofertilisers are
provides nutrition to the developing pollen grains?
(a) used to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil
(a) Endothecium (b) Middle layers
(b) used to increase the water content of the soil
(c) Epidermis (d) Tapetum
(c) used to control disease causing agent
98. In which of the following group all the organisms contain
(d) used for eradication of pests
chlorophyll 'c'.
106.Which of the following is correct regarding
photosynthesis?
(a) Cedrus, Volvox, Chlorella
(b) Spirogyra, Polysiphonia, Chara (a) Occurs only in green parts of plants
(c) Chlamydomonas, Dictyota, Ulothrix, Gelidium (b) It converts solar energy with CO 2 and H 2 O into organic
(d) Dictyota, Fucus, Sargassum, Laminaria matter
99. Read the statements given below (c) It evolves oxygen
(d) All of the above
(A) P. Maheshwari got fellowship of Royal Society of France 107.What happens when succinic acid is converted into malic
(FRS). acid?
+ ¿¿ +¿¿
(a) Reduction of NAD to NADH + H
(B) His leadership was instrumental in bringing out the very +¿¿ + ¿¿
(b) Conversion of NADH + H to NAD
first text books of biology for higher secondary schools + ¿¿
(c) Oxidation of FADH 2 to FAD
published by NCERT. + ¿¿
(d) Conversion of FAD to FADH 2
(C) His work on test tube fertilisation and intraovarian 108.Identify the basic levels of ecology.
pollination won world-wide acclaim. (I) Organisms (II) Populations
(III) Communities (IV) Biomes
(D) He popularised the use of embryological characters in (V) Human (VI) Vertebrates
taxonomy. Choose the correct option.

The correct statements are (a) Only I, II and III (b) Only II, III and VI
(c) Only I, II, III and IV (d) Only I, II, III and V.
(a) Only A, B (b) Only A, B, C 109.The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of
(c) Only A, C (d) Only B, C, D meiosis?
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene
100.Which of the following type of interactions occur in (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
predation and parasitism? 110.Which RNA polymerase transcribes the precursor of
(a) ¿ (b) (+, 0) mRNA in eukaryotes?
(c) ¿ (d) ¿
101.Identify the wrong statement (a) RNA Polymerase II (b) RNA Polymerase I
(c) RNA Polymerase III (d) RNA Polymerase IV
(a) In male grasshopper, 50 % of the sperms do not have sex 111.Choose the correct option
chromosome (a) Rate of decomposition is controlled by climatic factors only
(b) Usually female birds produce 2 types of gametes based on sex (b) Energy transfer is cyclic
chromosomes (c) Value of PAR is ¿ 50 % of solar radiation
(c) The male fruit fly is heterogametic (d) All statements are false
(d) In domesticated fowls the sex of the progeny depends on the 112.Find the correct statement (s) from the following:
type of sperm that fertilises the egg
(A) Due to habitat loss tropical rain forest now cover no more
102.Which process is depicted in this figure?
than 6 % of earth's land surface.
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(B) Amazonian rainforest is being cut and cleared for soya 123.Casparian strips contain:
bean cultivation. (a) cutin (b) pectin
(C) Animals with migratory habits are badly affected by (c) suberin (d) wax
habitat loss and fragmentation. 124.Choose incorrect statement.
(D) Mammals and birds requiring small territories are badly
affected by habitat loss and fragmentation. (a) Aerobic respiration is the process that leads to a complete
(a) Only A and B (b) Only A and D oxidation of organic substances in the presence of oxygen.
(c) Only D (d) Only A, B and C (b) The TCA cycle does not requires the continued replenishment
113.By the process of , water soluble inorganic nutrients go of oxaloacetic acid.
down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as (c) OAA is the first member of the Kreb's cycle.
unavailable salts. (d) Only one substrate level phosphorylation occurs in one Kreb's
(a) catabolism (b) leaching cycle.
(c) mineralisation (d) humifications 125.Assertion (A): The proton gradient is important to the
114.Splitting of water is related with synthesis of NADPH.

(a) Photosystem I (b) Photosystem II Reason (R): Due to chemiosmosis the proton gradient develops
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cyclic photo-phosphorylation which activates ATP synthase enzyme that catalyses the
115.Which of the following is a true bacterium having
formation of ATP.
heterocysts and N 2 - fixing capacity?
(a) Archaebacteria (b) Cyanobacteria (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, and Reason
(c) Mycoplasma (d) All of these (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A)
116.Who proposed the double helix model for the structure of (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but Reason
DNA? (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false
(a) Crick (b) Wilkins and franklin (d) Assertiosn (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true
(c) Watson and Franklin (d) Watson and Crick 126.Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to substitution of
117.Regions of root from base to root tip are:
(a) Glutamic acid by valine at the sixth position
(a) Maturation zone - Cell division zone Elongation zone (b) Valine by glutamic acid at the sixth position
(b) Maturation zone - Elongation zone - Cell division zone (c) Valine by glutamic acid at the 9 th position
(c) Cell division zone - Elongation zone Maturation zone (d) None of the above
(d) Elongation zone - Cell division zone - Maturation zone 127.Correct sequence of layers of bacterial cell envelope from
118.At the end of meiosis-II, number of haploid cells formed outward to inward is
are:
(a) Cell wall → Glycocalyx → Cell membrane
(a) Two (b) Four (b) Cell membrane → Glycocalyx → Cell wall
(c) Eight (d) One
(c) Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Cell membrane
119.Bryophytes have/ are
(d) Glycocalyx → Cell membrane → Cell wall
(a) archegonia 128.The interphase is divided into three phases, namely.
(b) called the amphibians of the plant kingdom
(c) dominant gametophytic and parasitic sporophytic phase (a) G1-phase, M-phase and G 2-phase
(d) all of the above (b) M-phase, S-phase and divisional phase
120.Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (c) G1 Ghase, synthesis phase and G 2-phase
(a) Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or (d) M-phase, G 2-phase and divisional phase
mutation in the single gene 129.Which of the following are incorrectly matched?
(b) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive trait
(c) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle (A) Blood pressure controlling agent → Streptokinase →
results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s), called aneuploidy produced by fungus.
(d) Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome are common (B) Immunosuppressive agent → Streptokinase → produced
examples of Mendelian disorders. by bacteria.
121.In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis terminates (C) Blood-cholesterol lowering agent → Statins → produced
in a flower. The flowers are borne in a order: by yeast.
(a) basipetal order (b) acropetal order (D) Clot buster → Cyclosporin A → produced by fungus.
(c) both of(a) & (b) (d) none of these (a) Only A and B (b) Only C and D
122.Identify the correct statement. (c) A, B and D (d) Only A and D
130.During glycolysis glucose is converted into glucose6-
(a) Metaxylem is the first formed primary xylem elements phosphate by the enzyme.
(b) In exarch arrangement, protoxylem lies towards the centre
(pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the organ (a) Hexokinase (b) Glucose 6 phosphatase
ss (c) Glucophosphatase (d) None of the above
(c) The first formed phloem consists of bigger and wider sieve 131.Assertion (A): Temperature is the most important
tubes ecologically relevant factor.
(d) The protoxylem lies towards the centre in the stem and
towards the periphery in the roots

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Reason (R): Ecological niche is the total interaction of a
species with environment. Membrane partially

C. Labia minora r. covering

(a) Both Assertion ( Λ ) and Reason ( R ) are the true, and Reason
(R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A). the opening of vagina
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but Reason
(R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). D. Hymen s Paired folds of tissue
(c) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (a) A-(p); B-(q); C-(r); D-(s)
132.The correct statement is (b) A-(q); B-(p); C-(s); D-(r)
(c) A-(r); B-(p); C-(q); D-(s)
(a) A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the (d) .A-(s); B-(r); C-(p); D-(q)
same ecosystem 137.Read the following statements and choose the correct
(b) A given species occupies only one trophic level in the same
answer
ecosystem
(c) A given species occupies minimum two trophic levels in the Statement-A: Not all copulations lead to fertilisation and
same ecosystem pregnancy
(d) A given species occupies maximum two trophic levels in the
given ecosystem Statement-B: Fertilisation can occur if the ovum and the
133.Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
sperms are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes
another flower of the same plant is know as
(a) xenogamy (b) geitonogamy (a) Only statement A is correct
(c) autogamys (d) cleistogamys (b) Only statement B is correct
134.(I)The newly evolved classification system is based on (c) Both A and B statements are correct
morphological, physiological, reproductive and (d) Both A and B statements are incorrect
phylogenetic similarities. 138.If menstrual cycle of a female is of 32 days then the couple
(II) All members of Plantae kingdom are eukaryotic, should abstain from coitus from
chlorophyll-containing, autotrophic organisms. (a) Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(b) Day 21 to 32 of the menstrual cycle
(III) Specialised cell structures to fix atmospheric nitrogen can (c) Day 5 to 14 of the menstrual cycle
be seen in some members of eubacteria. (d) Day 14 to 21 of the menstrual cycle
139.Which of the following animal is triploblastic, acoelomate
with solid mesoderm between ectoderm and endoderm?
(IV) In Basidiomycetes, the sex organs are absent, but
(a) Ascaris (b) Planaria
plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or
(c) Earthworm (d) Sycon
somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. 140.Pila differs from Octopus in that, Pila

Select the option containing correct statements; (a) Has bilateral symmetry
(b) Has a body covered by a calcareous shell and with a indistinct
(a) I & II (b) I, II & III head, flat foot and visceral hump
(c) I, III & IV (d) All are correct (c) Has a radula, file like rasping organ in mouth
135.In early stage of embryonic development, the growth is (d) Is monoecious
of----- type. 141.Scientific names and common names of certain animals
are given below. Choose the correct options
(a) arithmetic
(b) geometric Scientific Name Common Name
(c) growth where only one cell formed due to division undergoes
further division A. Dentalium Tusk shell
(d) more than one option is correct
Zoology B. Gorgonia Sea pen
136.Match the columns and find out the correct combination.
C. Ophiura Sea cucumber
Column-I Column-II
D. Wuchereria Hookworm
A. Mons pubis p. Fleshy folds of tissue
E. Antedon Sea lily

Cushion of fatty (a) A and E are correct; B, C and D are incorrect

(b) A and D are correct, B ,C and E are incorrect
B. Labia majora q. tissue covered (c) A , D and E are correct; B and C are incorrect
(d) A and C are incorrect, B, D and E are correct
by skin and pubic hair 142.The zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is
transferred into the _ A _ and this is called _ B_. Here A
and B are
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 (a) Presence of stomochord which is mesodermal in origin
A B
(b) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(c) Circualtory system is open
(a) Fallopian tube GIFT
(d) Respiration takes place through gills
150.The hypothalamic hormone X _ acts on adenohypophysis
(b) Uterus IUI
to release ¿ Y −¿ ¿that stimulates the release of androgens
from Z−¿¿.
(c ) Uterus IUT
Select the option that correctly identifies X , Y and Z
(d ) Fallopian tube ZIFT respectively.

(a) GnRH, LH, Leydig cells

143.Government of India legalised MTP in the year
(b) GnRH, FSH, Sertoli cells
(a) 1951 (b) 1971
(c) Somatostatin, Gonadotrophins, Interstitial cells
(c) 1990 (d) 1972
(d) Somatostatin, GH, Interstitial cells
144.A key evolutionary development seen for the first time in 151.In humans, electrolytes like chloride ions are generally
the sponges is
absorbed by
(a) Intracellular digestion (b) Origin of nerve cells
(a) Facilitated transport
(b) Active transport
(c) Body symmetry (d) Multicellularity (c) Simple diffusion
(d) Passive transport with the help of carrier proteins
145.Below four animals are given and matched with their 152.Cause of defective development and maturation of the
excretory organs growing baby leading to stunted growth, mental
(A) Rotifers-Nephridia retardation and low I.Q. is
(B) Crab-Green glands (a) Hyperthyroidism during pregnancy
(C) Balanoglossus - Protonephridia (b) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy
(D) Locusta - Malpighian tubules (c) Hypercalcemia during pregnancy
How many matches is/are correct? (d) Hypocalcaemia during pregnancy
(a) One (b) Two 153.Identify the sequence to which any piece of DNA when
(c) Three (d) Four linked to this can be made to replicate within the host
cells.
146.Assertion (A): Testicular lobules are the compartments (a) Selectable marker (b) Origin of replication
present in testes. (c) rope (d) Cloning sites
Reason (R): These lobules are involved in the process of 154.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. polar bodies
fertilisation. (a) Non-functional product of gametogenesis in females
(b) First polar body is the result of meiosis-I in oogonium
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct (c) Second polar body is the result of meiosis-II in secondary
explanation of Assertion oocyte
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the (d) Both polar bodies are haploid in nature
correct explanation of Assertion 155.Choose the incorrect statement.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false (a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals cause inflammation in
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
joints.
147.Government through RCH has promoted small families
to overcome the problems associated with population
(b) Vertebral column have 5 lumbar vertebrae.
explosion in our country through various means. Which of
the following options is not an effort by the Government
and CH ? (c) In myasthenia gravis, affected NMJ leading to fatigue.

(a) Statutory raising the marriageable age of female to 18 years (d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
and that of males to 21 years.
(b) Media showing happy couple with many children.
156.Choose the mismatch pair.
(c) Popularising slogans like HUM DO HUMARE DO and urban
working couples are adopting one child norm. (a) Schwann cells - Myelination in CNS
(d) Incentives given by government to people with small families. (b) Oligodendrocytes - Myelination in PNS
148.Excretory organs of arthropods are (c) Axon - Nissl's granules
(d) Synaptic vesicles - Neurotransmitters
(a) Green glands only
157.Building block of nucleic acid is a
(b) Green gland and malpighian tubules
(c) Nephridia (a) Nucleotide (b) Nucleoside
(d) Malpighian tubules only (c) Nitrogeneous base (d) Ribose sugar
149.Which of the following is not a characteristics of phylum 158.Choose the correct statements.
Hemichordata?
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(a) The axon is a long fiber, the proximal end of which is
branched. Diminished ability of the
(b) The axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of B. Cretinism q.
K +¿ ¿and negatively charged proteins and low concentration of kidney to conserve water
Na+¿
(c) If a neuron is in a repolarized state means it is able to respond C. Acromegaly r. Swollen neck
to a new stimuli
(d) The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is Severe disfigurement
called corpora quadrigemina. D. Goitre s.
159.The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per especially of the face
minute averages
(a) 70 ml (b) 5000 ml (a) A-(r); B-(p); C-(s); D-(q)
(b) A-(q); B-(s); C-(p); D-(r)
(c) 0.8 ml (d) 72 0̇ ml
(c) A-(q); B-(p); C-(s); D-(r)
160.Select the correct match between the phylum listed and its
(d) A-(p); B-(q); C-(s); D-(r)
two examples
165.Downstream processing includes
(a) Separation and purification
(a) Porifera Sycon, Meandrina
(b) Continuous culture system
(c) Expression of desired product
Pleurobrachia, (d) Biosynthesis in bioreactors
(b) Ctenophora 166.Choose the correct pairing of function of given structure
Ctenoplana (a) Choanocytes in sponges-Secretion of spicules
(b) Cnidoblasts in sea anemone - locomotion only
(c) Coelenterata Gorgonia, Fasciola (c) Flame cells in Planaria - Bioluminescence
(d) Radula in Pila - Feeding
(d) Aschelminthes Ancylostoma, Taenia 167.Identify the correct option with respect to WBCs.

161.How many of the following statements is/are correct for

Saheli?
(I) Inhibits implantation

(II) Injectable device, developed by CDRI, Lucknow Least Most Phagocytic

(III) Steroidal contraceptive abundant abundant WBC

(IV) Taken once in a week (a)1 3 3,6

(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2 (b)1 4 2,3

162.Which of the following statements is correct for node of (c )2 5 1,3

Ranvier of nerve?
(d )2 3 3,4
(a) Covered by myelin sheath
(b) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(c) Myelin sheath is discontinuous 168.The type of natural selection which favours both the
(d) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous peripheral character values and not the mean character
163.The centres which control respiration, cardiovascular value is called
reflexes and gastric secretions lies in part of brain
(a) Stabilising selection (b) Directional selection
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Pons (c) Disruptive selection (d) Balancing selection
(c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla 169.Match the columns and find out the correct combination
164.Match the disorders with their correct combinations:
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
Chordae Closure of
Diabetes A. p.
A. p. Stunted growth tendineae semilunar valves
Insipidus
B. AV node q. Right atrium

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 176.Read the following statements with respect to striated
Second heart muscle fibres and choose the incorrect statement.
C. r. Interatrial septum
sound (a) Muscle fibres are lined by the plasma membrane called
sarcolemma.
D. SA node s. Heart string (b) Muscle fibres have sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage of
calcium ions.
(a) A-(r); B-(p); C-(q); D-(s) (c) Muscles fibres are uninucleated structures and nucleus is
(b) A-(s); B-(r); C-(p); D-(q) present in peripheral part.
(c) A-(q); B-(p); C-(s); D-(r) (d) Muscle fibres have parallelly arranged filaments.
(d) A-(s); B-(q); C-(r); D-(p) 177.Identify A , B ,C and D in given diagram & choose the
170.Choose the incorrect statement wr.t. monosaccharides correct option
(a) Hexose sugar includes glucose, fructose and galactose
(b) They cannot hydrolyse further but may be oxidised
(c) They all are water soluble
(d) Some of them are non-reducing
171.Which of the following Statement is correct for muscle
contraction?
(a) Anisotropic bands retain the length
(b) Length of H -Zone decreases
(c) Isotropic bands get reduced
(d) All of the above
172.Which of the following is the correct description of a (a) A-Aorta, B-Vena cava, C-Vena cava, D-Sinoatrial node
certain part of a normal human skeleton? (b) A-Vena cava, B-Aorta, C-Atrio-ventricular node, D -Sino-
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined with atrial node
the help of dense fibrous connective tissue (c) A-Aorta, B-Vena cava, C- Sino-atrial node, D Atrio-
(b) First vertebra is atlas ventricular node
(c) The 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called floating ribs (d) A- Sino-atrial node, B-Atrio-ventricular node C-Aorta, D-
Vena cava
178.How much is the inspiratory reserve volume?
(d) All of the above
(a) 2500 ml to 3000 ml (b) 1000 ml to 1100 ml
173.In the given below example how many are peptide and
steroidal hormone respectively? (c) 1100 ml to 1200 ml (d) 4000 ml to 6000 ml
Progesterone, ANF, GIP, Cortisol, CCK, Gastrin, Androgens,
Aldosterone, Glucagon 179.Which of following hormone releases by pars nervosa?
(a) MSH (b) Oxytocin
(a) 5,4 (b) 4,5
(c) FSH (d) TSH
(c) 6,3 (d) 7,2
180.Assertion (A): Interferons are protein which are produced
by virally infected cells
174.How many statements is/are correct?
Reason (R): Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of
injury

(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statement and reason is
correct explanation for assertion
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statement and reason is
not correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is incorrect statement
(a) It is marine (b) Triplobalstic (d) Assertion is incorrect statement but reason is correct statement
(c) It is fresh water (d) It is unisexual

(e) Ostia is present

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

175.Which one of the following pair is incorrect?

(a) Hinge joint - Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(b) Pivot joint - Between atlas and axis
(c) Gliding joint - Between the carpals
(d) Saddle joint - Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph

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