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SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY (MOLE CONCEPT)
1. The volume of a gas at 0 C and 760 mm
0
(3) 165.5 g (4) 132.5 g
pressure is 22.4 cc. The no. of molecules 8. 44g of a sample of organic compound on
present in this volume is complete combustion gives 88g CO 2 and 36g of
–3 –4
(1) 10 N A (2) 10 N A H 2 O. The molecular formula of the compound
–5 –2
(3) 10 N A (4) 10 N A may be :-
2. 100 mL of PH 3 when completely decomposed (1) C 4 H 6 (2) C 2 H 6 O
produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change (3) C 2 H 4 O (4) C 3 H 6 O
in volume of the gas is - 9. Volume at N.T.P. of 0.22 g of CO 2 is same as
4PH 3 (g) → P 4 (s) + 6H 2 (g) that of
(1) 50 mL increase (1) 0.01 g of hydrogen
(2) 500 mL decrease (2) 0.085 g of NH 3
(3) 900 mL decrease (3) 320 mg of gaseous SO 2

®
(4) Does not change (4) All the above
3. The mass of a molecule of water : 10. Which of the following has maximum mass :-
–24
(1) 30 × 10 kg (2) 3 × 10–26 kg (1) 0.1 gram atom of carbon
–26
(3) 1.5 × 10 kg (4) 2.5 × 10–27 kg (2) 0.1 mol of ammonia
4. 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. (3) 6.02 × 1022 molecules of hydrogen
How many atoms of gold were recovered ? (At. (4) 1120 cc of carbon dioxide at STP
wt. of gold (Au) = 197) 11. What mass of NaCl would react with 98 g of
23
(1) 100 (2) 6.023 × 10
24
H 2 SO 4 if 120 g of NaHSO 4 and 27.5 g of HCl
(3) 6.023 × 10 (4) 6.023 × 1025
are produced in a reaction. Assuming that law of
5. Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating
mass conservation is true:
manganese dioxide (MnO 2 ) with aqueous
(1) 4.95 g (2) 49.5 g (3) 0.495 g (4) 495 g
hydrochloric acid according to the reaction
12. Equal mass of oxygen, hydrogen and methane
4HCl(aq)+MnO 2 (s) → 2H 2 O() + MnCl2 (aq) + are taken in a container in identical conditions.
Cl2 (g) What is the ratio of their moles :-
How many gram of HCl react with 5.0 g of (1) 1 : 16 : 1
manganese dioxide ? (At. wt. of Mn = 55) (2) 1 : 16 : 2

(1) 2.12 g (2) 44.24 g (3) 8 : 1 : 8

(4) 16 : 1 : 8
(3) 8.4 g (4) 3.65 g
13. When 40 cc of slightly moist hydrogen chloride
6. An unknown amino acid has 0.032% sulphur by
gas is mixed with 20 cc of ammonia gas the final
mass. If each molecule has one S atom only, 1 g.
of amino acid has ........... molecules :- volume; of gas left at the same temperature and

(1) 6.02 × 1018 (2) 6.02 × 10

19 pressure will be

(3) 6.02 × 1024 (4) 6.02 × 1023 NH 3 (g) + HCl(g) → NH 4 Cl(s)

7. 446 g of PbO, 46 g of NO 2 and 16 g of O 2 are (1) 20 cc (2) 40 cc

allowed to react according to the equation :- (3) 60 cc (4) 100 cc

1 14. Which of the following has greatest number of

PbO + 2NO 2 + O 2 → Pb(NO 3 ) 2
2 atoms :-
The amount of Pb(NO 3 ) 2 that can be produced is (1) 1g of butane (C 4 H 10 )
(At. wt. of Pb = 207) :- (2) 1 g of nitrogen (N 2 )
(1) 331 g (2) 662 g (3) 1 g of silver (Ag)

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(4) 1 g of water (H 2 O) 21. 1 mole of Fe 2 S 3 , 2 moles of H 2 O and 3 moles of
15. One atom of an element 'X' weighs 6.664× 10–23 g. O 2 are allowed to react according to the equation
The number of gram atoms in 40 kg of it is [2Fe2S3(s)+6H2O() + 3O2(g)→4Fe(OH)3(s) + 6S(s)]
(1) 10 (2) 100
The number of moles of Fe(OH) 3 (s) that can be
(3) 10000 (4) 1000
produced is :-
16. In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C → A 4 B 2 C 3 , what
(1) 1.34 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
will be the number of moles of product formed, 22. A gaseous alkane was burnt with oxygen. The
starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and
volume of O 2 for complete combustion and that
0.72 mol of C :-
of CO 2 formed are in the ratio of 7 : 4. The
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.3
molecular formula of alkane is :-
(3) 0.24 (4) 2.32
(1) CH 4 (2) C 2 H 6 (3) C 3 H 8 (4) C 4 H 10
17. If Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2 and H 3 PO 3 contain same number of
23. Two oxides of a metal contain 22.22% and 30%
'P' atoms, then the ratio of oxygen atoms in
oxygen by mass respectively. If the formula of

®
these compounds respectively is :-
the first oxide is MO, then the formula of the
(1) 8/3 (2) 2/3 (3) 3 (4) 4/3
second oxide is :-
18. Calculate the number of oxygen atoms required
(1) MO (2) MO 2 (3) M 2 O 3 (4) M 2 O
to combine with 7g of N 2 to form N 2 O 3 when 24. Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. If it
80% of N 2 is converted into N 2 O 3 :-
contains 29% by mass of nitrogen, number of
(1) 2.3 × 1023 (2) 3.6 × 1023
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is:-
(3) 1.8 × 1021 (4) 5.4 × 1021
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
19. Element X reacts with oxygen to produce a pure
25. Sulphur trioxide is prepared by the following two
sample of X 2 O 3 . In an experiment it is found that
reactions.
1.00 g of X produces 1.16 g of X 2 O 3 . Calculate
S 8 (s) + 8O 2 (g) → 8SO 2 (g)
the atomic weight of X :-
2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2SO 3 (g)
(1) 67 (2) 100.2 (3) 125 (4) 150
How many grams of SO 3 are produced from
20. In a compound A containing carbon, hydrogen 1 mol of S 8 ?
and oxygen, the % of hydrogen is one sixth that (1) 1280.0 (2) 640.0
of carbon which is 1.5 times that of oxygen. (3) 960.0 (4) 320.0
What is the simplest formula for the compound:-
(1) C 2 H 4 O 2 (2) C 2 H 4 O
(3) C 2 H 6 O (4) CH 4 O

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ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 1 1 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans 3 4 2 4 2 1 2 3 3 2

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THERMODYNAMICS AND THERMO CHEMISTRY
1. Standard enthalpies of formation of O 3 , CO 2 , 3
7. (i) 2B (s) + O 2(g) → B 2 O 3(s)
NH 3 and HI are 142.2, –393.2, –46.2 and 2
–1
+25.9 kJ mol respectively. The order of their ∆H = –1273 KJ mol
–1

increasing stabilities will be :- 1

(ii) H 2(g) + O 2(g) → H 2 O ()
(1) O 3 , CO 2 , NH 3 , HI 2
(2) CO 2 , NH 3 , HI, O 3 ∆H = –286 KJ mol
–1

(3) O 3 , HI, NH 3 , CO 2
(iii) H 2 O () → H 2 O (g) ∆H = 44 KJ mol–1
(4) NH 3 , HI, CO 2 , O 3
2. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of (iv) 2B (s) + 3H 2(g) → B 2 H 6(g)
0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of ∆H = 36 KJ mol–1
0.1 M HCl is x kJ. The heat of neutralisation (in From the above data, calculate the enthalpy
–1
kJ mol ) is :- change for the combustion of B 2 H 6(g) .

®
(1) –100 x (2) –50 x B 2 H 6(g) + 3O 2(g) → B 2 O 3(s) + 3H 2 O (g)
(3) +100 x (4) +50x (1) –1835 KJ mol
–1
(2) 2035 KJ mol
–1

3. What will be the heat of formation of methane, if (3) –2035 KJ mol–1 (4) None of these
the heat of combustion of carbon is '–x' kJ, heat 8. The entropies of H 2 (g) and H(g) are 130.6 and
of formation of water is '–y' kJ and heat of 114.6 Jmol
–1
K–1 respectively at 298K. Bond
combustion of methane is '–z' kJ ? energy of H 2 (in kJ mol–1) is-
(1) (– x – y + z) kJ Given-
(2) (– z + x + 2y) kJ H 2 (g) →2H(g) ; ∆G° = 406.62 kJ mol–1
(3) (– x – 2y – z) kJ (1) 364 kJ (2) 643 kJ
(4) (– x – 2y + z) kJ (3) 436 kJ (4) 346 kJ
4. How much energy is absorbed by 10 mol of an 9. The latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500
ideal gas if it expands reversibly from an initial K and 1 atm pressure is 10 kCal/mol. What will
pressure of 8 atm. to 4 atm at a constant
be the change in internal energy (∆U) during
temperature of 27°C ?
vaporisation of 3 moles of the liquid at the same
(1) 1.728 × 104 J
temperature and pressure?
(2) 2 × 105 J
(1) 13 kCal (2) – 13 kCal
(3) 8 × 106 J
(3) 27 kCal (4) –27 kCal
(4) 1.728 × 105 J
10. One gram sample of NH 4 NO 3 is decomposed in
5. Which reaction occurs with the greatest increase
a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the
in entropy ?
calorimeter increases by 6.12 K. The heat
(1) 2H 2 O () → 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) capacity of the system is 1.23 kJ/g/K. What is
(2) 2 NO(g) → N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) the molar heat of decomposition for NH 4 NO 3
(3) C (s) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) (1) 7.53 kJ/mol (2) 398.1 kJ/mol
(4) Br 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g) → 2 BrCl(g) (3) 16.1 kJ/mol (4) 602 kJ/mol
6. In which of the reactions at constant pressure 11. Consider the reaction at 300 K
sign of work done is –ve. H 2(g) + Cl 2(g) → 2HCl (g) , ∆H° = – 185 kJ mol–1
(1) H 2 O (s) → H 2 O(g) If 3 mole of H 2 completely react with 3 mol of
(2) H 2 O (l) → H 2 O(s) Cl 2 to form HCl, ∆U° of the reaction will be :-
(3) CaCO 3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) (1) Zero (2) – 185 kJ
(4) All of these (3) –555 kJ (4) – 200 kJ

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12. For which process will ∆H° and ∆G° be expected 17. One mol of NaCl(s) on melting absorbed
to be most similar :- 30.5 kJ of heat and its entropy is increased by
(1) 2Al(s) + Fe 2 O 3 (s) → 2Fe(s) + Al 2 O 3 (s) –1
28.8 J K . What is the melting point of sodium
(2) 2Na(s) + 2H 2 O(l ) → 2NaOH(aq) + H 2 (g) chloride :-
(3) 2NO 2 (g) → N 2 O 4 (g) (1) 750 K (2) 1059 K
(4) 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2H 2 O(g) (3) 1332 K (4) 786 K
13. Consider the following statements : 18. Temperature of 1 mol of a gas is increased by
I. Change in state function between two states 1°C at constant pressure. The magnitude of work
is a definite quantity and does not depend on done is :-
path. R
II. Intensive properties can't be algebraically (1) R (2) 2 R (3) (4) 3 R
2
added or subtracted.
19. Use the bond energies in the table to calculate
III. Ratio of two extensive properties result into a
∆H for the reaction :
parameter that depends on amount of

®
substance. CH 2 = CH 2 + Cl 2 → CH2 – CH2
IV. Molar heat capacity is an intensive property. Cl Cl
The correct order of true / false of the above Bond C–C C=C C–Cl C–H Cl–Cl
statements is Bond energy
347 612 331 414 243
(1) F T F T (2) F F F T (KJ/mole)
(3) T T F T (4) T T T F
(1) ∆H = –684 KJ
14. Consider the following statements :-
(2) ∆H = –154 KJ
I. ∆G is negative for a physical process
(3) ∆H = +89 KJ
H 2 O (l) →H 2 O (s) at – 20°C.
II. Molar entropy of vapourisation of ice is (4) ∆H = +177 KJ
negative. 20. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to
III. In reversible adiabatic process, heat involved half its initial volume and simultaneously heated
is zero and therefore entropy change will be to twice its initial temperature, the change in
zero. entropy (∆S) is :-
IV. At absolute zero temperature, entropy of a (1) C V ln 2
pure perfectly crystalline substance is zero. (2) C P ln 2
The correct order of true / false of the above
(3) R ln 2
statements is
(4) (C v – R) ln 2
(1) T T T T (2) T F T T
21. What are the signs of the entropy change
(3) F F F T (4) T F F T
15. (∆H – ∆E) is maximum at a given temperature in (+ or –) in the following :-
case of :- I : A liquid crystallises into a solid
(1) PCl 5 (g) → PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g) II : Temperature of a crystalline solid is raised
(2) CaCO 3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO 2 (g) from 0 K to 115 K
(3) NH 4 HS(s) → NH 3 (g) + H 2 S(g) III : 2NaHCO 3 (s) → Na 2 CO 3 (s)+CO 2 (g)+H 2 O(g)
(4) N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2NO(g) IV : H 2 (g) → 2H(g)
16. Which has the highest entropy per mol of the I II III IV
substance :- (1) – + + +
(1) H 2 at 25°C and 1 atm
(2) – – – +
(2) H 2 at STP
(3) – – – +
(3) H 2 at 100 K and 1 atm
(4) + – – –
(4) H 2 at 0 K and 1 atm

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22. Consider following reactions :- 26. In a closed container of 1.0 litre capacity 2 mole
I : N 2 + O 2 → 2NO of CO and 1 mole of O 2 gases at 500 K and
∆H = x 1 70 atm react to form 2 mole of CO 2 gas. The
II : 2CO + O 2 → 2CO 2 ∆H = x 2 pressure decreases to 40 atm due to the
III : 2H 2 O + O 2 → 2H 2 O 2 ∆H = x 3 following reaction :
IV : PCl 3 + Cl 2 → PCl 5 ∆H = x 4
2CO + O 2 → 2CO 2 ; ∆H = – 560 kJ
∆H
In which case(s), ∆H f = Calculate ∆U for the reaction at 500 K.
2
1 litre-atm = 0.1 kJ. All the above gases show
(1) I, II, III (2) IV (3) II, III (4) I
significant deviations from ideal gas behaviour.
23. Calorific value of H 2 is – 143 kJ g–1, Hence, ∆Hof
(1) –557 kJ (2) –590 kJ
of H 2 O is :-
–1
(3) +557 kJ (4) +590 J
(1) – 143 kJ mol (2) – 286 kJ mol–1
27. The enthalpy change for which of the following
(3) + 143 kJ mol–1 (4) + 286 kJ mol–1
processes represents the enthalpy of formation
24. Heat of combustion of CH 4 at 25ºC and 1 atm
of AgCl :-

®
constant pressure is – 210 kcal mol–1
(1) Ag (aq) + Cl (aq) → AgCl(s)
+ –

CH 4 (g) + 2O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l) (2) Ag(s) + AuCl(s) → Au(s) + AgCl(s)

Hence, heat of combustion at constant volume
1
is:- (3) Ag(s) + Cl 2 (g) → AgCl(s)
–1
2
(1) –210 kCal mol
1
(2) –198 kCal mol
–1 (4) AgCl(s) → Ag(s) + Cl 2 (s)
2
(3) –208.8 kCal mol–1
28. In the reactions
–1
(4) –211.2 kCal mol
I : H 2 → 2H, ∆H = 436 kJ
25. In the following reaction, involving neutralisation
1
of HF (a weak acid) with NaOH (a strong base). II : H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O, ∆H= –241.81 kJ
2
HF(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaF(aq) + H 2 O(l) 1
∆H° = – 68.6 kJ mol–1 III : 2H + O 2 → H 2 O, ∆H = ?
2
This value is much higher than the heat of H 2 O can be formed either by II or III. Ratio of
neutralisation of strong acid with strong base enthalpy change in III to II is :-
–1
(= – 57.3 kJ mol ). This is due to : (1) 2.8 (2) 0.36 (3) 1.2 (4) 0.82
(1) In aqueous solution, HF behaves as a strong 29. 5 moles of a gas (assuming ideal) expand
acid adiabatically and reversibly by doing work of
–
(2) There is hydration of F ion in aqueous 250 R and undergo the decrease in temperature
solution, and the process is exothermic of 20°C. The gas is :-
(3) Both (1) and (2) (1) He (2) CO (3) NH 3 (4) CO 2
(4) Can't be predicted

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 4 3 1 3 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 1 2 1 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 2

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COLLISION AND CENTRE OF MASS

1. A sphere of diameter r is cut from a solid sphere 4. A cart of mass M is tied to one end of a massless
of radius r such that the center of mass of rope of length 10m. The other end of the rope
remaining part be at maximum distance from
M
original center then this distance is :- is in the hands of a man of mass . The entire
2
r system is on a smooth horizontal surface. If the
(1)
2 man pulls the cart by the rope then find the
distance by which the man will slip on the
r
(2) horizontal surface before the man and the cart
3
will meet each other.
r 20 10
(3) (1) m m
14 (2)
3 3
(4) None of these
(3) 0 (4) None of these
2. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 are projected
from the top of a tower. The particle m 1 is
EN 5. Two particles A and B initially at rest, move
projected vertically downward with speed u towards each other by mutual force of
and m 2 is projected horizontally with same attraction. At the instant when the speed of A
speed. Find acceleration of C.O.M. of system is n and the speed of B is 3n, the speed of the
of particles by neglecting the effect of air centre of mass of the system is :-
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resistance. (1) 3n (2) 2n
LL

(1) g downward (3) 1.5n (4) 0

6. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are
m 1g
(2) m m downward connected by a spring of negligible mass and
1 2
placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. An
impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the
A

m 2g heavier block in the direction of the lighter

(3) m m downward
1 2 block. The velocity of the centre of mass is -
(4) Can't be predicated (1) 30 m/s (2) 20 m/s
3. A man of mass M stands at one end of a plank (3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s
of length L which lies at rest on a frictionless 7. Two uniform thin rods each of length L and
surface. The man walks to the other end of the mass m are joined as shown in the figure. Find
plank. If the mass of the plank is M/3, the the distance of centre of mass of the system
distance that the man moves relative to the from point O.
ground is :-
O
3L L
(1) (2)
4 4

4L L
(3) (4)
5 3 (1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) L (4) 2L

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8. A shell at rest at the origin explodes into three 12. Particles x (of mass 4 kg) and y (of mass 9 kg)
fragments of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and m kg. The move directly towards each other, collide and
1 kg and 2 kg pieces fly off with speeds of then separate. If x is the change in the
5 ms –1 along x-axis and 6ms –1 along y-axis velocity of x and vy is the change in velocity
respectively. If the m kg piece flies off with a
x
speed of 6.5 ms–1, the total mass of the shell of y then the magnitude of is :
y

must be :-
9 3 2 4
(1) 4 kg (2) 5 kg (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 9
(3) 3.5 kg (4) 4.5 kg
13. A stationary body explodes into-four identical
9. A body of mass 3 kg moving with a velocity fragments such that three of them fly off
of 4 m/s towards left collides head on with a mutually perpendicular to each other, each of
body of mass 4 kg moving in opposite three with same kinetic energy E0, Then the
direction with a velocity of 3 m/s. After kinetic energy produced due to explosion will
be :
collision the two bodies stick together and
move with a common velocity which is :-
EN 4E 0
(1) 6E 0 (2) (3) 4E0 (4) 8E0
3
(1) zero
14. A cracker is thrown into air with a velocity of
(2) 12 m/s towards left 10 m/s at an angle of 45° with the vertical.
5
(3) 12 m/s towards right When it is at a height of m from the ground,
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2
LL
it explodes into a number of pieces which
12
(4) m/s towards left follow different parabolic paths. What is the
7
velocity of centre of mass, when it is at a height
10. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m from 5
of m from the ground ? (g = 10 m/s2)
2
the ground. The ball collides Inelastically with
A

(1) 4 5 m/s (2) 2 5 m/s

1
the ground e . How high the ball will rise
2 (3) 5 4 m/s (4) 5 2 m/s

after the first rebound:- 15. For the system shown in the figure the
acceleration of centre of mass is :-
(1) 1·25m (2) 10 m (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 5m (4) 15 m
4kg
11. A massive ball moving with speed v collides
with a tiny ball which is initially at rest having
a mass very much smaller than the mass of the 6kg
first ball. The collision is elastic, then
immediately after the impact, the second ball
will move with a speed approximately equal to:- (1) 2.4iˆ 3.6ˆj m / s2 (2) 2.4iˆ 3.6ˆj m / s2
(1) (2) 2 (3) 2 (4)
(3) 3.6iˆ 2.4 ˆj m / s2 (4) 3.6iˆ 2.4 ˆj m / s2

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16. A dog weighing 5 kg is standing on a flat boat 19. A bullet of mass 0.02 kg travelling horizontally
so that it is 10 m from the shore. The dog walks with velocity 250 ms–1strikes a block of wood
4 m on the boat towards the shore and then of mass 0.23 kg which rests on a rough
halts. The boat weighs 20 kg and one can
horizontal surface. After the impact, the block
assume that there is no friction between it and
the water. How far is the dog from the shore and bullet move together and come to rest
at the end of this time? after travelling a distance of 40m. The
(1) 3.2 m (2) 0.8 m coefficient of sliding friction of the rough
(3) 10 m (4) 6.8 m surface is (g = 9.8 ms–2) :-
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.61
A B
(3) 0.51 (4) 0.30
17. 10kg 10kg F=30N
20. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at
rest. If 1/4th of the kinetic energy is lost by the
Two blocks A and B are connected by a impact, the value of coefficient of restitution
massless string find the distance travelled by is :-
centre of mass in first 2 seconds.
1 1
(1) 1m (2) 2 m (1) (2)
2 2 3
(3) 3 m (4) None of these
18. In the arrangement shown, the pendulum on EN 1 3
the left is pulled aside. It is then released and (3) (4)
2 2
allowed to collide with other pendulum which
is at rest. A perfectly inelastic collision occurs
1
and the system rises to a height of h . The
4
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ratio of masses of the pendulum is :-
LL

h
A

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 3 1 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 4 3 1 3 3

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TG: @Chalnaayaaar



ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. Current i flows through a long wire. A square 5. If the rotational velocity of dynamo armature is
loop made of conducting wire held below the four times, then the induced emf of the dynamo
wire in the same vertical plane is released and will be :-
allowed to fall under gravity. If acceleration of the (1) Four times (2) Eight times
loop is a, then :- (3) Half (4) None of these
i 6. A current of 1A and frequency n 1 is passed
through a coil subsequently the frequency is
made n 2 . If ε 1 and ε 2 be the induced peak emf in
ε
the coil, in the two cases then 1 will be equal
ε2
(1) A current is induced in anticlockwise to :-
direction and a > g
(1) n22 : n12 (2) n12 : n22
(2) A current is induced in the clockwise
direction and a < g (3) n 1 : n 2 (4) n 2 : n 1
7. A uniform magnetic field exists in the region

®
(3) A current is induced in anticlockwise

direction and a < g given by B = 3iˆ + 4ˆj + 5kˆ . A rod of length 5 m
(4) No current is induced in the loop and a = g
placed along y-axis is moved along x-axis with
2. A conducting ring of radius r is placed
constant speed 1 ms–1. Then induced e.m.f in the
perpendicularly inside a time varying magnetic field
rod is :-
given by B = B0 + at. B0 and a are positive
(1) Zero (2) 25 V
constants, E.m.f. induced in the ring is :-
(3) 5 V (4) 10 V
(1) – παr (2) – παr
2

8. If given arrangement is moving towards left with

(3) – πα r (4) – πα r
2 2 2

speed v, then potential difference between B and

3. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the
D and current in the loop are respectively :-
same plane. The current in outer loop is
clockwise and increasing with time. The induced → B
current in the inner loop is :- ⊗B A
(1) Clockwise (uniform) 2R
(2) Zero
(3) Anticlockwise
R
(4) In a direction that depends on the ratio of
the loop radii C
4. As shown in figure, A and B are two coaxial D
conducting loops separated by some distance
(1) BvR and non-zero (2) 2BvR and zero
when the switch S is closed, a clockwise current I
flows in A (as seen by O) and an induced current (3) 4BvR and non-zero (4) 4BvR and zero
I 1 flows in B. The switch remains closed for a 9. A semicircular loop of radius R is rotated with an
long time. When S is opened, a current I 2 flows angular velocity ω. perpendicular to the plane of
in B. Then the direction of I 1 and I 2 (as seen a uniform magnetic field B as shown in the
by O) are: figure. Emf induced in the loop is :
A B
× × ×
R
× × ×

ω × × ×
O
× ×B ×

1
S (1) BωR2 (2) BωR2
2
(1) Respectively clockwise and anticlockwise
3 1
(2) Both clockwise (3) BωR2 (4) BωR2
(3) Both anticlockwise 2 4
(4) Respectively anticlockwise and clockwise
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

[ 46 ] Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024 E




TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
10. An inductance of 2H carries a current of 2A. To 15. The low coils having current charge rate
prevent sparking when the circuit is broken, a 20A/s respectively due to which they carry
induced emfs 2mV and 5.12 mV respectively.
capacitor of 4µF is connected across the
Now they are put closer such that coefficient of
inductance. The voltage rating of the capacitor is coupling in one. Fine out mutual inductance of
of the order of : arrangement.
–4
(1) 1000 V (2) 10 V (3) 100 V
4
(4) 10 V (1) 3.56 × 10 H (2) 1.56 × 10–4 H
–4
(3) 1.6 × 10 H (4) 2.56 × 10–4 H
11. Two coils have self inductance L 1 = 4mH and 16. In an A.C. sub-circuit as shown in figure, the
L 2 = 1 mH respectively. The currents in the two resistance R = 0.2 Ω. At a certain instant
coils are increased at the same rate. At a certain V A – V B = 0.5 V, I = 0.5 A, and current is
instant of time both coils are given the same ∆I
increasing at the rate of = 8 A/s. The
power. If I 1 and I 2 are the currents in the two ∆t
inductance of the coil is
coils, at that instant of time respectively, then the
L R
I 

®
value of  1  is :-
 I2  A l B
1 1 1 (1) 0.01 H (2) 0.02 H
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 (3) 0.05 H (4) 0.5 H
8 4 2
17. The length of thin wire required to manufacture a
12. In a circuit inductance L and capacitance C are solenoid of inductance L and length , (if the
connected as shown in figure and A 1 and A 2 are cross-sectional diameter is considered less than
ammeters. When key k is pressed to complete its length) is :-
the circuit, then just after closing key k, the πL 4πL
(1) (2)
readings of A 1 and A 2 will be : 2µ 0 µ0
A1 C R1 2πL πL
(3) (4)
µ0 µ0
L A2

R2
18.
K Battery 1 2 3

(1) Zero in both A 1 and A 2 The figure shows three circuits with identical
batteries, inductors and resistances. Rank the
(2) Maximum in both A 1 and A 2
circuits according to the currents through the
(3) Zero in A 1 and maximum in A2 battery just after the switch is closed, greatest
(4) Maximum in A 1 and zero in A 2 first.
13. Two coils having self inductance 2H and 8H (1) I 2 > I 3 > I 1 (2) I 2 > I 1 > I 3
have a mutual inductance of 3H. Find the (3) I 1 > I 2 > I 3 (4) I 1 > I 3 > I 2
coefficient of coupling. 19. The ratio of initial to final current through the
battery when the switch is closed in the figure
(1) 3/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 8/3 (4) 4/3
is :-
14. A conducting ring of radius b is placed coaxially R L
in a long solenoid of radius a(b < a) having n
turns per unit length. A current i = i 0 cos ωt
flows through the solenoid. The induced emf in
R
the ring is :- R
(1) Zero (2) µ 0 ni 0 πa ω
2

(3) µ 0 ni 0 πa cos ωt
2
(4) µ 0 ni 0 πb ωsinωt
2
(1) Zero (2) ∞ (3) 4/3 (4) 3/4
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

E Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024 [ 47 ]




ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
20. Which of following is true ? 23. Figure shows an L-R circuit. When the switch S
is closed, the current through resistor R 1 , R 2 and
(1) Diamagnetism is temperature dependent
R 3 are I 1 , I 2 and I 3 respectively. The value of I 1 ,
(2) Paramagnetism is temperature independent I 2 and I 3 at t = 0 s is :

(3) Diamagnetism and Paramagnetis both are I1 I2 R3 I3

temperature dependent
R2
R1 L2
(4) Paramagnetism is temperature dependent E L1

21. A bar magnet is made to fall through a long

S
vertical copper tube. The speed (v) of the magnet
(1) I 1 = I 2 = I 3 = 0
as a function of time (t) is best represented by :-
E
(2) I 1 = , I2 = I3 = 0
R1

®
v
E E
d a (3) I 1 = 0, I 2 = , I3 =
R2 R3
c
E E E
(4) I 1 = , I2 = , I3 =
R1 R 2 + L1 R3 + L 3
b
t 24. If magnetic field passing through a coil of area
2
0.1 m is changing according to the equation
(1) a (2) b
 2πt 
B = 10 sin   tesla. Find the magnitude of
(3) c (4) d  3 
induced emf at t = 0.5s
22. A small square loop of wire of side  is placed
25. The emf of the battery in loop-(1) is increased.
inside a large square loop of wire of side L (>> ). Find the direction of induced current in
the loop-(2).
The loops are coplanar and their centres
(1) (2)
coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is : a

R

L b

26. In LR circuit the current increases to one fourth

of its maximum value in 4sec than the time
2 2µ 0 L constant of circuit is :-
(1)
π
(1) 2 log e 2
2
2 2µ 0 L 4
(2) (2)
π loge 2
2 2µ 0  4
(3) (3)
πL loge ( 4 / 3 )

loge 2
2 2µ 0 2 (4)
(4) 2
πL
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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


TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
27. A small cube of volume 1 mm3 placed at the emf
centre of circular loop of radius of 100 cm,
carrying a current 1A. The magnetic energy (1)
t
stored in side cube is :-
π
(1) × 1016 J (2) 2π× 10−7 J emf
2
π π
(3) × 10−16 J (4) × 10−7 J (2)
2 2 t
28. Flux through a coil of 4Ω resistance is
=
φ ( )
2t2 + 9 wb. The induced heat in coil in first
emf
3 sec. :-
(1) 12 J (2) 4 J (3) 36 J (4) 1.2 J
29. A bar magnet released from rest in the effect of (3) t
gravity along vertical axis of coil then which of

®
the following variation is correct regarding
induced emf with respect to time when it passes emf
through the coil :-
S
v
N (4) t

ANSWER KEY
1. 3 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 1 6. 3 7. 2 8. 4 9. 2 10. 1
11. 2 12. 4 13. 1 14. 4 15. 3 16. 3 17. 2 18. 1 19. 4 20. 4
π
21. 4 22. 4 23. 2 24. volt 25. Clockwise 26. 3 27. 3
3
28. 3 29. 2
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

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