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CHM 213 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

POSSIBLE QUESTIONS AND THEIR ANSWERS.

@DNL ✔️
CREATED: APRIL - 23- 2025
1.​ The F-test is primarily used to compare:​
A. Means​
B. Medians​
C. Variances​
D. Modes​
Answer: C. Variances​

2.​ Which of the following formulas is used for the F-test?​

A.x-x/√n​
B.V¹/V²​
C. n¹+n²/2​
Answer: B.​

3.​ The F-value is always calculated by placing the:​

A. Smaller variance on top​
B. Average of variances​
C. Larger variance on top​
D. Total variance on top​
Answer: C. Larger variance on top​

4.​ The degrees of freedom in the numerator (F-test) corresponds to:​

A. The larger sample​
B. The smaller sample​
C. Any sample​
D. Mean difference​
Answer: A. The larger sample​

5.​ If F_calculated > F_table, we:​

A. Accept null hypothesis​
B. Reject null hypothesis​
C. Accept alternative hypothesis​
D. Both B and C​
Answer: D. Both B and C​
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6.​ A null hypothesis in F-test assumes:​

A. Equal means​
B. Equal medians​
C. Equal variances​
D. Unequal variances​
Answer: C. Equal variances​

7.​ What is the level of significance commonly used in analytical chemistry?​

A. 1%​
B. 5%​
C. 10%​
D. 20%​
Answer: B. 5%​

8.​ An F value of 1 implies that the variances are:​

A. Equal​
B. Different​
C. Inverse​
D. Similar but not equal​
Answer: A. Equal​

9.​ The F-test is not applicable when:​

A. Samples are independent​
B. Variances are equal​
C. Samples are paired​
D. Data is normally distributed​
Answer: C. Samples are paired​

10.​Which distribution is used in F-test?​

A. Normal​
B. Binomial​
C. Poisson​
D. F-distribution​
Answer: D. F-distribution​

21.​The t-test is used to compare:​

A. Variance​
B. Mean values​
C. Ratios​
D. Proportions​
Answer: B. Mean values​

22.​Which of these is the correct formula for one-sample t-test?​

A.x-u/s.d√n​
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B.S¹ /S²​
C.X1-X2​
D.u-S²​
Answer: A.​

23.​The t-distribution is used instead of z-distribution when:​

A. Sample size is >30​
B. Sample variance is unknown​
C. Population mean is known​
D. Sample is not random​
Answer: B. Sample variance is unknown​

24.​What does the t-test assess in analytical chemistry?​

A. Reproducibility​
B. Accuracy​
C. Precision​
D. Significance of difference between means​
Answer: D. Significance of difference between means​

25.​Degrees of freedom for a two-sample t-test is calculated as:​

A.n-1​
B.n1+n2 - 2​
C.n1+n2/2​
D.n1-n2​
Answer: B. n1+ n2-2​

26.​If the calculated t is greater than the table value, you:​

A. Accept null hypothesis​
B. Accept both hypotheses​
C. Reject null hypothesis​
D. No conclusion​
Answer: C. Reject null hypothesis​

27.​Which of the following assumptions is made in t-tests?​

A. Equal variances​
B. Equal medians​
C. Normal distribution​
D. A and C​
Answer: D. A and C​

28.​Which of the following is not a type of t-test?​

A. One-sample​
B. Two-sample​
C. Paired sample​
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D. Variance ratio​
Answer: D. Variance ratio​

29.​Paired t-test is used when:​

A. Two samples are independent​
B. Same sample is tested under different conditions​
C. One sample is much smaller​
D. Sample variance is zero​
Answer: B. Same sample is tested under different conditions​

30.​What happens when p-value < 0.05 in a t-test?​

A. Accept null​
B. No effect​
C. Reject null​
D. Accept alternative​
Answer: C. Reject null​

31.​The t-table provides critical values based on:​

A. Sample mean​
B. Degrees of freedom and confidence level​
C. Population mean​
D. Standard deviation only​
Answer: B. Degrees of freedom and confidence level​

32.​At 95% confidence level and df = 10, the t-table value is approximately:​
A. 1.96​
B. 2.23​
C. 2.77​
D. 1.65​
Answer: B. 2.23​

33.​F-distribution is skewed to the:​

A. Right​
B. Left​
C. Symmetric​
D. Bell-shaped​
Answer: A. Right​

34.​The critical value in F or t-tests is influenced by:​

A. Temperature​
B. Sample size​
C. Color intensity​
D. Weight​
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Answer: B. Sample size​

35.​What type of error is minimized by proper use of statistical tests?​

A. Instrumental error​
B. Systematic error​
C. Random error​
D. Gross error​
Answer: C. Random error​

36.​The null hypothesis always assumes:​

A. Significant difference​
B. Equal means or variances​
C. Different distributions​
D. No conclusion​
Answer: B. Equal means or variances​

37.​The value obtained from statistical tables is called:​

A. Test statistic​
B. Calculated value​
C. Critical value​
D. Null value​
Answer: C. Critical value​

38.​Which of these is a correct interpretation of hypothesis testing?​

A. If t_cal < t_table, reject null​
B. If F_cal > F_table, reject null​
C. If F_cal = F_table, reject null​
D. Always reject null​
Answer: B. If F_cal > F_table, reject null​

39.​In the F-test, if variances are significantly different, it implies:​

A. No difference in precision​
B. Analytical method has equal reproducibility​
C. One method is more precise than the other​
D. Results are the same​
Answer: C. One method is more precise than the other​

40.​In t-test comparison of two methods, a non-significant result implies:​

A. Methods are statistically different​
B. One method is inaccurate​
C. No significant difference in results​
D. Errors are present​
Answer: C. No significant difference in results
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41.​A t-test with a significance level of 0.05 corresponds to what confidence level?​
A. 90%​
B. 95%​
C. 99%​
D. 85%​
Answer: B. 95%​

41.​Degrees of freedom in a one-sample t-test is calculated as:​

A.n​
B.n +1​
C.n-1​
D.2n-2​
Answer: C.n-1​

42.​Which of the following errors does the t-test help identify?​

A. Systematic error​
B. Instrumental error​
C. Random error​
D. Personal error​
Answer: C. Random error​

43.​The F-test uses which assumption?​

A. Samples are skewed​
B. Samples are from populations with normal distribution​
C. Samples are paired​
D. Data is non-numerical​
Answer: B. Samples are from populations with normal distribution​

44.​The paired t-test is most useful when:​

A. Comparing two instruments​
B. Testing one sample over two conditions​
C. Calculating variance​
D. Comparing different chemicals​
Answer: B. Testing one sample over two conditions​

45.​A critical t-value decreases as:​

A. Sample mean increases​
B. Confidence level increases​
C. Degrees of freedom increases​
D. Error increases​
Answer: C. Degrees of freedom increases​
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46.​The null hypothesis for a t-test assumes:​

A. The means are different​
B. The means are equal​
C. The variances are equal​
D. The precision is unequal​
Answer: B. The means are equal​

47.​In an F-test, if , it means:​

A. Variances are equal​
B. Means are equal​
C. Variances are unequal​
D. No result​
Answer: A. Variances are equal​

48.​Which of these scenarios is suitable for an F-test?​

A. Testing if a new method gives same results as old method​
B. Comparing mean melting points​
C. Comparing two variances in precision​
D. Comparing absorbance values​
Answer: C. Comparing two variances in precision​

49.​In hypothesis testing, which is a Type I error?​

A. Accepting a false null hypothesis​
B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis​
C. Accepting the alternative​
D. None of the above​
Answer: B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis​

50.​Which of the following represents the calculated value in hypothesis testing?​

A. Critical value​
B. Tabulated value​
C. Test statistic​
D. Confidence limit​
Answer: C. Test statistic​

51.​Which of the following is NOT true about the t-distribution?​

A. It is symmetric​
B. It approaches the normal distribution as sample size increases​
C. It is used for large samples​
D. It is bell-shaped​
Answer: C. It is used for large samples​

52.​The two-tailed t-test is used when:​

A. Only increase is expected​
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B. Only decrease is expected​

C. Either increase or decrease is possible​
D. Values are equal​
Answer: C. Either increase or decrease is possible​

53.​A large calculated t-value indicates:​

A. Strong evidence against the null hypothesis​
B. Weak evidence against the null hypothesis​
C. Precision​
D. Equal variance​
Answer: A. Strong evidence against the null hypothesis​

54.​Which statistical test is most appropriate to determine if the precision of two

methods is significantly different?​
A. t-test​
B. F-test​
C. z-test​
D. Chi-square test​
Answer: B. F-test​

55.​A 95% confidence level implies a significance level of:​

A. 0.95​
B. 0.5​
C. 0.05​
D. 0.025​
Answer: C. 0.05​

56.​If your t-calculated is less than t-critical, your conclusion is to:​

A. Reject null hypothesis​
B. Accept alternative hypothesis​
C. Fail to reject null hypothesis​
D. Repeat experiment​
Answer: C. Fail to reject null hypothesis​

57.​When comparing experimental mean with known value, which test is used?​
A. Paired t-test​
B. F-test​
C. One-sample t-test​
D. Two-sample t-test​
Answer: C. One-sample t-test​

58.​Which value changes with sample size and confidence level?​

A. Mean​
B. Standard deviation​
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C. Critical value​
D. Precision​
Answer: C. Critical value​

59.​What does a non-significant F-test result suggest about two methods?​

A. Their precision is equal​
B. They are inaccurate​
C. One method is more precise​
D. Results are biased​
Answer: A. Their precision is equal
60.​What does a 0.05 value in a t-table represent?​
A. 5% confidence level​
B. 95% confidence level​
C. 5% significance level​
D. 0.5% error margin​
Answer: C. 5% significance level
61.​A confidence level of 95% corresponds to a significance level of:​
A. 0.05​
B. 0.95​
C. 0.10​
D. 0.005​
Answer: A. 0.05
62.​Which of the following statements is true about the significance level?​
A. It increases with sample size​
B. It decreases with confidence​
C. It shows how confident we are in our results​
D. It is the probability of a Type I error​
Answer: D. It is the probability of a Type I error
63.​If you want to reduce the chance of a Type I error, you should:​
A. Increase the significance level​
B. Increase the confidence level​
C. Decrease sample size​
D. Accept the null hypothesis​
Answer: B. Increase the confidence level
64.​A t-value corresponding to 0.01 in the t-table implies:​
A. A very relaxed test​
B. A 1% confidence level​
C. A 99% confidence level​
D. High probability of accepting the null hypothesis​
Answer: C. A 99% confidence level
65.​In hypothesis testing, a p-value less than 0.05 indicates:​
A. Weak evidence against the null hypothesis​
B. Strong evidence against the null hypothesis​
C. Equal variances​
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D. No statistical conclusion​
Answer: B. Strong evidence against the null hypothesis
66.​What does a 90% confidence level imply?​
A. A 10% risk of being wrong​
B. A 5% error margin​
C. A 0.1% chance of a mistake​
D. No statistical power​
Answer: A. A 10% risk of being wrong
67.​Which level of significance provides the strongest evidence against a null
hypothesis?​
A. 0.10​
B. 0.05​
C. 0.01​
D. 0.50​
Answer: C. 0.01
68.​If the calculated t-value is less than the table value at 0.05, the conclusion is:​
A. Reject the null hypothesis​
B. Accept the alternative hypothesis​
C. Fail to reject the null hypothesis​
D. Accept the null and alternative hypotheses​
Answer: C. Fail to reject the null hypothesis
69.​Significance levels are represented in tables as:​
A. Percentage points​
B. Alpha values (α)​
C. Confidence ratios​
D. Z-scores​
Answer: B. Alpha values (α)
70.​Which is a correct relationship between α and confidence level?​
A. α=confidence level

B.α+confidence level=100​
C.α x confidence level=1

D.α = df

Answer: B. α+confidence level=100

71.​In a two-tailed test at 0.05 significance level, how much is in each tail?​
A. 0.05​
B. 0.025​
C. 0.01​
D. 0.10​
Answer: B. 0.025
72.​When interpreting statistical tables, the degrees of freedom (df) are needed to:​
A. Locate the correct row in the table​
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B. Calculate sample mean​

C. Determine variance​
D. Select the hypothesis​
Answer: A. Locate the correct row in the table
73.​If a confidence level is increased from 95% to 99%, the critical value will:​
A. Decrease​
B. Stay the same​
C. Increase​
D. Turn negative​
Answer: C. Increase
74.​The area under the curve in a t-distribution at 95% confidence is:​
A. 0.05​
B. 0.95​
C. 0.50​
D. 1.0​
Answer: B. 0.95
75.​Which of the following is not typically found in a t-table?​
A. Degrees of freedom​
B. t-critical values​
C. Sample size​
D. Significance levels​
Answer: C. Sample size
76.​Why do critical values increase as confidence levels increase?​
A. To reduce sample size​
B. To reduce variability​
C. To make tests more sensitive​
D. To be more certain before rejecting the null​
Answer: D. To be more certain before rejecting the null
77.​When using a one-tailed test at 95% confidence, the significance level is:​
A. 0.10​
B. 0.05​
C. 0.025​
D. 0.005​
Answer: B. 0.05
78.​Which term describes the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis?​
A. Type I error​
B. Type II error​
C. Confidence error​
D. Random error​
Answer: A. Type I error
79.​The percentage shown in a statistical table like 0.01 or 0.05 helps you decide:​
A. Sample purity​
B. Chemical yield​
C. If the result is statistically significant​
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D. Precision of measurement​
Answer: C. If the result is statistically significant
80.​Which of the following is a type of error in analytical chemistry?​
A. Gross error​
B. Systematic error​
C. Random error​
D. All of the above​
Answer: D. All of the above
81.​Systematic errors are:​
A. Random in nature​
B. Unpredictable​
C. Constant and reproducible​
D. Due to human mistakes only​
Answer: C. Constant and reproducible
82.​Random errors affect:​
A. Accuracy​
B. Sensitivity​
C. Precision​
D. Selectivity​
Answer: C. Precision
83.​Gross errors are usually caused by:​
A. Instrumental drift​
B. Calculation mistakes​
C. Method inaccuracy​
D. Poor sensitivity​
Answer: B. Calculation mistakes
84.​Which error affects the accuracy of a result?​
A. Random error​
B. Systematic error​
C. Instrumental noise​
D. Transposition​
Answer: B. Systematic error
85.​The closeness of a measured value to the true value is called:​
A. Precision​
B. Sensitivity​
C. Accuracy​
D. Calibration​
Answer: C. Accuracy
86.​Which of the following best defines precision?​
A. Closeness of results to true value​
B. Repeatability of results​
C. Ability to detect low concentration​
D. Measure of uncertainty​
Answer: B. Repeatability of results
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87.​A blank determination is used to:​

A. Improve color intensity​
B. Detect systematic error​
C. Eliminate sample interference​
D. Correct for background signal​
Answer: D. Correct for background signal
88.​Selectivity refers to:​
A. Degree of error​
B. Specificity for one analyte in presence of others​
C. Smallest quantity detectable​
D. Highest possible yield​
Answer: B. Specificity for one analyte in presence of others
89.​Sensitivity is defined as:​
A. The ability to avoid interference​
B. The ability to produce sharp endpoints​
C. The ability to detect small quantities​
D. The ability to reduce error​
Answer: C. The ability to detect small quantities
90.​Which of these is not a common field of application of analytical chemistry?​
A. Clinical diagnostics​
B. Quality control in industry​
C. Weather forecasting​
D. Environmental monitoring​
Answer: C. Weather forecasting
91.​Gravimetric analysis is based on:​
A. Volume measurements​
B. Spectral analysis​
C. Mass of a compound​
D. Color change​
Answer: C. Mass of a compound
92.​Which technique is used for determining elemental composition?​
A. Titration​
B. Spectroscopy​
C. Precipitation​
D. Centrifugation​
Answer: B. Spectroscopy
93.​Instrumental methods in analytical chemistry include:​
A. Titrimetry​
B. Gravimetry​
C. Chromatography and spectroscopy​
D. Filtration and drying​
Answer: C. Chromatography and spectroscopy
94.​In pharmaceutical analysis, analytical chemistry is used to:​
A. Manufacture drugs​
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B. Determine drug composition and purity​

C. Identify colors of pills​
D. Heat solutions​
Answer: B. Determine drug composition and purity
95.​A systematic error caused by a poorly calibrated instrument is called:​
A. Gross error​
B. Instrumental error​
C. Operational error​
D. Human error​
Answer: B. Instrumental error
96.​Analytical chemistry helps ensure quality in food by:​
A. Cooking the food​
B. Detecting toxic elements​
C. Designing packaging​
D. Making food colorful​
Answer: B. Detecting toxic elements
97.​Which of the following is a key objective of analytical chemistry?​
A. Measuring temperature​
B. Identifying and quantifying chemical substances​
C. Recording pH only​
D. Predicting weather​
Answer: B. Identifying and quantifying chemical substances
98.​The term "analyte" refers to:​
A. The solvent used​
B. The titrant added​
C. The substance being measured​
D. A method of analysis​
Answer: C. The substance being measured
99.​Which field of analytical chemistry focuses on separating mixtures?​
A. Gravimetry​
B. Electrochemistry​
C. Chromatography​
D. Titrimetry​
Answer: C. Chromatography
100.​ Which of the following is a major source of random error in analytical
procedures?​
A. Consistent instrumental drift​
B. Environmental fluctuations​
C. Use of uncalibrated glassware​
D. Improper reagent labeling​
Answer: B. Environmental fluctuations
101.​ A major characteristic of systematic error is that it is:​
A. Random and unpredictable​
B. Constant and directional​
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C. Due to human error only​

D. Always negligible​
Answer: B. Constant and directional
102.​ Which error occurs due to sudden mistakes like spilling a solution or
recording wrong values?​
A. Random error​
B. Systematic error​
C. Gross error​
D. Analytical bias​
Answer: C. Gross error
103.​ Random errors can be minimized by:​
A. Using calibrated instruments​
B. Repeating measurements and averaging​
C. Improving the sampling plan​
D. Replacing the analyst​
Answer: B. Repeating measurements and averaging
104.​ Systematic errors affect:​
A. Precision only​
B. Accuracy only​
C. Both precision and accuracy​
D. Sensitivity only​
Answer: B. Accuracy only
105.​ A sampling plan must be:​
A. Complex and time-consuming​
B. Biased and targeted​
C. Random and representative​
D. Based on appearance only​
Answer: C. Random and representative
106.​ Which of the following errors can be caused by sampling technique?​
A. Instrumental error​
B. Personal error​
C. Sampling error​
D. Analytical error​
Answer: C. Sampling error
107.​ Systematic sampling is defined as:​
A. Sampling based on convenience​
B. Sampling every nth item in a sequence​
C. Selecting only homogeneous samples​
D. Guesswork in sample selection​
Answer: B. Sampling every nth item in a sequence
108.​ Which of these is NOT a method of minimizing error?​
A. Instrument calibration​
B. Proper documentation​
C. Guessing sample mass​
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D. Use of standards​
Answer: C. Guessing sample mass
109.​ The part of the sample actually analyzed in the lab is the:​
A. Gross sample​
B. Laboratory sample​
C. Sub-sample​
D. Test sample​
Answer: D. Test sample
110.​ Sampling error can be reduced by:​
A. Taking small sample sizes​
B. Judging by color​
C. Collecting more representative samples​
D. Using a different method​
Answer: C. Collecting more representative samples
111.​ A gross sample is:​
A. The sample with highest mass​
B. The bulk material collected for sampling​
C. The amount weighed on the balance​
D. The solution prepared for titration​
Answer: B. The bulk material collected for sampling
112.​ Which error is introduced if the test portion is not representative of the whole
sample?​
A. Random error​
B. Personal error​
C. Sampling error​
D. Instrument error​
Answer: C. Sampling error
113.​ Replicate measurements are mainly used to assess:​
A. Accuracy​
B. Precision​
C. Selectivity​
D. Sensitivity​
Answer: B. Precision
114.​ Instrumental errors arise from:​
A. Analyst mistakes​
B. Incorrect assumptions​
C. Faulty or poorly calibrated instruments​
D. Sample contamination​
Answer: C. Faulty or poorly calibrated instruments
115.​ Which of the following helps detect systematic errors?​
A. Blanks and standards​
B. Averaging results​
C. Guessing values​
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D. Ignoring outliers​
Answer: A. Blanks and standards
116.​ A sampling technique where every unit has an equal chance of selection is:​
A. Systematic sampling​
B. Random sampling​
C. Stratified sampling​
D. Judgemental sampling​
Answer: B. Random sampling
117.​ Which of the following is a primary reason for laboratory rules?​
A. To speed up experiments​
B. To maintain cleanliness only​
C. To ensure safety and accuracy​
D. To reduce cost​
Answer: C. To ensure safety and accuracy
118.​ Before starting any experiment, the first thing to do is:​
A. Eat a snack​
B. Start mixing chemicals​
C. Read and understand the procedure​
D. Wear perfume​
Answer: C. Read and understand the procedure
119.​ Which of the following items is NOT allowed in the laboratory?​
A. Lab coat​
B. Covered shoes​
C. Food and drink​
D. Safety goggles​
Answer: C. Food and drink
120.​ In case of a chemical spill on your skin, you should immediately:​
A. Cover it with a cloth​
B. Wait for it to dry​
C. Wash it thoroughly with water​
D. Ignore it​
Answer: C. Wash it thoroughly with water
121.​ Proper disposal of chemical waste involves:​
A. Pouring all waste in the sink​
B. Mixing wastes together​
C. Following lab-specific disposal procedures​
D. Burning the waste​
Answer: C. Following lab-specific disposal procedures
122.​ The appropriate clothing for lab work includes:​
A. Short skirts and sandals​
B. Long sleeves, closed shoes, and a lab coat​
C. T-shirts and flip flops​
D. Shorts and heels​
Answer: B. Long sleeves, closed shoes, and a lab coat
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123.​ The MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) provides information about:​
A. How to calculate molar mass​
B. Chemical structures​
C. Hazards and safe handling of chemicals​
D. Who to call during emergencies​
Answer: C. Hazards and safe handling of chemicals
124.​ Fume hoods are used when working with:​
A. Large volumes of water​
B. Breakable glassware​
C. Volatile or toxic chemicals​
D. Biological samples​
Answer: C. Volatile or toxic chemicals
125.​ If an accident occurs in the lab, the first thing you should do is:​
A. Finish your experiment​
B. Report it to the lab supervisor​
C. Clean it silently​
D. Leave and go home​
Answer: B. Report it to the lab supervisor
126.​ Which of the following is considered personal protective equipment (PPE)?​
A. Stopwatch​
B. Safety goggles​
C. Bunsen burner​
D. Glass rod​
Answer: B. Safety goggles
127.​ Unused chemicals should be:​
A. Thrown in the trash​
B. Returned to the original bottle​
C. Disposed of according to protocol​
D. Left on the bench​
Answer: C. Disposed of according to protocol
128.​ Which lab equipment is best for measuring precise volumes?​
A. Beaker​
B. Conical flask​
C. Measuring cylinder​
D. Burette​
Answer: D. Burette
129.​ Broken glassware should be:​
A. Picked up with bare hands​
B. Swept with a tissue​
C. Reported and disposed of in a designated container​
D. Disposed of in the sink​
Answer: C. Reported and disposed of in a designated container
130.​ Labeling of reagent bottles should include all except:​
A. Name of chemical​
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B. Concentration​
C. Name of analyst​
D. Date prepared​
Answer: C. Name of analyst
131.​ Which of the following actions is unsafe in the lab?​
A. Wearing gloves​
B. Tying back long hair​
C. Smelling chemicals directly​
D. Using a lab coat​
Answer: C. Smelling chemicals directly
132.​ Pipettes should be used with:​
A. Mouth suction​
B. Gloves only​
C. A pipette bulb or filler​
D. A test tube holder​
Answer: C. A pipette bulb or filler
133.​ Flammable materials should be stored in:​
A. Regular cabinets​
B. Refrigerators​
C. Flame-proof storage cabinets​
D. Glass bottles​
Answer: C. Flame-proof storage cabinets
134.​ The emergency eye wash station is used when:​
A. You're tired​
B. There's chemical contact with the eyes​
C. You need to clean your glasses​
D. You have dust in your eyes​
Answer: B. There's chemical contact with the eyes
135.​ Which of the following best describes the purpose of laboratory rules?​
A. To punish students​
B. To slow down work​
C. To promote safety and proper conduct​
D. To increase lab cost​
Answer: C. To promote safety and proper conduct

COURTESY: DNL ✔️ ​