31/05/2022 RMPRE

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Minutes

Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NEET PREP TEST SERIES

for Regular Medical - 2022
Test - 16

Topics covered :
Physics : Semiconductor Electronics

Chemistry : Coordination Compounds

Botany : Environmental Issues

Zoology : Biotechnology and its Applications

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.
PHYSICS

SECTION-A 3. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current brings a

change of 7.9 mA in the collector current. The value
1. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than of common emitter current gain will be
the drift current in magnitude
(1) 79 (2) 80
(1) If the junction is forward biased
(3) 40 (4) 81
(2) If the junction is reverse biased
4. A semiconductor has a band gap of 0.23 eV between
(3) If the junction is unbiased the valence band and conduction band. The
(4) In no case temperature at which kT is equal to the band gap,
will be nearly [where K is Boltzmann constant]
2. W hen an impurity is doped into an intrinsic
semiconductor, the resistivity of the semiconductor (1) 2070 K (2) 1960 K

(1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) 2670 K (4) 2570 K

(3) Remains same (4) Becomes zero

 NEET PREP Test Series-16
5. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is (4) Reverse saturation current never depends on
(1) From n-side to p-side temperature
(2) From p-side to n-side 12. Choose the correct statements.
(3) From p-side to n-side if junction is forward bias (1) Hole concentration is much greater than
and in opposite direction if it is reversed bias electron in case of intrinsic semiconductor
(4) From n-side to p-side if junction is forward (2) For all type of semiconductor product of
biased and in reverse direction if it is reversed electron and hole concentration is same for a
bias given semiconductor at a given temperature
6. In a transistor, (3) As temperature decreases semiconductor
behaviour approaches towards conductor
(1) The emitter has least concentration of impurity
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) The collector has least concentration of impurity
13. In a CE amplifier if transconductance is 0.03 mho
(3) Base has least concentration of impurity and input resistance is 2 kilo ohm, then current gain
(4) All regions have same concentration of impurity of the amplifier will be
7. In normal operation of transistor (1) 200 (2) 100
(1) BE junction is forward biased and CB junction (3) 60 (4) 120
is reverse biased 14. A bipolar junction transistor is acting as a switch,
(2) Both BE and CB junctions are forward biased then it should be operated in
(3) Both BE and CB junctions are reverse biased (1) Active mode (2) Cut-off mode
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Saturation mode (4) Both (2) and (3)
8. The voltage gains of a CE amplifier 15. Which among the following is correct increasing
(1) Remains constant for all frequencies length order of a BJT?
(2) Is low, at low and high frequencies and constant (1) Emitter, base, collector
at mid frequencies (2) Base, emitter, collector
(3) Is high at low and high frequencies and constant (3) Base, collector, emitter
at mid frequencies (4) Collector, base, emitter
(4) Is low at low frequencies, high at high
16. When CE transistor is in active mode, then collector
frequencies and constant for mid frequencies
current
9. Three amplifiers are connected in series
(1) Depends on collector to emitter voltage
(cascaded). If the voltage gain of amplifiers are
2dB, 4dB and 10dB, then overall voltage gain of (2) Depends on base to emitter voltage
the amplifier will be (3) Is independent of base to emitter voltage
(1) 80dB (2) 16dB (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) 6dB (4) 14dB 17. A logic gate with two inputs A and B and an output X
10. Choose the correct statements. is used. The output X is high only if both inputs are
low, then corresponding gate is
(1) Zener diode is fabricated by heavily doped p-n
junction (1) OR (2) AND
(2) After breakdown of Zener diode, a large current (3) NOR (4) NAND
is produced by almost insignificant change in 18. Consider the following statements
reverse voltage (a) In BJT collector is largest in size and of
(3) Zener breakdown is due to field emission of moderate doping
electrons
(b) Bipolar junction transistor is two junction and
(4) All of these four terminal device
11. Choose the correct option regarding the p-n junction (c) In BJT, emitter current is equal to sum of base
diode.
and collector current
(1) In reverse bias, diode current is very small, of
(d) In common emitter configuration input and output
order of microampere
have phase difference of 90 degrees
(2) Forward bias resistance is high as
comparison to reverse bias resistance Choose the correct statements
(3) Cut in voltage for silicon is 0.3V (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) All
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NEET PREP Test Series-16
19. For a CE amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the (b) Zener breakdown voltage is generally greater
collector resistance 2 kilo ohm is 2 V. Let the current than Avalanche breakdown voltage
gain of transistor is 100 and base resistance is 1000 (c) In Zener breakdown, electric field strength is
ohm. Then choose the incorrect option. high enough to pull the valence electrons from
(1) Input signal voltage is 0.01 V the host atom on p-side which are accelerated
(2) Base current is 10 micro ampere to n side
(3) Voltage gain is 200 Choose the correct statements
(4) Transconduct ance of t he t ransi stor is (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
0.4 mho (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
20. Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in 26. Which among the following statement is correct?
series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 100
(1) Semiconductor works as insulator at 0°C
and second has voltage gain 50. The overall voltage
gain of the amplifier will be (2) Insulators have high resistivity which is
generally greater than 10^11 ohm metre
(1) 150 (2) 2
(3) Semiconductor have negative temperature
(3) 5000 (4) 50 5
coefficient of conductance
21. Choose the incorrect statement.
(4) Metals have conductance in between insulators
(1) For stable oscillation to be sustained, the and semiconductors
condition is called Barkhausen’s criteria
27. Consider the following statements
(2) NOT gate is also known as invertor
(a) The energy band above the valance band is
(3) NAND and NOR gates are called as universal called conduction band
logic gates
(b) Normally conduction band is empty but may
(4) When the logic gates are realised using diodes overlaps on valance band in conductors
or transistors, then the transistor operates
Choose the correct statements.
necessarily in active mode
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
22. The colour of light emitted by GaAs0.6P0.4 is
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
(1) Blue (2) Red
(3) Green (4) Yellow 28. For silicon, choose the incorrect option.

23. Choose the correct statement among the following (1) Conduction band have 4N states and 4N
electrons at 0 K
(1) Photodiodes are used to convert electrical
energy into light energy (2) Valence band have 4N states and 4N electrons
at 0 K
(2) I-V characteristics of photodiode lies in third
quadrant of co-ordinate axes (3) Conduction band is completely empty at
absolute zero
(3) Photodiodes can detect the optical signal
having energy less than the band gap energy (4) The energy gap between v alance and
conduction band is called forbidden gap
(4) Both (2) and (3)
29. Consider the following statement
24. In a Zener regulated power supply a Zener diode with
breakdown voltage 6 V is used for regulation. If Zener (a) For semi conductor, band gap energy
current is five times the load current and unregulated Eg is generally less than 3 eV
voltage is 10 V, then the series resistance that should (b) For insulator, band gap energy
be added with supply to prevent the excessive current Eg is generally greater than 3 eV
through Zener diode is (take load current as 4 mA)
(c) In conductor, conduction band may be partially
(1) 167 ohm (2) 267 ohm filled at absolute zero
(3) 133 ohm (4) 67 ohm Choose the correct statements
25. Consider the following statements.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(a) Zener diode is fabricated with highly doped
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
p-n junction

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 NEET PREP Test Series-16
30. Consider the following statements 35. Boolean expression Y  A  B , can also be
(a) In intrinsic semiconductor ne = nh written as
(b) In p-type semiconductor ne<nh (1) A  B (2) A · B
(c) In n-type semiconductor ne>nh
(3) A ·B (4) A ·B
(d) All types of semiconductor (intrinsic & extrinsic)
are neutral
SECTION-B
Choose the incorrect statements
36. In the given circuit
(1) (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only
Rc = 3 k, VCE = 6 V and VBE= 0.7 V.
(3) All (4) None
If  = 50, the base resistor RB will be
31. Consider the following statements
RC
(a) Electron and hole concentration in RB
semiconductor at thermal equilibrium is related
as nenh= ni 2
3.7 V 10 V
(b) The energy band gaps for Si and Ge are
1.1 eV and 0.7 eV respectively
(c) In n-type semiconductor, donor level is near to
conduction band
(1) 7.5 × 104  (2) 5 × 104 
(d) In p-type semiconductor, acceptor level is near
to valance band (3) 4.5 × 105  (4) 1.125 × 105 

Choose the correct statements 37. In an n-p-n transistor, the collector current is 15
mA. If 95% of the electrons reach the collector,
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c) then the emitter current will be
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (1) 19 mA (2) 300 mA
32. Suppose a pure semiconductor crystal has 4 ×
19 300
1022 atoms per cc. It is doped by 1 ppm concentration (3) mA (4) mA
of pentav alent elements. If intrinsic carrier 300 19
concentration is 2 × 10 10 per cc, then hole 38. In LED and photodiode, the p-n junction is
concentration will be (respectively)
(1) 104 per cc (2) 105 per cc (1) Reverse bias and forward bias
6 8
(3) 10 per cc (4) 10 per cc (2) Forward bias and reverse bias
33. In the I-V characteristics of a silicon p-n junction (3) Reverse bias and reverse bias
diode, the current varies from 10 mA to 20 mA when
(4) Forward bias and forward bias
applied voltage varies from 1 V to 1.2 V in linear
portion of forward biasing. The dynamic resistance 38. In the given circuit VA and VB are
of diode will be
(1) 10 ohm (2) 20 ohm Si 4.7K
VB
(3) 30 ohm (4) 40 ohm 12V VA
Ge
34. Logic gate represented by the given circuit having
inputs A and B for output Y is
A R1 (1) 11.3 V and 0.3V (2) 0.3V and 11.3V
(3) 11.3V and 11.3V (4) 0.3V and 0.3V
B R2
40. A transistor connected in common emitter
configuration has input resistance Rin = 2K and
R load resistance of 5K. If  = 60 and an input
+ Vi – Y
signal 12 mV is applied, find the power gain

(1) AND (2) OR (1) 6000 (2) 7000

(3) NAND (4) NOR (3) 8000 (4) 9000

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NEET PREP Test Series-16
41. In the below given arrangement determine the 46. A transistor is connected in common emitter
ammeter reading, if each diodes have a forward configuration. The collector supply is 8V and the
resistance of 50 and infinite backward resistance voltage drop across a resistor of 800 in the
collector circuit is 0.5V. If current gain factor  is
150 0.96. Find the base current
(1) 20 A (2) 22 A
50
A (3) 26 A (4) 30 A
6V 100
47. The output of the given logic gate is
(1) Zero (2) 0.02 A
(3) 0.03 A (4) 0.0.36 A A
B
42. For the circuit shown in figure, find 2 Y

15K
2 (1) Y = A  B  B (2) Y = A  B  B  A
100V 5K

(3) Y = 1 
(4) Y = A  B  B 
(1) 1 mA (2) 2 mA
48. In full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz
(3) 3 mA (4) 4 mA mains frequency, the fundamental frequency in the
ripple would be
43. If the voltage between the terminals A and B is 17V
and Zener breakdown voltage is 9V, then the (1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz
potential difference across R is
(3) 25 Hz (4) 70 Hz
A 49. In the circuit shown in figure when the input voltage
R of the base resistance is 10V. VBE = 0 VCE = 0.
Find b
RL
B 10V
RC 3k
(1) 6V (2) 8V Rb
(3) 9V (4) 17V 400k

44. In the following common emitter configuration an

NPN transistor with current gain  = 100 is used.
The output voltage of the amplifier will be (1) 50 A (2) 25 A
(3) 20 A (4) None of these

10k Vout 50. Find VAB

1mv 1k

10
30V A
(1) 10 mV (2) 0.1V 10
10
(3) 1.0V (4) 10V
B
45. What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean
(1) 10V (2) 20V
 
expression A  B  A B  1 
(3) 30V (4) None of these
(1) 0,0 (2) 0,1
(3) 1,0 (4) 1,1

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 NEET PREP Test Series-16

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. Incorrect statement among the following about
51. Primary valency of cobalt in [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 is bonding in metal carbonyls is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) Metal-carbon bond possess both  and -
character
(3) Zero (4) 3
(2) The metal to ligand bonding strengthens the bond
52. Incorrect statement among the following is between CO and the metal
(1) Carnallite is an example of double salt (3) The metal-carbon  bond is formed by donation
(2) Aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] does not has of  electrons of carbon monoxide to the vacant
free Fe2+ ions d-orbital of metal atom or metal ion.
(3) Werner was the first to discover optical activity (4) Octacarboxyldicobalt(0) has a Co-Co bond
in certain co-ordination compounds bridged by two CO groups
(4) Central metal/ion in co-ordination entities are 60. How many statement(s) among the following is/are
generally referred as Lewis base correct?
53. Number of donor oxygen sites in oxalate and ethane- (a) Wilkinson catalyst is used for hydrogenation of
1,2-diamine ligands respectively are alkene
(1) 2, 2 (2) 2, 0 (b) Selective estimation of Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions can
be done on the basis of the stability constants
(3) 2,1 (4) 1,1 of formation of their complexes with EDTA
54. If EDTA(ethylenediaminetetraacetate) ion acting (c) Complex containing chelating ligands
as hexadentate ligand, then number of six-member generally have smaller value of instability
ring(s) formed will be constant than complex containing monodented
(1) 5 (2) Zero ligands
(3) 4 (4) 6 (d) Toxic proportions of copper and iron are removed
55. Most stable homoleptic complex among the following by chelating ligands  D-pencillamine and
is desferrioxime B via the formation of co-ordination
compounds.
(1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) [Co(NH3)3(CN)3]
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) [CoCl3Br3] (4) K3[Co(CN)6]
(3) 3 (4) 4
56. Correct IUPAC name of [Ni(en)Br2(PPh3)2] is
61. Select the incorrect limitations of valence bond theory
(1) Dibromidoethyleneditriphenylnickle (II) for coordination compounds
(2) Dibromidobis(ethylenediamine) bis (triphenyl- (a) It gives detailed quantitative interpretation of
phosphine) nickel (Il) magnetic data
(3) Dibromidoethylenediamine bis (triphenyl- (b) It does not explain the colour exhibited by co-
ordination compounds
phosphine) nickel (II)
(c) It giv es quantitativ e interpret ation of
(4) Dibromoethylenebromidophosphinenickel (II) thermodynamic stability
57. Which among the following has maximum numbers (d) It does not distinguish between weak and strong
of geometrical isomer? ligands
(1) [Zn(NH3)2ClBr] (1) a and d only
(2) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)ClBr] (2) a and b only
(3) [Pt(NH3)4)]Cl2 (3) a and c only
(4) a, c and d only
(4) K3[Cu(CN)4]
62. EAN of Mn in Mn2(CO)10 is
58. Select the correct order of increasing field strength
of SCN–, NCS– , OH– and S2– among the given options (1) 35 (2) 36
(1) SCN– < NCS– < OH– < S2- (3) 14 (4) 18
(2) SCN– < S2– < OH– < NCS– 63. Oxidation number of plantinum in cis-platin is
(3) SCN– < NCS– < S2– < OH– (1) Zero (2) +2
(4) S2– < SCN– < NCS– < OH– (3) +4 (4) +6

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NEET PREP Test Series-16
64. Name of the underlined ligand in complex ion (3) Methyl amine(en)
[Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is - (4) Triphenylphosphine (PPh3)
(1) Nitroso (2) Nitrosyl 76. Coordination polyhedron informs about
(3) Nitrosylium (4) Nitrosium (1) Types of ligands attached to central atom or ion
65. Which is/are uninegative - bidentate ligand(s) ? (2) Spatial arrangement of ligands attached to
(1) gly (2) dmg central atom or ion
(3) acac (4) All of these (3) Colour of coordination complexes
66. Oxi dation num ber of central atom is (4) Stability of coordination complexes
[Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 is - 77. Identify the incorrect match
(1) Zero (2) 1 (1) [Fe (CN)6]4- Homoleptic complex
-
(3) 2 (4) 3 (2) SCN Ambidentate ligand
67. Which of the following is a -bonded organometallic? (3) Metal to CO Synergic bond
(1) Ferrocene (2) Grignard reagent (4) [Co(en)3]3+ Outer orbital complex
(3) Cis-platin (4) All of these 78. Of the complex Ni(NH3 )5 Br  Cl the ionization
68. Co-ordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is isomer will give colour with AgNO3
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) White (2) Red
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) Yellow (4) Blue
69. The magnetic moment of iron in K3[Fe(CN)6] 79. Pri mary and secondary v alence of cis-bis
(ethylenediamine) dichloridocobalt (III) chloride
(1) 3 BM (2) 5 BM respectively are
(3) (1) 3, 6 (2) 1, 6
15 BM (4) 24 BM
(3) 4, 6 (4) 6, 6
70. In the formation of actahedral complex, ligands
approach towards _____ and _____ orbital of central 80. Which of the following is a flexidentate ligand ?
metal (1) H2O (2) Cl–
(1) dxy, dx2 – y2 (2) dx2 – y2, dz2 (3) EDTA (4) SCN–
(3) dxy, dyz (4) dz2, dxz 81. Ligands for which pairing energy is higher than
CFSE
71. Out of following which ligand is a  acid ligand ?
(1) are weak field ligands
(1) CO (2) NH3
(2) Are strong field ligands
(3) Cl– (4) H2O
(3) generally form low spin complexes
72. Which of the following is not a double salt?
(4) Are always diamagnetic in nature
(1) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O 82. Give the correct order of ligands for their field strength
(2) FeSO4. (NH4)2 SO4.6H2O and splitting
(3) KAl(SO4)2. 12H2O (1) CO>en>NH3>H2O
(4) K4[Fe (CN)6] (2) H2O > NH3> en> CO
73. What will be the secondary valence of metal in (3) en >CO> NH3> H2O
compound PtCl4.2HCl if no precipitation occurs when (4) en >CO>H2O >NH3
1 mole of this compound is treated with excess of 83. Which of the following is possible to explain using
AgNO3? VBT?
(1) 2 (2) 0 (1) Colour of coordination complexes
(3) 4 (4) 6 (2) Strength of ligands
74. Donor sites in ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion are (3) Quantitative interpretation of thermodynamic and
(1) 6 Oxygen atoms only kinetic stability
(2) 2 Nitrogen and 4 Oxygen atoms (4) Hybridisation around metal atom or ion under
the influence of ligands
(3) 2 Nitrogen and 2 Oxygen atoms
84. Tetracarbonyl nickel (0) is
(4) 4 Nitrogen atoms only
(1) Square planar and paramagnetic
75. Find out the incorrect name for corresponding ligand
(2) Square planar and diamagnetic
(1) Ammine (NH3)
(3) Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
(2) Aqua (H2O)
(4) Tetrahedral and diamagnetic
Page 7
 NEET PREP Test Series-16
85. Correct statement for octahedral hexaammine 92. Complete the following fill in the blanks by given
complex of Co(III) ion is options.
(1) It is outer orbital complex (a) For the same metal, the same ligands and metal
(2) It has two unpaired electrons ligand distance, 0 = …. t
(3) It has zero magnetic moment (b) Anhydrous CuSO 4 i s ………… and
(4) It is colourless CuSO4 · 5H2O is …………. In colour

SECTION-B (c) In tetrahedral crystal f ield ………….

configurations are rarely observed
86. Which among the following compound does not has
(d) Ruby is Al2O3, containing about 0.5-1% Cr3+ ions,
enantiomeric pair?
which are randomly distributed in position
(1) [PtCl2(en)2]SO4 (2) [Co(en)3]Cl3 normally occupied by ………
(3) [Co(en)2ClBr]I (4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
4
87. Select the incorrect match of isomerism shown by (1) (a) , (b) white, blue,(c) low spin, (d) Al3+
9
given species.
4
(1) Cis[Fe(H2O)4(CN)2]Cl : Optical isomerism (2) (a) , (b) white, black,(c) high spin, (d) O2–
9
(2) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2] : Optical isomerism
(3) [Pd(H2O)2ClBr] : Geometrical isomerism 9
(3) (a) , (b) white, blue, (c) low spin, (d) Al3+
4
(4) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)](NO3)2 : Ionization isomerism
88. Number of unpaired electrons and hybridization of 9
(4) (a) , (a) white, black, (c) low spin,(d) O2–
Mn in complex anion [MnCl6]3– is 4
(1) 4, sp3d2 (2) 4, d2sp3 93. Which among the following can have largest C–O
3 2 2 3
bond length?
(3) 2, sp d (4) 2, d sp
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Fe(CO)5]
89. Which among the following respectively are correct –
electronic configurations of iron in [FeF 6] 3– and (3) [Co(CO)4] (4) [Cr(CO)5]2–
[Fe(CN)6]3–? 94. How many statement(s) among the following is/are
correct?
(1) t52geg0 , t 2g
3 2
eg (2) t32geg2, t 2g
3
e g2
(a) High spin complex of d4 cation in octahedral field
has – 0.60 crystal field energy
(3) t32geg2 , t 2g
5 0
eg (4) t 22ge3g , t 2g
3 2
eg
(b) Possible number of ionization isomers for
90. Select the incorrect statement(s) among the following [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl is 2
(a) If 0 > P, it becomes more kinetically favourable (c) 100 ml of 0. 01 M aq. Solution of
4 0 pentaquadichloridocobalt (III) chloride on reaction
for the fourth electron to occupy t2g orbital with t 2geg with excess AgNO3 gives 2 mmol of AgCl as
configuration for d4 ions precipitate
(b) Nature of bonding in co-ordination compound (d) [Co(CO) 5NH 3]Cl 2 is both  and  bonded
cannot be explain by MOT organometallic compound, while Al(OC2H5)3 is 
bonded organometallic compound
(c) Solvated isomerism is a special class of co-
(e) [V(gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+ and [Fe(en)(bpy) (NH3)2]2+
ordination isomerism
have equal value of magnetic moments
(1) b and c only (2) b only
(f) Both [FeCl4]– and [Fe(CO)4]2– exhibit tetrahedral
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c geometry
91. Select the correct order of wavelength of light (1) 3 (2) 6
absorbed (in nm) by given complex ions (3) 4 (4) 5
[Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ [Co(CN)6]3- 95. Calculate the overall dissociation constant of a
complex ML4 whose 4 is 2.1 ×1013
(a) (b) (c)
(1) 2.1 × 1013 (2) 4.7 × 1014
(1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b -14
(3) 4.7 × 10 (4) 1.8 × 10-9
(3) c > b > a (4) c > a > b

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NEET PREP Test Series-16
96. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (2) Chelating complexes are generally less stable
synergic bonding? than complex containing monodented ligands
(1) Metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess (3) The stability of co-ordination compounds can be
both s and p character related to Gibbs energy, enthalpy and entropy
(2) Metal carbon pi bond is formed by donation of terms
pair of electrons from filled d-orbital of metal to (4) Covalent character of bonding between the ligand
vacant orbital of ligand and the central atom, taken into account by CFT.
(3) Synergic effect strengthens the bond between 99. How many statement(s) among the following is/are
ligand and metal correct?
(4) Metal carbon sigma bond is formed by equal (a) K3[Co(ox)3] is optically inactive
and mutual sharing of electrons between metal (b) [Co(NH3)2Cl2(en)]Cl is optically inactive
and ligand
(c) CFSE of octahedral hexaaqua complex of Mn(II)
97. If two complexes, X (tetrahedral) and Y (octahedral) is zero
having same metals, same ligands and same metal
(d) CFSE of octahedral complex of hexacyanido
ligand distance,then
complex of Ni(II) is ‘–1.2 0 + 4P’
(1) CFSE in X is equal of Y
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) CFSE in Y is twice of X
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) CFSE in X is 0.44 times of Y
100. Number of geometrical isomers in square planar
(4) CFSE in X is thrice of Y MABXL and octahedral MA3B3respectivelyare (Given:
98. Select the correct statement among the following A, B, X and L are unidentate ligands)
(1) When excess of aqueous KCN is added to an (1) 3, 2 (2) 3,3
aqueous solut ion of copper sulphate, (3) 0,0 (4) 0,2
paramagnetic complex of copper obtained

BOTANY

SECTION-A
(1) N2O < CFC < CO2 < CH4
101. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic
converter, carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are (2) CO2 < CFC < N2O < CH4
changed into (3) N2O < CFC < CH4 < CO2
(1) Carbon dioxide and water (4) CH4 < CO2 < N2O < CFC
(2) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas 105. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
(3) Water and nitrogen gas between
(4) Carbon dioxide and nitric acid (1) Late October and early November
102. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t water hyacinth (2) Late May and early June
(1) These are the world’s most problematic weeds (3) Early April and late May
(2) They are also called ‘Terror of Bengal’
(4) Late August and early October
(3) They grow at minimal rate in eutrophic water
106. Which of the given activities is/are correct w.r.t
bodies
measures taken to control global warming?
(4) They lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem
A) Improving efficiency of energy usage.
dynamics of water bodies
B) Increasing the growth of human population.
103. In which of the given organisms of an aquatic food
C) Cutting down use of fossil fuel.
chain, biomagnification of DDT would be highest?
D) Reducing deforestation.
(1) Large fish (2) Fish-eating bird
(1) Both (A) & (B)
(3) Zooplankton (4) Small fish
(2) All except (B)
104. Select the correct option w.r.t increasing order of
(3) Only (D)
relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to
(4) All (A), (B), (C) & (D)
total global warming
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 NEET PREP Test Series-16

107. ‘Bad ozone’ is formed in the 113. Match column A with column B and select the
correct option
(1) Lower part of atmosphere called troposphere
Column A Column B
(2) Upper part of atmosphere called stratosphere
P) Amrita Devi Bishnoi i) Haryana Kisan
(3) Lower part of atmosphere called stratosphere W elfare Club
(4) Upper part of atmosphere called troposphere Q) Ramesh Chandra Dagar ii) Remedy for plastic
waste
108. Which of the given events can be observed when R) Ahmed Khan iii) Conservation of
there is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen forest
downstream from the point of sewage discharge? (1) P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii) (2) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii)
(1) Mortality of fishes (3) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i) (4) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i)
(2) Decline in BOD 114. Accumulation of high conc. of DDT in fish eating
bird leads to all, except
(3) Growth of Aquatic creatures
(1) Disturbs Ca metabolism in birds
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Premature breaking of egg shell
109. Montreal Protocol was signed at Montreal in A in (3) Decline in bird population
B , but became effective in C to control the (4) Thickening of egg shell
D .
115. Refer the given statements and select the correct
Select the correct option which correctly fills A, B, option
C & D. Statement A: A scrubber can remove gases like
A B C D sulphur dioxide
Statement B: The exhaust is passed through a
(1) Canada 1987 1989 Emission of ozone
spray of water and lime in a scrubber
depleting
(1) Only statement A is correct
substances
(2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Japan 1986 1989 Greenhouse gas
(3) Both statements are incorrect
emission
(4) Both statements are correct
(3) Brazil 1987 1989 Greenhouse gas 116. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
emission Act came into force in A , but was amended in
(4) Qatar 2002 2005 Emission of ozone B to include noise as an air pollutant
depleting Select the option which correctly fills A & B.
substances (1) A - 1985, B – 1991 (2) A – 1981, B - 1987
110. Which of the given activities can be considered most (3) A – 1971, B – 1975 (4) A – 1983, B - 1987
appropriate reason that causes the collection of salt 117. Refer the given statements stating them true (T) or
at roots of the crop plants? false (F) and select the correct option
A) Thermal waste water reduces the number of
(1) Less irrigation
organisms sensitive to high temperature
(2) Irrigation without proper drainage of water B) Thermal waste water may enhance the growth
(3) Deforestation of plants and fish in extremely cold areas but
only after causing damage to the indigenous
(4) Over cultivation
flora and fauna.
111. Degradation of ozone into molecular oxygen occurs C) The prime contaminants in lakes are nitrates
in which of the given layer of atmosphere? and phosphates.
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere D) Nitrates and phosphates in water overstimulate
(3) Thermosphere (4) Mesosphere the growth of algae
(1) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-T (2) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
112. Joint Forest Management (JFM) was introduced in
(3) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-F (4) A-F, B-F, C-T, D-T
(1) 1990s (2) 1960s
118. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t ‘deforestation’.
(3) 1980s (4) 1970s (1) It enhances CO2 concentration in atmosphere
(2) It causes loss of biodiversity
(3) May lead to desertification in extreme cases
(4) It does not disturb hydrological cycle
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NEET PREP Test Series-16
119. Use of which of the given is crucial to disposal of (1) Only statement A is correct
hospital waste?
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Open-burning dumps
(3) Both A and B are correct and B is correct
(2) Use of incinerators
explanation of A
(3) Landfills
(4) Both A and B are correct but B is not the
(4) Both (2) & (3)
correct explanation of A.
120. Natural aging of lake by nutrient enrichment of its
water is called 126. An international initiative regarding the control of
emission of ozone depleting substances (ODS) is
(1) Biomagnification
(1) Montreal Protocal (2) Kyoto Protocal
(2) Eutrophication
(3) Incineration (3) Ramsar Convention (4) Earth summit
(4) Global worming 127. Part of atmosphere which acts as shield absorbing
121. Read the following statements UV radiation
A : O3 is a secondary pollulant (1) Thermosphere (2) Stratosphere
B : The intensity of sound in normal conversation is (3) Ionosphere (4) Troposphere
50 – 100 dB 128. In automobiles, catalytic converters have which of
C : Acid rain is a mixture of H2SO4 and HNO3 the following metals
D : Algal blooms may cause detoriation of water
(1) Platinum - Paladium - Rhodium
quality and fish mortality
How many of the above statement(s) are correct ? (2) Platinum - Gold - Paladium
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) Paladium - Silver - Diamond
(3) 2 (4) 1 (4) Platinum - Rhodium - Gold
122. Bhopal gas disaster occured in 1984 due to 129. Irrigation without proper drainage of water can
leakage of the poisonous gas lead to all, except
(1) Methyl isocyanate (1) Waterlogging in agricultural field
(2) SO2 (2) Less aeration in soil leading to decreased
(3) Carbon monoxide absorption by root
(4) Nitrous oxide (3) Thin incrustation of salt on root surface
123. The phenomenon through which certain pollutants (4) Rapid uptake of salt resulting quick plant
get accumulated in tissues in increasing growth
concentration along the food chain is called
130. Chipko movement was started in
(1) Eutrophication
(1) Western ghat region
(2) Incineration
(3) Biomagnification (2) Garhwal himalaya
(4) Green House Effect (3) Nilgiri region
124. Select the mismatched pair (4) Jodhpur
(1) Environment (Protection) Act : 1986 131. Which of the following is not associated with
process of protecting or restoring forest ?
(2) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act :
1981 (1) Jhum cultivation
(3) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (2) Van Mahotsava
: 1970 (3) Joint Forest Management
(4) National Forest Policy : 1988 (4) Chipko Movement
125. Read the following statements and choose correct 132. A fine powder of recycled modified plastic mixed
option accordingly with bitumen used to lay roads is named as
(A) Domestic sewage undergoes decomposition by (1) FOAM (2) Polyblend
microbes (3) CNG (4) e-waste
(B) Organic content present within the domestic
sewage are utilised by microbes for their
nutrition and multiplication
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 NEET PREP Test Series-16
133. The thickness of ozone in a column of air from the How many of the above statements are correct :
ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in (1) 4 (2) 3
terms of
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Dobson unit(DU) (2) Decibel(dB)
139. Read the following statements A and B carefully
(3) ppm (4) DO and choose the correct option(s)
134. Find out which of the following statements are A : Def orestation enhance CO 2 conc. in
true(T) or false(F) and choose the correct option atmosphere
I. Exposure of UV-B causes cataract B : Trees fix atmospheric CO2 as biomass through
II. Good ozone formed in lower atmosphere photosynthesis
III. Incineration is controlled aerobic combustion of (1) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
solid wastes (2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
IV. Use of insecticides results into thining of egg (3) Both the statements A and B are correct and
shells B is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct but B
Options I II III IV
is not the correct explanation of A
(1) F T T F
(2) T F F T 140. In order to control environment pollution, the
(3) T F T T Goverment of India passed (i) in (ii) to
(4) F T F T improve the quality of our environment Air, Water,
Soil.
135. The relative contribution of various green house
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and
gases to global warming is shown in the pie chart.
(ii).
Identify A, B, C and D
(i) (ii)
6%
14% (1) Environment (Protection) Act 1986
D
C (2) Air (Prevention and control of 1989
20% B A Pollution) Act
60%
(3) Indian Forest Act 1990
(4) Euro I norms 2000
141. World’s most problematic aquatic weed is
(1) A = CFC, B = SO2, C = CO2, D = CH4
(1) Pista (2) Hydrilla
(2) A = CO2, B = CH4, C = CFC, D = N2O
(3) Vallisneria (4) Eichhornia
(3) A = CO2, B = CFC, C = CH4, D = N2O
142. At the beginning of 20th century, forests covered
(4) A = N2O, B = CH4, C = CFC, D = CO2
around __(i)__ of land in India. By the end of the
century, it shrunk to __(ii)__.
SECTION-B
136. According to the recommendation of National Select the correct option to fill the blanks for (i)
Forest Policy (1988) of India, the forest cover for the and (ii)
plains and hills should be respectively (1) (i) 30% (ii) 15.4% (2) (i) 30% (ii) 21.54%
(1) 33%, 67% (2) 67%, 33% (3) (i) 67% (ii) 33% (4) (i) 40% (ii) 1%
(3) 22%, 70% (4) 40%, 60% 143. Select the statement which in not true w.r.t.
137. Find odd one w.r.t. ozone depleting substances electrostatic precipitator
(1) Chlorofluorocarbon (2) CO2 (1) Electrodes in the precipitator give positive
(3) CCl4 (4) CH4 charge to the dust particles
138. Read the following statements (2) It removes over 99% particulate matter present
in exhaust
A : Ecosan toilets can reduce the need of chemical
fertiliser (3) The collecting plates attract the charged dust
particles
B : Environment (Protection) Act was passed in
1986 (4) It has electrode wires that are maintained at
several thousand volts
C : FOAM is Friends of Asian Marsh
D : e-waste is electric waste
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NEET PREP Test Series-16
144. In the scrubbing mechanism, the chemical that is 148. Which of the following activity / activities can lead
responsible to remove SO2 from the exhaust is to desertification ?
(1) CaSO4 (2) KOH (1) Over cultivation
(3) Na2CO3 (4) CaCO3 (2) Deforestation
145. Green muffler scheme is for reducing a particular (3) Unrestricted grazing
type of pollution. The unit used to measrue the (4) More than one option is correct
level of this pollution is 149. Select the statement which is not true f or
(1) Dobson (2) Pascal eutrophication
(3) Decibel (4) ppm (1) It is natural aging of water body
146. All of the following are the measures taken by the (2) It is due to nutrient enrichment of water
Government to reduce pollution caused due to (3) It increases dissolved oxygen in water body
vehicles, except
(4) It can be due to human activities
(1) Use of leaded petrol
150. FOAM is associated with
(2) Use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel
(1) Control of thermal water pollution
(3) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles
(2) Treatment of water contaminated with disease
(4) Application of stringent pollution level norms for causing microbes
vehicles
(3) Integrated waste water treatment
147. Compound of which of the following elements in the
(4) Integrated pest management
atmosphere are the major cause of acid rain?
(1) S and N (2) P and S
(3) C and N (4) Cl and C

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A country / person / organisation is called

151. Consider the given statement(s) (1) Bioethics (2) Biopiracy
A. Mature insulin has A and B chains (3) Biopatent (4) Intellectual property
B. First of all, Eli Lilly prepared human insulin 155. In ‘flavr savr’ transgenic tomato which of the
following enzyme expression is blocked
C. Chain ‘A’ and Chain ‘B’ were produced and
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
extracted separately
(2) Polygalacturonase
D. Proinsulin also contains C peptide chain
(3) Adenosine deaminase
How many above statement(s) is/are correct?
(4) Tyrosine oxidase
(1) One (2) Two
156. What is antisense technology?
(3) Three (4) Four (1) RNA polymerase producing DNA
152. A set of standards used to regulate our activities (2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue
in relation to biological world is culture
(1) Bioethics (2) Biopatent (3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for
(3) Intellectual property (4) Biopiracy synthesis of antigens
153. Mark the option that is considered an undesirable (4) When complementary ssRNA is used to stop
characteristic for a plasmid used in rDNA technology translation
(1) Ability to multiply and express in heterologous host 157. C-peptide of human insulin is
(2) A site at which replication can be initiated (1) A part of mature insulin molecule
(3) One or more identifiable marker genes (2) Responsible for its biological activity after
maturation
(4) Absence of unique restriction sites
(3) Responsible for formation of ester bond
154. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(4) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to
and other organisations without proper authorisation
insulin
and without compensatory payment to concerned

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 NEET PREP Test Series-16
158. W hich one of the following bacteria is used (1) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
extensively as biopesticide? (2) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(1) Bacillus subtilis (3) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(2) Streptococcus lactis
(4) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
167. What do you mean by RNAi ?
(4) Lactobacillus acidophilus
159. RNAi initiates with (1) Addition of methyl group to one or two bases
(1) ss RNA (2) ds RNA (2) Silencing of gene to prevent translation of
original mRNA
(3) ss DNA (4) ds DNA
160. Vector used for synthesis of recombinant insulin (3) Introducing the gene encoding protein in
production is vector
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid (4) Cutting and extraction of a part of DNA to
(3) pBR (4) Ri plasmid prevent the production of specific mRNA
161. For treatment of SCID through gene therapy which 168. Biopiracy is
of the following was introduced into the body using (1) Distribution of bioresources fairly
retroviral vector? (2) Patenting bioresources with authorisation
(1) c DNA (2) DNA (3) Use of bioresources without authorisation
(3) ss RNA (4) ds RNA
(4) Destroying bioresources
162. A set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an
inventor in exchange for a public disclosure of an 169. Bacillus thuringiensis, produces protein that kill certain
invention is called insects like
(1) Patent (2) Bioethics (1) Coleopteran (2) Dipterans
(3) Intellectual property (4) Biowar (3) Hemipterans (4) Both (1) and (2)
163. The gene _______ has been introduced in Bt- 170. How many therapeutic drugs are markated in India?
cotton to protect it from corn borer (1) 30 (2) 16
(1) Cry I Ab (2) Cry I Ac (3) 12 (4) 14
(3) Cry II Ab (4) Cry I Ac and Cry II Ab
171. Which one of the following state is incorrect w.r.t
164. Golden rice is PCR?
(1) Long stored rice having yellow colour tint
(1) It is based on principle of antigen-antibody
(2) A transgenic rice having genes for -carotene interaction
(3) Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured grains
(2) It is used to detect mutation
(4) A variety of rice grown along the yellow river
(3) It is used to identify genetic disorders
in China
165. Which of these is incorrect ? (4) It is now regularly used to detect HIV
(1) In human, insulin is synthesized as a pro- 172. At present, how many recombinant therapeutics
hormone have been approved globally for human-use?
(2) Gene for insulin synthesis is on chromosome (1) 12 (2) 30
number 11 (3) 60 (4) 42
(3) The prohormone i.e. pro-insulin contains an 173. Which of the following is based on the principle of
extra stretch called B-peptide antibody-antigen interaction?
(4) Insulin extracted from slaughtered cattle and (1) PCR
pigs may cause allergy
(2) Gel Electrophoresis
166. Match I and II
(3) Western blotting
I II
(4) ELISA
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis I) N e m a t o d e
infecting roots of 174. Tumor inducing plasmid delivers a piece of DNA
tobacco plant known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform
(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens II) Natural genetic (1) Agrobacterium (2) Fungi
engineer
(3) Dicot plants (4) Mycobacterium
(C) Meloidegyne incognita III) Produce pro-toxin
during sporulation
(D) Pentadiplandra brazzeana IV) Protein produced
is sweeter than
sugar
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NEET PREP Test Series-16
175. First clinical gene therapy was given to a 4 year old (3) Human insulin can be produced by bacteria as
girl child suffering from deficiency of genetic code is never universal and is species
(1) Cytosine deaminase specific
(2) Adenosine deaminase (4) The process of separation and purification of
(3) Oxygenase expressed protein before marketing is called
upstream processing
(4) Terminal transferase
185. Inactive toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis converts into
176. Select the incorrect match
active toxin in
(1) cryIAc - Bollworm
(1) Acidic pH of hindgut
(2) cryIIAb - corn borer
(2) Alkaline pH of midgut
(3) Golden rice - Vitamin A
(3) Acidic pH of midgut
(4) Glyphosate - Herbicide
(4) Alkaline pH of hindgut
177. The problem of vitamin-A deficiency in poor countries
can be overcome by using SECTION-B
(1) Golden rice
186. In India, the organisation responsible for assessing
(2) Transgenic maize the safety of introducing genetically modified
(3) Transgenic tomato organisms for public use is
(4) Bt-brinjal (1) NACO (2) WHO
178. The two polypeptide chains of humulin are linked (3) RCGM (4) GEAC
together by 187. ‘Rosie’ is a transgenic cow which produces milk rich
(1) Disulphide bridges (2) Peptide bonds
in ______. Select the option which fills the blank
(3) Glycosidic bonds (4) Ionic bonds correctly
179. All of the following are desirable qualities of (1) 1-antitrypsin (2) Streptokinase
transgenic plants except
(3) Human -lactalbumin (4) Hirudin
(1) Crops more tolerant to drought
188. All of the following are true for genetically modified
(2) Enhanced nutritional value plants except
(3) Pest resistant crops (1) Helped to reduce post harvest losses
(4) Early exhaustion of fertility of soil (2) Reduced efficiency of mineral usage
180. Which of the following is used in the production of (3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
insulin by genetic engineering?
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
(1) Rhizobium (2) Entamoeba coli
189. ‘Bt’ in ‘Bt’ cotton refers to
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Escherichia coli
(1) Biopesticide transgene
181. Using Agrobacterium vectors, which of the following
genes were introduced into host plant wrt RNAi? (2) -carotene transgene
(1) Nematode specific (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Platyhelminth specific (4) Bacterial toxin
(3) Cnidaria specific 190. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Bt toxin.
(4) Annelids specific (1) The toxin gets activated in the cytoplasm of
182. Over 95% of all transgenic animals are the bacteria
(1) Monkey (2) Sheep (2) The target insect ingests the activated toxin
from the plant
(3) Goat (4) Mice
183. Today transgenic models are available for study of (3) The protoxin is inactive and gets activated in
human diseases like the alkaline pH of insect gut
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Cystic fibrosis (4) The protoxin is active and attacks the insect
gut when pH is acidic
(3) Alzheimer (4) All of these
191. Indian Basmati rice was crossed with _________
184. Select the correct statement variety of rice and was claimed as an invention by
(1) RNAi is a post transcriptional gene silencing American company. Fill in the blank
method (1) Semi-dwarf (2) Dwarf
(2) Golden rice is a drought tolerant variety (3) Semi tall (4) Tall
developed using Agrobacterium vector

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 NEET PREP Test Series-16
192. Deficiency of vitamin A and iron can be cured by (4) Screening of transformed E.coli by blue-white
consuming which biofortified crop? selection
(1) Canola 197. Transposons are
(2) Flavr Savr tomato (1) Mobile genetic element
(3) Golden rice (2) Single stranded RNA
(4) Native Basmati rice (3) Double stranded RNA
193. The strategy adopted to prevent the infestation of
(4) Immobile genetic element
nematode that infects tobacco plants is
198. Which of the following transgenic amimal is now
(1) RAPD (2) RNA interference
used to test the safety of Polio vaccine?
(3) SDS-PAGE (4) RFLP
194. Alpha-1 antitrypsin is used in the treatment of (1) Rabbit
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Mice
(2) Phenyl Ketonuria (3) Goat
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Monkey
(4) Emphysema 199. Bt toxin perforates plasma membrane of
195. Which of the following technique is used as early (1) Epithelial cells of stomach
detection of disease (2) Epithelial cells of mid gut non-specifically
(1) Urine analysis (2) Serum analysis (3) Epithelial cells of hind gut non-specifically
(3) ELISA (4) All of them
(4) Epithelial cells of mid gut specifically
196. The main challenge for production of insulin using
200. Bt brinjal is a transgenic crop that
rDNA technique was
(1) Its modification after translation by the (1) Provided herbicide tolerance
addition of sugar molecules (2) Is nutrionally biofortified crop
(2) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form (3) Provided drought resistance
with optimal activity (4) Is a biopesticidal plant
(3) Transformation of this proinsulin into host
E.coli

Space for Rough Work

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