REASONING ABILITY

TEST OF REASONING
Questions asked in UCO Bank P.O. Exam, held on January 29, 2006

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way Statement:

on the basis of their positions in the English alphabet and so 7. “Due to availability of air tickets at cheaper rates
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the from various airlines large no. of people now a days prefer
group? to travel by air than travelling by train.”
(1) AZ (2) EV (3) BY (4) GT (5) DU Courses of action:
2. If ‘$’ means ‘×’, ‘#’ means ‘÷’, ‘‘’ means ‘–’ and ‘@’ I. Railway ministry has to put in its best efforts to
means ‘+’ then what is the value of 204 # 6 ‘ 15 $ 8 @ 88? improve the quality of rail journey in respect of
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) –6 (4) 12 (5) None of these facilities and also the punctuality.
3. If the position of the first and the sixth letters of II. Airlines should not be allowed to introduce various
the word ‘PRESCRIBED’ are interchanged, similarly position schemes offering concessional fare.
of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged and Statement:
so on. Which letter will be fourth from the left end after the 8. Continuous use of computers is affecting the
rearrangement? eyesights of many youth.
(1) E (2) S (3) B (4) D (5) None of these Courses of action:
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the I. All the establishments should permit the people
word INTERNAL, each of which has as many letters between using computer to take a short break after every
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? hour of work on the computer.
(1) None (2) One (3) Two II. Use of computers should be discouraged by the
(4) Three (5) None of these
managements of the establishments.
5. In a certain code DIVERT is written as SCQHDU,
Statement:
how is CONFER written in that code?
9. Proportion of females compared to that of males in
(1) QBDNEO (2) QDBNEM (3) QBDNEM
the population of our country has drastically gone down in
(4) QDBNEO (5) None of these
the recent past.
Qs. 6-10. In each question below is given a statement Courses of action:
followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A I. Social workers shoule take up the task of
course of action is a step or administrative decision to be emphasizing the importance of having atleast one
taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard female child in each family in both rural and urban
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information areas of the counry.
given in the statement, you have to assume everything in II. Government should severely punish the persons
the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested involved in the practice of female foeticide.
courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Statement:
Give answer (1) if only I follows. 10. Reading habits in the children of coming
Give answer (2) if only II follows. generations is diminishing day by day.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows. Courses of action:
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows. I. Access to various electronic gadgets such as
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
television, computer and particularly the internet
Statement:
should be controlled.
6. A country cannot develop without fast and easy
II. Parents should ensure and cultivate reading habits
communication.
Courses of action: among their children.
I. Govt. should provide communication facilities to the Qs. 11-15. Study the following information carefully
public at a cheaper rate. to answer these questions.
II. More private companies should be permitted to enter Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast
into field of communication to strengthen the different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different
network. days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in

63 ‹ AUGUST 2006 ‹ THE COMPETITION MASTER

 REASONING ABILITY

the same order. in jails while under-trial?

Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel Arguments:
D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the I. No, there is no such need for any special treatment,
day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme they should be treated like all other detainees.
Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on II. Yes, it is necessary to take care of their special security
Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on requirements.
Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G 19. Should stricter discipline be imposed upon all the
and previous day of Channel D. Programme ‘P’ is telecast children by parents and teachers in view of the increasing
before Programme ‘U’. criminal cases among the youth?
11. Which programme is telecast on Thursday? Arguments:
(1) P (2) S (3) R (4) U (5) None of these I. Yes, too much freedom to the children is leading to
12. Which of the following combination of day- such cases of crime.
channel-programme is correct? II. No, freedom to the children is necessary in the
(1) Thursday—C—R (2) Tuesday—C—Q changing social scenario.
(3) Saturday—E—U (4) Monday—E—P 20. Should the gender-reassignment surgeries be
(5) None of these legally permitted?
13. Which channel telecasts on Wednesday? Arguments:
(1) F (2) E (3) G I. Yes, it is the genuine need of the transsexuals.
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these II. No, people will take disadvantage of the facility since
14. Channel ‘C’ telecasts on which day of the week? it is difficult to judge the genuineness of the
(1) Thursday (2) Tuesday (3) Friday requirement.
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Q. 21-25. Below is given a passage followed by several
15. Which channel telecasts programme ‘S’? possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts
(1) E (2) D (3) F (4) D or E (5) None of these stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference
Qs. 16-20. In making decisions about important separately in the context of the passage and decide upon
questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer:
“strong” arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” (1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly
arguments must be both important and directly related to follows from the statement of facts given.
the question. “Weak” arguments may not be directly related (2) if the inference is “probably true” though not
to the question and may be of minor importance or may be “definitely true” in the light of the facts given.
related to the trivial aspects of the question. (3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given
Each question below is followed by two arguments you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments true or false.
is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak” argument. (4) if the inference is “probably false” though not
Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong. “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong. (5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot
Give answer (3) if either argument I or II is strong. possibly be drawn from the facts given or it
Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor II is strong. contradicts the given facts.
Give answer (5) if both arguments I and II are strong. There has been a complete turnaround in global coal
16. Should there be a quota for underprivileged markets over the last couple of years. While a booming
categories and the minority communities for admissions into economy led China to turn from being a net coal exporter
the premier educational institutions in India? into a net importer, Japanese nuclear closures contributed to
Arguments: additional demand for steam coal imports. A weakening
I. No, admissions to the premier institutes should be USA dollar led exporters to further nudge prices northwards.
only on merit and there should be no system for any As a result, global coal prices jumped from about $25 per
special consideration. tonne in 2003 to over $60 per tonne by July 2004. Above all
II. No, this will put the deserving non-reserved category Chinese demand for commodities sent bulk cargo freight
students to disadvantage. rates to dizzying heights of $25-30 per tonne. While there
17. Can the total ban on dance bars across a State be has been some moderation in coal prices, since July 2004,
justified? prices effectively remained above $50 per tonne during the
Arguments: first half of 2005. In the ensuing scenario, the rationale for
I. Yes, running of dance bars gives scope for various large scale imports of coal needs to be revisited. In fact,
illegal and criminal activities. citing high prices, utilities are shying away from importing
II. No, the livelihood of the families of bar-girls is totally coal as per the schedule plan for 2005-06. This has led to
dependent on the dance bars. additional pressure on indigenous coal companies, already
18. Should the top officials and politicians detained stressed with enhanced production targets.
by the law enforcement agencies be given special treatment 21. Japan’s nuclear closure did not have an effect on

64 ‹ AUGUST 2006 ‹ THE COMPETITION MASTER

 REASONING ABILITY

the rise in coal prices worldwide. companies prior to 2004.

22. In the changing scenario Indian utility companies 24. China has become the largest coal importer in the
are considering other options to coal for their energy world.
requirements. 25. Coal prices have increased by about 100% in the
23. Import of coal was a preferred option by the utility recent past.
Qs. 26-30. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the
problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES

1 2 3 4 5

1 2 3 4 5

Z Z
C S S S S Z S S S S S
S Z

1 2 3 4 5

S Z
S Z S
S S S S S S

1 2 3 4 5

Z S Z Z S S Z
S Z S Z S Z S
S Z S Z Z S

1 2 3 4 5

31. The average of five consecutive odd numbers is (1) 15175 (2) 18210 (3) 21252
21. Which is the lowest number of the five? (4) 18216 (5) None of these
(1) 15 (2) 19 (3) 13 36. Two-fifth of three-fourth of a number is 174. What
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these is the number?
32. Vipul told Neha that a number when multiplied (1) 232 (2) 326 (3) 435 (4) 480 (5) None of these
by 5 and 7 gives two numbers with a difference of 300. What 37. A train crosses a platform in 40 seconds. What is
the speed of the train in km/hr? In order to answer the
is the number?
question, which of the following information is required?
(1) 125 (2) 100 (3) 150
(A) Length of the train.
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these (B) Length of the platform.
33. Rs 123 is accrued as compound interest on an (C) The time, the train takes to cross a pole.
amount at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after two years. How much (1) A and B only (2) B and C only
will be the compound interest at the end of three years? (3) A and C only (4) Any two of A, B, C
(1) Rs 129.15 (2) Rs 189.15 (3) Rs 117.15 (5) All the three A, B, C
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Qs. 38-39. Study the following information to answer
34. Vidya bought a cup for Rs 80 after getting
the given questions.
2 Out of 6 men and 3 women, a committee of 4 is to be
66 % rebate on the printed price. What was the printed price?
3 formed. In how many different ways it can be done if the
(1) Rs 120 (2) Rs 140 (3) Rs 180 committee must have:
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 38. At least 2 men
35. What will come in place of the question mark (?) (1) 252 (2) 120 (3) 180 (4) 126 (5) None of these
in the following series? 39. 3 men and 1 woman
5 21 96 500 3030 ? (1) 126 (2) 63 (3) 30 (4) 60 (5) None of these

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 REASONING ABILITY

40. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 46. For Programme B, which year was the per cent
1, and the denominator is also increased by 1, the fraction increase in the number from the preceding year the
2 maximum?
becomes . What was the original fraction? (1) 2005 (2) 1999 (3) 2002
3
(4) 2004 (5) None of these
1 5 11 47. What is the difference in the total number of
(1) (2) (3)
2 8 17 participants in different programmes in the years 2003 and
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 2004?
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.75 (3) 345 (4) 240 (5) None of these
Qs. 41-45. Study the following graph to answer the 48. For Programme A, how much is the per cent
given questions: increase in the number from 2000 to 2001?
Per cent increase in export of three companies A, B, C over the years
A B C
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 0.20 (5) None of these
90 49. For the given years, the total number of participants
80
70
for Programme D is what per cent of that of Programme E?
Per cent increase

60
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 7.25 (4) 6.78 (5) None of these
50 50. For which programme was there an increase in
40 number from the previous year for all the given years?
30
(1) A and C only (2) A, C and D only
20
10
(3) B, C and D only (4) B, C and F only
0
(5) C, D and F only
1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005
Years
41. Which Company has shown steady increase in per ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
cent increase in exports from that of previous year over the
1. (5) Other pairs occupy the same place in alphabets from
given years?
A and Z.
(1) B (2) C (3) A
2. (2) 204 ÷ 6 – 15 × 8 + 88 = 34 – 120 + 88 = 2. (Apply
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
BODMAS)
42. For Company C, the exports in 2001 were at 950.
3. (1) Left ← RIBEDPRESS → Right
How much was the export in 2000?
(1) 980 (2) 997.5 (3) 1010 (4) 1002.5 (5) 990.2 4. (4) IN, TR and NL.
43. For Company C, the exports in 1999 were at 1078. 5. (3) D I V E R T would be TDRIEV hence CONFER would
How much was the export in 1998? be RCEOFN. The preceding letter in alphabets is the
(1) 1078 (2) 1185.8 (3) 990 (4) 1000 (5) 980 code.
44. For Company A, how much is the average of per 6. (5) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (2)
cent increase in exports for the given years? 11-15. Days Channel Programme
2 Mon F P
(1) 60 (2) 45 (3) 40 (4) 36 (5) None of these Tue B R
3
Wed G V
45. Which Company had the highest amount of export Thurs C Q
in the year 2001? Fri D S
(1) A (2) B (3) C Sat E U
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Sun A T
Qs. 46-50. Study the following table to answer the given 11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2)
questions: 16. (1) 17. (5) 18. (3 19. (3) 20. (2)
Number of Participants in different Programmes 21. (5) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (1)
(A, B, C, D, E, F) over the given years 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2) 29. (5) 30. (1)
(Number in hundreds) 31. (5) 17, 19, 21, 23, 25. 32. (3) 300 ÷ (7 – 5).
Programme A B C D E F 33. (2) 34. (5) Rs 240.
Year 35. (3) 5 × 3 + 3 × 2 = 21; 21 × 4 + 3 × 4 = 96;
2005 4.7 15 2.7 0.97 14 1.9 96 × 5 + 4 × 5 = 500; 500 × 6 + 5 × 6 = 3030;
2004 4.5 14.5 2.4 0.95 14 1.8 3030 × 7 + 6 × 7 = 21252.
2003 4.1 13 2 0.9 13 1.7 3 2
36. (5) Number is 580. th is 435 and its th = 174.
2002 4 13 1.9 0.8 13 1.6 4 5
2001 2.2 12 1.5 0.75 12 1.4
2000 2 11 1.3 0.65 12 1.3 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (1)
1999 1.7 12 1.1 0.6 12 1.17 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2)
1998 2 10 1 0.5 12 1.08 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (5)

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66 ‹ AUGUST 2006 ‹ THE COMPETITION MASTER
 Test-III : Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 81-95): What value should come in the place of question mark(?)
in the following questions?
81. 3.3 + 13.33 + 31.13 + 13.31 + 1.3 = ?
1) 64.31 2) 62.37 3) 64.47
4) 62.17 5) None of these
82. (16)2 + (21)2 - (13)2 + ? = (25)2
1) 67 2) 32 3) 81
4) 97 5) none of these
83. 47 + 345 ÷ 15 × 2 = ?
1) 68 2) 93 3) 59
4) 71 5) None of these
84. 73% of 5800 - 69% of 240 = ?
1) 4608.3 2) 4210.8 3) 4008.4
4) 4680.4 5) None of these

( 17
85.  ×  = ?
119
1) 5
14 )
98 2

2) 7 3) 3
4) 9 5) None of these
86. 3.2 × 2.1 × 1.6 = ?
1) 12.732 2) 10.752 3) 17.520
4) 15.270 5) None of these
7 2 8
87.  of  of  of 567 = ?
4 28 9
1) 76 2) 91 3) 63
4) 82 5) None of these
88. 65 × 15 ÷ ? = 195
1) 5 2) 2 3) 1
4) 6 5) None of these
89. 204% of ? = 1848.24
1) 517 2) 784 3) 321
4) 906 5) None of these

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90. 9786 - 4321 + 5053 = ? - 3727
1) 14245 2) 14524 3) 14452
4) 14254 5) None of these
17 68 380
91.  ÷  ×  = (?)2
24 24 95
1) 4 2) 8 3) 6
4) 9 5) None of these
 
92. √ 324 + √ 1296 = ?
1) 52 2 44 3) 54
4) 42 5) None of these
93. 23 + 636 ÷ 12 - 14 = ?
1) 41 2) 53 3) 62
4) 78 5) None of these
9 265
94.  of  of ? = 159
5 513
1) 171 2) 198 3) 215
4) 143 5) None of these
95. 6.5 ÷ 0.5 × 2 - 4 = ?
1) 31 2) 19 3) 22
4) 27 5) None of these
96. At what rate of simple interest will ` 4800 amount of ` 6480 in a span of 7 years?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 3
4) 4 5) None of these
97. How much will a sum of `6,300 amount to in a span of 2 years, at 5 pcpa rate of
compound interest (rounded off to the nearest integer)?
1) ` 6946 2) ` 6876 3) ` 6521
4) ` 6790 5) ` 6492
98. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BAKERY be arranged?
1) 2400 2) 2005 3) 720
4) 5040 5) None of these

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99. What will be the average of the following set of scores (rounded off to the near-
est integer)?
62, 76, 42, 84, 21, 47, 28
1) 57 2) 54 3) 51
4) 62 5) 66
100. The product of three consecutive numbers is 3360. What is the least number?
1) 17 2) 14 3) 13
4) 16 5) None of these
101. The area of circle is 2464 square meters. What will its circumference be?
1) 132 meters 2) 176 meters 3) 232 meters
4) 272 meters 5) 109 meters
102. The cost of 24 pens and 13 pencils is ` 175. What is the cost of 48 pens and 26
pencils?
1) ` 435 2) ` 705 3) ` 290
4) ` 350 4) None of these
Directions (Q. 103-105): Study the following information and answer the ques-
tions that follow:
A sum of ` 10,980 is to be divided amongst A, B and C in the ratio 7 : 3 : 5
103. What is C's share?
1) ` 3,600 2) ` 3,006 3) ` 3,060
4) ` 3,660 4) ` 3,124
104. What is the sum of B's and C's share?
1) ` 5,685 2) ` 5,865 3) ` 5,897
4) ` 5,873 5) ` 5,856
105. What is the difference between A's and B's share?
1) ` 2,196 2) ` 2,928 3) ` 2,961
4) ` 2,289 5) ` 2,982
106. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 138 metres and the difference between the length
and the breadth is 7 metres, what is the area of the rectangle?
1) 1216 square meters 2) 1147 square metres
3) 1184 square metres 4) 1178 square metres
5) None of these

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Directins (q. 107-111): What should come in place of question mark(?) in the fol-
lowing number series?
107. 7, 17, 54, ?, 1098, 6591
1) 204 2) 212 3) 223
4) 219 5 None of these
108. 55, 109, ? 433, 865, 1729
1) 279 2) 372 3) 217
4) 318 5) None of these
109. 19, 38, ?, 228, 684, 1368
1) 106 2) 114 3) 121
4) 98 5) None of these
110. 87, 89, 95, 107, ?, 157
1) 127 2) 122 3) 139
4) 140 5) None of these
111. 474, 459, 429, 369, 249, ?
1) 9 2) 0 3) 4
4) 11 5) None of these
112. 10 years ago, the ages of A and B were in the ratio of 13 : 17. 17 years from now
the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 11. What is the age of B at present?
1) 23 years 2) 40 years 3) 27 years
4) 44 years 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 113-117): Study the following table and answer the questions that
follow:
The table represents the total sales value (in lakhs) of five books, P, Q, R, S and
T across eight book stores, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.
Books Book stores
A B C D E F G H
P 560 590 210 670 560 680 420 460
Q 550 560 890 230 820 610 520 230
R 450 290 540 530 500 520 560 410
S 230 240 560 400 430 200 210 480
T 230 400 410 240 200 360 500 470

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113. What is the ratio the total sales values of Book P across all the bookstores and
Book S across all the bookstores?
1) 83 : 55 2) 85 : 53 3) 83 :53
4) 89 : 55 5) None of these
114. The sale of the book R from Bookstore H is what per cent of the total sale of
Book R across all the bookstores (rounded off to two places after the decimal)?
1) 21.12 2) 17.19 3) 7.43
4) 3.04 5) 10.79
115. What is the average sale (in lakh) of Bookstore E?
1) 502 2) 504 3) 512
4) 540 5) None of these
116. Book Q constituted approximately what per cent of the total sales of Bookstore
C?
1) 34 2) 39 3) 32
4) 23 5) 28
117. What is the total sales value (in lakh) of Bookstore D?
1) 2510 2) 2670 3) 2900
4) 2070 5) None of these
118. The cost price of an article is `480. If it is to be sold at a profit of 6.25 per cent,
what would its selling price be?
1) `510 2) `530 3) `503
4) `519 5) None of these
119. 13 articles were bought for `5,980 and sold for `6,656. What was the approxi-
mate profit percentage per article?
1) 15% 2) 11% 3) 9%
4) 19% 5) 13%
120. A and B together can complete a particular task in 4 days. If A alone can com-
plete the same task in 6 days, how many days will B take to complete the task if
he works alone?
1) 8 2) 7 3) 14
4) 12 5) None of these

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 General Intelligence

Directions (1-4): In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing.
Choose
the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
1. 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29,?
(1) 31
(2) 39
(3) 43
(4) 47

2. AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC, ? , IOUAG, KQWCI

(1) GMSYE
(2) FMSYE
(3) GNSYD
(4) FMYES

3. 975, 864, 753, 642,?

(1) 431
(2) 314
(3) 531
(4) 532

4. 8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54

(1) 28
(2) 36
(3) 46
(4) 38

5. Ashok's mother was 3 times as old Ashok 5 years ago. After 5 years she will be twice as old
as Ashok. How old is Ashok today?
(1) 10 years
(2) 15 years
(3) 20 years
(4) 25 years

6. M is the son of P. Q is the granddaughter of 0 who is the husband of P. How is M related to

O?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Mother
(4) Father

7. In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from the left and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they
interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the

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 General Intelligence

row?
(1) 19
(2) 31
(3) 33
(4) 34

8. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word: Given: IMPASSIONABLE
(1) IMPASSABLE
(2) IMPOSSIBLE
(3) IMPASSIVE
(4) IMPASSION

9. Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letter of the given jumbled word.
Find out that word.
(1) METAMORPHIC
(2) PHILANTHROPIST
(3) HIPPOCAMPUS
(4) HIPPOPOTAMUS

10. Which number is wrong in the given series?

1, 9, 25, 50, 81
(1) 1
(2) 25
(3) 50
(4) 81

Directions (11-17): in each of the following questions find the odd word/ letters/number/figure
from the given responses.

11.
(1) Room
(2) Chamber
(3) Veranda
(4) Cabin

12.
(1) Mouth ORgan
(2) Electric Guitar
(3) Keyboard
(4) Sonata

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 General Intelligence

13.
(1) A
(2) I
(3) D
(4) E

14.
(1) RNMP
(2) HDCF
(3) RPOQ
(4) HDCF

15.
(1) abcdE
(2) ifghO
(3) ApqrL
(4) UlmnE

16.
(1) 6243
(2) 2643
(3) 8465
(4) 4867

17.
(1) 49-33
(2) 62-46
(3) 83-67
(4) 70-55

18. Petr walked 8 kms. west and turned right and walked 3 kms. The again he turned right and
walked 12 kms. How far is he from the starting point?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 8

19. If '×' means 'addition' '-' means 'division', '÷' means 'subtraction' and '+' means
'multiplication', then which of the following equations is correct?
1) 16 + 5 - 10 × 4 ÷ 3 = 9
(2) 16 - 5 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 12
(3) 16 + 5 ÷ 10 × 4 - 3 = 9
(4) 16 × 5 ÷ 10 ÷ 4 - 3 = 19
 General Intelligence

20. A man starts from a point, walks 8 km towards north, turns right and walks 12 km, turns left
and walks 7 km, turn and walks 24 km towards south, turns right and walks 12 km. In which
direction is he from the starting point?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) West
(4) East

21. Fish : Scales : : Bear : ?

(1) Feathers
(2) Leaves
(3) Fur
(4) Skin

22. Writer : Pen : : ?

(1) Needle
(2) Artist : : Tailor Brush
(3) Painter
(4) Teacher : Canvas : Class

23. NUMERAL : UEALRMN : : ALGEBRA : ?

(1)LRBAGEA
(2) BARLAGE
(3)LERAGBA
(4) LERABGA

24. BDAC : FHEG : : NPMO : ?

(1) RQTS
(2) NTRC
(3) TRQS
(4) RTQS

25. FGID : OPQR : : BCDE : ?

(1) KLMJ
(2) KLMN
(3) IUVW
(4) STUW

26. PNLJ : IGLC : : VTRP : ?

(1) QMKI
(2) RSTU
(3) QSRC
 General Intelligence

(4) RPOM

27. 17 : 60 : : 20 : ?
(1) 57
(2) 69
(3) 81
(4) 93

28. 6 : 64 : : 11 : ?
(1) 144
(2) 169
(3) 121
(4) 124

29. 123 : 4 : : 726 ?

(1) 23
(2) 26
(3) 14
(4) 12

Directions (30-35): In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word from the
given alternatives.

30.
(1) Flute
(2) Violin
(3) Guitar
(4) Sitar

31.
(1) Prod
(2) Sap
(3) Jab
(4) Thrust

32.
(1) JKOP
(2) MNST
(3) CABD
(4) OPWX

33.
(1) CAFD
(2) TSWV
 General Intelligence

(3) IGLJ
(4) OMRP

34.
(1) 162
(2) 405
(3) 567
(4) 644

35.
(1) 156
(2) 201
(3) 273
(4) 345

Directions (36-40): In each of the following questions, find the odd number/letters/word from the
given alternatives

36.
(1) Ladder
(2) Staircase
(3) Bridge
(4) Escalator

37.
(1) Talking
(2) Walking
(3) Sleeping
(4) Running

38.
(1) DWHS
(2) BYDW
(3) CWFS
(4) EVJQ

39.
(1) DHLP
(2) TXBF
(3) JNRV
(4) YBEH

40.
(1) 1
 General Intelligence

(2) 65
(3) 8
(4) 64

Directions (41-44) In each of the following questions a series is given with one/two terms
missing.
Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

41. MNOABCPQRDEFST ??
(1) GK
(2) UV
(3) GH
(4) UG

42.
5 9 ? = 84
8 6 4 = 56
7 3 7 = 70
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 6

43. 9, 8, 10, 16, 11, ?, 12, 64

(1) 28
(2) 36
(3) 25
(4) 32

44. 34, 18, 10, ?

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 6

45. Find the wrong number in the series. 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342
(1) 28
(2) 63
(3) 124
(4) 342