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IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22 - (Answers & Solutions) - 0

This document provides instructions for a science exam. It details that the exam has two parts, with part A1 containing 24 multiple choice questions where only one answer is correct, and part A2 containing 9 questions where multiple answers may be correct. For part A1, correct answers receive 3 marks and incorrect answers deduct 1 mark. Part A2 receives 6 marks for all correct answers and no marks are deducted for incorrect answers. The instructions provide details on filling out the answer sheet, state that calculators are allowed, and advise candidates not to write on the back of the answer sheets. The document then provides the first 6 multiple choice questions as examples.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
126 views10 pages

IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22 - (Answers & Solutions) - 0

This document provides instructions for a science exam. It details that the exam has two parts, with part A1 containing 24 multiple choice questions where only one answer is correct, and part A2 containing 9 questions where multiple answers may be correct. For part A1, correct answers receive 3 marks and incorrect answers deduct 1 mark. Part A2 receives 6 marks for all correct answers and no marks are deducted for incorrect answers. The instructions provide details on filling out the answer sheet, state that calculators are allowed, and advise candidates not to write on the back of the answer sheets. The document then provides the first 6 multiple choice questions as examples.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 10

Date: 06/03/2022 Time: 75 Minutes

Max. Marks : 126 Question Paper Code : 53

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions


for
Indian Olympiad Qualifier in Junior
Science (IOQJS) Part-I (2021-22)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR Sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS as well
as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/incorrect/carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and filling the
bubbles.
5. Your 14-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain your login
credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance / result in Indian
Olympiad Qualifier in Junior Science 2021-22 (Part I).
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No. 1 to 24) each question has four alternatives, out of which
only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.

In part A2 (Q. No. 25 to 33) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of alternative(s)
(a, b, c or d) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill the appropriate bubble(s),
as shown

7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done in the space provided. There are 09 printed pages in this paper.
9. Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.

-1-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & Candidate’s copy of OMR for your reference.
Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the space
provided on the OMR answer sheet.
OMR answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT ALLOWED.
Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.
DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET

A – 1 (Attempt All Thirty Three Questions)


ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION

1. A 50 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid solution is taken in a


beaker and two wires are dipped in it as shown in Sol.
following figure.

Sunlight
AgCl(s) 
 Ag(s)  Cl2 

‘X’ is NH4Cl which is slightly acidic because it is


formed from strong acid i.e. HCl and weak base
i.e. NH4OH.
3. Equal masses of two gases among N2, NO, O2,
CO, CO2 and SO2 occupy same volume at STP.
When electric supply is switched on, the bulb These two gases are:
glows. To this solution, distilled water is added (a) N2 and O2 (b) CO and NO
slowly till the volume doubles. During the addition (c) SO2 and CO2 (d) N2 and CO
of water, the intensity of the bulb
Answer (d)
(a) remains unchanged
Sol. Both N2 and CO have same molar mass.
(b) goes on decreasing
So, for given mass the number of moles will be
(c) goes on increasing
same.
(d) suddenly becomes zero
According to Avogadro’s law, n  V.
Answer (c)
 N2 and CO will occupy same volume at STP.
Sol. For weak electrolytes, ionisation increases with
dilution. Hence, conductance increases. So, bulb 4. When a solution and the pure solvent are
separated by a semipermeable membrane, the
will glow with more intensity.
solution exerts a pressure on the membrane
2. A compound X when heated with NaOH solution called as osmotic pressure. The osmotic pressure
produces a pungent gas that turns red litmus blue. increases with increase in number of particles
When an aqueous solution of X is treated with (ions or molecules) in the solution. If 10 millimoles
AgNO3 solution, a white precipitate Y is obtained of each of the sulphate salts of sodium,
magnesium and aluminium are dissolved in 1.0
which on keeping in sunlight turns grey liberating litre of water in three different beakers labelled as
pale yellowish green gas. The aqueous solution P, Q and R respectively, the osmotic pressure
of compound X is follows the order
(a) neutral (b) slightly acidic (a) P<Q<R (b) Q<P<R
(c) slightly alkaline (d) strongly acidic (c) P>Q>R (d) P>R>Q
Answer (b) Answer (b)

-2-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

Sol. Using formula  = icRT For particle P2


Concentration of each solution is same (given) 1 2
OP22  at
 i 2
1
iNa SO , i.e. i for P = 3
2 4
  5  22
2
iMgSO , i.e. i for Q = 2 = 10 m
4
P2Q = 62
2

i i.e. i for R = 5
 Al2  SO4 3 , (10 cos – 8)2 + (10 sin)2 = 62
 Q<P<R 4
 cos     36.8
5. The axes of a coordinate system S2 are inclined 5
Therefore, angle between +Y1 and +X2
at an angle  to those of another coordinate
system S1. The origins of both the system are = 90° – 36.8 = 53.2°

coinciding. A particle P1 at rest in system S1, 6. The variation of a certain physical parameter Z
with variable u is given by the relation
starts from point (–2, 0) and travels along positive 3
 R 
direction of X1 axis with uniform acceleration of Z  A  , where R and A are constants
R u
1.25 m/s2 for 4 s and stops. In system S2, particle and the maximum value of u  R . Then to find R,
P2, starts from rest from the origin and travels for a student plots a graph of variation of Z (Y axis)
against u (X axis). The graph is a
2 s along positive direction of X2 axis with uniform
(a) Straight line passing through origin and
acceleration 5 m/s2 and stops. If the final distance
R
between P1 and P2 is 6 m, then the angle between slope 
3
+Y1 axis and +X2 axis is
3A
(b) Straight line with intercept and slope
(a) 36.8° (b) 53.2° 2
R
(c) 106.8° (d) 126.8° –
3A
Answer (b)
(c) Straight line with intercept A and slope
3A
–
R
A
Sol. (d) Straight line with intercept – and slope
2
= –3R
Answer (c)
3
 R 
For particle P1 Sol. Z  A  
R u
OQ = P1Q – P1O –3
 u
 A 1  
1 2  R
 at  2
2
Apply binomial theorem because u  R
1
  1.25  42  2 
Z  A  1–
3u 
 ...... 
2  R 
=8m Neglect higher order
-3-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

Therefore (a) Oscillatory motion of an object without


damping
 3u 
Z  A  1–  (b) Oscillatory motion of an object with damping
 R 
such that time measurement was started
–3Au when the system was at the mean position
Z A
R (c) Oscillatory motion of an object with damping
–3 A with decreasing time period.
Slope 
R (d) Oscillatory motion of an object with damping
such that time measurement was started
Intercept = A
when the system had maximum potential
7. A submarine S1 is parked at a depth of 200 m in energy.
an ocean on earth. Assume oceans exist on Mars. Answer (d)
At about what depth a submarine S2 has to be 9. In the adjacent circuit, the galvanometer G does
not show any deflection. If R = 2 , the current
parked in an ocean on Mars so that S2 will
drawn from the cell is
experience same pressure as that of S1?
Acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s2.
(Assume that sea water density on Earth and
Mars is same, r = 1.03 × 103 kg/m3)
(a) 158 m (b) 435 m
(c) 530 m (d) 616 m
Answer (c)
Sol. geh1 = gmh2
(a) 1A
g 
 h2   e  h1 (b) 9A
 gm  (c) 4A
 9.81  9
   200 (d) A
 3.7  4
Answer (a)
= 530.27 m
 530 m

8. In an oscillating system, damping results in


dissipation of the stored energy. The following Sol.
figure shows the variation of displacement x with
time t for an oscillating system. Which of the
following statements best describes this physical
phenomenon? 3R  3R
Req 
3R  3R
3 3
 R   2 3 
2 2
3
 I 1A
3
V
as I 
R

-4-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

10. ‘Gear’ is a mechanical system used to transfer 11. Canopus is the second brightest star in the night
mechanical and rotary motion from one sky. It is about 300 light years away. The energy
mechanical system to another. As shown in the is produced inside the star through nuclear
figure below the driving wheel A drives the driven reactions. If we receive 5.0 × 10–8 W/m2 energy
wheel B without slipping and thus forms the gear from Canopus, how much mass does it lose per
system. The wheel A has 16 teeth and B has 24 second?
teeth. Wheel B has a projection (shown by white (a) 1.70 × 10–6 kg
ring in Fig. 1 and also in the side view of Fig. 2) of
(b) 1.91 × 109 kg
14
radius cm. (c) 5.62 × 1013 kg
11
(d) 6.34 × 1031 kg
Answer (c)
Sol. d = 300 ly = 300 × 9.4608 × 1015 m
d = 2.84 × 1018 m
Area of imaginary sphere = 4d2
= 4 × 3.142 × (2.84 × 1018)2
= 1.0137 × 1038 m2
Total energy radiated per second
A long massless, inextensible string can be = 5 × 10–8 × 1.0137 × 1038 J
wound/unwound over this circular projection. A = 5.0685 × 1030 J
mass m is attached to the free end of this long
E 5.0685 1030
string. If the wheel A makes 6 revolutions per m   5.62 1013 kg
2 16
second in the clockwise direction, without c 9 10
1 12. An average human adult radiates about 100 W
slipping, then in second the potential energy of energy mainly in infra-red region of the
2
electromagnetic spectrum. 50 persons are sitting
the mass m in CGS unit
in a hall with an air conditioning system which is
(a) increases by 32mg 50% efficient. How much electricity must be used
(b) decreases by 32mg to maintain temperature of the hall at 25° C for
4 hours ?
(c) increases by 16mg
(a) 5 units
(d) decreases by 16mg
(b) 10 units
Answer (c)
(c) 20 units
A NB 6 24
Sol.    (d) 40 units
B N A B 16
Answer (d)
 B = 4 revolutions/second (anticlockwise)
Sol. Energy radiated per second by 1 person = 100 J
1  Energy radiated per second by 50 persons
In second, no. of revolutions = 2
2 = 5000 J
 Height attained by block = 2 × (2r) Energy radiated in 4 hrs = 5000 × 4 × 60 × 60 J
22 14 5000  4  60  60
= 22    kWh
7 11 36 105
= 16 cm = 20 kWh
So, PE of the mass = mgh = 20 units
= mg × 16 = 16mg  Energy consumed = 40 units
Potential energy increases. (As efficiency = 50%)

-5-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

13. Which of the following is not a function of mature From the above data, what genetic material might
RBCs? the Imagitica inhabitants contain?
(a) Help in classifying blood in different blood (a) ssDNA (b) dsDNA
groups (c) ssRNA (d) dsRNA
(b) Help in transport of gases
Answer (c)
(c) Synthesis of immunoglobulins
Sol. • Amount of purines and pyrimidines is unequal
(d) Help in maintaining acid-base balance in the in case of a single stranded molecule.
body
• Thymine is absent in RNA molecule, instead
Answer (c) of which uracil is found in it.
Sol. RBCs have no role in synthesis of immunoglobulins • RNA is highly unstable as compared to DNA
(Ig) but they help in classification of blood groups and it also degrades at pH above 12.
on the basis of antigen present on their surface,
Hence, the genetic material might be single
they also help in transport of gases and maintain
acid-base balance in body. stranded RNA (ssRNA) found in the Imagitica
inhabitants.
14. In which of the following classes of vertebrates
there are groups of animals without limbs? 17. Which of the following is most likely to show
aerenchyma?
(a) Fish, reptiles and mammals
(a) Leaf base of mango
(b) Reptiles only
(b) Petiole of water hyacinth
(c) Reptiles and Amphibians
(c) Seta of moss
(d) Amphibians only
(d) Stem of Opuntia
Answer (c)
Sol. There are some Amphibians that are limbless like Answer (b)
Ichthyophis and most of organisms in the class Sol. Aerenchyma is found in hydrophytes. This tissue
reptiles are also limbless. encloses air and provides buoyancy to the plant
15. Which of the following groups have only one pair parts. So, petiole of water hyacinth contains
of wings? aerenchyma.

(a) Honey bee, beetle, ant 18. Given below are three statements about
bryophytes :
(b) Butterfly, housefly, fruitfly
i. Bryophytes are lower plants with plant body
(c) Dragonfly, butterfly, fruitfly
differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
(d) Housefly, fruitfly, mosquito
ii. Bryophytes are devoid of xylem and phloem
Answer (d)
iii. Bryophytes require water for completion of
Sol. Honey bee, dragonfly and butterfly have two pairs
their life cycle.
of wings whereas housefly, fruitfly and mosquito
have only one pair of wings. Which of the above statement/s is/are true with
respect to bryophytes?
16. During an expedition to planet 'Imagitica',
scientists analysed the genetic material of the (a) ii only (b) i and ii
organisms found there and noted the following (c) i and iii (d) ii and iii
features:
Answer (d)
i. Amount of purines and pyrimidines is
Sol. Bryophytes lack true roots, stems and leaves.
unequal
They are also called “amphibians of the plant
ii. Absence of thymine kingdom” because they can live on land but are
iii. Unstable genetic material, with high dependent on water for sexual reproduction and
frequency of mutation they are devoid of true vascular tissues (xylem
and phloem).
iv. Rapid degradation at pH above 12

-6-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

19. Carbon fixation in most of the succulent plants and heartburn Such a patient is prescribed
takes place through which pathway? antacid tablet which mainly contains aluminium
(a) Calvin cycle hydroxide (Mol. Wt. 78). If the concentrations of
HCI, KCI and NaCl are 0.01 M each and the
(b) Glycolate pathway
stomach fluid volume is 2 litre, the amount of
(c) Crassulacean acid metabolism pathway Al(OH)3 required to neutralize the fluid will be
(d) Hatch-Slack pathway
(a) 0.52 g (b) 1.08 g
Answer (c)
(c) 0.81 g (d) 2.16 g
Sol. Succulent plants are adapted to dry
Answer (a)
environments, such as cacti and pineapples, use
the crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) Sol. Out of HCl, KCl and NaCl, only HCl being an acid
pathway to minimize photorespiration. will show neutralisation reaction with Al(OH)3 as
20. If a flower is large, wide- mouthed, white, showing shown
anthesis after sunset, and emitting fruity or musky
3HCl + Al(OH)3  AlCl3 + 3H2O
fragrance, it is most likely to be pollinated by :
(a) Birds (b) Bats 3 mol 1 mol
(c) Insects (d) Baboons Total stomach fluid volume = 2 L
Answer (b)  Total moles of HCl = 0.01 × 2 = 0.02 mol
Sol. Flowers that are pollinated by bats bloom at night, 3 mol HCl reacts completely with 1 mol Al(OH)3
tend to be large, wide-mouthed, white, show
anthesis after sunset and also give off strong 1
 0.02 mol HCl reacts with  0.02 mol
scents. 3
= 0.0067 moles
21. Coal is a common fossil fuel. lt contains 0.2 to 5.0
percent sulphur which on burning produces a gas Amount of Al(OH)3 = n × mol.wt.
responsible for acid rain. The number of atoms in
= 0.0067 × 78 = 0.52 g
one mole of this gas is
23. A 0.500 g mixture of calcium carbonate and
(a) 6.02 × 1023 (b) 1.81 × 1023
calcium oxide was strongly heated to produce a
(c) 1.81 × 1024 (d) 1.21 × 1024 non-combustible gas. If the weight of the residue
Answer (c) obtained on heating is found to be 0.434 g, the
Sol. Sulphur on burning produces sulphur dioxide percentage of calcium oxide in the mixture is
(SO2) gas which is responsible for acid rain. (a) 70% (b) 30%

S(s) + O2(g)  SO2(g) (c) 35% (d) 60%


Answer (a)
One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023
particles. Sol. Total weight of the mixture of CaCO3 and CaO =
Now, 1 mole of SO2 has 6.022 × 1023 molecules 0.500 g
Let’s assume, weight of CaCO3 = xg
and 1 molecule of SO2 has 3 atoms.
Weight of CaO = (0.5 – x)g
 6.022 × 1023 molecules of SO2 have
x
= 3 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms   Number of moles of CaCO3 
100
= 1.81 × 1024 atoms.
0.5 – x
22. The stomach fluid in human contains HCI, KCI Number of moles of CaO 
56
and NaCl. The stomach fluid is highly acidic and
plays an important role in the digestion of food as 
CaCO3  CaO  CO2 
well as killing of bacteria. The increased acidity (Non-
Combustible
may lead to abdominal pain, nausea, bloating, gas)

-7-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

x 24. Arrange the following in the increasing order of


Initial moles
100 their metallic character Na, C, O, Li, Be
x (a) C < O < Na < Li < Be
Final moles
100 (b) O < C < Be < Na < Li
Total weight of residue (CaO) (c) O < C < Be < Li < Na
 x  (d) C < O < Be < Li < Na
  56  (0.5 – x)  0.434 g
 100 
Answer (c)
56(0.01x) + 0.5 – x = 0.434
Sol. Greater the tendency of an element to lose
0.56x – x + 0.5 = 0.434
electrons and form positive ions, more will be its
x = 0.15 g
metallic character.
Initial amount of CaO = 0.5 – 0.15 = 0.35 g
  The correct increasing order of metallic
0.35  100
 % of CaO in the mixture  character will be
0.5
O < C < Be < Li < Na
= 70%

A-2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 OR 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE A WARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED

25. The types of bonding found in dry ice is/are 27. Soaps and detergents are common agents used
(a) Covalent in laundry industry. They are long chain
hydrocarbons with ionic terminals of cationic or
(b) Ionic anionic nature. A 1% (w/v) soap solution X and
(c) Metallic 1% (w/v) detergent solution Y were prepared in
(d) Vander Waal forces distilled water. Each of the solutions was divided
in two equal parts and labelled as X1, X2, Y1 and
Answer (a, d)
Y2. 1 g NaCl was added to X1 and Y1 each while
Sol. Covalent bond is present between C and O in dry
1 g CaCl2 was added to X2 and Y2 each. Which of
ice (CO2) as both C and O are non-metals
the following observations is/are correct?
CO2 is a non-polar molecule, so, intermolecular (a) X1 shows slimy precipitate
forces of attraction present are Vander waal
(b) X2 shows slimy precipitate
forces.
26. The compound/s that raise/s the temperature of (c) Y1 shows slimy precipitate
water (from room temperature) on dissolving in it (d) Y2 shows slimy precipitate
is/are
Answer (a, b)
(a) Ammonium chloride
Sol. Precipitate formation will take place in X1 and X2
(b) Potassium hydroxide only.
(c) Glucose In X1 : On addition of NaCl, soap precipitates out
(d) Conc. HCl due to common ion effect of Na+ ion.
Answer (b, d) In X2 : When soap is used in hard water, formation
Sol. Dissolution of acids or bases in water is of a sticky precipitate (scum) occurs.
exothermic in nature as heat is released due to
2C17H35 COONa  CaCl2   C17H35 COO 2 Ca  2NaCl
breaking of bonds. Soap Scum

-8-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

28. According to Einstein’s theory, light can be (a) Power generated across R1 is 42.6 watt
assumed to be in the form of a large number of
discrete energy packets called ‘photons’. In case I
(b) The ratio of 1  2
of light of frequency , each photon carries energy I2
E = h. In a certain surgical procedure a surgeon
uses LASER beam of wavelength 650 nm in (c) Total current drawn from the cell is 4 ampere
pulses of 30.0 ms duration. The average power of
each pulse is 0.6 W. Here h is Planck’s constant. (d) As R2 = 2R1, the voltage across R2 will be
Then twice the voltage across R1
(a) The frequency of this LASER photon is
4.6 × 1014 Hz Answer (a, b, c)
(b) The energy in each pulse is 1.1 × 1017 eV 2
V 2 16  256
(c) Energy of one photon is 3.1 × 10–19 J Sol. P     42.6 W
R 6 6
(d) Number of photons in each pulse is 5.9 ×
1016 I R 12
V  I1R1  I2R2  1  1  2V
Answer (a, b, c, d) I2 R2 6
Sol. c = 
16 16
c I1  A, I2  A  I1  I2  4 A
 6 12

30. A glass plate of uniform thickness t and refractive
3  108
 index is as shown in the diagram. AB is the
650  10 9
incident ray and FG is the emergent ray. The
 4.61 1014 Hz
angles of incidence and refraction are i and r
Energy in each pulse,
respectively. The perpendicular distance FC = x
E = Pav × t
between the incident and the emergent rays is
= 0.6 × 30 × 10–3 J
called the lateral shift. Then
= 18 × 10–3 J

18  103
 eV
1.6  1019
= 1.1 × 1017 eV
Energy of each photon
E = h = 6.625 × 10–34 × 4.61 × 1014
E  3.1 × 10–19 J

18  103
No. of photons 
3.1 1019
 5.9 × 1016
29. In the following circuit, R1 = 6 , R2 = 12 ,
 cos i sin r 
V = 16 V. The currents I1 and I2 flow through the (a) x  t  sin i  
 cos r 
resistances R1 and R2 respectively
(b) x depends on refractive index 

(c) x is independent of the wavelength  of light

(d) Maximum value of x = t when i is close to 90°

Answer (a, b, d)

-9-
IOQJS (Part-I) 2021-22

Answer (a, b, c, d)
Sol.
Sol. • In certain viruses, DNA is also found to be
the genetic material.
• During viral multiplication, a complementary
DNA is not produced in riboviruses.
• Viruses are not free living cells but they
always require a host for multiplication.
• RNA containing viruses are more
susceptible to mutations when compared to DNA
containing viruses and hence show a very rapid
evolution.
32. During a race, Ramesh was thrown off the horse
t back and suffered an injury in the front part of
x  sin  i  r 
cos r head. Upon thorough examination, Ramesh was
found to have injury to the front part of the head.
 sin i cos r  cos i sin r 
 x  t  Which of the following can be the possible
 cos r  outcome/s of this injury?
 cos i sin r  (a) Trouble in speaking properly
x  t  sin i 
 cos r  (b) Inability to smell
As, i  90 (c) Inability to walk on a narrow path
x t (d) Inability to maintain blood pressure

X depends on  as r depends on  and also on Answer (a, b)


wavelength of light. Sol. Front part of the head mainly includes the
forebrain. Injury to front part may lead to trouble
31. Given below are four statements about viruses.
in speaking properly and inability to smell.
Which of the following statement/s is/are
incorrect? 33. Which of the following molecules are primarily
responsible for structural support and motility?
(a) All known viruses contain RNA as the
genetic material (a) Actin
(b) During viral multiplication, a complementary (b) Tubulin alpha
DNA is produced in riboviruses (c) Lamins
(c) Viruses are the smallest, freely living cells (d) Desmin
found on the planet
Answer (a, b, d)
(d) DNA containing viruses are more
Sol. Actin, tubulin alpha and desmin are primarily
susceptible to mutations when compared to
responsible for structural support and motility.
RNA containing viruses and hence show a
very rapid evolution

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