MMUP MECH QUESTION 85 % OR MORE OF THE EXAM

QUESTIONS COMING FROM IT

FIRST : QUESTION FOR UNDERSTANDING THE REQUIRED BASICS.

 Q2: The dimension of strain is?

a) LT-2
b) N/m2
c) N
d) Dimensionless

Answer is d:
Strain is the ratio of change in dimension to original dimension.
So it is dimensionless.
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Q3: What is tensile strain?

a) The ratio of change in length to the original length

b) The ratio of original length to the change in length
c) The ratio of tensile force to the change in length
d) The ratio of change in length to the tensile force applied

Answer is a:
The tensile strain is the ratio of change in length to the original
length. It is the stress induced in a body, when subjected to two
equal and opposite pulls. The ratio of increase in length to the
original length is the tensile strain.
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 Q4: Find the strain of a brass rod of length 250mm which is
subjected to a tensile load of 50kN when the extension of
rod is equal to 0.3mm?

a) 0.025
b) 0.0012
c) 0.0046
d) 0.0014

Answer is b:
Explanation: Strain = dL/L = 0.3/250 = 0.0012.

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 Q5: Find the elongation of an steel rod of 100mm length when
it is subjected to a tensile strain of 0.005?

a) 0.2mm
b) 0.3mm
c) 0.5mm
d) 0.1mm

Answer is c:
Explanation: dL = strain x L = 0.005 x 100 = 0.5mm.

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 Q6: A tensile test was conducted on a mild steel bar. The
diameter and the gauge length of bat was 3cm and 20cm
respectively. The extension was 0.21mm. What is the
value to strain?

a) 0.0010
b) 0.00105
c) 0.0105
d) 0.005

Answer is d:
Explanation: Strain = dL/L = 0.21/200 = 0.00105.

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 Q7: x. Strain is a fundamental behavior of material.
y. Strain does not have a unit.

a) Both x. and y. are true and y. is the correct explanation

of x
b) Both x. and y. ate true but y. is not the correct explanatio
of x
c) x. is true but y. is false
d) y. is true but x. is false
Answer is b:
Explanation: Strain is measured in laboratory that is why it is called
a fundamental quantity. Also since it is the ratio of dimension of
length to the dimension of length, it is dimensionless.
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 Q9: The unit of force in S.I. units is ?

a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Watt
d) Dyne

Answer is b:Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = kg x

m/s2 = N.

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 Q10: Which of the following is not the unit of distance?

a) Angstrom
b) Light year
c) Micron
d) Milestone

Answer is d:
Explanation: Milestone means achievement . it is not and unit of distance.

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 Q8: The lateral strain is ?

a) The ratio of axial deformation to the original length

b) The ratio of deformation in area to the original area
c) The strain at right angles to the direction of applied load
d) The ratio of length of body to the tensile force applied on it

Answer is : c

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Q1: Find the vertical reaction at B for the shaft shown.

a. 325.50 N
b. 225.25 N
c. 363.75 N
d. 415.20 N

Answer is c:

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 (800 N/m)(0.150 m) = 120 N
225 N

A B

Ay By

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Equilibrium Equations

+ MA  0  .400 m (B y )  120 N (.275 m)  225 N (.500 m)

 120 N (.275 m)  225 N (.500 m)
By 
 .400 m
B y  363.75 N 
+ Fy  0  Ay  120 N  363.75 N  225 N
A y  18.75 N
A y  18.75 N 
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 EXAMPLE

D 450 lb
45 º
45 º
FAD FCD
FBD of pin D

+   FX = – 450 + FCD cos 45° – FAD cos 45° = 0

+   FY = – FCD sin 45° – FAD sin 45° = 0
FCD = 318 lb (Tension) or (T)
and FAD = – 318 lb (Compression) or (C)

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 Q11:A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its
faces. The volumetric strain will be x-times the linear strain
in any of the three axes when ?

a) X=1
b) X=2
c) X=3
d) X=4

Answer is c:Explanation: The volumetric strain is the change in

dimension in three directions and the linear strain depends on
change in only one direction so volumetric strain is 1 times the
linear strain in any of the three directions.
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 Q12: A rod 200cm long is subjected to an axial pull due to
which it elongates about 2mm. Calculate the amount of
strain?

a) 0.001
b) 0.01
c) 0.02
d) 0.002

Answer is a: Explanation: The strain is given by = dL / L =

2/2000 = 0.001.
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 Q13: Some structural members subjected to long time
sustained loads deform progressively with time especially
at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon
called?

a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Fracture

Answer is b:Explanation: Creep is the deformation

progressively with time. It comes when the body is subjected to
long time load. After the instant deflection due to load the
deformation occurs slowly with time.
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Q14: Find the strain of a brass rod of length 100mm which is
subjected to a tensile load of 50kN when the extension of
rod is equal to 0.1mm?

a) 0.01
b) 0.001
c) 0.05
d) 0.005

Answer is b:Explanation: Strain = dL/L = 0.1/100 = 0.001.

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 Q15: The property by which a body returns to its original shape
after removal of the force, is called

a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Malleability

Answer is b:Explanation: When an external force acts on a

body, the body tends to undergo some deformation. If the
external force is removed and the body comes back to its original
shape and size, the body is known as elastic body and this
property is called elasticity. 44
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 Q16: The property of a material by which it can be beaten or
rolled into thin plates, is called

a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity

Answer is a:Explanation: A material can be beaten into thin

plates by its property of malleability.

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Q17: Which law is also called as the elasticity law

a) Bernoulli’s law
b) Stress law
c) Hooke’s law
d) Poisson’s law

Answer is c: Explanation: The hooke”s law is valid under the

elastic limit of a body. It itself states that stress is proportional to
the strain within elastic limit.
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Q18: The materials which have the same elastic properties in
all directions, are called

a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogeneous
d) Hard

Answer is a: Explanation: Same elastic properties in all

direction is called the homogeneity of a material.

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 Q19: A member which does not regain its original shape after
removal of load producing deformation is said

a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Rigid
d) None of the mentioned

Answer is a: Explanation: A plastic material does not regain its

original shape after removal of load. An elastic material regain
its original shape after removal of load.
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 Q20: The body will regain it is previous shape and size only
when the deformation caused by the external forces, is
within a certain limit. What is that limit?

a) Plastic limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit
d) None of the mentioned

Answer is b: Explanation: The body only regain its previous

shape and size only upto its elastic limit.

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 Q21: The materials which have the same elastic properties in
all directions, are called

a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogenous
d) Hard

Answer is a: Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same

elastic properties in all directions.

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 Q22: As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain

a) Increases more rapidly

b) Decreases more rapidly
c) Increases in proportion to the stress
d) Decreases in proportion to the stress

Answer is a: Explanation: On reaching of the tensile stress to

the elastic limit after the proportionality limit, the stress is no
longer proportional to the strain. Then the value of strain rapidly
increases.
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 Q23: What the number that measures an object’s resistance to
being deformed elastically when stress is applied to it?

a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Stress modulus

Answer is a: Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of

stress to strain.

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Q24: Which of the following welding defect is occurred
normally due to repeated cooling

a) Porosity
b) Blowhole
c) Undercut
d) Crack

Answer is : d

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Q25: Material under failure due to excessive deformation.
The reason may be?
a) Material.
b) Design and Dimensions.
c) All of the above.
d) None of the above.

Answer is c:

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Q26: What is Morse test?

a) Conducting the performance test for petrol engine.

b) Conducting the performance test for diesel engine.
c) To test the indicative power of single cylinder diesel
engine.
d) to test the brake force for diesel engine.

Answer is : c

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Q27: Car chassis are ………
a) Felix
b) Rigid
c) Stiff
d) Rough.

Answer is : c

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Q28: The function of differential gear

a) Reducing speed
b) Changing speed
c) Jerk-off free
d) To turn the vehicle.

Answer is : d

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Q29: Stress and Strain

a) Directly Proportional
b) Inversely Proportional
c) Power function
d) Non of the above.

Answer is a:

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 Q31: Car dash board from………..

(a) Polymer
(b) metal
(c) Plastic
(d) ceramic

Answer is : a

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Q33: Stress hardening

(a) Stronger & Tougher

(b) Stronger & Harder
(c) Stronger & Softer
(d) Non of the above

Answer is : b

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Q34: Car Brake is

(a) Wear resistant

(b) Heat resistance
(c) All of the above
(d) Non of the above

Answer is : c

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 Q36: What is the point P shown in the stress-strain curve?

a) Lower yield point

b) Elastic limit
c) Proportionality limit
d) Breaking point

Answer is d:
Explanation: The breaking point is the point where the material
breaks. The breaking point will be the last point on the stress
strain curve.
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Q37: The device to be installed in between fire rated walls
is:

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Volume damper

Answer is c:

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Q38: Which membrane can be fixed vertically or
horizontally between fire rated walls which control the
spread of the smoke

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Smoke damper
(e) c&d

Answer is e:

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Q39: Prevent the spread of smoke inside the ducts and fire
resistance rating from room to room:

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Volume damper

Answer is c:

65
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 NFPA

66
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 NFPA
National Fire Protection Association
NFPA 1 Fire Code
NFPA 10 Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers
NFPA 13 Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems
NFPA 14 Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose
Systems
NFPA 20 Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for
Fire Protection
NFPA 22 Standard for Water Tanks for Private Fire Protection
NFPA 70 National Electrical Code
NFPA 72 National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code
NFPA 88A Standard for Parking Structures
NFPA 88B Standard for Repair Garages
67
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 NFPA
National Fire Protection Association
NFPA 92 Standard for Smoke Control Systems
NFPA 92A Standard for Smoke-Control Systems Utilizing
Barriers and Pressure Differences
NFPA 92B Standard for Smoke Management Systems in Malls,
Atria, and Large Spaces
NFPA 96 Standard for Ventilation Control and Fire Protection
of Commercial Cooking Operations
NFPA 99 Health Care Facilities Code
NFPA 101 Life Safety Code
NFPA 170 Standard for Fire Safety and Emergency Symbols
NFPA 203 Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting
NFPA 2001 Standard on Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems
NFPA 5000 Building Construction and Safety Code 68
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Q1: Inspection of Fire Alarm system is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Annually

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 Q2: Frequent inspection of Heat detector is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : semiannually

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Q3: Testing of heat detector is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Annually

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Q4: Visual inspection of zone control valve is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : semiannually

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Q5: Testing of fire alarm sound is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Monthly

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Q6: Testing of fire alarm boxer is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Annually

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 Q7: Testing of smoke detectors is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Annually

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 Q8: Testing of control valve connected to supervision is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Annually

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 Q9: Testing of Audible device is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is: Annually

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 Q10: Visual inspection of audible device is

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : semiannually

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Q11: Testing of water flow device

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is: Quarterly

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Q12: Visual inspection of supervisor signal device

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semiannually
d. Annually

Answer is : Quarterly

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Q13: NFPA code used in car parking is

a) NFPA 72
b) NFPA 88A
c) NFPA 101
d) NFPA 170

Answer is: NFPA 88A

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Q14: NFPA code used in smoke control system is

a) NFPA 13
b) NFPA 72
c) NFPA 92
d) NFPA 101

Answer is: NFPA 92

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 Q15: NFPA code used in sprinkler system is

a) NFPA 10
b) NFPA 13
c) NFPA 14
d) NFPA 70

Answer is : NFPA 13

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Q16: Which one of the following is not a unit of dynamic
viscosity?
a) Pa-s
b) N-s/m2
c) Poise
d) Stokes

Answer is d

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Q17: Water flows between two plates of which the upper one is
stationary and the lower one is moving with a velocity V.
What will be the velocity of the fluid in contact with the
upper plate?
a) V
b) N 2
c) 2V
d) 0

Answer is d: Explanation: According to the No-Slip condition,

the relative velocity between the plate and the fluid in contact
with it must be zero. Thus, the velocity of the fluid in contact with
the upper plate is 0 and that with the lower plate is V.
85
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 Q19: Which of the following cannot be used as bio-materials?
a) Metals
b) Ceramics
c) Polymers
d) None of the mentioned

Answer is d: Explanation: Bio-materials are implanted into

living bodies for replacement of damaged parts and hence, must
be compatible with the body tissues and be non-toxic. As long
as these criteria are met, all of the above materials – metals,
ceramics, polymers and their combinations can be used as bio-
materials.
86
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 Q20: The body will regain it is previous shape and size only
when the deformation caused by the external forces, is
within a certain limit. What is that limit?

a) Plastic limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit
d) None of the mentioned

Answer is b: Explanation: The body only regain its previous

shape and size only upto its elastic limit.

87
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Q21: Water discharges through an orifice in the side of a large tank as shown in
Figure. The orifice is circular in cross section and 50 mm in diameter. The jet is
the same diameter as the orifice. The liquid is water, and the surface elevation
is maintained at a height h of 3.8 m above the center of the jet. Compute the
discharge: (a) neglecting loss of head; (b) considering the loss of head to be
10 percent of h.
a) 3.5
b) 3.6
c) 3.7
d) 3.8

Answer is d:

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 Q22: Before starting work at site, the major factor has to be
checked is?
a) Access to site (EFE)
b) Storage of Water, tools & equipments
c) Safety
d) Approval from MMUP / Civil / Defence etc.
e) All of the above

Answer is d:

89
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 Q23: What the number that measures an object’s resistance to
being deformed elastically when stress is applied to it?

a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Stress modulus

Answer is a: Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of

stress to strain.

90
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 Q24: What is the point P shown in the stress-strain curve?

a) Lower yield point

b) Elastic limit
c) Proportionality limit
d) Breaking point

Answer is d:
Explanation: The breaking point is the point where the material
breaks. The breaking point will be the last point on the stress
strain curve.
91
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Q25: Prevent the spread of smoke inside the ducts and fire
resistance rating from room to room:

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire dumper
(d) Volume dumper

Answer is c:

92
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Q26: The firefighting water sprinklers covers a
maximum distance of

(a) 10 feet
(b) 12 feet
(c) 15 feet
(d) 8 feet

Answer is c:

93
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Q27: how frequently a portable fire extinguisher
according to NFPA 10(98) should be checked?

(a) Monthly
(b) Quarterly
(c) Semiannually
(d) Annually

Answer is d:

94
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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 Question 1
 1.Which of the following variables controls the
physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.

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 Answer Question 1
 Ans: d, all of the above

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 Question 2
2.Which of the following laws is applicable for
the behavior of a perfect gas
(a)Boyle's law
(b)Charles'law
(c)Gay-Lussac law
(d)all of the above
(e)Joule's law.

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 Answer Question 2

 Ans: d, all of the above

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 Question 3
A 20 L cylinder containing 6 atm of gas at 27 °C. What would the
pressure of the gas be if the gas was heated to 77 °C ?

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Solution:
The cylinder's volume remains unchanged while the gas is heated
so Gay-Lussac's gas law applies. Gay-Lussac's gas law can be expressed as
Pi/Ti = Pf/Tf
Where:
Pi and Ti are the initial pressure and absolute temperatures
Pf and Tf are the final pressure and absolute temperature
First, convert the temperatures to absolute temperatures.
Ti = 27 °C = 27 + 273 K = 300 K
Tf = 77 °C = 77 + 273 K = 350 K
Use these values in Gay-Lussac's equation and solve for Pf.
Pf = PiTf/Ti
Pf = (6 atm)x(350K)/(300 K)
Pf = 7 atm
Answer: The pressure will increase to 7 atm after heating the gas from 27 °C to 77°C.
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 Question 3
 3.The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.

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 Answer Question 3

 Ans: d , Kelvin

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 Question 3
 3. A certain amount of an ideal gas initially at a pressure P1 and temperature T1.
First, it undergoes a constant pressure process 1 – 2 such that T2 = 3T1/4. Then, it
undergoes a constant volume process 2 – 3 such that T3 = T1/2. The ratio of the
final volume to the initial volume of the ideal gas is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
(d) 1
(e) 1.5

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 Answer Question 3

 Ans: c , 0.75
For process 1 – 2 : P1 = P2
V1T1=V2T2 V1T1=V2T2
V2V1=T2T1 V2V1=T2T1
V2V1=34 V2V1=34
For process 2 – 3 : V2 = V3
V3V2=1 V3V2=1
Now, V3V1=V3V2×V2V1=1×34=34V3V1=V3V2×V2V1=1×34=34
V3V1=0.75

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 Question 4

 4.The unit of mass in S.I. units is

(a)kilogram
(b)gram
(c)tone
(d)quintal
(e)newton.

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 Answer Question 4

 Ans: a, kilogram

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 Question 5

 5.The unit of time in S.I. units is

(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) year.

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 Answer Question 5

 Ans: a, second

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 Question 6
 6.The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer
(d) millimeter.

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 Answer Question 6

Ans: a, meter

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 Question 7
 7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(a) watt
(b)joule
(c)joule/s
(d)joule/m
(e)joule m..

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 Answer Question 7

 Ans: b, joule

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 Question 8

 8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute

pressure of given mass varies directly as
(a)temperature
(b)absolute
(c)absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d)volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e)remains constant, if volume and temperature are kept constant.

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 Answer Question 8

Ans: c, absolute temperature, if volume is

kept constant

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 Question 9
 9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very
high pressure occupies
(a)more volume
(b)less volume
(c)same volume
(d)unpredictable behavior
(e)no such correlation.

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 Answer Question 9

 Ans: b
less volume
 A real gas occupies more volume than an ideal gas at high
pressure. This is because the ideal gas law assumes the masses
are points that take up no volume. Real molecules take up some
of the volume, and at high pressure, this fraction becomes
significant.

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 Question 10

 10.General gas equation is

(a) PV=nRT
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) CpCv = Wj

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 Answer Question 10

 Ans: a
PV=nRT

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 Question 11
 11.According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of the
mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular
weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.

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 Answer Question 11

 Ans: c
sum of the partial pressures of all

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 Question 12
 12.Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could
be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
 (a) O2, N2, steam, C02
 (b) Oz, N2, water vapour
 (c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
 (d) O2, N2, H2, air
 (e) steam vapours, H2, C02.

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 Answer Question 12

 Ans: d
O2, N2, H2, air

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 Question 12
 13. For an ideal gas with constant values of specific heats, for calculation of
the specific enthalpy,

(a) it is sufficient to know only the temperature

(b) both temperature and pressure are required to be known
(c) both temperature and volume are required to be known
(d) both temperature and mass are required to be known

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 Answer Question 12
 Ans: a
• it is sufficient to know only the temperature

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 Question 13

 13.The unit of pressure in S.I. units is

 (a)kg/cm2
 (b)mm of water column
 (c)pascal
 (d)dynes per square cm
 (e)bars

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 Answer Question 13

 Ans: c
pascal

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 Question 14

 14. A closed system is one in which

(a)mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do
so
(b)mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c)neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d)both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e)thermodynamic reactions take place.

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 Answer Question 14

 Ans: a
mass does not cross boundaries of the
system, though energy may do so

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 Question 15

 15.Temperature of a gas is produced due to

(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.

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 Answer Question 15

 Ans: b
kinetic energy of molecules

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 Question 16

 16.According to kinetic theory of gases, the

absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.

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 Answer Question 16
 Ans: c
kinetic energy of the molecules is zero

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 Question 17

 17.Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the

collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
b)perfectly inelastic
(c)partly elastic
(d)partly inelastic
(e)partly elastic and partly inelastic.

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 Answer Question 17
 Ans: a
perfectly elastic

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 Question 18

 The pressure 'of a gas in terms of its mean

kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
 (a) E/3
 (b) E/2
 (c) 3E/4
 (d)2E/3
 (e) 5E/4.

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 Answer Question 18

 Ans: d
2E/3

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 Question 19

 19.An open system is one in which

(a)mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do
so
(b)neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c)both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d)mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e)thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

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 Answer Question 19

(c)both energy and mass cross the boundaries

of the system

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 Question 20

 20.Superheated vapour behaves

(a)exactly as gas
(b)as steam
(c)as ordinary vapor
(d)approximately as a gas
(e)as average of gas and vapor.

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 Answer Question 20

 Ans: d
approximately as a gas

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 Question 21

 21.Absolute zero pressure will occur

(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of 273 °K

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 Answer Question 21

 Ans: c
when molecular momentum of the system
becomes zero

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 Question 22

 22.No liquid can exist as liquid at

(a) 273 °K
(b)vacuum
(c)zero pressure
(d)centre of earth
(e)in space.

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 Answer Question 22

 Ans: c
zero pressure

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 Question 23

 23.The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.

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 Answer Question 23

 Ans: d, watt

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 Question 24

 24.The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e.,

absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of -273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can't be attained

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 Answer Question 24

 Ans: a
a temperature of -273.16°C

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 Question 25

 25.Intensive property of a system is one whose

value
 (a)depends on the mass of the system, like volume
 (b)does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature,
pressure, etc.
 (c)is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
 (d)is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
 (e)remains constant.

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 Answer Question 25

 Ans: b
does not depend on the mass of the
system, like temperature, pressure, etc.

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 Question 26
25. A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar when the ambient
temperature was 15°C. When the game started next day, the air temperature
at the stadium was 5°C.
Assume that the volume of the football remains constant at 2500 cm . 3

The amount of heat lost by the air in the football and the gauge pressure of
air in the football at the stadium respectively equal
R=287 j/kg.k, Cv= 0.718 kj/kg.k
Use formula: Q = mCv ∆T, PV = mRT v

(a) 30.6 J, 1.94 bar

(b) 21.8 J, 0.93 bar
(c) 61.1 J, 1.94 bar
(d) 43.7 J, 0.93 bar

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 Answer Question 26
 Ans: d
43.7 J, 0.93 bar

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 Question 26
Solution: 4
Given, P = 1 bar (gauge) 1

(P ) = 1 + 1.013 = 2.012 bar

1 absolute

T = 15°C = 288 K
1

T = 5°C = 278 K
2

Volume = const. = 2500 cm 3

At const. volume (15°C → 5°C)

Q = mC dT v

Let Q = mC dT v

= m × 0.718 × (278 – 288)

Also PV = mRT
2.013×105×2500×10−6=m×287×288⇒2.013×105×2500×10−6=m×287×288
⇒ θ = 43.7 × 10 KJ -3

= 43.7 J
Volume = Const.
T T =P P
2 1 2 1 P2=2.13×278288=1.93 bar (absolute)Pabs.=Patm+PgaugeT2T1=P2P1⇒P2=2.13×278288=
1.93 bar (absolute)Pabs.=Patm+Pgauge
∴ P = 0.93 bar gauge

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 Question 27
25. A pure substance at 8 MPa and 400 °C is having a specific
internal energy of 2864 kJ/kg and a specific volume of 0.03432 m3/kg.
Its specific enthalpy (in kJ/kg) is _______(h = u + pv)

(a) 3138.56 kJ/kg

(b) 3538.56 kJ/kg
(c) 3838.56 kJ/kg
(d) 4138.56 kJ/kg

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 Answer Question 27
 Ans: a
 h = u + pv
= 2864 + (8 × 103) × 0.03432
= 3138.56 kJ/kg

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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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 Question 1
 1.Which is false statement about multistage compression.
(a)Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
(b)Volumetric efficiency is high
(c)It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
(d)The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
(e)Outlet temperature is reduced.

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 Answer Question 1
(b), Volumetric efficiency is high

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 Question 2
 2.In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is
achieved by
(a)employing intercooler
(b)by constantly cooling the cylinder
(c)by running compressor at very slow speed
(d)by insulating the cylinder
(e)none of the above.

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 Answer Question 2
(c), by running compressor at very slow speed

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 Question 4

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 Answer Question 4

 Ans: b, no heat leaves or enters the

compressor cylinder during compression

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 Question 5
 The capacity of a compressor is 5 m3 /min.
refers to
(a)standard air
(b)free air
(c)compressed air
(d)compressed air at delivery pressure
(e)air sucked.

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 Answer Question 5

 Ans: b,

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 Question 6
 6.The overall isothermal efficiency of compressor is defined
as the ratio of
(a)isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
(b)isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
(c)power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
(d)work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
(e)isothermal work to ideal work.

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 Answer Question 6

 Ans: a
isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor

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 Question 7

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 Answer Question 7

 Ans: a

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 Question 9
 9.The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the
suction of compressor are
(a)atmospheric
(b)slightly more than atmospheric
(c)slightly less than atmospheric
(d)pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly
less than atmospheric
(e)pressure slightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly
more than atmospheric.
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 Answer Question 9

 Ans: e
(e)pressure slightly less than atmospheric and
temperature slightly more than atmospheric.

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 Question 10
 10.Isothermal compression efficiency can be attained by
running the compressor
(a)at very high speed
(b)at very slow speed
(c)at average speed
(d)at zero speed
(e)isothermally.

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 Answer Question 10

 Ans: b

at very slow speed

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 Question 11
 11.The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature
(a)increases
(b)decreases
(c)remains unaffected
(d)may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
(e)increases upto certain limit and then decreases.

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 Answer Question 11

 Ans: a

increases

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 Question 12
 12.Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed,
can be approached by using
(a)multi-stage compression
(b)cold water spray
(c)both (a) and (b) above
(d)fully insulating the cylinder
(e)high stroke.

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 Answer Question 12

 Ans: c
both (a) and (b) above

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 Question 13
 13.Compression efficiency is compared against
(a)ideal compression
(b)adiabatic compression
(c) both isothermal and adiabatic compression
d)isentropic compression
(e)isothermal compression.

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 Answer Question 13

 Ans: e

isothermal compression.

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 Question 14
 14.Airplanes employ following type of compressor
(a)radial flow
(b)axial flow
(c)centrifugal
d)combination of above
(e)none of the above.

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 Answer Question 14

 Ans: b, axial flow

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 Question 15
 15.Inter cooling in compressors
(a)cools the delivered air
(b)results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
(c)is the standard practice for big compressor
(d)enables compression in two stages
(e)prevents compressor jacket running very hot.

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 Answer Question 15

 Ans: b
results in saving of power in compressing a
given volume to given pressure

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 Question 18
18.What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is
1.5 m3
(a)3 m3
(b)1.5 m3
(c)18 m3
(d)6 m3
(e)0.75 m3

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 Answer Question 18

 Ans: a
3 m3 .

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 Question 19
19.The work done per unit mass of air in compression will ‘be
least when n is equal to
(a)1
(b)1.2
(c)1.3
(d)1.4
(e)1.5

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 Answer Question 19

 Ans: a
1

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 Question 20
 20.Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not –
practicable because
(a)it requires very big cylinder
(b)it does not increase pressure much
(c)it is impossible in practice
(d)compressor has to run at very slow speed to achieve it
(e)it requires cylinder to be placed in water.

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 Answer Question 20

 Ans: d
(d)compressor has to run at very slow speed
to achieve it

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 Question 21

21.Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as

(a)mechanical efficiency
(b)volumetric efficiency
(c)isothermal efficiency
(d)adiabatic efficiency
(e)relative efficiency.

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 Answer Question 21

 Ans: a
mechanical efficiency

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 Question 22

22.The ratio of work done per cycle to the swept volume in case of
compressor is called

(a)compression index
(b)compression ratio
(c)compressor efficiency
(d)mean effective pressure
(e)compressor effectiveness.

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 Answer Question 22

 Ans: d
mean effective pressure

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 Question 23
23.Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
(a)as large as possible
(b)as small as possible
(c)about 50% of swept volume
(d)about 100% of swept volume
(e)none of the above.

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 Answer Question 23

 Ans: b
as small as possible

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 Question 24

24.Ratio of compression is the ratio of

(a)gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure

(b)absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute intake pressure
(c)pressures at discharge and suction corresponding to same temperature
(d)stroke volume and clearance volume(e)none of the above.

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 Answer Question 24

 Ans: b
absolute discharge pressure to the absolute
intake pressure

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 Question 25
 25.Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
 a)to accommodate Valves in the cylinder head
 (b)to provide cushioning effect
 (c)to attain high volumetric efficiency
 (d)to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
 (e)to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of
piston with cylinder head.

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 Answer Question 25

 Ans: e
to provide cushioning effect and also to
avoid mechanical bang of piston with
cylinder head

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 Question 26
 Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for
generating a given amount of power
(a) steam power plant
(b) petrol engine
(c) diesel engine
(d) solar plant
(e) gas turbine plant.

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 Answer Question 26
 Ans: e, gas turbine plant.

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 Question 27
 27- A simple turbo-jet engine is basically
(a) a propeller system
(b) gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
(c) chemical rocket engine
(d) ram-jet engine
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 27
 Ans: b
gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive
nozzle and diffuse*

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 Question 28

 28- For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more

advantageous to use
(a) turbo-jet engine
(b) ram-jet engine
(c) propellers
(d) rockets
(e) hydraulic jet propulsion.

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 Answer Question 28
 Ans: b, ram-jet engine

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 Question 29

 29. Ram-jet engine

(a) is self-operating at zero flight speed
(b) is not self-operating at zero flight speed
(c) requires no air for its operation
(d) produces a jet consisting of plasma
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 29

 Ans: b
 is not self-operating at zero flight speed

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 Question 30

 30. In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed

by expanding
(a) gases
(b) solids
(c) liquid
(d) plasma
(e) highly heated atmospheric air.

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 Answer Question 30

 Ans: e
highly heated atmospheric air.

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 Question 31

 31. In the aircraft propellers

 (a) the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
 (b) propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
 (c) its functioning depends on presence of air
 (d) all of the above
 (e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 31

 Ans: d
all of the above

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 Question 32

 32. Maximum temperature in a gas turbine is of the order of

COMPRESSORS, GAS TURBINES AND JET ENGINES
 (a) 2500°C
 (b) 2000°C
 (c) 1500°C
 (d) 1000°C
 (e) 700°C.

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 Answer Question 32

 Ans: e
700°C

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 Question 33

 33. Work ratio of a gas turbine may be improved by :

 (a) decreasing the compression work
 (b) increasing the compression work
 (c) increasing the turbine work
 (d) decreasing the turbine work
 (e) (a) and (c) above.

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 Answer Question 33

 Ans: e
 (a) decreasing the compression work & (c) increasing the
turbine work

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 Question 34
 34. Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is ratio of
(a) net work output and work done by turbine
(b) net work output and heat supplied
(c) work done by turbine and heat supplied
(d) work done by turbine and net work output
(e) actual/heat drop and isentropic heat drop.

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 Answer Question 34

 Ans: a
 net work output and work done by turbine

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 Question 35
 35. Reheating in gas turbine results in
 (a) increase of work ratio
 (b) decrease of thermal efficiency
 (c) decrease of work ratio
 (d) both (a) and (b) above
 (e) both (b) and (c) above.

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 Answer Question 35

 Ans: d
(a) increase of work ratio &
(b) decrease of thermal efficiency

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 Question 36
 36. The main purpose of reheating in gas turbine is to
(a) increase temperature
(b) reduce turbine size
(c) increase power output
(d) increase speed
(e) increase pressure ratio.

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 Answer Question 36

 Ans: c
increase power output

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 Question 37
 37. Reheating in multistage expansion gas turbine results in
(a) high thermal efficiency
(b) reduction in compressor work
(c) decrease of heat loss in exhaust
(d) maximum work output
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 37

 Ans: d
maximum work output

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 Question 38
 38. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is of the order of
 (a) 3.5 : 1
 (b) 5 : 1
 (c) 8 : 1
 (d) 12 : 1
 (e) 20 : 1.

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 Answer Question 38

 Ans: c
8 : 1

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 Question 39
 39. Gas turbine cycle with regenerator
(a) increases thermal efficiency
(b) allows high compression ratio
(c) decreases heat loss is exhaust
(d) allows operation at very high altitudes
(e) permits high moisture content fuel to be used.

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 Answer Question 39

 Ans: a
(a) increases thermal efficiency

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 Question 40

 40. The working fluid in air turbine is

(a) in two phases
(b) in three phases
(c) in a single phase
(d) in the form of air and water mixture
(e) gas and no air.

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 Answer Question 40

 Ans: c
(c) in a single phase

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 Question 41
 41. The specific output per kg mass flow rate of a gas turbine (having
fixed efficiencies of compressor and turbine and fixed higher and lower
temperature) with increase in pressure ratio will
(a) increase first at fast rate and then slow
(b) increase first at slow rate and then fast
(c) decrease continuously
(d) first increase, reach maximum and then decrease
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 41

 Ans: d
 (d) first increase, reach maximum and then decrease

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 Question 42
 42. In jet engines the compression ratio
(a) varies as square root of the speed
(b) Varies linearly to the speed
(c) varies as square of the speed
(d) varies as cube of the speed
(e) is constant irrespective of variation in speed.

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 Answer Question 42

 Ans: c
(c) varies as square of the speed

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 Question 43
 43. In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum
(a) 2-stroke engine
(b) 4-stroke petrol engine
(c) 4-stroke diesel engine
(d) multi-cylinder engine
(e) gas turbine.

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 Answer Question 43

 Ans: e
 (e) gas turbine.

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 Air fuel ratios
 Air fuel ratios [AFR] has the correct amount of air and fuel to produce a
chemically complete combustion event.
 For gasoline engines, A/F ratio is 14.7:1, which means 14.7 parts of air
to one part of fuel. T

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 Question 44
 44. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
(a) 7 : 1
(b)15 : 1
(c)30 : 1
(d)40 : 1
(e)50: 1.

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 Answer Question 44

 Ans: d
(d) 50 : 1

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 Question 45
 45. High air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines
(a) to increase the output
(b) to increase the efficiency
(c) to save fuel
(d) to reduce the exit temperature
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 45

 Ans: d
(d) to reduce the exit temperature

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 Question 46
 46. The effective power of gas turbines is increased by adding the
following in compressor
(a) ammonia and water vapor
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) hydrogen
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 46

 Ans: a
(a) ammonia and water vapor

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 Question 47
 47. The following property is most important for material used for gas
turbine blade
(a) toughness
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) corrosion resistance
(e) bulk modulus.

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 Answer Question 47

 Ans: c
(c) creep

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 Question 48
 48. The blades of gas turbine are made of
 (a) mild steel
 (b) stainless steel
 (c) carbon steel
 (d) high alloy steel
 (e) high nickel alloy (pneumonic).

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 Answer Question 48

 Ans: e
 (e) high nickel alloy (pneumonic). .

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 Question 49
 49. Pick up the wrong statement
 (a) pulsejet requires no ambient air for propulsion
 (b) ramjet-engine has no turbine
 (c) turbine drives compressor in a turbojet
 (d) bypass turbo-jet engine increases the thrust without adversely
affecting, the propulsive efficiency and fuel economy
 (e) propeller is an indirect reaction device.

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 Answer Question 49

 Ans: a
 (a) pulsejet requires no ambient air for propulsion

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 Question 50

 50. Fighter bombers use following type of engine

(a) turbo-jet
(b) turbo-propeller
(c) rocket
(d) ram-jet ,
(e) pulsejet.

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 Answer Question 50

 Ans: a
(a) turbo-jet

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 Q51: In vapour absorption system using ammonia, water
is required for

a) Condenser only.
b) Separator only.
c) Absorber, separator and condenser.
d) Absorber only.

Answer is c:

137
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 Q52: What is the effect of superheating in a refrigeration
cycle?

a) Does not change COP

b) Decreases COP
c) Increases COP
d) None of these

Answer is b:
138
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 Q53: When does the refrigerant exist as saturated liquid in
a vapour compression cycle?

a) After passing through the expansion valve

b) After passing through the condenser
c) Before passing through the condenser
d) Before entering through the compressor

Answer is b:

139
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 Q54: The highest temperature of refrigerant in a
mechanical refrigeration system occurs

a) Before expansion valve.

b) In evaporator.
c) Between evaporation and condenser.
d) Between compressor and condenser.

Answer is d:

140
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 Q55: How is the capacity of a refrigerating machine
expressed?

a) Inside volume of the cabinet.

b) Lowest temperature attained.
c) Rate of abstraction of heat from the space being cooled.
d) Gross weight of machine is tonnes.

Answer is c:

141
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 Q56: Absorption system normally uses the following
refrigerant

a) Methyl chloride.
b) Ammonia.
c) Sulphur dioxide.
d) Carbon dioxide.

Answer is b:

142
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 Q57: Relative COP is equal to

a) Actual C.O.P / theoretical C.O.P

b) Actual C.O.P x theoretical C.O.P
c) Theoretical C.O.P / actual C.O.P
d) None of these.

Answer is a:

143
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 Q58: For a domestic refrigerator the COP is

a) More than 1
b) Less than 1
c) Equal to 1
d) Unpredictable.

Answer is a:

144
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 Q59: ……………….is the most distinguishing feature of
absorption type refrigerator.

a) Small size for the same refrigerating machine.

b) Only low grade of energy in the form of heat used.
c) Higher C.O.P
d) Quieter operation.

Answer is d:

145
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 Q60: One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration
effect corresponding to melting of 1000 kg of ice
(a)in 1 hour
(b)in 1 minute
(c)in 24 hours
(d)in 12 hours
(e)in 10 hours.

Answer is c:

146
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 Q61: One ton refrigeration corresponds to

(a)50 kcal/min
(b)50 kcal/kr
(c)80 kcal/min
(d)80 kcal/hr
(e)1000 kcal/day.

Answer is a:

147
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 Q62: In S.I. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

(a)210 kJ/min
(b)21 kJ/min
(c)420 kJ/min
(d)840 kJ/min
(e)105 kJ/min.

Answer is a:

148
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 Q63: The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

(a)evaporator
(b)safety relief valve
(c)dehumidifier
(d)driers
(e)expansion valve

Answer is d:

149
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 Q64: The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

(a)high sensible heat

(b)high total heat
(c)high latent heat
(d)low latent heat
(e)low sensible heat

Answer is c:

150
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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Q1: Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its
motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force

Answer is d:

4
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Q2: Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to
change of
(a)pressure
(b)flow
(c)shape
(d)volume
(e)temperature.

Answer is c:

5
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Q3: The bulk modulus of elasticity of ethyl alcohol is 1.06 × 109
Pa. For water, it is 2.15 × 109 Pa.
Which of these liquids is easier to compress?

(a) ethyl alcohol is easier to compress

(b) Water is easier to compress
(c) Compressibility not affected by Bulk modulus.

Answer is a:

9
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Q3: The space between two plates (20cm*20cm*1cm), 1 cm
apart, is filled with a liquid of viscosity 1 Poise. The upper
plate is dragged to the right with a force of 5N keeping the
lower plate stationary. What will be the velocity in m/s of
flow at a point 0.5 cm above the upper surface of the lower
plate if linear velocity profile is assumed for the flow?

a) 0.625
b) 1.25
c) 6.25
d) 0.125

Answer is c:
11
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Q39: Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between

(a) pressure, velocity and temperature

(b) shear stress and rate of shear strain
(c) shear stress and velocity
(d) rate of shear strain and temperature

Answer is b:

13
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Q3: The Density of water is 1000 kg/m3”

(a)at normal pressure of 760 mm

(b)at 4°C temperature
(c)at mean sea level
(d)all the above
(e)none of the above.

Answer is d:

14
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Q4: Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to

(a)1000 N/m3
(b)10,000 N/m3
(c)9.81 x lO3 N/m3
(d)9.81 x lO6 N/m3
(e)9.81 N/m3.

Answer is c:

15
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 Q5: Which of the following is dimensionless

(a)specific weight
(b)specific volume
(c)specific speed
(d)specific gravity
(e)specific viscosity.

Answer is d:
specific gravity is the ratio of the weight of a volume of the
substance to the weight of an equal volume of the reference
substance.
16
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Q7: Cavitation will begin when

(a)the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure

equal to the saturated vapor pressure of the liquid
(b)pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(c)flow is increased
(d)pressure is increased
(e)none of the above.

Answer is a:

18
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Q8: Practical fluids
(a)are viscous
(b)possess surface tension
(c)are compressible
(d)possess all the above properties
(e)possess none of the above properties.

Answer is d:

21
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Q9: The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer
tube is in
a) N/mm2
b) N/m2
c) head of liquid
d) all of these

Answer is c:

22
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 Q10: In a static fluid

(a) resistance to shear stress is small

(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.

Answer is d:
Fluid Statics deals with fluids at rest while Fluid Dynamics studies fluids in motion.
Fluid Statics. A fluid at rest has no shear stress
Consequently, any force developed is only due to normal stresses i.e, pressure.
Such a condition is termed the hydrostatic condition.
23
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Q11: In a piston-cylinder arrangement, as shown below, the
piston has an area of 500 mm2. What is the piston mass
(Kg) if it exerts a pressure of 50 kPa above atmospheric
pressure on the gas enclosed in the cylinder?
(Assume standard g = 9.81 m/s2.) Po A

A. 250 Kg
B. 2.5 Kg
C. 25 Kg mg
PA
D. 0.25 Kg

Answer is b:

24
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Q12: The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is
__________ the weight of the liquid displaced.

a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than

Answer is b:

26
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 Q13: The metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B
are 1 m and 1.5 m respectively. Select the correct
statement.

(a) The bodies A and B have equal stability

(b) The body A is more stable than body B
(c) The body B is more stable than body A
(d) The bodies A and B are unstable
M

Answer is c:
O O
G G

M is the metacenter C C

GM is the metacentric height

(+) GM leads to stable ship
(-)ve GM leads to unstable ship
27
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 Q14: A body floating in a liquid is said to be not in equilibrium if
its metacentre lies below its centre of gravity.

(a) True
(b) False

Answer is a:
M is the metacenter
GM is the metacentric height
(+) GM leads to stable ship
(-)ve GM leads to unstable ship
28
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Q15: A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is
called

(a) steady uniform flow

(b) steady non-uniform flow
(c) unsteady uniform flow
(d) unsteady non-uniform flow

Answer is b:

33
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Q16: The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance
is known as

(a)volumetric strain
(b)volumetric index
(c)compressibility
(d)adhesion
(e)cohesion

Answer is c:

37
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Q17: One liter of water occupies a volume of

(a) 100 cm3

(b) 250 cm3
(c) 500 cm3
(d) 1000 cm3

Answer is d:

39
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Q18: In one dimensional flow, the flow

(a) is steady and uniform

(b) takes place in straight line
(c) takes place in curve
(d) takes place in one direction

Answer is b:

40
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 Q19: A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

(a) in-compressible
(b) in-viscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) in-viscous and compressible
(e) in-viscous and incompressible.

Answer is e:
Fluid Statics deals with fluids at rest while Fluid Dynamics studies fluids in motion.
Fluid Statics. A fluid at rest has no shear stress
Consequently, any force developed is only due to normal stresses i.e, pressure.
Such a condition is termed the hydrostatic condition.
41
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 42
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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  Q1: Which of the following centrifugal pumps has
higher specific speed than the others?
a. Axial flow
b. Radial flow
c. Mixed flow
d. All have same specific speed

Answer is a:
Specific speed is Ns= [n*sqr(Q) / H^0.75 ]
Axial – Mixed – Radial
Increase Ns, the ratio of the impeller outlet D to the
inlet or eye D decreased. 7
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 Q2: Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a
motor or of an engine into _________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
c. either pressure energy or kinetic energy
d. pressure energy, kinetic energy or both

Answer is d:

8
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Q3: Which of the following is NOT a type of positive
displacement pumps?

a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. None of the above

Answer is c:

9
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 Q4: The volute pumps and vortex volute pumps are
__________ pumps with _________ shaft.

a. multistage, horizontal
b. multistage, vertical
c. single stage, horizontal
d. single stage, vertical

Answer is c:
What is volute in centrifugal pump?
The volute of a centrifugal pump is the casing that receives the fluid being pumped
by the impeller, slowing down the fluid's rate of flow. A volute is a curved funnel that
increases in area as it approaches the discharge port.
10
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Q5: The Volute is phenomena happen in …………….

a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. None of the above

Answer is c:

11
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Q6: Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary
displacement pumps?

a. Gear pump
b. Vane pump
c. Rotary piston pump
d. All of the above

Answer is d:

12
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Q7: ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.

a. Reciprocating
b. Rotary displacement
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw

Answer is c:

13
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Q7: Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is
__________ that of the centrifugal pump.

a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable

Answer is b:

14
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 Q8: Which pump is more suitable for an application
where very high pressure is required to be developed at
moderate discharge?
a. Reciprocating pump
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Turbine
d. None of the above

Answer is a:

15
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 Q9: The process of filling the liquid into the suction
pipe and pump casing upto the level of delivery valve is
called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling

Answer is c:

16
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 Q10: One horsepower is equal to
 (a) 102 watts
 (b) 75 watts
 (c) 550 watts
 (d) 735 watts
 (e) 33000 watts.

Answer is d:

17
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 Q11: Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on
 (a) impeller diameter
 (b) speed
 (c) fluid density
 (d) type of casing
 (e) both (a) and (b).

Answer is e:

18
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 Q12: Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain
 (a) high discharge
 (b) high head
 (c) pumping of viscous fluids
 (d) high head and high discharge
 (e) high efficiency.

Answer is b:

19
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 Q14: In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump
 (a) at the top
 (b) at the bottom
 (c) at the center
 (d) from sides
 (e) none of the above.

Answer is c:

20
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 Q15: Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to
minimize
 (a) friction loss
 (b) cavitation
 (c) static head
 (d) loss of kinetic energy
 (e) starting time.

Answer is d:

21
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 Q16: To select a pump you look at
 Maximum delivered pressure
 Delivered flow
 Delivered flow and pressure
 None of the above

Answer is c:

22
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 Q17: The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is
accelerated by ________
a) Throttle
b) Impeller
c) Nozzle
d) Governor

Answer is b:
Explanation: The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is
accelerated by an impeller. The fluid enters the pump along a
radially outward direction into the diffuser or a volute chamber.
23
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 Q18: Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting
_________
a) Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy
b) Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic energy

Answer is a:
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids.
They transport fluids by conversion of energies. Centrifugal
pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy.
24
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 Q19: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport ________
a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid

Answer is d:
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids.
They transport fluids by conversion of energies. Centrifugal
pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing
turbomachinery.
25
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 Q20: Which among the following control the flow rate?
a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe

Answer is a:
Explanation: Flow rate of the tank is controlled by the valve. The
actuation of individual valve closes. This corresponds to the set
of nozzle thereby controlling the actual flow rate of the fluid
passing through the valve.
26
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 Q21: Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______
a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft

Answer is a:
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to
fluid. The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer
energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.

27
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 Q22: The main function of centrifugal pumps are to
________
a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy

Answer is d:
Explanation: The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to
transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a
rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a
mechanical device. 28
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 Q23: Turbomachines work under ________
a) Newtons first law
b) Newtons second law
c) Newtons third law
d) Kepler’s law
View Answer

Answer is b:
Explanation: Turbomachines work under Newtons second law.
Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are
machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid,
including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical
device. 29
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 Q24: Centrifugal pump is a_________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Flow regulating device
c) Drafting device
d) Intercooling device

Answer is a:
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a
rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a
mechanical device.
30
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 Q25: The primary selection tool is called as _______
a) Pump curve
b) Speed curve
c) Power curve
d) Fluid curve

Answer is a:
Explanation: The primary selection tool is called as pump curve.
It plays an essential role in determining efficiency.

31
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 Q26: Which of the following is taken into account during a
characteristic curve?
a) Flow rate
b) Cavitation
c) Tolerances
d) Casing

Answer is a:
Explanation: Flow rate is an important parameter that is taken
into account for a characteristic curve. These curves play an
important role in determining the efficiency of a centrifugal
pump.
32
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 Q27: In hydraulic head, NPSH is used for the analysis of
__________
a) Adiabatic expansion
b) Priming
c) Wear
d) Cavitation

Answer is d:
Answer: d
Explanation: In hydraulic head, net positive circuit is used for the
analysis of cavitation. It determines the cavitation present in the
centrifugal pump by different methods.
33
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 Q28: NPSH is the difference between _______
a) Suction pressure and vapour pressure
b) Vapour pressure and suction pressure
c) Suction pressure and heat
d) Shaft and head

Answer is a:
Explanation: NPSH is defined as the difference suction pressure
and vapour pressure. It is called as the net positive suction
head.

34
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 Q29: What is the full form of NPSH in a pump?
a) Net pressure suction head
b) Net positive suction head
c) Non-pressure suction head
d) Net pressure super head

Answer is b:
Explanation: The full form of NPSH is Net positive suction head.
The head added by the pump is a sum of static lift. Thus,
corresponds to the efficient working of the pump. Higher the
NPSH, more efficient the pump is.
35
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 Q30: Reciprocating pump is a ________
a) Negative displacement pump
b) Positive displacement pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Emulsion pump

Answer is b:
Explanation: Reciprocation pump is a type of positive
displacement pump. It has a piston pump, plunger and
diaphragm. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that
they are not left untouched.
36
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 Q31: Reciprocating pumps are classified according to
___________
a) Drag force
b) Number of cylinders
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed

Answer is b:
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps are classified according to
the number of cylinders. And also it classified according to the
number of piston sides.

37
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 Q32: Rotary pumps are commonly used to
circulate________
a) Lube oils
b) Petroleum
c) Diesel
d) Water

Answer is a:
Explanation: There are no valves required for a rotary pump. A
rotary pump is the one in which the flow is continuous. Since,
the flow is continuous, it circulates lube oils in different
turbomachinery.
38
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 Q33: What is the full form of PD?
a) Positive displacement
b) Pump displacement
c) Plunger displacement
d) Plunger direct

Answer is a:
Explanation: PD stands for positive displacement pump.
Reciprocating pump is a positive displacement.

39
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 Q34: With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency ______
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent

Answer is b:
Explanation: With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency
increases. The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It
is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to determine the
efficiency of the pump.
40
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 Q35: The difference in the total head of the pump is called
_______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head

Answer is a:
Explanation: The difference in the total head of the pump is
called manometric head. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a
rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors.
41
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 Q36: What is the unit of energy head?
a) m
b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) /s

Answer is a:
Explanation: The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head
is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the
efficiency of the pump.

42
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 Q37: PHE stands for __________
a) Pump Hydraulic efficiency
b) Pressure Hydraulic efficiency
c) Power Hydraulic efficiency
d) Pump hydraulic engine

Answer is a:
Explanation: PHE stands for Pump hydraulic efficiency.
Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport
fluids by conversion of energies.

43
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 Q38: With increase in power, the efficiency_________
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent

Answer is a:
Explanation: With the increase in the input power, efficiency
decreases. As the input power is inversely proportional to the
efficiency of the pump.

44
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 Energy Equation
 Bernoulli Equation

 Steady – incompressible – inviscid

 Energy Equation

 Steady – incompressible – viscous + pump-Turbine-

Losses
45
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 Q38: A horizontal pipe carries 30 cfs of water. At A the
diameter is 18 in. and the pressure is 10 psi. At B the
diameter is 36 in. and the pressure is 10.9 psi. Determine the
head lost between the two points.
a) 2.12
b) 2.21
c) 1.21
d) 1.12

Answer is a:

46
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Q39: A pump draws water (50°F) from a reservoir, where the water-surface elevation
is 520 ft, and forces the water through a pipe 5000 ft long and 1 ft in diameter. This pipe
then discharges the water into a reservoir with water-surface elevation of 620 ft. The
flow rate is 7.85 cfs, and the head loss in the pipe is given by

Determine the head supplied by the pump, hp, γ = 62.4 lbf/ft3, g = 32.2 ft/sec2.

47
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Q39:

a. 78 ft
b. 178 ft
c. 278 ft
d. 378 ft

Answer is b:

48
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Q39: A pump as shown in figure takes water from a 200 mm suction pipe and delivers
it to a 150 mm discharge pipe in which the velocity is 2.5 m/s. At A in the suction pipe,
the pressure is -40 kPa. At B in the discharge pipe, which is 2.5 m above A, the
pressure is 410 kPa. What horsepower would have to be applied by the pump if there
were no frictional losses? (Power= γ Q H)
a) 30.46
b) 28.23
c) 26.77
d) 25.05

Answer is b:

49
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  The Pump head:

 Then the Pump power

 The Efficiency:

50
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Q40: The pump Efficiency is
900 W 648 W
1200 W
a. 70% Motor Pump Fluid
b. 72%
c. 75%
d. 78%

Answer is b:

51
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 Q41: What is the dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?
a) kg/m
b) N/mm
c) kg
d) Dimensionless

Answer is d:
Explanation: Darcy’s friction factor is dimensionless. It is one of
the major applications in Fluid dynamics. The energy usage in
pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.
Thus, it is dimensionless.
54
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 Q41: Water at 25°C is flowing through a 1.0 km long G.I.
pipe of 200 mm diameter at the rate of 0.07 m3/s. If value of
Darcy friction factor for this pipe is 0.02 and density of water
is 1000 kg/m3, the pumping power (in kW) required to
maintain the flow is
 1.8
 17.4
 20.5
 41.0

Answer is b:

55
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 Q41: A smooth pipe of diameter 200 mm carries water. The
pressure in the pipe at section S1 (elevation: 10 m) is 50kPa.
At Section S2 (elevation: 12 m) the pressure is 20 kPa and
velocity is 2 ms-1. Density of water is 1000 kgm-
3 and acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 ms-2. Which of the

following is TRUE?
 flow from S1 to S2 and head loss is 0.53 m
 flow from S2 to S1 and head loss is 0.53 m
 flow from S1 to S2 and head loss is 1.06 m
 flow from S2 to S1 and head loss is 1.06 m
Answer is c:

56
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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 4
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 Question 26
26.Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41

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 Answer Question 26
 Ans: c >> 1

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 Question 28
28.The behavior of gases can be fully
determined by
(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws

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 Answer Question 28

 Ans: d
4 laws

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 Question 29
29.The ratio of two specific heats of air
is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.

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 Answer Question 29
Ans: d
1.41

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 Question 30
30.Boyle's law i.e. PV = constant is
applicable to gases under
(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.

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 Answer Question 30

 Ans: b, only small range of

pressures

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 Question 31
31.Which law states that the internal energy of a
gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles' law
(b) Joule's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Boyle's law
(e) there is no such law.

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 Answer Question 31

 Ans: b, Joule's law

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 Question 32
32.The same volume of all gases would
represent their
(a)densities
(b)specific weights
(c)molecular weights
(d)gas characteristic constants
(e)specific gravities.

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 Answer Question 32
 Ans: c, molecular weights

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 Question 34

34.An open system is one in which

(a)mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b)neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c)both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d)mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e)thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

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 Answer Question 34
 Ans: c
 both energy and mass cross the, boundaries
of the system

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 Question 35
 35.According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume
by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in
temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule's law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) GayLussac law
(e) Charles' law.

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 Answer Question 35
 Ans: e, Charles' law

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 Question 36
36.Gases have
(a)only one value of specific heat
(b)two values of specific heat
(c)three values of specific heat
(d)no value of specific heat
(e)under some conditions one value and sometimes two values
of specific heat.

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 Answer Question 36

 Ans: b, two values of specific heat

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 Question 37
37. According to Avogadro's Hypothesis
(a)the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume
under same conditions of pressure and temperature
(b)the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
(c)product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is
constant
(d)gases have two values of specific heat
(e)all systems can be regarded as closed systems.

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 Answer Question 37
 Ans: a
 the molecular weights of all the perfect
gases occupy the same volume under same
conditions of pressure and temperature

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 Question 39
39.Work done in a free expansion process is
(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.

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 Answer Question 39

 Ans: c,zero

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 Question 40
40.The statement that molecular weights of all gases
occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule's law.

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 Answer Question 40
 Ans: a, Avogadro's hypothesis

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 Question 41
 41.To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis,
the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.

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 Answer Question 41

 Ans: b, multiplied by its molecular weight

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 Question 42
42.If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume
constant, then work done will be equal to
(a)+ v
(b) ve
(c)zero
(d)pressure x volume
(e)any where between zero and infinity.

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 Answer Question 42

 Ans: c, zero

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 Question 43
43. An isolated system is one in which
(a)mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may
do so
(b)neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c)both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d)mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e)thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

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 Answer Question 43

 Ans: b
 neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

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 Question 44
44.Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and
density, in thermodynamic coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions

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 Answer Question 44

 Ans: b, point functions

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 Question 45
45.Which of the following quantities is not the
property of the system
(a)pressure
(b)temperature
(c)specific volume
(d)heat
(e)density.

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 Answer Question 45
 Ans: d, heat

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 Question 46
46.According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure
and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.

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 Answer Question 46

 Ans: e, occupies same volume.

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 Homogeneous, Hetrogeneous systems

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 Question 47
47.Mixture of ice and water form a
(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.

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 Answer Question 47

 Ans: d, heterogeneous system

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 Question 48
48. Which of the following is the property of a
system
(a) pressure and temperature
(b) internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.

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 Answer Question 48

 Ans: e, all of the above.

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 Question 49
49.On weight basis, air contains following
parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.

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 Answer Question 49

 Ans: b, 23

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 Question 50
50.Which of the following is not the intensive
property
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.

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 Answer Question 50
 Ans: d, heat

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 Question 51
51.For which of the following substances, the internal energy
and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.

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 Answer Question 51
 Ans: d, perfect gas

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 Question 52
52.In a free expansion process
(a)work done is zero
(b)heat transfer is zero
(c)both (a) and (b) above
(d)work done is zero but heat increases
(e)work done is zero but heat decreases.

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 Answer Question 52
 Ans: c, both (a) and (b) above

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 Question 53
53.If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute
aperture, then such a process is known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.

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 Answer Question 53
 Ans: e, throttling.

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 Question 54
54.The specific heat of air increases with increase in
(a)temperature
(b)pressure
(c)both pressure and temperature
(d)variation of its constituents
(e)air flow

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 Answer Question 54

 Ans: a, temperature

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 Question 55
55.If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large
dimension, then such a process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.

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 Answer Question 55

 Ans: a >> free expansion

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 Question 56
56.Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible
(a)throttling
(b)free expansion
(c)constant volume and constant pressure
(d)hyperbolic and pV = C
(e)isothermal and adiabatic.

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 Answer Question 56
 Ans: e, isothermal and adiabatic.

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 Question 57
57.Which of the following processes is irreversible process
(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 57

 Ans: c >> throttling

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 Question 58
58.In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied
(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process
should not be encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working
substance should be same
(c) when heat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working
substance should be same
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

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 Answer Question 58

 Ans: d, all of the above

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 Question 59
59.For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature
difference between hot body and working substance should be
 (a) zero
 (b) minimum
 (d) maximum
 (d) infinity
 (e) there is no such criterion.

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 Answer Question 59

 Ans: a >> zero

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 Question 60
60.Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic
index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.

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 Answer Question 60
 Ans: b >> 1

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 Question 61
61.Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.

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 Answer Question 61

 Ans: a >> 4.17m3/kgmol

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 Question 62
62.A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a
volume one half its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat
left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on
gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.

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 Answer Question 62

 Ans: b >> 300,000 Nm

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 Question 63
63.The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to
(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.

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 Answer Question 63

 Ans: d >>decrease lower temperature

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 Question 64
64.Entropy change depends on
(a)heat transfer
(b)mass transfer
(c)change of temperature
(d)thermodynamic state
(e)change of pressure and volume.

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 Answer Question 64

 Ans: a >> heat transfer

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 Question 65
65.For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.

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 Answer Question 65

 Ans: c >> zero

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 Question 66
66. Isochoric process is one in which
(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.

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 Answer Question 66
 Ans: c >> no mechanical work is done by
the system

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 Question 67
67. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain
constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.

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 Answer Question 67

 Ans: d
total energy of a system remains constant

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 Question 68
68.Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted
from one form to other is inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.

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 Answer Question 68

 Ans: b
first law of thermodynamics

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 Question 69
69.First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.

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 Answer Question 69

 Ans: b
heat, work and properties of the system

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 Question 70
70.Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if
the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.

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 Answer Question 70
 Ans: a >> pressure

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 Question 71
71.In an isothermal process, the internal energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.

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 Answer Question 71

 Ans: c >> remains constant

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 Question 72
72. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat
transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.

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 Answer Question 72

 Ans: c >> volume

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 Question 73
73. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.

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 Answer Question 73

 Ans: c
heat and work are mutually convertible.

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 Question 74
74.Total heat of a substance is also known as
(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.

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 Answer Question 74

 Ans: d >> enthalpy

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 Question 75
First law of thermodynamics
(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a
change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.

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 Answer Question 75

 Ans: e >> all of the above.

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 Carnot Cycle
•

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 Question 76
76. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
(a)constant pressure
(b)constant volume
(c)constant temperature
(d)constant enthalpy
(e)any one of the above.

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 Answer Question 76
Ans: c >> constant temperature

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 Question 77
77. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1.All reversible cycles have the same efficiency.
2.The reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one.
3.Carnot cycle is a reversible one
4.Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency in all cycles.

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 Answer Question 76
Ans: A >>

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 120
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 121
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 122
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1. Which of the following is not a method of
heat transfer?

A. Radiation
B. Insulation
C. Conduction
D. Convection
B

Question 1
Transmission of heat by molecular collision is
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Scattering
E. Transmission

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 Answer Question 1
 Ans: A >> Conduction

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 Question 2
 2. Metals are good conductors of heat because
A. They contain free electrons
B. Their atoms are relatively far apart
C. Their atoms collide frequently
D. They have reflecting surfaces
E. None of the above

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 Answer Question 2
 Ans: A >> They contain free electrons

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 Question 3
Heat is shown to be closely related to
A. A fluid
B. Energy
C. Momentum
D. Temperature
E. Waveform

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 Answer Question 3

 Ans: D >> Temperature

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 Question 4
Body A is kept in contact with body B. Heat will flow
from A to B, if
A. The heat content of A is greater than that of B
B. The temperature of A is greater than that of B
C. The specific heat of A is greater than that of B
D. The specific heat of A is lower than that of B
E. None of the above

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 Answer Question 4

 Ans: B >> The temperature of A is greater

than that of B

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 Question 5

Cork is a good insulator because

A. Its density is low
B. It is porous
C. It can be powdered
D. It can be cast into rolls
E. It is flexible

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 Answer Question 5

 Ans: B >> It is porous

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 Question 6
Which one of the following cannot be unit of
thermal conductivity?
A. Watt / m2 K
B. Kcal/m-hr.C
C. BTU/ft-h.F
D. cal/c,-sec?K
E. CHU/ft-hr.C

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 Answer Question 6

 Ans: A >> Watt / m2 K

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 Question 7
Which one of the following will have least value of
thermal conductivity?
A. Copper
B. Silver
C. Glass
D. Water
E. Air

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 Answer Question 7

 Ans: E >> Air

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 Question 8
Which one of the following materials will have highest value of
thermal conductivity?
A. Steel
B. Aluminium
C. Brass
D. Copper
E. Lead

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 Answer Question 8

 Ans: D >> copper

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 Question 9
Heat conduction does not occur
A. If a physical body is impermeable to any kind of rays
B. If the parts of a body are not in motion relative to one another
C. If the bodies are kept in vacuum
D. If the bodies are immersed in water
E. If the temperature difference between the bodies does not exist

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 Answer Question 9

 Ans: E
If the temperature difference between the
bodies does not exist

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 Question 11
Heat is transferred by conduction, convection and
radiation in
 A. Insulated pipes carrying hot water
 B. Refrigerator freezer coils
 C. Melting of ice
 D. Boiler furnaces
 E. Condensation of steam in a condenser

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 Answer Question 11

 Ans: D >> Boiler furnaces

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 Question 12
Transient heat flow occurs in
A. Electric conductors carrying current
B. Insulated pipes carrying superheated steam
C. Cooling of casting
D. Heating and cooling of buildings due to sun
E. Melting of ice

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 Answer Question 12

 Ans: D.
Heating and cooling of buildings due to
sun

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 Question 13
Molecular transmission of heat is smallest in
case of
A. Gases
B. Liquids
C. Liquids with impurities
D. Solids
E. Alloys

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 Answer Question 13

 Ans: A >> Gases

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 Question 14
Essential requirement for the transfer of heat from one
body to another is
A. Both bodies must be solids
B. Both bodies must be in contact
C. Temperatures of the two bodies must be different
D. One of the bodies must have internal source of heat generation
E. All of the above

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 Answer Question 14

 Ans: C.
Temperatures of the two bodies must be
different

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 Question 15

40 C is equivalent to
 A. 172 R
 B. 273 K
 C. 500 R
 D. 104 F

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 Answer Question 15

 Ans: D >> 104 F

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 Question 16
The temperature inside a furnace is generally measured
by
A. Mercury thermometer
B. Alcohol thermometer
C. Gas thermometer
D. Optical pyrometer
E. Any of the above

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 Answer Question 16

 Ans: D >>Optical pyrometer

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 Question 17
The rate of heat flow from a 50 mm thick wall of material having thermal
conductivity of 40 W/m.C for a temperature difference of 10 oC will be
A. 80 W/m2 – hr
B. 800 W/m2 – hr
C. 8000 W/m2 – hr
D. 200 W/m2 – hr
E. 2000 W/m2 - hr

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 Answer Question 17

 Ans: C
 8000 W/m2 – hr

Heat Flow/unit area = [40*1*(10/.05)]

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 Question 18
Pipes are insulated so that
A. They may not break under pressure
B. There is minimum corrosion
C. They can withstand higher fluid pressures
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
E. Vibrations resulting from fluid flow are minimized

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 Answer Question 18

 Ans: D
Heat loss from the surface is minimized

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 Question 19
All heat transfer processes
A. Involve transfer of energy
B .Involve temperature difference between the bodies
C. Obey first law of thermodynamics
D. Obey second law of thermodynamics
E. Obey Newton's law

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 Answer Question 19

 Ans: B
Involve temperature difference between
the bodies

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 Question 20
Steady state heat transfer occurs when
A. The flow of heat is negligible
B. The flow of heat is uniform
C. The flow of heat is independent of time
D. The flow of heat is uniformly increasing
E. The flow of heat is uniformly decreasing

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 Answer Question 20

 Ans: C.
The flow of heat is independent of time

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 Question 21
There metal walls of same cross-sectional area having thermal
conductivity in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4 transfer heat at the rate of 15000
kcal/hr. For same thickness of wall, the temperature drop will be in
the ratio
A.1 ; 2 ; 4
B.4 ; 2 ; 1
C.1 :
E.1 ; 1 ; 1

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 Answer Question 21

 Ans:
4:2:1

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 Question 22
Thermal diffusivity is
A. A mathematical formula only
B. A physical property of the material
C. A configuration for heat conduction
D. A dimensionless parameter
E. A function of temperature

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 Answer Question 22

 Ans: B
A physical property of the material

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 Question 23
 The unit of thermal diffusivity is
A. m/hr
B. m2/hr
C. m/hr.C
D. m2/hr.C
E. kcal/m2-hr

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 Answer Question 23

 Ans: B, m2/hr

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 Question 24

Non-isotropic conductivity is exhibited in case of

A.Brass
B.Steel
C.Copper
D.Lead
E.Wood

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 Answer Question 24

 Ans: E, Wood

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 Question 25
For glass wool the thermal conductivity varies from sample to
sample because of variations in
A. Structure
B. Composition
C. Density
D. Porosity
E. All of the above

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 Answer Question 25

 Ans: E >>All of the above

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 Q26: Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Dew point temperature is the saturation temperature

corresponding to the partial pressure of the water vapour
in moist air.
b) Dew point temperature can be measured with the help
of thermometer.
c) Dew point temperature is the same as the
thermodynamic wet bulb temperature.
d) For saturated air, dew point temperature is less than the
web bulb temperature.

Answer is a:

111
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 Q27: Relative humidity is

a) It denotes the amount of water vapour actually present

in air as a percentage of maximum amount that could be
present at that particular temperature.
b) It represents the ratio of mass of water vapour to the
mass of dry air in a given volume of air water vapour
mixture.
c) It is the mass of water vapour per unit volume of air
water vapour mixture.
d) None of these.
Answer is a:

112
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 Q28: In a psychrometric chart what does the vertical lines
parallel to the ordinate indicates

a) Wet bulb temperature.

b) Specific humidity.
c) Dew point temperature.
d) Dry bulb temperature.

Answer is d:

113
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 Q29: …………………… can be measured by a sling
psychrometer.

a)Absolute humidity.
b) Dry bulb as well as wet bulb temperatures.
c) Specific humidity.
d) Wet bulb temperature.

Answer is b:

114
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 Q30: What does the curved lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates?

a) Dew point temperature.

b) Relative humidity.
c) Specific humidity.
d) Dry bulb temperature.

Answer is b:

115
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 Q31: Which of the following decreases during sensible
cooling of air?

a) Specific humidity.
b) Wet bulb temperature.
c) Dry bulb temperature.
d) None of these.

Answer is c:

116
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 Q32: Dew point temperature is constant as long as there is
no change in

a) Volume of air.
b) Relative and specific humidity of air.
c) Moisture content of air.
d) WBT and DBT.

Answer is c:

117
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 Q33: Sensible heat factor is given by

a) (LH – SH)/SH
b) (LH + SH)/SH
c) SH/(LH - SH)
d) SH/(LH + SH)

Answer is d:

118
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 Q34: Which part stop spark & fire inside duct

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Volume damper

Answer is c:

119
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 Q35: device installed between the air handler and the duct
supply /Return is called

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Volume damper

Answer is a:

120
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 Q36: The device to be installed in between fire rated walls
is:

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Volume damper

Answer is c:

121
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 Q37: Which membrane can be fixed vertically or
horizontally between fire rated walls which control the
spread of the smoke

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Smoke damper
(e) c&d

Answer is e:

122
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 Q38: Prevent the spread of smoke inside the ducts and fire
resistance rating from room to room:

(a) Control damper

(b) Splitter damper
(c) Fire damper
(d) Volume damper

Answer is c:

123
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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Q20: An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following

(a)Newton’s law of motion

(b)Newton’s law of viscosity
(c)Pascal’ law
(d)Continuity equation
(e)Boundary layer theory.

Answer is d:

4
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 5
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Q21: The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that

a) there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing

b) the velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-section of
the pipe
c) no force except gravity acts on the fluid
d) all of the above

Answer is d:

7
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Q22: Flow in a 6 inch diameter pipe is stagnated at the head of
a very fine bore tube as shown in the figure below. The
water rises to a level 12 inches above the pipe another
pressure tap in the side-wall of the pipe records a water
column 2 inches high. The flow rate in the pipe is most
nearly

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer is :
9
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 Q22: A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below
figure. The distance of its centre of pressure from the water
surface is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer is b:
10
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Q23: The ratio of the inertia force to the gravity force is called

(a) Reynolds number

(b) Mach number
(c) Froude number
(d) Weber's number

Answer is c:

14
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Q24: A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the
viscosity is called turbulent flow.

(a) elastic
(b) surface tension
(c) viscous
(d) inertia

Answer is d:

15
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Q25: If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a
substance is known as

(a)fluid
(b)water
(c)gas
(d)perfect solid
(e)ideal fluid.

Answer is e:

17
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Q27: Density of water is maximum at

(a)0°C
(b)0°K
(c)4°C
(d)100°C
(e)20°C.

Answer is c:

18
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Q28: The volume per unit mass of a liquid is called specific
volume.

(a)True
(b)False

Answer is a:

19
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Q29: Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are
attracted is called

(a)adhesion
b)cohesion
(c)viscosity
(d)compressibility
(e)surface tension.

Answer is b:

22
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Q30: Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of
liquid known as

(a)adhesion
(b)cohesion
(c)surface tension
(d)viscosity
(e)compressibility

Answer is c:

23
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Q31: Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of
fluids are attracted to each other is called

(a)adhesion
(b)cohesion
(c)viscosity
(d)compressibility
(e)surface tension.

Answer is a:

24
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Q6: The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the
following property

(a)cohesion
(b)adhesion
(c)viscosity
(d)surface tension
(e)elasticity.

Answer is d:

25
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Q32: When the flow parameters at any given instant remain
same at every point, then flow is said to be

(a)quasi static
(b)steady state
(c)laminar
(d)uniform
(e)static.

Answer is d:

26
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Q33: The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all
directions at a point only if

(a)it is incompressible
(b)it has uniform viscosity
(c)it has zero viscosity
(d)it is frictionless
(e)it is at rest.

Answer is e:

27
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Q34: The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all
the directions when the fluid is

(a)moving
(b)viscous
(c)viscous and static
(d) in-viscous and moving
(e)viscous and moving.

Answer is e:

28
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Q36: The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature
compared to that of water is

(a)more
(b)less
(c)same
(d)more or less depending on size of glass tube
(e)none of the above.

Answer is a:

29
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Q37: A perfect gas

(a)has constant viscosity

(b)has zero viscosity
(c)is incompressible
(d)is of theoretical interest
(e)none of the above.

Answer is e:

30
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Q40: The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero
pressure can be attained at

(a) a temperature of - 273.16°C

(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can't be attained.

Answer is a:

31
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Q41: Intensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume

(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like
temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.

Answer is b:

32
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Q42: One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is
equal to

(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.

Answer is b:

33
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Q43: Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.

Answer is e:

34
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Q44: Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.

Answer is e:

35
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Q45: The sensitivity of reading of manometer can be increased
by :
(a) inclining the manometer rube
(b) using low specific gravity fluid
(c) application of optical magnification
(d) use of level sensing device
(e) all of the above.

Answer is a:

36
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Q46: Which of the following device is used as a standard for
calibrating pressure gauges :

(a) manometer
(b) diaphragm
(c) bellows
(d) dead weight pressure tester
(e) piezoelectric crystal.

Answer is d:

37
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Q47: Local velocity is measured by a :

(a) pitot tube

(b) venturi tube
(c) orifice plate
(d) vena contracta device
(e) nozzle.

Answer is a:

38
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Figure shows the schematic for the measurement of velocity of air
(density = 1.2kg /m3 ) through a constant–area duct using a pitot
tube and a water-tube manometer. The differential head of water
(density = 1000 kg /m3) in the two columns of the manometer is
10mm. Take acceleration due to gravity as 9.8m/s2. The velocity
of air in m/s is
Use formula: 𝑚

𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤

a) 6.4
b) 9.0
c) 12.8
d) 25.6

41
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Q48: Laser Doppler Anemometer is used to measure :

(a) pressure
(b) velocity
(c) level
(d) density
(e) temperature.

Answer is b:

42
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Q49: According to equation of continuity :

a) w1a1 = w2a2
b) w1v1 = w2v2
c) a1v1 = a2v2
d) a1/v1 = a2/v2

Answer is c:

43
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Q50: The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known
as:

a) suction pressure
b) vacuum pressure
c) negative gauge pressure
d) all of these

Answer is d:

44
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 46
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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 Project Framework Management Questions

Q 1: Which of the following is not the feature of a

project?
1. Constrained by limited resources
2. Planned, executed and controlled
3. Creates unique product or service
4. May be ongoing and repetitive
https://pmstudycircle.com/2014/01/critical-path-method-
cpm-in-project-management/
important website example should be understood

Answer 4:
A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique
product, services or result. Temporary means that every project
has definite beginning and definite end.
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 Q2: Project Managers have least power in which
organization structure?
1. Matrix
2. Functional
3. Projectized
4. Balanced

Answer 2:
In classic functional organization each employee has one clear
superior. Staff members are grouped by specialty such as
production, marketing, engineering. Functional organizations still
have projects but the perceived scope of the project is limited
to the boundaries of the function.
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Q1: Since you are in the preliminary stages of your project,
you estimate that your project will most probably last 1
year. However, optimistic scenario is that it will get
over within 6 months and pessimistic scenario is 18
months. This kind of estimate is also called:
1. Defensive
2. Capital Cost
3. Order of Magnitude
4. Feasibility
Answer is 3:
The classes of estimates their accuracy % are as follows:
• Rough Order or Magnitude (ROM) (-50% to +100%)
• Order of Magnitude (-25% to +75%)
• Budgetary (-10% to +25%)
• Definitive (-05% to +10%)
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Q2: The difference of a milestone chart as compared
with a bar chart when making presentation to top
management is that unlike bar charts, milestones:
1. Show activity start and end dates.
2. Show dependencies among tasks.
3. Only identify the scheduled start or completion of a
major deliverables, and not all the tasks.
4. Show supporting details.

Answer is 3:
Milestones charts as shown are similar to bar charts, but only
identify the scheduled start or completion of major
deliverables and key external interfaces.

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Q3: In schedule development, mathematical analysis
often produces a preliminary early-start schedule
that shows peaks and valleys in the resource
requirements. Resource Leveling done to take care of
this issue may result in all the following except:
1. Increase in project duration
2. Utilization of weekends, extended hours or multiple shifts
3. Productivity increases by using different technologies
and/or methodologies.
4. Reduction in project cost
Answer is 4:
As different techniques like crashing, fast tracking, resource
reallocating etc. are being considered for Resource Leveling,
there is a real potential for the costs to increase.
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Q4: Float is the amount of time an activity can be
delayed without delaying the project finish date. It
can also be called:
1. Slack
2. Free Float
3. Path Float
4. None of the above

Answer is 1:
Float : also called Slack.

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Q5: You got news that because of bad weather, your
shipment has got delayed by 2 weeks. What should
be the first step that you take.
1. Fast Track the project to ensure that the project schedule is
not delayed.
2. Review the performance reports to determine which planned
dates have not been met, and the impact on critical path.
3. Try to get additional supplies from an alternative location as
soon as possible.
4. Take corrective action to minimize the impact because of the
delay.
Answer is 2:
Performance report provide information on schedule performance, such as
which planned dates have been met and which have not. Since performance
reports are used to track project execution, they should be consulted first
when there is delay in the project to determine the potential impacts.
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Q6: If the number of critical path in the project
increases, but the duration of the project remains
same, what is the impact on the project?
1. Crashing will be required to complete project on time.
2. Fast tracking will be required to complete project on
time.
3. Risk of the project increases.
4. None of the above.

Answer is 3:
If the number of critical paths increases for the project, delay in
any one of the critical paths has the potential for delaying the
project. So, the risk of the project (in meeting the project schedule)
increases.
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Q7: All the following are benefits of fast tracking a
project EXCEPT.

1. Facilities Duration Compression

2. Reduces Risk
3. Ensure activities are done in parallel which would
be done in sequence
4. Helps shorten the project schedule without
changing the project scope

Answer is 2:
Fast Tracking can result in rework and increased risk.
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Q8: Find the total float of activity D for the project
A. 1
B. 3
C. 9
D. 2

A (12) END
E (9)
START H (6)

F (12)

Answer is :
Forward pass determines ES & EF and backward pass
determines LS & LF.
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Q9: Activity on arrow diagram is shown below. Find the
duration of the project
A. 32 Days
B. 35 days
C. 26 Days
D. 40 Days
START
A (12) E (9)
H (6)
END

F (12)

Answer is :
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Q10: The forward pass in project network calculations
determines the

A. A earliest times an activity can begin

B. Earliest times an activity can be finished
C. The longest time that the project can take
D. Critical path of the project
E. Only A&B are correct
F. A,B and C are all correct

Answer is E:
Forward pass determines ES & EF and backward pass
determines LS & LF.
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Q11: TQM stands for:
A. Tool Quality Management
B. Test Quality Manager
C. Total Quality Management
D. Total Quality Manager

Answer is C:

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Q12: All of the followings are true about work
packages except:

A. Need resources to complete

B. Assigned a task or work package manager
C. Have medium to long duration for each activity
D. Definitive start and stop dates
E. All of the above are true

Answer is C

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Q13: If specification is in conflict with a note on the
drawings, which statement is correct?

A. Details take precedence over notes

B. Details take precedence over drawings
C. Specifications take precedence over drawings
D. Drawing notes take precedence over
specifications

Answer is C

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Q14: The advantages of design and build contractual
arrangement is

A. A reduced project duration

B. Known project cost before construction
C. Non adversary relationships among participants
D. All of the above

Answer is D

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Q15: Ashgal is

A. The Ministry of Public Works

B. The Ministry of Justice
C. The Ministry of Electricity and water
D. The Ministry of municipality and planning
E. None of the above

Answer is A

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Q16: While working on the final stages of job, you
notice that a small clause of contract has been
violated accidentally. What should you do?
A. Tell the client about the discrepancy and ask
him/her/them what to do
B. Look for a loophole in the contract that would
enable you to avoid re-doing the work
C. Don’t worry about it; let your boss or client to
worry about it later. If it is important, they will
address the subject
D. Fire the person who caused the contract
violation
Answer is A
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Q17: The following table shows the activities, durations, and their
dependency for a construction project. Select the critical path
from the following
Activity Duration Dependency A. Start-A-E-H-Finish
Start 0 None B. Start-C-E-H-Finish
A 3 Start C. Start-B-D-I- Finish
B 4 Start D. Start-B-D-G-finish

C 2 Start
D 2 B
E 5 A,C
F 1 B
G 6 D,F
H 11 E
I 8 D,F
Answer is A
Finish 0 G,H,I

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Q18: Variance from project specifications is called
A. Report
B. Requirement
C. Defect

Answer is C

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Q19: Splitting project to tasks and estimate time and
resources required to complete each task is called

A. Project scheduling
B. Project
Optimization
C. Project Control

Answer is A

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Q20: which one of the engineering characteristics can
best explain the following concept? Base your
decision on reason rather than making assumptions

A. Quantitative
thinking
B. Interpersonal skill
C. Honesty
D. Logical thinking

Answer is D

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Q21: Inspections are also called
A. A product review
B. Audits
C. Walkthroughs
D. Al answers are true

Answer is D

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Q22: Which one of the following represent an activity

A. Concreting for foundation

B. Curing of concrete
C. Setting up question paper
D. All answers are true

Answer is D

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Q23: In the activity on arrow network with durations
shown, based on end of day calculations for starts
and finishes. The early start of activity N is most
nearly
D (8)
A. 16
B. 21
C. 23 START
B (6) F (4) J (8) L (3) N (2)
D. 24

H (7)

Answer is

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Q24: Before development of any site, construction
companies work on site set up to ensure

A. Accessibility (during construction and after)

and storage (construction equipment &
materials)
B. Services (water, electricity, drainage)
C. Safety and security during construction
D. Statutory requirements
E. All the above

Answer is E

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Q25: which of the estimate listed would occur last in a
project time line?
A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Square foot estimate
C. Definitive estimate
D. Assemblies estimate

Answer is D

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Q28: Correct the following statements

A. PERT is activity oriented and adopts

deterministic approach
B. CPM is event oriented and adopts probabilistic
approach
C. PERT is event oriented and adopts probabilistic
approach
Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer is C

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Q29: Both architect and engineer make use of the cost
estimate of the project
A. For site selection
B. For designing of the project
C. For choosing alternatives
D. All answers are true

Answer is C

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Q30: The first step of scope definition is to:

A. Analyze the strategic plan

B. Analyze the current budget plan
C. Meet with team members
D. Select the team members
E. Define the major objectives to meet the
customer needs

Answer is E

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Q31: The sustainable development involves:

A. Reducing consumption, increasing efficiency and

using renewable energies
B. Larger buildings using stronger design and
materials
C. Developing better transportation by building
more roads Analyze the strategic plan
D. Using all resources at maximum rates
E. Searching for more deposits of fossil fuels

Answer is A

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Q32: Following successor relationships are available for
a project. Find the early start of activity E?

Activity Duration Successors

ID (Days)
A 6 B
B 12 C,D,E
C 6 D,F
D 12 E
E 11 F
F 4 B

Answer is
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Q33: Construction work should begin:

A. One week before the official permission from

local authority
B. After the official permission from the local
authority
C. One day before the official permission from
local authority

Answer is B
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Q34: What type of bond guarantees that if a
contractor goes broke on a project, the surety will
pay the necessary amount to complete the work

A. Bid Bond
B. Performance Bond
C. Advance payment guarantee Bond
D. Payment bond
E. Acceptance Bond

Answer is B
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Q35: A formal CPM analysis for a projects shows the
planned costs to date are $85,000 and the
accounting department reports charges to the job
of $95,000 to date is $70,000, the cost and
schedule status of the project are most nearly:
A. Ahead of schedule and over budget
B. Behind schedule and over budget
C. Ahead of schedule and under budget
D. Behind schedule and under budget

Answer is
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Q36: The process of identifying and evaluating
contractors for a bid list is called

A. Prequalification
B. Forecasting
C. Fast tracking
D. None of the above

Answer is A
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Q37: During which of the following categories, you are
more likely to find status reports, many changes,
and the creation of forecasts?
A. Concept
B. Initiation
C. Planning
D. Execution
E. Closure

Answer is D
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Q38: The highest element in the hierarchical break
down of the WBS is

A. Work package
B. Sub deliverables
C. Cost account
D. Major deliverables
E. The project

Answer is D
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Q39: Which of the following is least bothered as a
constraint to the project?

A. Time
B. People
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Both B & D are not typical constraints

Answer is E
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Q40: Which of the following would not be classified as
an opportunity to do a project?

A. Increasing product demand

B. Lot of employees
C. Emerging markets
D. Favorable international exchange rates
E. None of these are organizational opportunities

Answer is B
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Q41: The term fast track means -----

A. Design/Build
B. Construction starts before the design is
complete
C. Cost plus fixed fee
D. None of the above

Answer is B
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Q42: Which of the following requires a change order?

A. Change in Owner’s scope of work

B. Significant change in sub surface conditions
C. Design Error or omission
D. All of the above

Answer is D
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Q43: Final as-built drawings are submitted to ------

A. Give the architect more work

B. Keep records for later maintenance
C. Prepare for later renovations or additions
Change in Owner’s scope of work
D. Both A&C

Answer is B
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Q44: which of the following characteristics is not
typical of a project manager?
A. Managing a temporary activity
B. Posses in depth technical knowledge
C. Managing a non-repetitive activity
D. Manages independently of the formal
organization
E. Provides a direct link to the customer

Answer is B
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Q45: The architect of a project visits the site and
notices a very low quality of works in the
application of gypsum board materials
A. Stop the work
B. Call the owner and inform him of this poor
quality of work
C. Tell the dry wall worker about his observations
D. Inform the general contractors superintendent
that the work has been rejected

Answer is A
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Q46: The immediate --------must be completed
before the next activity can start in the project
network
A. Critical activities
B. Burst activities
C. Predecessor activities
D. Successor activities
E. None of the above
F. All of the above

Answer is C
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Q47: What does a change order change?
1. The scope of project
2. The time of completion
3. The cost of project
4. The design of project
5. Any change in the work
Select one
A. 1 & 2
B. 2&3
C. 2,3 & 4
D. 5

Answer is D
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Q48: The municipality wishes to build an exhibition and
convention center. Which location is most
desirable?

A. Near an airport
B. Adjacent to public bus routes
C. Convenient to busy pedestrian routes
D. In a satellite location away from urban
core

Answer is B
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Q49: What is / are the most important components of
sustainability?

A. Economical
B. social
C. Environmental
D. All are equally important

Answer is D
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Q50: Which of the following choices is not one of the
stages of a project life cycle?

A. Concept
B. Initiation
C. Planning
D. Execution
E. Delivery/Closure

Answer is A
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Q51: The activity on node network shown below describes a
project consisting of 8 tasks A-H. Each node indicates
activity duration in weeks. All the relationships are finish to
start. The minimum time to complete the project is:

A. 15 Weeks
B. 16 Weeks
C. 17 weeks
D. 18 weeks
Answer is
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Q52: The critical path in a project network is the:

A. Shortest path through the network

B. Longest path through the network
C. Network path with most difficult
activities
D. Network path using the most resources
E. Network path with most merge activities
F. None of the above

Answer is B
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Q53: Of the following engineering disciplines, who would
be best suited to design and operate an automobile
factory
A. Petroleum Engineer
B. Mechanical Engineer
C. Civil Engineer
D. Chemical Engineer

Answer is B
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Q54: Of the following engineering disciplines, who would
be best suited to design and operate an automobile
factory
A. Petroleum Engineer
B. Mechanical Engineer
C. Civil Engineer
D. Chemical Engineer

Answer is B
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 THANK YOU
ALL THE BEST

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 Exam # 08 Mechanical
(60 Minutes)

Pass Criteria = Assume it

refer to your plan
1
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Question # 01
Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a
perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: D >> All of the above
Question # 02
Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect
gas
(a)Boyle's law
(b)Charles'law
(c)GayLussac law
(d)all of the above
(e)Joule's law. Ans : D >> All of the above
2
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Question # 03
The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine. Ans: D >> Kelvin

Question # 4
The unit of mass in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tone
(d) quintal
(e) newton Ans: A >> Kelvin
3
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Question # 05
Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for generating a
given amount of power
(a) steam power plant
(b) petrol engine
(c) diesel engine
(d) solar plant
(e) gas turbine plant. Ans: E >> Gas Turbine Plant

Question # 06
A simple turbo-jet engine is basically
(a) a propeller system
(b) gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
(c) chemical rocket engine
(d) ram-jet engine
(e) none of the above. Ans: B
4
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Question # 07
For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more advantageous to use
(a) turbo-jet engine
(b) ram-jet engine
(c) propellers
(d) rockets
(e) hydraulic jet propulsion. Ans >> B

Question # 08

In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed by expanding

(a) gases
(b) solids
(c) liquid
(d) plasma
(e) highly heated atmospheric air. Ans >> E

5
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Question # 09
Which variety of steel may be expected to have lowest value of
thermal conductivity?
A. High carbon steel (0.83% C)
B. Low nickel steel (1.37% Ni)
C. Low chromium steel (0.46% Cr)
D. High chromium steel (0.26% Cr)
E. Chromium nickel steel (9% Ni, 18% Cr) >> Ans : E

Question # 10

>> Ans : C
6
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Question # 11
When an activity network is developed by using forward and back
backward pass we can find out :-
A. The longest time period that the project will take
B. The number of total slacks in the network
C. The number of free slacks in the network
D. The earliest and latest time that an activity can finish
E. Only A and B are correct
F. Only A, B, and C are correct
G. A, B, C and D are all correct >> Ans: G

Question # 12
The highest value of thermal conductivity is expected for
A. Solid ice
B. Melting ice
C. Water
D. Boiling water
E. Steam >> Ans: A
7
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Question # 13
Which is not the assumption in Fourier's equation of heat conduction?
A. Homogeneous substance
B. Steady heat flow
C. Constant temperature difference
D. Thermal conductivity independent of temperature
E. Uniform area of cross-section >> Ans: E

Question # 14
The immediate ____________ must be completed before the next
activity can start in the project network :-
A. Critical activities
B. Burst activities
C. Predecessor activities
D. Successor activities
E. None of the above
F. All of the above >> Ans: C
8
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Question # 15
The unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
A. W/m-hr-.K
B. W/m-hr.C
C. W/m.K
D. KJ/m-hr.C
E. KJ/m-hr-.K >> Ans: C

Question # 16
Which insulating material is suitable for low temperature applications?
A. Cork
B. Asbestos paper
C. Diatomaceous earth
D. 85% magnesia
E. Fused alumina bricks >> Ans: C

9
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Question # 17
The thermal conductivity of wood depends upon
A. Density
B. Moisture content
C. Temperature
D. All of the above
E. None of the above >> Ans: D

Question # 18
Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have.
(a)Tow specific heat of liquid
(b)high boiling point
(c)high latent heat of vaporization
(d)higher critical temperature
(e)low specific volume of vapor. >> Ans: E

10
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Question # 19
A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of:
(a)water at 0°C
(b)ice at – 4°C
(c)solid and dry ice
(d)mixture of ice, water and vapor under equilibrium conditions under NTP
conditions
(e)mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions >> Ans: E

Question # 20
Vapor compression refrigeration is somewhat like
(a)Carnot cycle
(b)Rankine cycle
(c)reversed Carnot cycle
(d)reversed Rankine cycle
(e)none of the above. >> Ans: E

11
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Question # 21
Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant
(a)Ericsson
(b)Sterling
(c)Carnot
(d)Bell-coleman
(e)none of the above. >> Ans: D

Question # 22
Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(a)very little work input
(b)maximum work input
(c)nearly same work input as for vapor compression cycle
(d)zero work input
(e)none of the above. >> Ans: A

12
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Question # 23
An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is
(a)noisy operation
(b)quiet operation
(c)cooling below 0°C
(d)very little power consumption
(e)its input only in the form of heating. >> Ans: B
Question # 24
In PERT analysis the time estimates of activities correspond to
A.Normal distribution
B.Poisson distribution
C.𝛃 distribution
D.Binomial distribution >> Ans: C
Question # 25
Which of these is a reason to start a project
A. Problem
B. Market
C. Opportunity
D. All answers are true >> Ans: D
13
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Question # 26

The construction estimate of a project is used by :-

A. The owner of the facility
B. The consulting architect /engineer
C. The contractor of the project
D. All answer are true >> Ans: D

Question # 27

The boiling point of ammonia is

A. -100°C
B. -50°C
C. -33.3°C
D. 0°C
E. 33.3°C. >> Ans: C

14
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 Exam # 09 Mechanical
(60 Minutes)

Pass Criteria = Assume it

refer to your plan
1
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Question # 01
The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as
compared to change in condenser temperature, influences the value
of C.O.P
A. more
B. less
C. equally.
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above. >> Ans: A
Question # 02
The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption
plant when
(A) ammonia vapor goes into solution
(B) ammonia vapor is driven out of solution
(C) lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(D) weak solution mixes with strong solution
(E) lithium bromide is driven out of solution. >> Ans: A
2
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Question # 03

Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point

(A) FREON-12
(B) NH3
(C) C02
(D) FREON-22
(E) S02 >> Ans: D

Question # 4
General conditions and home office overhead are examples of what
type of costs ?
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Both A & B
D. Contingency >> Ans: B

3
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Question # 05

Ans: C

Question # 06

If a project has a CPI of 0.95 and SPI of 1.01 this indicates :-

A. The project progressing slower and cost more than the planned
B. The project progressing slower and cost less than the planned
C. The project progressing faster and cost less than the planned
D. The project progressing faster and cost more than the planned
Ans: D
4
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Question # 07
Temperature of a gas is produced due to
(A) its heating value
(B) kinetic energy of molecules
(C) repulsion of molecules
(D) attraction of molecules
(E) surface tension of molecules. >> Ans: B

Question # 08

According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is

attained when
(A) volume of the gas is zero
(B) pressure of the gas is zero
(C) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(D) specific heat of gas is zero
(E) mass is zero. >> Ans: C
5
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Question # 09
The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
(A) kg/cm2
(B) mm of water column
(C) pascal
(D) dynes per square cm
(E) Bars >> Ans: C

Question # 10
A closed system is one in which
(A) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do
so
(B) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(C) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(D) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(E) thermodynamic reactions take place. >> Ans: A
6
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Question # 11
Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could
be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(A) 02, N2, steam, C02
(B) Oz, N2, water vapour
(C) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(D) 02, N2, H2, air
(E) steam vapours, H2, C02. >> Ans: D

Question # 12
General gas equation is
(A) PV=nRT
(B) PV=mRT
(C) PV = C
(D) PV=KiRT
(E) CpCv = Wj >> Ans: B
7
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Question # 13
The main purpose of reheating in gas turbine is to
(A) increase temperature
(B) reduce turbine size
(C) increase power output
(D) increase speed
(E) increase pressure ratio. >> Ans: C

Question # 14
In the forward pass in a project network calculations determines -
Select one :-
A. Earliest times an activity can begin
B. Earliest time an activity can be finished
C. The longest time that the project can take
D. Critical path of the project
E. Only A & B are correct
F. A, B & C are all correct >> Ans: A
8
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Question # 15
The process of identifying and evaluating contractors for a bid list is
called _______ Select one :-
A. Prequalification
B. Forecasting
C. Fast tracking
D. Non of the above >> Ans: A

Question # 16
Reheating in multistage expansion gas turbine results in
(A) high thermal efficiency
(B) reduction in compressor work
(C) decrease of heat loss in exhaust
(D) maximum work output
(E) none of the above. >> Ans: D

9
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Question # 17
The compression ratio in a gas turbine is of the order of
(A) 3.5 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 8 : 1
(D) 12 : 1
(E) 20 : 1. >> Ans: C

Question # 18

The working fluid in air turbine is

(A) in two phases
(B) in three phases
(C) in a single phase
(D) in the form of air and water mixture
(E) gas and no air. >> Ans: C

10
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Question # 19
Final as built drawings are submitted to_____ ?
A. Give the architect more work
B. Keep records for later maintenance
C. Prepare for later renovations or additions
D. Both A & C >> Ans: B

Question # 20

In order to convert from metric system {cm}, to imperial system {Inch}

what should you do ?
A. Multiply by 2.45
B. Multiply by 2.55
C. Divided by 2.54
D. Divided by 2.44 >> Ans: C

11
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Question # 21
In jet engines the compression ratio
(A) varies as square root of the speed
(B) Varies linearly to the speed
(C) varies as square of the speed
(D) varies as cube of the speed
(E) is constant irrespective of variation in speed. >> Ans: C

Question # 22
In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum
(A) 2-stroke engine
(B) 4-stroke petrol engine
(C) 4-stroke diesel engine
(D) multi-cylinder engine
(E) gas turbine. >> Ans: E

12
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Question # 23
The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
(A) 7 : 1
(B)15 : 1
(C) 30 : 1
(D) 40 : 1
(E) 50: 1. >> Ans: E
Question # 24
The following property is most important for material used for gas turbine blade
(A) toughness
(B) fatigue
(C) creep
(D) corrosion resistance
(E) bulk modulus. >> Ans: C
Question # 25
Fighter bombers use following type of engine
(A) turbo-jet
(B) turbo-propeller
(C) rocket
(D) ram-jet ,
(E) pulsejet. >> Ans: A
13
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Question # 26
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a characteristic of a project ?
A. An established objective
B. A clear beginning and end
C. Complex tasks
D. Only for internal use
E. Never been done before >> Ans: D

Question # 27
Which liquid metal is supposed to be the best conductor
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Zinc
D. Sodium
E. Potassium >> Ans: D

14
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 Exam # 10 Mechanical
(60 Minutes)

Pass Criteria = Assume it

refer to your plan
1
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Question # 01
The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
(A) high sensible heat
(B) high total heat
(C) high latent heat
(D) low latent heat
(E) low sensible heat >> Ans: C

Question # 02

Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

(A) above which liquid will remain liquid
(B) above which liquid becomes gas
(C) above which liquid becomes vapor
(D) above which liquid becomes solid(e)at which all the three phases exist
together. >> Ans: A

2
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Question # 03

Which sample of concrete may be expected to have highest value

of thermal conductivity
A. Dry concrete
B. Dry concrete having 0.4% reinforcement
C. Concrete having 10% moisture by volume
D. Concrete having 10% moisture by volume and 0.4% reinforcement
E. Concrete having 10% moisture by volume and 0.6% reinforcement
>> Ans: E

Question # 4
The value of Prandtl number for air is of the order of
A. 1000
B. 67
C. 9.7
D. 0.7
E. 0.065 >> Ans: D
3
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Question # 05

Ans: B

Question # 06

Ans: A

4
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Question # 07
An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
(A) more volume
(B) less volume
(C) same volume
(D) unpredictable behavior
(E) no such correlation. >> Ans: A
Question # 08
According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure
of given mass varies directly as
(A) temperature
(B) absolute
(C) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(D) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(E) remains constant, if volume and temperature are kept constant.
>> Ans: C
5
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Question # 09
The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(A) watt
(B) joule
(C) joule/s
(D) joule/m
(E) joule m.. >> Ans: B

Question # 10
Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a
perfect gas
(A) pressure
(B) temperature
(C) volume
(D) all of the above
(E) atomic mass. >> Ans: D

6
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Question # 11
Gas turbine cycle with regenerator
(A) increases thermal efficiency
(B) allows high compression ratio
(C) decreases heat loss is exhaust
(D) allows operation at very high altitudes
(E) permits high moisture content fuel to be used. >> Ans: A

Question # 12

The numerical value of which property of air generally drops with

rising temperature
A. Density
B. Dynamic viscosity
C. Kinematic viscosity
D. Thermal conductivity
E. Thermal diffusivity >> Ans: A

7
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Question # 13
Which one of the following is added during the final stage of
production of Portland cement ?
A. Silica
B. Alumina
C. Calcium sulfate
D. None >> Ans: C

Question # 14

Critical temperature is’ the temperature above which

(A) a gas will never liquify
(B) a gas will immediately liquify
(C) water will evaporate
(D) water will never evaporate(e)none of the above. >> Ans: A

8
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Question # 15
The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
(A) evaporator
(B) safety relief valve
(C) dehumidifier
(D) driers
(E) expansion valve >> Ans: C

Question # 16
The boiling point of ammonia is
(a)-100°C
(b)-50°C
(c)– 33.3°C
(d)0°C
(e)33.3°C. >> Ans: C

9
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Question # 17
In an Automobile factory who is the best person to inspect
A) Petroleum Engineer
B) Mechanical Engineer
C) chemical Engineer
D) Civil Engineer. >> Ans: B

Question # 18

On Work breakdown structure relative to project which of the

following statements are false ?
A) Breaks up the project in a " top-down " .
B) It breaks down the draft as "down -top "
C) Used to handle large projects.
D) Indicates the Work package Manager >> Ans: C

10
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Question # 19
In which case the value of thermal conductivity drops with rising
temperature
A. Methane
B. Benzene
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Ammonia
E. None of the above >> Ans: E

Question # 20

The highest element in the hierarchical breakdown structure of the

WBS is :
A. Work package
B. Sub deliverables
C. Cost account
D. Major deliverables
E. The project >> Ans: D
11
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Question # 21
The unit of length in S.I. units is
(A) meter
(B) centimeter
(C) kilometer
(D) millimeter. >> Ans: A

Question # 22
Reheating in gas turbine results in
(A) increase of work ratio
(B) decrease of thermal efficiency
(C) decrease of work ratio
(D) both (a) and (b) above
(E) both (b) and (c) above. >> Ans: D

12
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Question # 23
What is the primary use of fast track scheduling ?
A. To decrease the cost of construction
B. To decrease the cost of professional services
C. To avoid future cost increases
D. To guarantee costs prior to the start of building >> Ans: B
Question # 24
Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles'law
(C) GayLussac law
(D) all of the above
(E) Joule's law.>> Ans: D
Question # 25

>> Ans: B 13
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Question # 26
The value of thermal conductivity of water at room temperature is expected to be
A. 0.001 kcal/m-hr-C
B. 0.05 kcal/m-hr-C
C. 0.5 kcal/m-hr-C
D.1.0 kcal/m-hr-C
E. 1.5 kcal/m-hr-C >> Ans: C

Question # 27
Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature is approximately
A. 0.002 kcal/m-hr-C
B. 0.02 kcal/m-hr-C
C. 0.2 kcal/m-hr-C
D. 2.0 kcal/m-hr-C
E. 20.0 kcal/m-hr-C >> Ans: B

14
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MOST REPETITIVE QUESTIONS IN THE EXAMS.
NOTE: NOT ALL ANSWERS ARE CORRECT DOUBLE CHECK
AND SHARE THE INFO
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Mechanical:5

1)Inacertainsystem2530gpmof83°Fcondenserwateraresuppliedtoan840tonchilerforheat
rejectionandarereturnedtothecoolingtowerat92°F.Thecoefficientfoperformance(COP)of
thechilerismostnearly.

a)4

b)5

c)6

d)8

2) Steelispreferredasreinforcingmaterialinconcretebecause

a)Itiseasilyavailable

b)Itisthecheapestandgoodinstrength

c)Thecoefficientofthermalexpansionofsteelandconcretearealmostthesame

d)Itformsagoodbond

3) An air distribution system is being designed for a buffet style restaurant. The solar load on the wals
and windows and windows is 50000Btu/hr and internal lighting loads are 20KW.People contribute
30000Btu/hr of sensible heat and 40000Btu/hr of latent and the buffet steam tables contribute
105000Btu/hr. The air handling equipment should be selected based upon a sensible load of most
nearly

a)100000Btu/hr

b)150000Btu/hr

c)190000Btu/hr

d)250000Btu/hr

4) How many decibles are required to ensure that audible private mode signals are clearly heard for at
leas t60 seconds?

a)24dBaboveambientsoundand12dBabovemaximumsoundlevel
 b)60dBaboveambientsoundand30dBabovemaximumsoundlevel

c)10dBaboveambientsoundand5dBabovemaximumsoundlevel

d)40dBaboveambientsoundand20dBabovemaximumsoundlevel

5) Whensteelpipeisdesignatedas“schedule40”theschedulenumberreferstothe

a)Maximumalowablecontinuousvelocityneededtoavoidexcessiveerosion

b)Ratioofservicepressuretoalowablestress

c)Absoluteinteriorpiperoughnessinthousandthsofaninch

d)Brinelhardnessnmberofthepipe

6)Whichofthefolowingisanacceptableexcusefordelayornon-performaceofacontract?

a)Strikesandlabortroubles

b)Inabilitytoobtainpermitorlicense

c)Hardshipandinconvenience

d)Failureofcondition

7) Below is a schematic diagram of the compressor of an aircraft gas turbine. A portion of the airthat
Enter sat state 1is extractedtstate2,cooled nd then expanded in a turbine to be use for cabin
pressurization.The balance of the air leave sat state3.Known properties(stagnation pressuresand
temperatures)and other data given with the diagram.Th power(hp) required to drive the
compressori s:

a)370
 b)15900

c)16500

d)22100

8) EnvironmentfriendlyrefridgerantR134aisusedinthenewgenerationdomesticrefrigerators.Its
chemicalformulais

a)CHClF2

b)C2cl3F3

c)C2cl2F4

d)C2H2F4

9) Thecondenserwatertemperatureleavingacoolingtoweris95°F.Thetowerrangeandapproach
temperaturesare12°Fand8°Frespectively.Thedesignwet-bulbtemperatureismostnearly

a)91°F

b)87°F

c)83°F

d)75°F

10)Itisadeviceinstaledinsystemswithacapacitygreaterthan7080L/sec(15000feetcubeper
minute)toisolatetheair-handlingequipmentfiltersfromtheremainderofthesystemonboththe
buildingsuppleandreturnsides?

a)Stackdampers

b)Splitterdampers

c)Smokedampers

d)Noneofthese

11)Whichoftheestimateslistedwouldoccurlastinaprojecttimeline

a)Roughorderofmagnitude

b)Squarefootestimate

c)Bidestimate
 d)Assembliesestimate

12)Afluidisasubstancethat

a)Isessentialyincompressible

b)Alwaysmoveswhensubjectedtoashearingstress

c)Hasaviscositythatalwaysincreaseswithtemperature

d)Hasaviscositythatalwaysdecreaseswithtemperature

e)Expandsuntilitfilsitsspace

13)Ifanobjectfloatingonaliquidsurface.Theverticalforceactingonitduetoliquidpressureiscaled

a)Shearforce

b)Gravityforce

c)Buoyancyforce

d)Noneoftheabove

14)A fan that has served an auditorium for a number of years has these characteristics

Airflow:35000ft³/min

Totalpressure:2.0inwg

Speed:1050rpm

Brakehorsepower:16.2hp

The building facilities manager plans to install more filters to improve indoor air quality.The new
filtration system wi increase the system static pressure by 1.5iwg.To maintain the existing air
folow,the new fan speed must be most nearly:p2/p1=(n2/n1)²

a)1900rpm

b)1400rpm

c)1100rpm

d)1800rpm
15)What you should provide ina lair transfer openings in partitions that are required to have a fire
resistance rating and in which other openings are required to be protected?

a)Approvedventilationsystem

b)Approvedsmokedamper

c)Approvedextractfans

d)Approvedfiredamper

16)HowoftenshalatestfrequencybedoneonaudiblealarmsystemasperNFPA72?

a)Monthly

b)Quarterly

c)Semiannualy

d)Annualy

17)Foursteelrodseachwithacross-sectionalareaof1in²areembeddedina5-indiameterlight
aggregateconcretecylinder/thesteelhasyieldstrengthof36000psiandamodulusofelasticityof
30×10³×10³psi.Theconcretehasacompressivestrengthof3100psiandamodulusofelasticity
of3×10³×10³psi.Assume

Averystronginterfacebetweenthesteelandtheconcretercausesthemtoexperienceidentical
deflections.Arigidplateisplacedoverbothendsofthecylinder.Andacompressiveaxialforceof
100000lbisapplied.Thestress(psi)inducedinthesteelrodsis.

a)100

b)600

18)Thevelocitydistributioninaturbulentpipeflowisoftenassumedto
 a)Varyparabolicaly

b)Bezeroatthewalandincreaseslinearlytothecenter

c)Variesaccordingtothe1/7thpowerlaw.

d)Beunpredictableandisthusnotsed.

e)Bemaximumatthewalanddecreaseslinearlytothecenter

19)Forfilm-wisecondensationonaverticalplane,thefilmthicknessδandheattransfercoefficienth
varywithdistancexfromtheleadingedgeas

a)δDecreases,hincreases

b)Bothδandhincrease

c)δIncreases,hdecreases

d)Bothδandhdecrease

20)Flowthroughasuddencontractioninapipe

a)Isusualylaminar

b)Resultsinsignificantenergyloss

c)CanbeanalyzedusingBernouliequation

d)Hasarelativelysmallosscoefficient

21)Ifalinebetweentwopointsmeasures7¼”onamapwhosescaleis1:62,500,howmanymilesapart
arethetwopointsontheground?

a)7.15

b)7.25

c)6.90

d)11.43

22)Thefinalstepinthedestinationofaworkbreakdownstructureisto

a)Assigncodesforeachactivityoftheworkpackage

b)Assignthecostaccounttoamanager
 c)Assigntheworkpackagetoamanager

d)Developtheresponsibilitymatrix

e)Noneoftheseareincludedinthefinalstep

23)The moody diagram is sketched.the friction factor for turbulent flow in a smooth pipe is given by
curve

a)A

b)B

c)C

d)D

e)E

24)In HVAC unit is equaly supported on four spring vibration isolators as shown.The operating weight o f
the unit is 9500lb.for the vibration isolators to have a deflection of less then 0.5in.,the required spring
constant(lb/in) is most nearly w=δST.KX

a)4750
 b)9500

c)19000

d)23750

25)Minorlossesinapipingsystemare

a)Lessthanthefrictionfactorlosses

b)Duetotheviscousstresses

c)Assumedtovarylinearlywithvelocity

d)Obtainedbysinglosscoefficients

e)Independentoftheflowrate

f)
1. The chassis of a car is made of:

Select one:

2. A Space is maintained at 750F db/50% rh. The return air has a sensible heat load of 100,000
Btu/hr and a latent heat load of 40,000 Btu/hr. Total outdoor air load is 80,000 Btu/hr. The air
supplied to the space is 55o F db/90% rh. Neglect the fan heat and heat gain from the duct
system. With a temperature rise of chilled water across the cooling coil of 12oF, the rate of water
flow (gpm) is most nearly:

Select one:

3. A motorcycle is equipped with a disc brake system consisting of a single-circuit master

cylinder and caliper as shown. The caliper piston has a diameter of 30 mm. The master cylinder
has a diameter of 20 mm, A reaction force, R, of 200 N is required at the caliper. The input force
F (N) required at the master cylinder is:

Select One:
Select One:

4. The rate of deformation of the fluid depends of its:

Select one:

5. A Fluid flow through a tube at a rate of 3 x10-5 ft 3/sec. the tube is 3.4 long and has an internal
diameter of 0.018 in. The flow is viscous of 26.37 x 10 -6 Ibf-sec/ft2, incompressible, steady and
laminar. The predicted pressure drop across the length of the tube is most nearly:

Useful relationship: ∆p = (128µVL)/nd4

Select one:
6. The heat transfer coefficient for forced convection is

Select One:

7. The turbine efficiency from State 1 to State 2 is:

Select one:

8. The most important end state of project initiation is:

Select One:
9. A refrigerator system with a capacity of 1 refrigeration ton (200 Btu/min) has a compressor
work of 1Kw. The coefficient of performance of the system is most nearly.

COP refrigerator = Qabsorbed/ wcompression, 1 W = 3.41Btu/hr

Select one:

10. Fins are made as thin as possible to

Select one

11. Heat transfer due to convection can be determined if we know the temperature difference,
fluid properties, the geometry, and the
12. Design/Build means that __________________

Select one:

13. The Reynolds number is the ratio of:

Select one:

14. The flow water in a 10-in Schedule 40 pipe is to be metered. The temperature of the water is
100oF, and the static pressure upstream of the meter is 20 psig, The density of the water is 62
Ibm/ft3, Assume the flow meter is a square-edged orifice with a diameter ratio of 0.5 . When the
flow rate is 1,200 gpm and the flow coefficient is 0.5. the pressure drop across the orifice
(ibf/in2) is Pipe ID = 10.002 in.

Select one:
15. Pressure inside a pipe is 1 psi. What is the pressure head in ft. of water?

1 psi = 144 psf, density of water = 62.4 pcf

16. Splitting project into tasks and estimate time and resources required to complete each task is
called:

17. According to Brundtland Report (WCED, 1987) defining the main attributes of †‫ݣ‬
Sustainability and sustainable Developmentâ€, what are the three main pillars of sustainable
development?

Select One:

18. Construction work should begin:

Select One;
19. A refrigeration system using R-134a refrigerant operates at 33 psia on the low-pressure side.
The 255 ton system delivers refrigerant vapor with 20 oF superheat to the compressor. If the
refrigerant on the high-pressure side is cooled to saturate liquid before expansion, the required
refrigerant mass flow rate is most nearly.

Useful relationship: mrefigerant= q refrigeration/ (hleaving – hentering)

Select one:

20. Environment friendly refrigerant R 134 is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators,
its chemical formula is

Select one:

21. An expansion tank is necessity in a chilled water cooling network because

Select one:
22. Which of the following is an extensive property?

23. Water is boiling in an open pan, during the process :

Select one:

24. A Fluid with a specific gravity of 0.8 and a kinematic viscosity of 1.5 centistokes (I
centistokes = 1.0764 x 10-5ft2/sec) flows through a 4-in,- 1.D hose at 5 fps. The Reynolds
number for this flow is most nearly:

Select one:

25. Define “LIFE SAFETY BRANCH is a subsystem of the emergency”

1. A centrifugal pump is sized to deliver 200 gpm at a head of 60ft of water. It is
operating at 1,750 rpm. The pump efficiency 75%. When the speed of the pump has
been reduced to 1,000 rpm, the head (ft of water) is:

Select one:

2. When the temperature of a solid increases:

Select one:

3. A single-row ball bearing is subjected to a radial rod of 75 lb (with no arial load), has
a rated life of 180,000 min and a rated speed of 500 rpm. The allowable radial load
(lb) of the bearing when rotating at 10rad/sec with a design life of 268,000 min is:

Select one:

4. The change in thermodynamic availability is equal to: T Δ S

Select one:

5. The spring is made from 0.1 0.55 in.- diameter wire. If the spring has a free length of
3 in., a spring constant of 20 lb/in., and 10 total cost (ground and squared ends) the
force (lb) required to fully compress the spring is:

Select one:
6. Which of the following is not an acceptable excuse for delay or non-performance of a
contract?

Select one:

7. A 350-in3 –displacement V8 engine delivers 200 hp while running at 4,200 rpm. At

these conditions the brake-specific fuel consumption and the engine friction power is
50 hp. Fuel density is 42.8 lbm/ft 3. The fuel consumption (gpm) is:

Select one:

8. When most air passes through a bed of silica gel, the

Select one:

9. During an isentropic process, which one of the following is true?

Select one:
10. The term fast track means:

Select one:

11. Steam at 900,000 lbm/hr exists a low-pressure steam turbine at 2.0 psia with 7 %
moisture content and a velocity of 300 fps. The required cross – sectional area (ft 2) is:

Select one:

12. How often shall test frequency be one on visible appliance as per NFPA 72?

Select one:

13. Design experiments specify that a cell phone’s plastic shell must survive a fall into
concrete. Static compressions 0.005 in. deflection. If a factor of safety of 6 is used,
what is most nearly the maximum allowable phone weight?

Select one:

14. The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is:

Select one:
15. Assume an engine operates on an open ideal air-standard Brayton cycle. Air enters the
compressor at 14.7 psia and 80°F. The pressure ratio is 6.5.1 and leaves the
combustor at 1,550°F. The combustor heat addition (Btu/lbm) is:

Select one:

16. Stress can be defined as:

Select one:
17. Pipes arranged in parallel means:

Select one:

18. The main object of Morse test is to find out:

Select one:

19. In the design of a refrigeration system, care should be taken to pitch the compressor
discharge piping downward from the compressor, in order to :

Select one:

20. The municipality wishes to build an exhibition and convention center. Which location
is most desirable?

Select one:

21. The existing 2000 ton chiller at a large hospital must be replaced. The type most
likely to be installed is :

Select one:
22. Freon flows an expansive valve. Select the best statement:

Select one:

23. In welding, the following is used to prevent oxidation of molten metal:

Select one:

24. The 2,500-1bf load shown in the figure is supported by a beam that is secured by six
3/4 in. – diameter bolts in a hexagonal array with with neighboring bolts 3 in apart.
The shear stress is greatest in which bolt?

Select one:
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32 SEC

PARRALEL AND
NEAR LINEAR
1.4 FT3/SEC
writing book
fire damper
ANOTHER EXAMS ONLINE QUESTIONS
ALL BELOW ANSWERS SHOULD BE CHECKED
NFPA IMPORTANT REFERENCE ALWAYS ONE QUESTION COMING
FROM THESE